Virginia Law

Chapter 24. General Provisions.

The general powers and duties of health regulatory boards shall be:

1. To establish the qualifications for registration, certification, licensure, permit, or the issuance of a multistate licensure privilege in accordance with the applicable law which are necessary to ensure competence and integrity to engage in the regulated professions.

2. To examine or cause to be examined applicants for certification, licensure, or registration. Unless otherwise required by law, examinations shall be administered in writing or shall be a demonstration of manual skills.

3. To register, certify, license, or issue a multistate licensure privilege to qualified applicants as practitioners of the particular profession or professions regulated by such board.

4. To establish schedules for renewals of registration, certification, licensure, permit, and the issuance of a multistate licensure privilege.

5. To levy and collect fees for application processing, examination, registration, certification, permitting, or licensure or the issuance of a multistate licensure privilege and renewal that are sufficient to cover all expenses for the administration and operation of the Department of Health Professions, the Board of Health Professions, and the health regulatory boards.

6. To promulgate regulations in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) that are reasonable and necessary to administer effectively the regulatory system, which shall include provisions for the satisfaction of board-required continuing education for individuals registered, certified, licensed, or issued a multistate licensure privilege by a health regulatory board through delivery of health care services, without compensation, to low-income individuals receiving health services through a local health department or a free clinic organized in whole or primarily for the delivery of those health services. Such regulations shall not conflict with the purposes and intent of this chapter or of Chapter 1 (§ 54.1-100 et seq.) and Chapter 25 (§ 54.1-2500 et seq.).

7. To revoke, suspend, restrict, or refuse to issue or renew a registration, certificate, license, permit, or multistate licensure privilege which such board has authority to issue for causes enumerated in applicable law and regulations.

8. To appoint designees from their membership or immediate staff to coordinate with the Director and the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program Committee and to implement, as is necessary, the provisions of Chapter 25.1 (§ 54.1-2515 et seq.). Each health regulatory board shall appoint one such designee.

9. To take appropriate disciplinary action for violations of applicable law and regulations, and to accept, in their discretion, the surrender of a license, certificate, registration, permit, or multistate licensure privilege in lieu of disciplinary action.

10. To appoint a special conference committee, composed of not less than two members of a health regulatory board or, when required for special conference committees of the Board of Medicine, not less than two members of the Board and one member of the relevant advisory board, or, when required for special conference committees of the Board of Nursing, not less than one member of the Board and one member of the relevant advisory board, to act in accordance with § 2.2-4019 upon receipt of information that a practitioner or permit holder of the appropriate board may be subject to disciplinary action or to consider an application for a license, certification, registration, permit or multistate licensure privilege in nursing. The special conference committee may (i) exonerate; (ii) reinstate; (iii) place the practitioner or permit holder on probation with such terms as it may deem appropriate; (iv) reprimand; (v) modify a previous order; (vi) impose a monetary penalty pursuant to § 54.1-2401, (vii) deny or grant an application for licensure, certification, registration, permit, or multistate licensure privilege; and (viii) issue a restricted license, certification, registration, permit or multistate licensure privilege subject to terms and conditions. The order of the special conference committee shall become final 30 days after service of the order unless a written request to the board for a hearing is received within such time. If service of the decision to a party is accomplished by mail, three days shall be added to the 30-day period. Upon receiving a timely written request for a hearing, the board or a panel of the board shall then proceed with a hearing as provided in § 2.2-4020, and the action of the committee shall be vacated. This subdivision shall not be construed to limit the authority of a board to delegate to an appropriately qualified agency subordinate, as defined in § 2.2-4001, the authority to conduct informal fact-finding proceedings in accordance with § 2.2-4019. The recommendation of such subordinate may be considered by a panel consisting of at least five board members, or, if a quorum of the board is less than five members, consisting of a quorum of the members, convened for the purpose of issuing a case decision. Criteria for the appointment of an agency subordinate shall be set forth in regulations adopted by the board.

11. To convene, at their discretion, a panel consisting of at least five board members or, if a quorum of the board is less than five members, consisting of a quorum of the members to conduct formal proceedings pursuant to § 2.2-4020, decide the case, and issue a final agency case decision. Any decision rendered by majority vote of such panel shall have the same effect as if made by the full board and shall be subject to court review in accordance with the Administrative Process Act. No member who participates in an informal proceeding conducted in accordance with § 2.2-4019 shall serve on a panel conducting formal proceedings pursuant to § 2.2-4020 to consider the same matter.

12. To issue inactive licenses or certificates and promulgate regulations to carry out such purpose. Such regulations shall include, but not be limited to, the qualifications, renewal fees, and conditions for reactivation of licenses or certificates.

13. To meet by telephone conference call to consider settlement proposals in matters pending before special conference committees convened pursuant to this section, or matters referred for formal proceedings pursuant to § 2.2-4020 to a health regulatory board or a panel of the board or to consider modifications of previously issued board orders when such considerations have been requested by either of the parties.

14. To request and accept from a certified, registered, or licensed practitioner; a facility holding a license, certification, registration, or permit; or a person holding a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing, in lieu of disciplinary action, a confidential consent agreement. A confidential consent agreement shall be subject to the confidentiality provisions of § 54.1-2400.2 and shall not be disclosed by a practitioner or facility. A confidential consent agreement shall include findings of fact and may include an admission or a finding of a violation. A confidential consent agreement shall not be considered either a notice or order of any health regulatory board, but it may be considered by a board in future disciplinary proceedings. A confidential consent agreement shall be entered into only in cases involving minor misconduct where there is little or no injury to a patient or the public and little likelihood of repetition by the practitioner or facility. A board shall not enter into a confidential consent agreement if there is probable cause to believe the practitioner or facility has (i) demonstrated gross negligence or intentional misconduct in the care of patients or (ii) conducted his practice in such a manner as to be a danger to the health and welfare of his patients or the public. A certified, registered, or licensed practitioner, a facility holding a license, certification, registration, or permit, or a person holding a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing who has entered into two confidential consent agreements involving a standard of care violation, within the 10-year period immediately preceding a board's receipt of the most recent report or complaint being considered, shall receive public discipline for any subsequent violation within the 10-year period unless the board finds there are sufficient facts and circumstances to rebut the presumption that the disciplinary action be made public.

15. When a board has probable cause to believe a practitioner is unable to practice with reasonable skill and safety to patients because of excessive use of alcohol or drugs or physical or mental illness, the board, after preliminary investigation by an informal fact-finding proceeding, may direct that the practitioner submit to a mental or physical examination. Failure to submit to the examination shall constitute grounds for disciplinary action. Any practitioner affected by this subsection shall be afforded reasonable opportunity to demonstrate that he is competent to practice with reasonable skill and safety to patients. For the purposes of this subdivision, "practitioner" shall include any person holding a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing.

1988, c. 765; 1992, cc. 659, 890; 1997, cc. 439, 564; 1998, c. 469; 2002, cc. 455, 698; 2003, cc. 753, 762; 2004, cc. 49, 64; 2009, cc. 472, 534; 2010, c. 414; 2014, c. 426; 2016, c. 82; 2017, c. 423; 2023, c. 191.

As used in this subtitle, "laser surgery" means treatment through revision, destruction, incision or other structural alteration of human tissue using laser technology. Under this definition, the continued use of laser technology solely for nonsurgical purposes of examination and diagnosis shall be permitted for those professions whose licenses permit such use.

1997, c. 569.

A. As used in this section:

"Contact lens" means any lens that is placed directly on the surface of the eye, whether or not the lens is intended to correct a visual defect, including any cosmetic, therapeutic, or corrective contact lens.

"Ophthalmic prescription" means a handwritten or electronic order of a provider that includes (i) in the case of contact lenses, all information required by the Fairness to Contact Lens Consumers Act, 15 U.S.C. §§ 7601 et seq., (ii) in the case of prescription eyeglasses, all information required by the Ophthalmic Practice Rule, also known as the Eyeglass Rule, 16 C.F.R. Part 456, and (iii) necessary and appropriate information for the dispensing of prescription eyeglasses or contact lenses for a patient, including the provider's name, physical address at which the provider practices, and telephone number.

"Provider" means an ophthalmologist licensed by the Board of Medicine pursuant to Chapter 29 (§ 54.1-2900 et seq.) or an optometrist licensed by the Board of Optometry pursuant to Chapter 32 (§ 54.1-3200 et seq.).

