Virginia Law

Article 6. General Standards of Practice.

A. No physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy in the Commonwealth shall:

1. Knowingly and willfully, directly or indirectly, share any professional fee received for the provision of health services, as defined in § 54.1-2410, to a patient with another physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy in the Commonwealth in return for such other physician's making a referral, as defined in § 54.1-2410, of such patient to the physician providing such health services; or

2. Accept any portion of a professional fee paid to another physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy in the Commonwealth for the provision of health services, as defined in § 54.1-2410, to a patient in return for making a referral, as defined in § 54.1-2410, of such patient to the physician providing such health services.

B. This chapter shall not be construed as prohibiting (i) the members of any regularly organized partnership or group practice, as defined in § 54.1-2410, of physicians licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy in the Commonwealth from making any division of their total fees among themselves as they may determine or using their joint fees to defray their joint operating costs; (ii) arrangements permitted under the Practitioner Self-Referral Act (§ 54.1-2410 et seq.); or (iii) payments, business arrangements, or payment practices that would be permitted in accordance with 42 U.S.C. § 1320a-7b(b)(3) if such payments, business arrangements, or payment practices involved an underlying payment source that was a federal health care program, as defined in 42 U.S.C. § 1320a-7b(f), regardless of whether the underlying payment source actually is a federal health care program or other bona fide payment source.

C. Any person violating the provisions of this section is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

Code 1950, § 54-278; 1956, c. 389; 1988, c. 765; 2016, cc. 76, 104.

A. No practitioner licensed in accordance with the provisions of this chapter shall charge a fee for anatomic pathology services that is greater than the amount billed to the practitioner for the actual performance of such anatomic pathology services when such services are (i) performed by a person other than the practitioner or (ii) performed by a person not under the supervision of the practitioner.

B. A practitioner may charge a fee for specimen collection and transportation, provided the fee conforms to the current procedural terminology codes for procedures and services of the American Medical Association and the patient is made aware of the fee in writing prior to collection. For the purposes of this section, "anatomic pathology services" include the gross or microscopic examination and histological processing of human organ tissue; the examination of human cells from fluids, aspirates, washings, brushings, or smears; or other subcellular or molecular pathology services.

2014, c. 81.

No practitioner of the healing arts shall knowingly and willfully solicit or receive any remuneration directly or indirectly, in cash or in kind, in return for referring an individual or individuals to a facility or institution as defined in § 37.2-100 or a hospital as defined in § 32.1-123. The Board shall adopt regulations as necessary to carry out the provisions of this section. Such regulations shall exclude from the definition of "remuneration" any payments, business arrangements, or payment practices not prohibited by Title 42, Section 1320a-7b (b) of the United States Code, as amended, or any regulations promulgated pursuant thereto.

1990, c. 379.

A. Any physician-patient relationship that may be created by virtue of an on-call physician or his agent evaluating or treating a patient in the emergency department of a corporation, facility or institution licensed or owned or operated by the Commonwealth to provide health care shall be deemed terminated without further notice upon the discharge of the patient from the emergency department or if the patient is admitted to the corporation, facility or institution, his discharge therefrom, and after completion of follow-up as prescribed by the physician, unless the physician and the patient affirmatively elect to continue the physician-patient relationship.

B. Nothing in this section shall relieve a physician of his post-discharge duties required to satisfy the standard of care pursuant to § 8.01-581.20.

2004, c. 878.

The Board shall have authority to promulgate regulations regulating the sale of vitamins or food supplements by any practitioner of the healing arts from the office in which he practices.

1984, c. 325, § 54-278.2; 1988, c. 765.

Any physician shall have the authority to disclose fully all medical treatment options to patients whether or not such treatment options are (i) experimental or covered services, (ii) services that the health insurer will not authorize, or (iii) the costs of the treatment will be borne by the health insurer or the patient to facilitate an informed decision by the patient, if the physician determines that such an option is in the best interest of the patient. Any physician who discloses information concerning other medical treatment options to a person with whom he has established a physician-patient relationship shall not be liable to any health insurer, in an action instituted solely on behalf of the health insurer, for any civil damages resulting from the disclosure of such information. This section shall not affect any cause of action a patient may have against a physician.