B. For the purpose of a provider prescribing spectacles, eyeglasses, lenses, or contact lenses to a patient, a provider shall establish a bona fide provider-patient relationship by an examination (i) in person, (ii) through face-to-face interactive, two-way, real-time communication, or (iii) store-and-forward technologies when all of the following conditions are met: (a) the provider obtains an updated medical history at the time of prescribing; (b) the provider makes a diagnosis at the time of prescribing; (c) the provider conforms to the standard of care expected of in-person care as appropriate to the patient's age and presenting condition, including when the standard of care requires the use of diagnostic testing and performance of a physical examination, which may be carried out through the use of peripheral devices appropriate to the patient's condition; (d) the ophthalmic prescription is not determined solely by use of an online questionnaire; (e) the provider is actively licensed in the Commonwealth and authorized to prescribe; and (f) upon request, the prescriber provides patient records in a timely manner in accordance with the provisions of § 32.1-127.1:03 and all other state and federal laws and regulations.

C. The requirements of this section shall not apply to (i) the sale of eyeglasses not designed to correct or enhance vision by addressing the visual needs of the individual wearer and that may be known as over-the-counter eyeglasses or readers or (ii) a licensed optician providing services in accordance with § 54.1-1509.

D. The provisions of this section shall not apply to ophthalmic prescriptions written prior to July 1, 2017.

2017, cc. 169, 184.

A. In order to protect the privacy and security of health professionals, the posting of addresses to the on-line licensure lookup or any successor in interest thereof shall only disclose the city or county provided to the Department and shall not include any street, rural delivery route, or post office address. However, the street address of facilities regulated by the Boards of Funeral Directors and Embalmers, Nursing, Pharmacy, and Veterinary Medicine shall be posted.

B. The Department shall collect an official address of record from each health professional licensed, registered, or certified by a health regulatory board within the Department, to be used by the Department and relevant health regulatory boards for agency purposes, including workforce planning and emergency contact pursuant to § 54.1-2506.1. Such official address of record shall otherwise remain confidential, shall not be provided to any private entity for resale to another private entity or to the public, and shall be exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq.).

C. In addition, the Department shall provide an opportunity for the health professional to provide a second address, for the purpose of public dissemination. Health professionals may choose to provide a work address, a post office box, or a home address as the public address. In collecting such public address information, the Department shall notify health professionals that this address may be publicly disclosed, and is subject to the Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq.). Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection B, if a health professional does not provide a second address, his official address of record shall also be used as the public address for the purpose of public dissemination.

D. The Department shall develop a procedure for health professionals to update their address information at regular intervals, and may charge a fee sufficient to cover the costs for such updates.

2003, c. 310; 2009, c. 687.

Every health regulatory board within the Department of Health Professions shall report information prescribed in subsection B of § 32.1-23.3 for persons licensed, registered, or certified or previously licensed, registered, or certified by the health regulatory board to the Department of Health for inclusion in the Eligible Health Care Provider Reserve Directory. However, a health regulatory board shall not report information for any such person who has notified the health regulatory board in writing that he does not want his information included in the Eligible Health Care Provider Reserve Directory.

2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 530.

A. As used in this section:

"Certified substance abuse counselor" means a person certified to provide substance abuse counseling in a state-approved public or private substance abuse program or facility.

"Client" or "patient" means any person who is voluntarily or involuntarily receiving mental health services or substance abuse services from any mental health service provider.

"Clinical psychologist" means a person who practices clinical psychology as defined in § 54.1-3600.

"Clinical social worker" means a person who practices social work as defined in § 54.1-3700.

"Licensed practical nurse" means a person licensed to practice practical nursing as defined in § 54.1-3000.

"Licensed substance abuse treatment practitioner" means any person licensed to engage in the practice of substance abuse treatment as defined in § 54.1-3500.

"Marriage and family therapist" means a person licensed to engage in the practice of marriage and family therapy as defined in § 54.1-3500.

"Mental health professional" means a person who by education and experience is professionally qualified and licensed in Virginia to provide counseling interventions designed to facilitate an individual's achievement of human development goals and remediate mental, emotional, or behavioral disorders and associated distresses which interfere with mental health and development.

"Mental health service provider" or "provider" refers to any of the following: (i) a person who provides professional services as a certified substance abuse counselor, clinical psychologist, clinical social worker, licensed substance abuse treatment practitioner, licensed practical nurse, marriage and family therapist, mental health professional, physician, physician assistant, professional counselor, psychologist, qualified mental health professional, registered nurse, registered peer recovery specialist, school psychologist, or social worker; (ii) a professional corporation, all of whose shareholders or members are so licensed; or (iii) a partnership, all of whose partners are so licensed.

"Professional counselor" means a person who practices counseling as defined in § 54.1-3500.

"Psychologist" means a person who practices psychology as defined in § 54.1-3600.

"Qualified mental health professional" has the same meaning as provided in § 54.1-3500.

"Registered nurse" means a person licensed to practice professional nursing as defined in § 54.1-3000.

"Registered peer recovery specialist" means a person who by education and experience is professionally qualified and registered by the Board of Counseling to provide collaborative services to assist individuals in achieving sustained recovery from the effects of addiction or mental illness, or both. A registered peer recovery specialist shall provide such services as an employee or independent contractor of the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, a provider licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, a practitioner licensed by or holding a permit issued from the Department of Health Professions, or a facility licensed by the Department of Health.

"School psychologist" means a person who practices school psychology as defined in § 54.1-3600.

"Social worker" means a person who practices social work as defined in § 54.1-3700.

B. A mental health service provider has a duty to take precautions to protect third parties from violent behavior or other serious harm only when the client has orally, in writing, or via sign language, communicated to the provider a specific and immediate threat to cause serious bodily injury or death to an identified or readily identifiable person or persons, if the provider reasonably believes, or should believe according to the standards of his profession, that the client has the intent and ability to carry out that threat immediately or imminently. If the third party is a child, in addition to taking precautions to protect the child from the behaviors in the above types of threats, the provider also has a duty to take precautions to protect the child if the client threatens to engage in behaviors that would constitute physical abuse or sexual abuse as defined in § 18.2-67.10. The duty to protect does not attach unless the threat has been communicated to the provider by the threatening client while the provider is engaged in his professional duties.

C. The duty set forth in subsection B is discharged by a mental health service provider who takes one or more of the following actions:

1. Seeks involuntary admission of the client under Article 16 (§ 16.1-335 et seq.) of Chapter 11 of Title 16.1 or Chapter 8 (§ 37.2-800 et seq.) of Title 37.2.

2. Makes reasonable attempts to warn the potential victims or the parent or guardian of the potential victim if the potential victim is under the age of 18.

3. Makes reasonable efforts to notify a law-enforcement official having jurisdiction in the client's or potential victim's place of residence or place of work, or place of work of the parent or guardian if the potential victim is under age 18, or both.

4. Takes steps reasonably available to the provider to prevent the client from using physical violence or other means of harm to others until the appropriate law-enforcement agency can be summoned and takes custody of the client.

5. Provides therapy or counseling to the client or patient in the session in which the threat has been communicated until the mental health service provider reasonably believes that the client no longer has the intent or the ability to carry out the threat.

6. In the case of a registered peer recovery specialist, or a qualified mental health professional who is not otherwise licensed by a health regulatory board at the Department of Health Professions, reports immediately to a licensed mental health service provider to take one or more of the actions set forth in this subsection.

D. A mental health service provider shall not be held civilly liable to any person for:

1. Breaching confidentiality with the limited purpose of protecting third parties by communicating the threats described in subsection B made by his clients to potential third party victims or law-enforcement agencies or by taking any of the actions specified in subsection C.

2. Failing to predict, in the absence of a threat described in subsection B, that the client would cause the third party serious physical harm.

3. Failing to take precautions other than those enumerated in subsection C to protect a potential third party victim from the client's violent behavior.

1994, c. 958; 1997, c. 901; 2005, c. 716; 2010, cc. 778, 825; 2017, cc. 61, 417, 418, 426; 2018, cc. 171, 803; 2019, cc. 101, 217.

A. For the purposes of this subtitle, except as used in Chapter 38 (§ 54.1-3800 et seq.) related to veterinary medicine, "surgery" means the structural alteration of the human body by the incision or cutting into of tissue for the purpose of diagnostic or therapeutic treatment of conditions or disease processes by any instrument causing localized alteration or transposition of live human tissue, but does not include the following: procedures for the removal of superficial foreign bodies from the human body, punctures, injections, dry needling, acupuncture, or removal of dead tissue. For the purposes of this section, incision shall not mean the scraping or brushing of live tissue.

B. No person shall perform surgery unless he is (i) licensed by the Board of Medicine as a doctor of medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry; (ii) licensed by the Board of Dentistry as a doctor of dentistry; (iii) jointly licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing as an advanced practice registered nurse; (iv) a physician assistant acting under the supervision of a doctor of medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry; (v) a licensed midwife in the performance of episiotomies during childbirth; (vi) licensed by the Board of Optometry as an optometrist and certified to perform laser surgery pursuant to § 54.1-3225; or (vii) acting pursuant to the orders and under the appropriate supervision of a licensed doctor of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, or dentistry.

C. Nothing in this section shall be construed to restrict, limit, change, or expand the scope of practice in effect on January 1, 2012, of any profession licensed by any of the health regulatory boards within the Department of Health Professions.

2012, cc. 15, 124; 2022, cc. 16, 17; 2023, c. 183.

A. Any reports, information or records received and maintained by the Department of Health Professions or any health regulatory board in connection with possible disciplinary proceedings, including any material received or developed by a board during an investigation or proceeding, shall be strictly confidential. The Department of Health Professions or a board may only disclose such confidential information:

1. In a disciplinary proceeding before a board or in any subsequent trial or appeal of an action or order, or to the respondent in entering into a confidential consent agreement under § 54.1-2400;

2. To regulatory authorities concerned with granting, limiting or denying licenses, certificates or registrations to practice a health profession, including the coordinated licensure information system as defined in § 54.1-3040.2 and the data system as set forth in § 54.1-3492;

3. To the Virginia Department of Education or the State Council of Higher Education for Virginia, if such information relates to nursing or nurse aide education programs regulated by the Board of Nursing;

4. To hospital committees concerned with granting, limiting or denying hospital privileges if a final determination regarding a violation has been made;

5. Pursuant to an order of a court of competent jurisdiction for good cause arising from extraordinary circumstances being shown;

6. To qualified personnel for bona fide research or educational purposes, if personally identifiable information relating to any person is first deleted. Such release shall be made pursuant to a written agreement to ensure compliance with this section; or

7. To the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program within the Department of Health Professions in connection with health practitioners who apply to or participate in the Program.

B. In no event shall confidential information received, maintained or developed by the Department of Health Professions or any board, or disclosed by the Department of Health Professions or a board to others, pursuant to this section, be available for discovery or court subpoena or introduced into evidence in any civil action. This section shall not, however, be construed to inhibit an investigation or prosecution under Article 1 (§ 18.2-247 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2.

C. Any claim of a physician-patient or practitioner-patient privilege shall not prevail in any investigation or proceeding by any health regulatory board acting within the scope of its authority. The disclosure, however, of any information pursuant to this provision shall not be deemed a waiver of such privilege in any other proceeding.

D. This section shall not prohibit the Director of the Department of Health Professions, after consultation with the relevant health regulatory board president or his designee, from disclosing to the Attorney General, or the appropriate attorney for the Commonwealth, investigatory information which indicates a possible violation of any provision of criminal law, including the laws relating to the manufacture, distribution, dispensing, prescribing or administration of drugs, other than drugs classified as Schedule VI drugs and devices, by any individual regulated by any health regulatory board.

E. This section shall not prohibit the Director of the Department of Health Professions from disclosing matters listed in subdivision A 1, 2, or 3 of § 54.1-2909; from making the reports of aggregate information and summaries required by § 54.1-2400.3; or from disclosing the information required to be made available to the public pursuant to § 54.1-2910.1.

F. This section shall not prohibit the Director of the Department of Health Professions, following consultation with the relevant health regulatory board president or his designee, from disclosing information about a suspected violation of state or federal law or regulation to other agencies within the Health and Human Resources Secretariat or to state or federal law-enforcement agencies having jurisdiction over the suspected violation or requesting an inspection or investigation of a licensee by such state or federal agency when the Director has reason to believe that a possible violation of state or federal law has occurred. Such disclosure shall not exceed the minimum information necessary to permit the state or federal agency having jurisdiction over the suspected violation of state or federal law to conduct an inspection or investigation. Disclosures by the Director pursuant to this subsection shall not be limited to requests for inspections or investigations of licensees. Nothing in this subsection shall require the Director to make any disclosure. Nothing in this section shall permit any agency to which the Director makes a disclosure pursuant to this section to re-disclose any information, reports, records, or materials received from the Department.

G. Whenever a complaint or report has been filed about a person licensed, certified, or registered by a health regulatory board, the source and the subject of a complaint or report shall be provided information about the investigative and disciplinary procedures at the Department of Health Professions. Prior to interviewing a licensee who is the subject of a complaint or report, or at the time that the licensee is first notified in writing of the complaint or report, whichever shall occur first, the licensee shall be provided with a copy of the complaint or report and any records or supporting documentation, unless such provision would materially obstruct a criminal or regulatory investigation. If the relevant board concludes that a disciplinary proceeding will not be instituted, the board may send an advisory letter to the person who was the subject of the complaint or report. The relevant board may also inform the source of the complaint or report (i) that an investigation has been conducted, (ii) that the matter was concluded without a disciplinary proceeding, (iii) of the process the board followed in making its determination, and (iv), if appropriate, that an advisory letter from the board has been communicated to the person who was the subject of the complaint or report. In providing such information, the board shall inform the source of the complaint or report that he is subject to the requirements of this section relating to confidentiality and discovery.

H. Orders and notices of the health regulatory boards relating to disciplinary actions, other than confidential exhibits described in subsection K, shall be disclosed. Information on the date and location of any disciplinary proceeding, allegations against the respondent, and the list of statutes and regulations the respondent is alleged to have violated shall be provided to the source of the complaint or report by the relevant board prior to the proceeding. The source shall be notified of the disposition of a disciplinary case.

I. This section shall not prohibit investigative staff authorized under § 54.1-2506 or investigative staff of any other agency to which disclosure of information about a suspected violation of state or federal law or regulation is authorized by subsection F from interviewing fact witnesses, disclosing to fact witnesses the identity of the subject of the complaint or report, or reviewing with fact witnesses any portion of records or other supporting documentation necessary to refresh the fact witnesses' recollection.

J. Any person found guilty of the unlawful disclosure of confidential information possessed by a health regulatory board shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

K. In disciplinary actions in which a practitioner is or may be unable to practice with reasonable skill and safety to patients and the public because of a mental or physical disability, a health regulatory board shall consider whether to disclose and may decide not to disclose in its notice or order the practitioner's health records, as defined in § 32.1-127.1:03, or his health services, as defined in § 32.1-127.1:03. Such information may be considered by the relevant board in a closed hearing in accordance with subdivision A 16 of § 2.2-3711 and included in a confidential exhibit to a notice or order. The public notice or order shall identify, if known, the practitioner's mental or physical disability that is the basis for its determination. In the event that the relevant board, in its discretion, determines that this subsection should apply, information contained in the confidential exhibit shall remain part of the confidential record before the relevant board and is subject to court review under the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) and to release in accordance with this section.

1997, c. 698; 1998, c. 744; 1999, c. 888; 2003, cc. 753, 762; 2004, c. 49; 2006, cc. 155, 184; 2007, c. 395; 2009, cc. 342, 472; 2015, c. 114; 2016, c. 222; 2017, c. 616; 2019, cc. 300, 418, 663.

In addition to the information required by § 54.1-114, the Director shall include in the Department's biennial report for each of the health regulatory boards the number of reports or complaints of misconduct received and the investigations, charges, findings, and sanctions resulting therefrom. The report shall reflect the categories of allegations, kinds of complaints and the rates of disciplinary activity for the various regulated professions and the health regulatory boards having jurisdiction; summaries explaining the reported data shall be included with the report. Further, the report shall specify the number of cases for each profession regulated by a health regulatory board by category of violation, including, but not limited to, standard of care violations, in which (i) a sanction was imposed; (ii) a confidential consent agreement was accepted; and (iii) more than two confidential consent agreements involving a standard of care violation were accepted by the relevant board for the same practitioner in a 10-year period. The information shall be reported only in the aggregate without reference to any individual's name or identifying particulars. In those portions of this report relating to the Board of Medicine, the Director shall include a summary of the data required by § 54.1-2910.1.

The Director shall also include in the Department's biennial report for each health regulatory board (i) case processing time standards for resolving disciplinary cases, (ii) an analysis of the percentage of cases resolved during the last two fiscal years that did not meet such standards, (iii) a six-year trend analysis of the time required to process, investigate, and adjudicate cases, and (iv) a detailed reporting of staffing levels for the six-year period for each job classification that supports the disciplinary process. However, the initial biennial report shall require a four-year trend analysis of the time required to process, investigate, and adjudicate cases and a detailed reporting of staffing levels for the four-year period for each job classification that supports the disciplinary process.