For the purposes of this section, "medical treatment options" means any alternative or experimental therapeutic, psychiatric, medical treatment or procedure, health care service, drug, or remedy.

2004, c. 675.

A. Any practitioner of the healing arts shall, prior to referral of a patient to any facility or entity engaged in the provision of health-related services, appliances or devices, including but not limited to physical therapy, hearing testing, or sale or fitting of hearing aids or eyeglasses provide the patient with a notice in bold print that discloses any known material financial interest of or ownership by the practitioner in such facility or entity and states that the services, appliances or devices may be available from other suppliers in the community. In making any such referral, the practitioner of the healing arts may render such recommendations as he considers appropriate, but shall advise the patient of his freedom of choice in the selection of such facility or entity. This section shall not be construed to permit any of the practices prohibited in § 54.1-2914 or Chapter 24.1 (§ 54.1-2410 et seq.) of this title.

In addition, any practitioner of the healing arts shall, prior to ordering any medical test from an independent clinical laboratory for a patient, provide the patient with notice in bold print that discloses any known material financial interest or ownership by the practitioner in such laboratory unless the independent clinical laboratory is operated by a publicly held corporation. The practitioner shall inform the patient about the accreditation status and credentials of the laboratory.

B. The Attorney General, an attorney of the Commonwealth, the attorney for a city, county or town, or any aggrieved patient may cause an action to be brought in the appropriate circuit court in the name of the Commonwealth, of the county, city or town, or of any aggrieved patient, to enjoin any violation of this section. The circuit court having jurisdiction may enjoin such violations, notwithstanding the existence of an adequate remedy at law. When an injunction is issued, the circuit court may impose a civil fine to be paid to the Literary Fund not to exceed $1,000. In any action under this section, it shall not be necessary that damages be proven.

1986, c. 348, § 54-278.3; 1988, cc. 765, 874; 1989, c. 282; 1993, c. 869.

Repealed by Acts 1991, c. 643.

A. Any physician who, in good faith, reports the existence, or probable existence, of a mental or physical disability or infirmity in any person licensed or certificated to operate any type of aircraft, or any applicant for a license or certificate to operate any type of aircraft, to a governmental agency which is responsible for issuing, renewing, revoking or suspending such licenses or certificates, or which is responsible for air safety, which the physician believes will or reasonably could affect such person's ability to safely operate the aircraft he is licensed or certificated, or is seeking to be licensed or certificated, to operate shall not be liable for any civil damages resulting from such reporting, regardless of whether such person is, or has been, a patient of such physician, except when such reporting was done with malice.

B. Notwithstanding any provision of § 8.01-399, any physician may testify in any administrative hearing or other proceeding regarding the issuance, renewal, revocation or suspension of any license or certificate to pilot an aircraft of any person, regardless of whether such person is, or has been, a patient of such physician, giving evidence of the existence or probable existence, of a mental or physical disability or infirmity.

1978, c. 561, § 54-276.9:1; 1988, c. 765.

Repealed by Acts 2017, cc. 712 and 720, cl. 2.

Any physician or other person who renders any medical aid or treatment to any person for any wound which such physician or other person knows or has reason to believe is a wound inflicted by a weapon specified in § 18.2-308 and which wound such physician or other person believes or has reason to believe was not self-inflicted shall as soon as practicable report such fact, including the wounded person's name and address, if known, to the sheriff or chief of police of the county or city in which treatment is rendered. If such medical aid or treatment is rendered in a hospital or similar institution, such physician or other person rendering such medical aid or treatment shall immediately notify the person in charge of such hospital or similar institution, who shall make such report forthwith.

Any physician or other person failing to comply with this section shall be guilty of a Class 3 misdemeanor. Any person participating in the making of a report pursuant to this section or participating in a judicial proceeding resulting therefrom shall be immune from any civil liability in connection therewith, unless it is proved that such person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

1970, c. 531, § 54-276.10; 1972, c. 194; 1975, c. 508; 1976, c. 331; 1979, c. 715; 1988, c. 765.

This chapter shall not be construed to prohibit any duly licensed physician from communicating the identity of any person under age 22 who has a physical or mental disability to appropriate agencies of the Commonwealth or any of its political subdivisions and other information regarding such person or condition which may be helpful to the agency in the planning or conduct of services for individuals with disabilities.