1997, c. 698; 1998, c. 744; 2003, cc. 753, 762.

A. Any mental health service provider, as defined in § 54.1-2400.1, shall, upon learning of evidence that indicates a reasonable probability that another mental health provider is or may be guilty of a violation of standards of conduct as defined in statute or regulation, advise his patient of his right to report such misconduct to the Department of Health Professions, hereinafter referred to as the "Department."

B. The mental health service provider shall provide relevant information to the patient, including, but not limited to, the Department's toll-free complaint hotline number for consumer complaints and written information, published by the Department of Health Professions, explaining how to file a report. The mental health service provider shall document in the patient's record the alleged misconduct, the category of licensure or certification, and approximate dates of treatment, if known, of the mental health service provider who will be the subject of the report, and the action taken by the mental health service provider to inform the patient of his right to file a complaint with the Department of Health Professions.

C. Any mental health service provider informing a patient of his right to file a complaint against a regulated person and providing the information required by this section shall be immune from any civil liability or criminal prosecution resulting therefrom unless such person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

D. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any person required to inform a patient of his right to file a complaint against a regulated person pursuant to this section who fails to do so shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed $100.

2000, c. 578.

Repealed by Acts 2018, cc. 170 and 381, cl. 2.

A. The chief executive officer and the chief of staff of every hospital or other health care institution in the Commonwealth, the director of every licensed home health or hospice organization, the director of every accredited home health organization exempt from licensure, the administrator of every licensed assisted living facility, and the administrator of every provider licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services in the Commonwealth shall report within 30 days, except as provided in subdivision 1, to the Director of the Department of Health Professions, or in the case of a director of a home health or hospice organization, to the Office of Licensure and Certification at the Department of Health (the Office), the following information regarding any person (i) licensed, certified, or registered by a health regulatory board or (ii) holding a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing or an applicant for licensure, certification or registration unless exempted under subsection E:

1. Any information of which he may become aware in his official capacity indicating a reasonable belief that such a health professional is in need of treatment or has been voluntarily admitted as a patient, either at his institution or any other health care institution, for treatment of substance abuse or a psychiatric illness that may render the health professional a danger to himself, the public or his patients. If such health care professional has been involuntarily admitted as a patient, either in his own institution or any other health care institution, for treatment of substance abuse or a psychiatric illness, the report required by this section shall be made within five days of the date on which the chief executive officer, chief of staff, director, or administrator learns of the health care professional's involuntary admission.

2. Any information of which he may become aware in his official capacity indicating a reasonable belief, after review and, if necessary, an investigation or consultation with the appropriate internal boards or committees authorized to impose disciplinary action on a health professional, that a health professional may have engaged in unethical, fraudulent or unprofessional conduct as defined by the pertinent licensing statutes and regulations. The report required under this subdivision shall be submitted within 30 days of the date that the chief executive officer, chief of staff, director, or administrator determines that such reasonable belief exists.

3. Any disciplinary proceeding begun by the institution, organization, facility, or provider as a result of conduct involving (i) intentional or negligent conduct that causes or is likely to cause injury to a patient or patients, (ii) professional ethics, (iii) professional incompetence, (iv) moral turpitude, or (v) substance abuse. The report required under this subdivision shall be submitted within 30 days of the date of written communication to the health professional notifying him of the initiation of a disciplinary proceeding.

4. Any disciplinary action taken during or at the conclusion of disciplinary proceedings or while under investigation, including but not limited to denial or termination of employment, denial or termination of privileges or restriction of privileges that results from conduct involving (i) intentional or negligent conduct that causes or is likely to cause injury to a patient or patients, (ii) professional ethics, (iii) professional incompetence, (iv) moral turpitude, or (v) substance abuse. The report required under this subdivision shall be submitted within 30 days of the date of written communication to the health professional notifying him of any disciplinary action.

5. The voluntary resignation from the staff of the health care institution, home health or hospice organization, assisted living facility, or provider, or voluntary restriction or expiration of privileges at the institution, organization, facility, or provider, of any health professional while such health professional is under investigation or is the subject of disciplinary proceedings taken or begun by the institution, organization, facility, or provider or a committee thereof for any reason related to possible intentional or negligent conduct that causes or is likely to cause injury to a patient or patients, medical incompetence, unprofessional conduct, moral turpitude, mental or physical impairment, or substance abuse.

Any report required by this section shall be in writing directed to the Director of the Department of Health Professions or to the Director of the Office of Licensure and Certification at the Department of Health, shall give the name, address, and date of birth of the person who is the subject of the report and shall fully describe the circumstances surrounding the facts required to be reported. The report shall include the names and contact information of individuals with knowledge about the facts required to be reported and the names and contact information of individuals from whom the hospital or health care institution, organization, facility, or provider sought information to substantiate the facts required to be reported. All relevant medical records shall be attached to the report if patient care or the health professional's health status is at issue. The reporting hospital, health care institution, home health or hospice organization, assisted living facility, or provider shall also provide notice to the Department or the Office that it has submitted a report to the National Practitioner Data Bank under the Health Care Quality Improvement Act (42 U.S.C. § 11101 et seq.). The reporting hospital, health care institution, home health or hospice organization, assisted living facility, or provider shall give the health professional who is the subject of the report an opportunity to review the report. The health professional may submit a separate report if he disagrees with the substance of the report.

This section shall not be construed to require the hospital, health care institution, home health or hospice organization, assisted living facility, or provider to submit any proceedings, minutes, records, or reports that are privileged under § 8.01-581.17, except that the provisions of § 8.01-581.17 shall not bar (i) any report required by this section or (ii) any requested medical records that are necessary to investigate unprofessional conduct reported pursuant to this subtitle or unprofessional conduct that should have been reported pursuant to this subtitle. Under no circumstances shall compliance with this section be construed to waive or limit the privilege provided in § 8.01-581.17. No person or entity shall be obligated to report any matter to the Department or the Office if the person or entity has actual notice that the same matter has already been reported to the Department or the Office. No person or entity shall be obligated to report a health care provider who is participating in a professional program as described in subsection B of § 8.01-581.16 unless there is a reasonable belief that the participant is not competent to continue to practice or is a danger to himself or to the health and welfare of his patients or the public.

B. The State Health Commissioner, Commissioner of Social Services, and Commissioner of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services shall report to the Department any information of which their agencies may become aware in the course of their duties that a health professional may be guilty of fraudulent, unethical, or unprofessional conduct as defined by the pertinent licensing statutes and regulations. However, the State Health Commissioner shall not be required to report information reported to the Director of the Office of Licensure and Certification pursuant to this section to the Department of Health Professions.

C. Any person making a report by this section, providing information pursuant to an investigation or testifying in a judicial or administrative proceeding as a result of such report shall be immune from any civil liability alleged to have resulted therefrom unless such person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

D. Medical records or information learned or maintained in connection with an alcohol or drug prevention function that is conducted, regulated, or directly or indirectly assisted by any department or agency of the United States shall be exempt from the reporting requirements of this section to the extent that such reporting is in violation of 42 U.S.C. § 290dd-2 or regulations adopted thereunder.

E. Any person who fails to make a report to the Department as required by this section shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed $25,000 assessed by the Director. The Director shall report the assessment of such civil penalty to the Commissioner of Health, Commissioner of Social Services, or Commissioner of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, as appropriate. Any person assessed a civil penalty pursuant to this section shall not receive a license or certification or renewal of such unless such penalty has been paid pursuant to § 32.1-125.01. The Medical College of Virginia Hospitals and the University of Virginia Hospitals shall not receive certification pursuant to § 32.1-137 or Article 1.1 (§ 32.1-102.1 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 32.1 unless such penalty has been paid.

Code 1950, § 32-137.1; 1977, c. 639; 1978, c. 541, § 54-325.1; 1979, cc. 720, 727; 1986, cc. 303, 434; 1988, c. 765, § 54.1-2906; 1994, c. 234; 2000, c. 77; 2003, cc. 456, 753, 762; 2004, cc. 49, 64; 2011, c. 463; 2015, c. 119; 2017, cc. 418, 426; 2020, cc. 45, 230; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 5, 243.

A. Every practitioner in the Commonwealth who is registered, certified, or licensed by a health regulatory board or who holds a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing who treats professionally any person registered, certified, or licensed by a health regulatory board or who holds a multistate licensure privilege shall report, unless exempted by subsection C hereof, to the Director of the Department of Health Professions whenever any such health professional is treated for mental disorders, chemical dependency or alcoholism, unless the attending practitioner has determined that there is a reasonable probability that the person being treated is competent to continue in practice or would not constitute danger to himself or to the health and welfare of his patients or the public.