1972, c. 431, § 54-276.11; 1988, c. 765; 2023, cc. 148, 149.

A. Whenever any minor who has been separated from the custody of his parent or guardian is in need of surgical or medical treatment, authority commensurate with that of a parent in like cases is conferred, for the purpose of giving consent to such surgical or medical treatment, as follows:

1. Upon judges with respect to minors whose custody is within the control of their respective courts.

2. Upon local directors of social services or their designees with respect to (i) minors who are committed to the care and custody of the local board by courts of competent jurisdiction, (ii) minors who are taken into custody pursuant to § 63.2-1517, and (iii) minors who are entrusted to the local board by the parent, parents or guardian, when the consent of the parent or guardian cannot be obtained immediately and, in the absence of such consent, a court order for such treatment cannot be obtained immediately.

3. Upon the Director of the Department of Corrections or the Director of the Department of Juvenile Justice or his designees with respect to any minor who is sentenced or committed to his custody.

4. Upon the principal executive officers of state institutions with respect to the wards of such institutions.

5. Upon the principal executive officer of any other institution or agency legally qualified to receive minors for care and maintenance separated from their parents or guardians, with respect to any minor whose custody is within the control of such institution or agency.

6. Upon any person standing in loco parentis, or upon a conservator or custodian for his ward or other charge under disability.

B. Whenever the consent of the parent or guardian of any minor who is in need of surgical or medical treatment is unobtainable because such parent or guardian is not a resident of the Commonwealth or his whereabouts is unknown or he cannot be consulted with promptness reasonable under the circumstances, authority commensurate with that of a parent in like cases is conferred, for the purpose of giving consent to such surgical or medical treatment, upon judges of juvenile and domestic relations district courts.

C. Whenever delay in providing medical or surgical treatment to a minor may adversely affect such minor's recovery and no person authorized in this section to consent to such treatment for such minor is available within a reasonable time under the circumstances, no liability shall be imposed upon qualified emergency medical services personnel as defined in § 32.1-111.1 at the scene of an accident, fire or other emergency, a licensed health professional, or a licensed hospital by reason of lack of consent to such medical or surgical treatment. However, in the case of a minor 14 years of age or older who is physically capable of giving consent, such consent shall be obtained first.

D. Whenever delay in providing transportation to a minor from the scene of an accident, fire or other emergency prior to hospital admission may adversely affect such minor's recovery and no person authorized in this section to consent to such transportation for such minor is available within a reasonable time under the circumstances, no liability shall be imposed upon emergency medical services personnel as defined in § 32.1-111.1, by reason of lack of consent to such transportation. However, in the case of a minor 14 years of age or older who is physically capable of giving consent, such consent shall be obtained first.

E. A minor shall be deemed an adult for the purpose of consenting to:

1. Medical or health services needed to determine the presence of or to treat venereal disease or any infectious or contagious disease that the State Board of Health requires to be reported;

2. Medical or health services required in case of birth control, pregnancy or family planning except for the purposes of sexual sterilization;

3. Medical or health services needed in the case of outpatient care, treatment or rehabilitation for substance abuse as defined in § 37.2-100; or

4. Medical or health services needed in the case of outpatient care, treatment or rehabilitation for mental illness or emotional disturbance.

A minor shall also be deemed an adult for the purpose of accessing or authorizing the disclosure of medical records related to subdivisions 1 through 4.

F. Except for the purposes of sexual sterilization, any minor who is or has been married shall be deemed an adult for the purpose of giving consent to surgical and medical treatment.

G. A pregnant minor shall be deemed an adult for the sole purpose of giving consent for herself and her child to surgical and medical treatment relating to the delivery of her child when such surgical or medical treatment is provided during the delivery of the child or the duration of the hospital admission for such delivery; thereafter, the minor mother of such child shall also be deemed an adult for the purpose of giving consent to surgical and medical treatment for her child.

H. Any minor 16 years of age or older may, with the consent of a parent or legal guardian, consent to donate blood and may donate blood if such minor meets donor eligibility requirements. However, parental consent to donate blood by any minor 17 years of age shall not be required if such minor receives no consideration for his blood donation and the procurer of the blood is a nonprofit, voluntary organization.

I. Any judge, local director of social services, Director of the Department of Corrections, Director of the Department of Juvenile Justice, or principal executive officer of any state or other institution or agency who consents to surgical or medical treatment of a minor in accordance with this section shall make a reasonable effort to notify the minor's parent or guardian of such action as soon as practicable.

J. Nothing in subsection G shall be construed to permit a minor to consent to an abortion without complying with § 16.1-241.

K. Nothing in subsection E shall prevent a parent, legal guardian or person standing in loco parentis from obtaining (i) the results of a minor's nondiagnostic drug test when the minor is not receiving care, treatment or rehabilitation for substance abuse as defined in § 37.2-100 or (ii) a minor's other health records, except when the minor's treating physician, clinical psychologist, clinical social worker, or licensed professional counselor has determined, in the exercise of his professional judgment, that the disclosure of health records to the parent, legal guardian, or person standing in loco parentis would be reasonably likely to cause substantial harm to the minor or another person pursuant to subsection B of § 20-124.6.

Code 1950, § 32-137; 1968, c. 71; 1970, c. 232, § 54-325.2; 1971, Ex. Sess., c. 183; 1972, cc. 323, 823; 1973, c. 337; 1974, cc. 44, 45, 639; 1977, cc. 523, 525; 1978, cc. 10, 401; 1979, c. 720; 1981, cc. 22, 454, 573; 1984, c. 72; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 733; 1999, c. 1001; 2000, c. 798; 2002, cc. 315, 747; 2005, cc. 181, 227; 2008, c. 330; 2020, c. 945; 2022, c. 509.

When a delay in treatment might adversely affect recovery, a licensed health professional or licensed hospital shall not be subject to liability arising out of a claim based on lack of informed consent or be prohibited from providing surgical, medical or dental treatment to an individual who is receiving service in a facility operated by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services or who is receiving case management services from a community services board or behavioral health authority and who is incapable of giving informed consent to the treatment by reason of mental illness or intellectual disability under the following conditions:

1. No legally authorized guardian or committee was available to give consent;

2. A reasonable effort is made to advise a parent or other next of kin of the need for the surgical, medical or dental treatment;

3. No reasonable objection is raised by or on behalf of the alleged incapacitated person; and

4. Two physicians, or in the case of dental treatment, two dentists or one dentist and one physician, state in writing that they have made a good faith effort to explain the necessary treatment to the individual, and they have probable cause to believe that the individual is incapacitated and unable to consent to the treatment by reason of mental illness or intellectual disability and that delay in treatment might adversely affect recovery.

The provisions of this section shall apply only to the treatment of physical injury or illness and not to any treatment for a mental, emotional or psychological condition.

Treatment pursuant to this section of an individual's mental, emotional or psychological condition when the individual is unable to make an informed decision and when no legally authorized guardian or committee is available to provide consent shall be governed by regulations adopted by the State Board of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services under § 37.2-400.

Code 1950, § 32-137.01; 1979, c. 212, § 54-325.2:1; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 591; 1997, c. 801; 2002, c. 80; 2009, cc. 813, 840; 2012, cc. 476, 507.

A. A licensed physician, a physician assistant, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a registered nurse may perform a physical evidence recovery kit examination for a person who is believed to be the victim of a sexual assault and who is incapable of making an informed decision regarding consent to such examination when:

1. There is a need to conduct the examination before the victim is likely to be able to make an informed decision in order to preserve physical evidence of the alleged sexual assault from degradation;

2. No legally authorized representative or other person authorized to consent to medical treatment on the individual's behalf is reasonably available to provide consent within the time necessary to preserve physical evidence of the alleged sexual assault; and

3. A capacity reviewer, as defined in § 54.1-2982, provides written certification that, based upon a personal examination of the individual, the individual is incapable of making an informed decision regarding the physical evidence recovery kit examination and that, given the totality of the circumstances, the examination should be performed. The capacity reviewer who provides such written certification shall not be otherwise currently involved in the treatment of the person assessed, unless an independent capacity reviewer is not reasonably available.

A1. For purposes of this section, if a parent or guardian of a minor refuses to consent to a physical evidence recovery kit examination of the minor, the minor may consent.