B. Any person making a report required by this section or testifying in a judicial or administrative proceeding as a result of such report shall be immune from any civil liability alleged to have resulted therefrom unless such person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

C. Medical records or information learned or maintained in connection with an alcohol or drug abuse prevention function that is conducted, regulated, or directly or indirectly assisted by any department or agency of the United States shall be exempt from the reporting requirements of this section to the extent that such reporting is in violation of 42 U.S.C. § 290dd-2 or regulations adopted thereunder.

Code 1950, § 54-317.2; 1966, c. 166; 1973, c. 529, § 54-317.3; 1974, c. 555; 1977, c. 639; 1978, c. 541; 1986, c. 434; 1988, c. 765, § 54.1-2907; 1996, cc. 937, 980; 2004, cc. 49, 64.

In addition to the immunity for reporting as provided by §§ 54.1-2400.6 and 54.1-2400.7, any person (i) making a report regarding the conduct or competency of a health care practitioner as required by law or regulation, (ii) making a voluntary report to the appropriate regulatory board or to the Department of Health Professions regarding the unprofessional conduct or competency of any practitioner licensed, certified, or registered by a health regulatory board, or (iii) providing information pursuant to an investigation or testifying in a judicial or administrative proceeding as a result of such reports shall be immune from any civil liability resulting therefrom unless such person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

2004, c. 64; 2005, c. 932.

Any (i) doctor of medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic, or podiatry; (ii) advanced practice registered nurse; (iii) physician assistant; (iv) optometrist; (v) physical therapist; or (vi) clinical psychologist who reports to the Department of Motor Vehicles the existence, or probable existence, of a mental or physical disability or infirmity of any person licensed to operate a motor vehicle which the reporting practitioner believes affects such person's ability to operate a motor vehicle safely shall not be subject to civil liability under § 32.1-127.1:03 resulting from such report or deemed to have violated the practitioner-patient privilege unless he has acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

2017, cc. 712, 720; 2023, c. 183.

Any person licensed, registered, permitted, or certified or issued a multistate licensure privilege by any health regulatory board who violates any provision of statute or regulation pertaining to that board and who is not criminally prosecuted may be subject to the monetary penalty provided in this section. If the board or any special conference committee determines that a respondent has violated any provision of statute or regulation pertaining to the board, it shall determine the amount of any monetary penalty to be imposed for the violation, which shall not exceed $5,000 for each violation. The penalty may be sued for and recovered in the name of the Commonwealth. All such monetary penalties shall be deposited in the Literary Fund.

1980, c. 678, § 54-961; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 659; 1997, c. 564; 2003, cc. 753, 762; 2004, c. 49; 2017, c. 423.

Citizen members appointed to boards within the Department of Health Professions after July 1, 1986, shall participate in all matters. Of the citizen members first appointed to boards with two citizen members, one shall be appointed for a term of two years and one for the maximum term established for members of the respective board. On boards with one citizen member, the citizen member initially appointed shall be appointed for the maximum term established for members of that board. The provisions of this section relating to terms of citizen members on such boards shall not apply to the Board of Medicine or to the Board of Funeral Directors and Embalmers. For the purposes of this section, "citizen member" shall have the meaning provided in § 54.1-107.

1986, c. 464, § 54-950.3; 1988, cc. 66, 765.

Except as otherwise expressly provided, members shall be appointed by the Governor and may be removed by him as provided in subsection A of § 2.2-108. Any vacancy occurring other than by expiration of term shall be filled for the unexpired term. Members shall hold office after expiration of their terms until their successors are duly appointed and have qualified.

All members of regulatory boards appointed by the Governor for terms commencing on or after July 1, 1988, shall be appointed for terms of four years. No members shall serve more than two successive full terms on any regulatory board.

1988, c. 42, § 54-950.4.

No person licensed, certified, registered, or permitted by one of the boards within the Department shall use any form of advertising that contains any false, fraudulent, misleading, or deceptive statement or claim.

1987, c. 199, § 54-959.1; 1988, c. 765; 2017, c. 423.

A. As a routine component of prenatal care, every practitioner licensed pursuant to this subtitle who renders prenatal care, including any holder of a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing, regardless of the site of such practice, shall inform every pregnant woman who is his patient that human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) screening is recommended for all pregnant patients and that she will receive an HIV test as part of the routine panel of prenatal tests unless she declines (opt-out screening). The practitioner shall offer the pregnant woman oral or written information that includes an explanation of HIV infection, a description of interventions that can reduce HIV transmission from mother to infant, and the meaning of positive and negative test results. The confidentiality provisions of § 32.1-36.1, test result disclosure conditions, and appropriate counseling requirements of § 32.1-37.2 shall apply to any HIV testing conducted pursuant to this section. Practitioners shall counsel all pregnant women with HIV-positive test results about the dangers to the fetus and the advisability of receiving treatment in accordance with the then current Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommendations for HIV-positive pregnant women. Any pregnant woman shall have the right to refuse testing for HIV infection and any recommended treatment. Documentation of such refusal shall be maintained in the patient's medical record.

B. As a routine component of prenatal care, every practitioner licensed pursuant to this subtitle who renders prenatal care, including any holder of a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing, regardless of the site of such practice, upon receipt of a positive test result from a prenatal test for Down syndrome or other prenatally diagnosed conditions performed on a patient, the health care provider involved may provide the patient with information about the Virginia Department of Health genetics program website and shall provide the patient with up-to-date, scientific written information concerning the life expectancy, clinical course, and intellectual and functional development and treatment options for an unborn child diagnosed with or child born with Down syndrome or other prenatally diagnosed conditions. He may also provide a referral to support services providers, including information hotlines specific to Down syndrome or other prenatally diagnosed conditions, resource centers or clearinghouses, and other education and support programs. For the purposes of this section, "prenatally diagnosed condition" means any fetal health condition identified by prenatal genetic testing or prenatal screening procedures.

1995, c. 309; 2004, c. 49; 2007, cc. 780, 822; 2008, c. 641.

Every practitioner licensed pursuant to this subtitle who renders prenatal care, including any holder of a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing, regardless of the site of such practice, shall, prior to the beginning of his patient's third trimester of pregnancy or, if later, at the first visit of such pregnant woman to the provider, make available to the patient information developed pursuant to § 32.1-69.4 relating to the women's options with respect to umbilical cord blood banking.

2010, c. 69.

A. As a routine component of every pregnant woman's prenatal care, every practitioner licensed pursuant to this subtitle who renders prenatal care, including any holder of a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing, regardless of the site of such practice, shall establish and implement a medical history protocol for screening pregnant women for substance abuse to determine the need for a specific substance abuse evaluation. The medical history protocol shall include, but need not be limited to, a description of the screening device and shall address abuse of both legal and illegal substances. The medical history screening may be followed, as necessary and appropriate, with a thorough substance abuse evaluation.

B. The results of such medical history screening and of any specific substance abuse evaluation which may be conducted shall be confidential and, if the woman is enrolled in a treatment program operated by any facility receiving federal funds, shall only be released as provided in federal law and regulations. However, if the woman is not enrolled in a treatment program or is not enrolled in a program operated by a facility receiving federal funds, the results may only be released to the following persons:

1. The subject of the medical history screening or her legally authorized representative.

2. Any person designated in a written release signed by the subject of the medical history screening or her legally authorized representative.

3. Health care providers for the purposes of consultation or providing care and treatment to the person who was the subject of the medical history screening.

C. The results of the medical history screening required by this section or any specific substance abuse evaluation which may be conducted as part of the prenatal care shall not be admissible in any criminal proceeding.

D. Practitioners shall advise their patients of the results of the medical history screening and specific substance abuse evaluation, and shall provide such information to third-party payers as may be required for reimbursement of the costs of medical care. However, such information shall not be admissible in any criminal proceedings. Practitioners shall advise all pregnant women whose medical history screenings and specific substance abuse evaluations are positive for substance abuse of appropriate treatment and shall inform such women of the potential for poor birth outcomes from substance abuse.

1992, c. 428; 2004, c. 49.

A. Health records, as defined in § 32.1-127.1:03, may be stored by computerized or other electronic process or microfilm, or other photographic, mechanical, or chemical process; however, the stored record shall identify the location of any documents or information that could not be so technologically stored. If the technological storage process creates an unalterable record, a health care provider licensed, certified, registered or issued a multistate licensure privilege by a health regulatory board within the Department shall not be required to maintain paper copies of health records that have been stored by computerized or other electronic process, microfilm, or other photographic, mechanical, or chemical process. Upon completing such technological storage, paper copies of health records may be destroyed in a manner that preserves the patient's confidentiality. However, any documents or information that could not be so technologically stored shall be preserved.