B. Any physical evidence recovery kit examination performed pursuant to this section shall be performed in accordance with the requirements of §§ 19.2-11.2 and 19.2-165.1 and shall protect the alleged victim's identity.

C. A licensed physician, a physician assistant, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a registered nurse who exercises due care under the provisions of this act shall not be liable for any act or omission related to performance of an examination in accordance with this section.

2013, cc. 441, 532; 2016, c. 251; 2023, c. 183.

Repealed by Acts 2008, cc. 35 and 77.

A. Consistent with § 54.1-3408.1, a physician may prescribe a dosage of a pain-relieving agent in excess of the recommended dosage upon certifying the medical necessity for the excess dosage in the patient's medical record. Any practitioner who prescribes, dispenses or administers an excess dosage in accordance with this section and § 54.1-3408.1 shall not be in violation of the provisions of this title because of such excess dosage, if such excess dosage is prescribed, dispensed or administered in good faith for recognized medicinal or therapeutic purposes.

B. The Board of Medicine shall advise physicians of the provisions of this section and § 54.1-3408.1.

1995, c. 277.

Before a physician commences treatment of a patient by in vitro fertilization, gamete intrafallopian tube transfer, or zygote intrafallopian tube transfer, including the administration of drugs for the stimulation or suppression of ovulation prefatory thereto, a disclosure form shall have been executed by the patient which includes, but need not be limited to, the rates of success for the particular procedure at the clinic or hospital where the procedure is to be performed. The information disclosed to the patient shall include the testing protocol used to ensure that gamete donors are free from known infection with human immunodeficiency viruses, the total number of live births, the number of live births as a percentage of completed retrieval cycles, and the rates for clinical pregnancy and delivery per completed retrieval cycle bracketed by age groups consisting of women under thirty years of age, women aged thirty through thirty-four years, women aged thirty-five through thirty-nine years, and women aged forty years and older.

1991, c. 492; 1995, c. 519.

A. As used in this section, "autonomous nurse practitioner" means a nurse practitioner who is authorized to practice without a practice agreement pursuant to subsection I of § 54.1-2957.

B. A person shall be medically and legally dead if:

1. In the opinion of a physician duly authorized to practice medicine in the Commonwealth or autonomous nurse practitioner, based on the ordinary standards of medical practice, there is the absence of spontaneous respiratory and spontaneous cardiac functions and, because of the disease or condition that directly or indirectly caused these functions to cease, or because of the passage of time since these functions ceased, attempts at resuscitation would not, in the opinion of such physician or autonomous nurse practitioner, be successful in restoring spontaneous life-sustaining functions, and, in such event, death shall be deemed to have occurred at the time these functions ceased; or

2. In the opinion of a physician, who shall be duly licensed to practice medicine in the Commonwealth and board-eligible or board-certified in the field of neurology, neurosurgery, or critical care medicine, when based on the ordinary standards of medical practice, there is irreversible cessation of all functions of the entire brain, including the brain stem, and, in the opinion of such physician, based on the ordinary standards of medical practice and considering the irreversible cessation of all functions of the entire brain, including the brain stem, and the patient's medical record, further attempts at resuscitation or continued supportive maintenance would not be successful in restoring such functions, and, in such event, death shall be deemed to have occurred at the time when all such functions have ceased.

C. A registered nurse, a physician assistant, or an advanced practice registered nurse who is not an autonomous nurse practitioner may pronounce death if the following criteria are satisfied: (i) the nurse is employed by or the physician assistant or advanced practice registered nurse who is not an autonomous nurse practitioner works at (a) a home care organization as defined in § 32.1-162.7, (b) a hospice as defined in § 32.1-162.1, (c) a hospital or nursing home as defined in § 32.1-123, including state-operated hospitals for the purposes of this section, (d) the Department of Corrections, or (e) a continuing care retirement community registered with the State Corporation Commission pursuant to Chapter 49 (§ 38.2-4900 et seq.) of Title 38.2; (ii) the nurse, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse who is not an autonomous nurse practitioner is directly involved in the care of the patient; (iii) the patient's death has occurred; (iv) the patient is under the care of a physician or autonomous nurse practitioner when his death occurs; (v) the patient's death has been anticipated; and (vi) the physician or autonomous nurse practitioner is unable to be present within a reasonable period of time to determine death. A licensed practical nurse may pronounce death for a patient in hospice pursuant to a valid Do Not Resuscitate Order issued in accordance with § 54.1-2987.1. The nurse, licensed practical nurse, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse who is not an autonomous nurse practitioner shall inform the patient's attending and consulting physician or autonomous nurse practitioner of the patient's death as soon as practicable.