B. Notwithstanding the authority given in this section to store health records in the form of microfilm, prescription dispensing records maintained in or on behalf of any pharmacy registered or permitted in Virginia shall only be stored in compliance with §§ 54.1-3410, 54.1-3411, and 54.1-3412.

1994, c. 390; 1998, c. 470; 2004, c. 49; 2012, c. 336.

Medical records maintained by any health care provider as defined in § 32.1-127.1:03 shall be the property of such health care provider or, in the case of a health care provider employed by another health care provider, the property of the employer. Such health care provider shall release copies of any such medical records in compliance with § 32.1-127.1:03 or § 8.01-413, if the request is made for purposes of litigation, or as otherwise provided by state or federal law.

1995, c. 754; 1997, c. 682; 1998, c. 470.

Upon the request of any of his patients, any health care provider licensed or certified by any of the boards within the Department, except in the case of health care services as defined in Chapter 43 (§ 38.2-4300 et seq.) of Title 38.2, shall provide to such patient an itemized statement of the charges for the services rendered to the requesting patient regardless of whether a bill for the services which are the subject of the request has been or will be submitted to any third party payor including medical assistance services or the state/local hospitalization program.

1990, c. 590.

Any health care provider who makes health records, as defined in § 32.1-127.1:03, of patients who are minors available to such patients through a secure website shall make all such health records available to such patient's parent or guardian through such secure website, unless the health care provider cannot make such health record available in a manner that prevents disclosure of information, the disclosure of which has been denied pursuant to subsection F of § 32.1-127.1:03 or for which consent required in accordance with subsection E of § 54.1-2969 has not been provided.

2022, c. 218.

A. Subject to any limitations set forth in an authorization for the disclosure of health records executed pursuant to § 32.1-127.1:03 and the provisions of subsection F of § 32.1-127.1:03, every health care provider shall make health records, as defined in § 32.1-127.1:03, of a patient available to any person designated by a patient in an authorization to disclose health records pursuant to § 32.1-127.1:03 to the same extent that such health records are required to be made available to the patient had the patient requested such health records.

B. Every health care provider shall allow a spouse, parent, adult child, adult sibling, or other person identified by a patient to make an appointment for medical services on behalf of such patient, regardless of whether such patient has executed an authorization to disclose health records to such person pursuant to § 32.1-127.1:03; however, such health care provider shall not disclose protected health information to the person making the appointment for medical services on behalf of the patient unless the patient has executed an authorization to disclose health records pursuant to § 32.1-127.1:03 or unless otherwise permitted or required to do so by federal or state law or regulations. Nothing in this subsection shall prevent a health care provider from sharing relevant protected health information related to the patient's health care or payment with a spouse, parent, adult child, adult sibling, or other person involved in the patient's health care or payment in accordance with 45 C.F.R. § 164.510.

2022, c. 784.

A. No person licensed, registered, or certified by one of the health regulatory boards under the Department shall transfer records pertaining to a current patient in conjunction with the closure, sale or relocation of a professional practice until such person has first attempted to notify the patient of the pending transfer, either electronically or by mail, at the patient's last known address, and by publishing prior notice in a newspaper of general circulation within the provider's practice area, as specified in § 8.01-324.

The notice shall specify that, at the written request of the patient or an authorized representative, the records or copies will be sent, within a reasonable time, to any other like-regulated provider of the patient's choice or provided to the patient pursuant to § 32.1-127.1:03. The notice shall also disclose whether any charges will be billed by the provider for supplying the patient or the provider chosen by the patient with the originals or copies of the patient's records. Such charges shall not exceed the actual costs of copying and mailing or delivering the records.

B. For the purposes of this section:

"Current patient" means a patient who has had a patient encounter with the provider or his professional practice during the two-year period immediately preceding the date of the record transfer.

"Relocation of a professional practice" means the moving of a practice located in Virginia from the location at which the records are stored at the time of the notice to another practice site that is located more than 30 miles away or to another practice site that is located in another state or the District of Columbia.

1992, c. 759; 2003, cc. 912, 917; 2004, c. 53; 2022, c. 73.

No records of the identity, diagnosis, prognosis, or treatment of any practitioner of any profession regulated by any of the regulatory boards within the Department of Health Professions obtained by the Department or any health regulatory board from a health care provider or facility that is treating or has treated such practitioner for drug addiction or chronic alcoholism shall be disclosed except:

1. In a disciplinary hearing before a health regulatory board or in any subsequent trial or appeal of a board action or order;

2. To licensing or disciplinary authorities of other jurisdictions or to hospital committees located within or outside this Commonwealth which are concerned with granting, limiting, or denying a physician hospital privileges if a final determination regarding disciplinary action has been made; or

3. Pursuant to an order of a court of competent jurisdiction.

1992, c. 808.

Any person licensed, registered, or certified by any health regulatory board who engages in the conduct of human research, as defined in § 32.1-162.16, shall comply with the provisions of Chapter 5.1 (§ 32.1-162.16 et seq.) of Title 32.1. Failure to so comply shall constitute unprofessional conduct.

1992, c. 603.

A board within the Department of Health Professions shall refuse to admit a candidate to any examination and shall refuse to issue a license, certificate or registration to any applicant if the candidate or applicant has had his license, certificate or registration to practice the profession or occupation revoked or suspended for any reason other than nonrenewal by another jurisdiction, and has not had his license, certificate or registration to so practice reinstated by the jurisdiction which revoked or suspended his license, certificate or registration, except as may be necessary to license a nurse eligible for reinstatement in another party state as consistent with the Nurse Licensure Compact.

1993, c. 991; 2010, c. 414; 2014, c. 76.

A. Any health regulatory board may suspend the license, certificate, registration, permit, or multistate licensure privilege of any person holding a license, certificate, registration, permit, or licensure privilege issued by it without a hearing simultaneously with the institution of proceedings for a hearing, if the relevant board finds that there is a substantial danger to the public health or safety which warrants this action. A board may meet by telephone conference call when summarily suspending a license, certificate, registration, permit, or licensure privilege if a good faith effort to assemble a quorum of the board has failed and, in the judgment of a majority of the members of the board, the continued practice by the individual constitutes a substantial danger to the public health or safety. Institution of proceedings for a hearing shall be provided simultaneously with the summary suspension. The hearing shall be scheduled within a reasonable time of the date of the summary suspension.

B. Any health regulatory board may restrict the license, certificate, registration, permit, or multistate licensure privilege of any person holding a license, certificate, registration, permit, or licensure privilege issued by it without proceeding simultaneously with notification of an informal conference pursuant to §§ 2.2-4019 and 54.1-2400, if the relevant board finds that there is a substantial danger to the public health or safety that warrants this action. A board may meet by telephone conference call when summarily restricting a license, certificate, registration, permit, or licensure privilege if a good faith effort to assemble a quorum of the board has failed and, in the judgment of a majority of the members of the board, the continued practice by the individual constitutes a substantial danger to the public health or safety. The informal conference shall be scheduled within a reasonable time of the date of the summary restriction. Evidence establishing that the registration issued by the U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration to a person holding a license, certificate, registration, permit, or multistate licensure privilege has been suspended or voluntarily surrendered in lieu of disciplinary action is sufficient for a finding that there is a substantial danger to the public health or safety.

C. Allegations of violations of this title shall be made in writing to the relevant health regulatory board.

1997, c. 556; 2004, c. 49; 2007, c. 22; 2013, c. 765; 2019, c. 94.

When the certificate, registration, permit, or license of any person certified, registered, permitted, or licensed by one of the health regulatory boards has been revoked, the board may, after three years and upon the payment of a fee prescribed by the board, consider an application for reinstatement of a certificate, registration, permit, or license in the same manner as the original certificates, registrations, permits, or licenses are granted; however, if a license has been revoked pursuant to subdivision A 19 of § 54.1-2915, the board shall not consider an application for reinstatement until five years have passed since revocation. A board shall conduct an investigation and review an application for reinstatement after revocation to determine whether there are causes for denial of the application. The burden of proof shall be on the applicant to show by clear and convincing evidence that he is safe and competent to practice. The reinstatement of a certificate, registration, permit, or license shall require the affirmative vote of three-fourths of the members at the hearing. In the discretion of the board, such reinstatement may be granted without further examination.

2003, cc. 753, 762; 2013, c. 365; 2014, cc. 11, 96; 2017, c. 423.

Any practitioner or entity whose license, certificate, registration, or permit is suspended or revoked by a health regulatory board of the Department of Health Professions shall not engage in practice in the Commonwealth pending appeal of the board's order.

2013, c. 115.

A. A health care practitioner licensed, certified, or registered in another state or the District of Columbia may temporarily practice for one 90-day period, provided that the following conditions are met:

1. The practitioner is contracted by or has received an offer of employment in the Commonwealth from a licensed hospital, a nursing home, a dialysis facility, the Department of Health, or a local health department;

2. The employer or contractor verifies that the out-of-state health care provider possesses an active and unencumbered license, certification, or registration for the profession in which he will be employed or contracted in another state or the District of Columbia;

3. The employer or contractor obtains a report from the National Practitioner Data Bank if the applicant is subject to reporting; and

4. Prior to the out-of-state health care practitioner's practicing, the employer or contractor notifies the appropriate health regulatory board that the out-of-state health care practitioner is employed or under contract and will practice under the temporary authorization. This notice shall include the out-of-state health care practitioner's out-of-state license, certification, or registration number and a statement that such practitioner meets all of the requirements set forth in this section.

B. If the health care practitioner practicing with a temporary authorization has submitted an application for licensure, certification, or registration, the applicable health regulatory board shall expedite such applications for out-of-state health care practitioners practicing pursuant to this section. If licensure, certification, or registration remains pending after the initial 90-day temporary authorization, the authorization may be extended for an additional 60 days, provided that the employer or contractor submits notice to the applicable health regulatory board.

C. Out-of-state health care practitioners practicing pursuant to this section shall be subject to the laws and regulations of the Commonwealth and shall be subject to disciplinary action by the applicable health regulatory board.

D. The Department of Health Professions shall, beginning July 1, 2023, annually report to the Chairmen of the Senate Committee on Education and Health and the House Committee on Health, Welfare and Institutions the number of out-of-state health care practitioners who have utilized the temporary authorization to practice pending licensure and have not subsequently been issued full licensure.

2022, cc. 463, 464.

A. Upon receipt of documentation by any court or government agency that a person licensed, certified, or registered by a board within the Department of Health Professions has (i) had his license, certificate, or registration to practice the same profession or occupation revoked or suspended for reasons other than nonrenewal or accepted for surrender in lieu of disciplinary action in another jurisdiction and has not had his license, certificate, or registration to so practice reinstated within that jurisdiction, unless such revocation, suspension, or surrender was based solely on the disciplinary action of a board within the Department or mandatory suspension by the Director of the Department or (ii) been convicted of a felony or has been adjudged incapacitated, the Director shall immediately suspend, without a hearing, the license, certificate, or registration of any person so disciplined, convicted, or adjudged. The Director shall notify such person or his legal guardian, conservator, trustee, committee, or other representative of the suspension in writing to his address on record with the Department. Such notice shall include a copy of the documentation from such court or agency, certified by the Director as the documentation received from such court or agency. Such person shall not have the right to practice within this Commonwealth until his license, certificate, or registration has been reinstated by the Board.

B. The clerk of any court in which a conviction of a felony or an adjudication of incapacity is made, who has knowledge that a person licensed, certified, or registered by a board within the Department has been convicted or found incapacitated, shall have a duty to report these findings promptly to the Director.

C. When a conviction has not become final, the Director may decline to suspend the license, certificate, or registration until the conviction becomes final if there is a likelihood of injury or damage to the public if the person's services are not available.

D. Any person whose license, certificate, or registration has been suspended as provided in this section may apply to the board for reinstatement of his license, certificate, or registration. Such person shall be entitled to a hearing not later than the next regular meeting of the board after the expiration of 60 days from the receipt of such application, and shall have the right to be represented by counsel and to summon witnesses to testify in his behalf. The Board may consider other information concerning possible violations of Virginia law at such hearing, if reasonable notice is given to such person of the information.

The reinstatement of the applicant's license, certificate, or registration shall require the affirmative vote of three-fourths of the members of the board at the hearing. The board may order such reinstatement without further examination of the applicant, or reinstate the license, certificate, or registration upon such terms and conditions as it deems appropriate.

E. Pursuant to the authority of the Board of Nursing provided in Chapter 30 (§ 54.1-3000 et seq.) of this title, the provisions of this section shall apply, mutatis mutandis, to persons holding a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing.

1993, c. 991; 1997, c. 801; 2002, c. 455; 2004, c. 49; 2006, c. 367; 2010, c. 414; 2014, c. 76; 2019, c. 138.

Any person who, without holding a current valid license, certificate, registration, permit, or multistate licensure privilege issued by a regulatory board pursuant to this title (i) performs an invasive procedure for which a license or multistate licensure privilege is required; (ii) administers, prescribes, sells, distributes, or dispenses a controlled drug; or (iii) practices a profession or occupation after having his license, certificate, registration, permit, or multistate licensure privilege to do so suspended or revoked shall be guilty of a Class 6 felony.

1994, c. 722; 2004, c. 49; 2017, c. 423.

If an interjurisdictional compact requires criminal history record checks as a condition of participation, the applicable health regulatory board shall require each applicant to submit to fingerprinting and provide personal descriptive information to be forwarded along with his fingerprints through the Central Criminal Records Exchange to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the purpose of obtaining criminal history record information. The cost of fingerprinting and the criminal history record search shall be paid by the applicant.

The Central Criminal Records Exchange shall forward the results of the state and federal criminal history record search to the applicable health regulatory board. If an applicant is denied licensure because of information appearing on his criminal history record and the applicant disputes the information upon which the denial was based, the Central Criminal Records Exchange shall, upon written request, furnish to the applicant the procedures for obtaining a copy of the criminal history record from the Federal Bureau of Investigation and the Central Criminal Records Exchange. Information obtained pursuant to this section shall not be disseminated except as provided in this section.

2023, cc. 118, 119.

The Board of Health Professions shall study and prepare a report for submission to the Governor and the General Assembly by October 1, 1997, containing its findings and recommendations on the appropriate criteria to be applied in determining the need for regulation of any health care occupation or profession. Such criteria shall address at a minimum the following principles:

1. Promotion of effective health outcomes and protection of the public from harm.

2. Accountability of health regulatory bodies to the public.

3. Promotion of consumers' access to a competent health care provider workforce.

4. Encouragement of a flexible, rational, cost-effective health care system that allows effective working relationships among health care providers.

5. Facilitation of professional and geographic mobility of competent providers.

6. Minimization of unreasonable or anti-competitive requirements that produce no demonstrable benefit.

The Board in its study shall analyze and frame its recommendations in the context of the total health care delivery system, considering the current and changing nature of the settings in which health care occupations and professions are practiced. It shall recognize in its recommendations the interaction of the regulation of health professionals with other areas of regulation including, but not limited to, the following:

1. Regulation of facilities, organizations, and insurance plans;

2. Health delivery system data;

3. Reimbursement issues;

4. Accreditation of education programs; and

5. Health workforce planning efforts.

The Board in its study shall review and analyze the work of publicly and privately sponsored studies of reform of health care workforce regulation in other states and nations. In conducting its study the Board shall cooperate with the state academic health science centers with accredited professional degree programs.

1996, c. 532.

Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, whenever a disciplinary proceeding involves a respondent who holds a license or certificate authorizing the practice of a profession represented by a statutorily created advisory board whose members are appointed by the Governor, a member of such advisory board shall sit as a full voting member on any special conference committee, informal fact-finding panel, or formal hearing panel pursuant to Article 3 (§ 2.2-4018 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 and § 54.1-2400 or 54.1-2408.2.

2002, c. 698; 2013, c. 144.

A. Any health care practitioner licensed under this title who, within the scope of his practice, orders a laboratory test or other examination of the physical condition of any person shall, if so requested by the patient or his legal guardian, provide a copy of the report of the results to the patient or his legal guardian, unless, in the professional opinion of the health care practitioner, there is a medical reason not to do so.

B. The health care practitioner, at his sole discretion, may authorize the laboratory to provide a copy of the report of the results directly to the patient or his legal guardian. The patient or his legal guardian shall then be considered authorized to receive the report or result for the purposes of the federal Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments.

C. With the prior authorization of the patient, a laboratory may, contemporaneously with, or subsequent to, furnishing the report to the ordering health care practitioner, provide a copy of the report of the results directly to the insurance carrier, health maintenance organization, or self-insured plan that provides health insurance or similar coverage to the patient. The insurance carrier, health maintenance organization, or self-insured plan shall then be considered authorized to receive the report or result for the purposes of the federal Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments.

2007, cc. 887, 930; 2011, cc. 807, 849.