The nurse, licensed practical nurse, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse who is not an autonomous nurse practitioner shall have the authority to pronounce death in accordance with such procedural regulations, if any, as may be promulgated by the Board of Medicine; however, if the circumstances of the death are not anticipated or the death requires an investigation by the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner, such nurse, licensed practical nurse, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse shall notify the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner of the death and the body shall not be released to the funeral director.

This subsection shall not authorize a nurse, licensed practical nurse, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse who is not an autonomous nurse practitioner to determine the cause of death. Determination of cause of death shall continue to be the responsibility of the attending physician or autonomous nurse practitioner, except as provided in § 32.1-263. Further, this subsection shall not be construed to impose any obligation to carry out the functions of this subsection.

This subsection shall not relieve any registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, physician assistant, or nurse practitioner who is not an autonomous nurse practitioner from any civil or criminal liability that might otherwise be incurred for failure to follow statutes or Board of Nursing or Board of Medicine regulations.

D. The alternative definitions of death provided in subdivisions B 1 and 2 may be utilized for all purposes in the Commonwealth, including the trial of civil and criminal cases.

Code 1950, § 32-364.3:1; 1973, c. 252; 1979, c. 720, § 54-325.7; 1986, c. 237; 1988, c. 765; 1996, c. 1028; 1997, cc. 107, 453; 2002, c. 92; 2004, c. 92; 2010, c. 46; 2011, c. 613; 2012, c. 136; 2014, cc. 73, 583; 2016, c. 97; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 210; 2022, cc. 184, 198; 2023, c. 183.

Any of the following persons, in order of priority stated, may authorize and consent to a postmortem examination and autopsy on a decedent's body for the purpose of determining the cause of death of the decedent, for the advancement of medical or dental education and research, or for the general advancement of medical or dental science, if: (i) no person in a higher class exists or no person in a higher class is available at the time authorization or consent is given, (ii) there is no actual notice of contrary indications by the decedent, and (iii) there is no actual notice of opposition by a member of the same or a prior class.

The order of priority shall be as follows: (1) any person designated to make arrangements for the disposition of the decedent's remains upon his death pursuant to § 54.1-2825; (2) the spouse; (3) an adult son or daughter; (4) either parent; (5) an adult brother or sister; (6) a guardian of the person of the decedent at the time of his death; or (7) any other person authorized or under legal obligation to dispose of the body.

If the physician or surgeon has actual notice of contrary indications by the decedent or of opposition to an autopsy by a member of the same or a prior class, the autopsy shall not be performed. The persons authorized herein may authorize or consent to the autopsy after death or before death.

In cases of death where official inquiry is authorized or required by law, the provisions of Article 1 (§ 32.1-277 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 32.1 shall apply. If at the time of death, a postmortem examination is authorized or required by law, any prior authorization or consent pursuant to this section shall not be valid unless the body is released by the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner.

A surgeon or physician acting in accordance with the terms of this section shall not have any liability, civil or criminal, for the performance of the autopsy.

Code 1950, § 32-364.4:1; 1973, c. 357; 1979, c. 720, § 54-325.8; 1986, c. 237; 1988, c. 765; 1998, c. 718; 2014, c. 583.

The practice of laser hair removal shall be performed by a properly trained person licensed to practice medicine or osteopathic medicine or a physician assistant as authorized pursuant to § 54.1-2952 or an advanced practice registered nurse as authorized pursuant to § 54.1-2957 or by a properly trained person under the direction and supervision of a licensed doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine or a physician assistant as authorized pursuant to § 54.1-2952 or an advanced practice registered nurse as authorized pursuant to § 54.1-2957 who may delegate such practice in accordance with subdivision A 6 of § 54.1-2901.

2017, c. 390; 2023, c. 183.