A. As used in this section, "conversion therapy" means any practice or treatment that seeks to change an individual's sexual orientation or gender identity, including efforts to change behaviors or gender expressions or to eliminate or reduce sexual or romantic attractions or feelings toward individuals of the same gender. "Conversion therapy" does not include counseling that provides acceptance, support, and understanding of a person or facilitates a person's coping, social support, and identity exploration and development, including sexual-orientation-neutral interventions to prevent or address unlawful conduct or unsafe sexual practices, as long as such counseling does not seek to change an individual's sexual orientation or gender identity.

B. No person licensed pursuant to this subtitle or who performs counseling as part of his training for any profession licensed pursuant to this subtitle shall engage in conversion therapy with a person under 18 years of age. Any conversion therapy efforts with a person under 18 years of age engaged in by a provider licensed in accordance with the provisions of this subtitle or who performs counseling as part of his training for any profession licensed pursuant to this subtitle shall constitute unprofessional conduct and shall be grounds for disciplinary action by the appropriate health regulatory board within the Department of Health Professions.

2020, cc. 41, 721.

Chapter 24.1. Practitioner Self-Referral Act.

As used in this chapter or when referring to the Board of Health Professions regulatory authority therefor, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Board" means the Board of Health Professions.

"Community" means a city or a county.

"Demonstrated need" means (i) there is no facility in the community providing similar services and (ii) alternative financing is not available for the facility, or (iii) such other conditions as may be established by Board regulation.

"Entity" means any person, partnership, firm, corporation, or other business, including assisted living facilities as defined in § 63.2-100, that delivers health services.

"Group practice" means two or more health care practitioners who are members of the same legally organized partnership, professional corporation, not-for-profit corporation, faculty practice or similar association in which (i) each member provides substantially the full range of services within his licensed or certified scope of practice at the same location as the other members through the use of the organization's office space, facilities, equipment, or personnel; (ii) payments for services received from a member are treated as receipts of the organization; and (iii) the overhead expenses and income from the practice are distributed according to methods previously determined by the members.

"Health services" means any procedures or services related to prevention, diagnosis, treatment, and care rendered by a health care worker, regardless of whether the worker is regulated by the Commonwealth.

"Immediate family member" means the individual's spouse, child, child's spouse, stepchild, stepchild's spouse, grandchild, grandchild's spouse, parent, stepparent, parent-in-law, or sibling.

"Investment interest" means the ownership or holding of an equity or debt security, including, but not limited to, shares of stock in a corporation, interests or units of a partnership, bonds, debentures, notes, or other equity or debt instruments, except investment interests in a hospital licensed pursuant to Article 1 (§ 32.1-123 et seq.) of Chapter 5 of Title 32.1.

"Investor" means an individual or entity directly or indirectly possessing a legal or beneficial ownership interest, including an investment interest.

"Office practice" means the facility or facilities at which a practitioner, on an ongoing basis, provides or supervises the provision of health services to consumers.

"Practitioner" means any individual certified or licensed by any of the health regulatory boards within the Department of Health Professions, except individuals regulated by the Board of Funeral Directors and Embalmers or the Board of Veterinary Medicine.

"Referral" means to send or direct a patient for health services to another health care practitioner or entity outside the referring practitioner's group practice or office practice or to establish a plan of care which requires the provision of any health services outside the referring practitioner's group practice or office practice.

1993, c. 869; 2000, c. 201.

A. Unless the practitioner directly provides health services within the entity and will be personally involved with the provision of care to the referred patient, or has been granted an exception by the Board or satisfies the provisions of subsections D or E of this section or of subsections D or E of § 54.1-2413, a practitioner shall not refer a patient for health services to an entity outside the practitioner's office or group practice if the practitioner or any of the practitioner's immediate family members is an investor in such entity.

B. The Board may grant an exception to the prohibitions in this chapter, and may permit a practitioner to invest in and refer to an entity, regardless of whether the practitioner provides direct services within such entity, if there is a demonstrated need in the community for the entity and all of the following conditions are met:

1. Individuals other than practitioners are afforded a bona fide opportunity to invest in the entity on the same and equal terms as those offered to any referring practitioner;

2. No investor-practitioner is required or encouraged to refer patients to the entity or otherwise generate business as a condition of becoming or remaining an investor;

3. The services of the entity are marketed and furnished to practitioner-investors and other investors on the same and equal terms;

4. The entity does not issue loans or guarantee any loans for practitioners who are in a position to refer patients to such entity;

5. The income on the practitioner's investment is based on the practitioner's equity interest in the entity and is not tied to referral volumes; and

6. The investment contract between the entity and the practitioner does not include any covenant or clause limiting or preventing the practitioner's investment in other entities.

Unless the Board, the practitioner, or entity requests a hearing, the Board shall determine whether to grant or deny an exception within 90 days of the receipt of a written request from the practitioner or entity, stating the facts of the particular circumstances and certifying compliance with the conditions required by this subsection. The Board's decision shall be a final administrative decision and shall be subject to judicial review pursuant to the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.).

C. When an exception is granted pursuant to subsection B:

1. The practitioner shall disclose his investment interest in the entity to the patient at the time of referral. If alternative entities are reasonably available, the practitioner shall provide the patient with a list of such alternative entities and shall inform the patient of the option to use an alternative entity. The practitioner shall also inform the patient that choosing another entity will not affect his treatment or care;

2. Information on the practitioner's investment shall be provided if requested by any third party payor;

3. The entity shall establish and utilize an internal utilization review program to ensure that practitioner-investors are engaging in appropriate and necessary utilization; and

4. In the event of a conflict of interests between the practitioner's ownership interests and the best interests of any patient, the practitioner shall not make a referral to such entity, but shall make alternative arrangements for the referral.

D. Further, a practitioner may refer patients for health services to a publicly traded entity in which such practitioner has an investment interest, without applying for or receiving an exception from the Board, if all of the following conditions are met:

1. The entity's stock is listed for trading on the New York Stock Exchange or the American Stock Exchange or is a national market system security traded under an automated interdealer quotation system operated by the National Association of Securities Dealers;

2. The entity had, at the end of the corporation's most recent fiscal year, total net assets of at least $50,000,000 related to the furnishing of health services;

3. The entity markets and furnishes its services to practitioner-investors and other practitioners on the same and equal terms;

4. All stock of the entity, including the stock of any predecessor privately held company, is one class without preferential treatment as to status or remuneration;

5. The entity does not issue loans or guarantee any loans for practitioners who are in a position to refer patients to such entity;

6. The income on the practitioner's investment is not tied to referral volumes and is based on the practitioner's equity interest in the entity; and

7. The practitioner's investment interest does not exceed one half of one percent of the entity's total equity.

E. In addition, a practitioner may refer a patient to such practitioner's immediate family member or such immediate family member's office or group practice for health services if all of the following conditions are met:

1. The health services to be received by the patient referred by the practitioner are within the scope of practice of the practitioner's immediate family member or the treating practitioner within such immediate family member's office or group practice;

2. The practitioner's immediate family member or the treating practitioner within such immediate family member's office or group practice is qualified and duly licensed to provide the health services to be received by the patient referred to the practitioner;

3. The primary purpose of any such referral is to obtain the appropriate professional health services for the patient being referred, which are to be rendered by the referring practitioner's immediate family member or by the treating practitioner within such immediate family member's office or group practice who is qualified and licensed to provide such professional health services; and

4. The primary purpose of the referral shall not be for the provision of designated health services as defined in 42 U.S.C. § 1395nn and the regulations promulgated thereunder.

1993, c. 869; 2005, c. 402.

A. In addition to its other powers and duties, the Board of Health Professions shall administer the provisions of this chapter.

B. The Board shall promulgate, pursuant to the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.), regulations to:

1. Establish standards, procedures, and criteria which are reasonable and necessary for the effective administration of this chapter;

2. Establish standards, procedures, and criteria for determining compliance with, exceptions to, and violations of the provisions of § 54.1-2411;

3. Establish standards, procedures, and criteria for advising practitioners and entities of the applicability of this chapter to activities and investments;

4. Levy and collect fees for processing requests for exceptions from the prohibitions set forth in this chapter and for authorization to make referrals pursuant to subsection B of § 54.1-2411;

5. Establish standards, procedures, and criteria for review and referral to the appropriate health regulatory board of all reports of investigations of alleged violations of this chapter by practitioners and for investigations and determinations of violations of this chapter by entities;

6. Establish standards, procedures, and criteria for granting exceptions from the prohibitions set forth in this chapter; and

7. Establish such other regulations as may reasonably be needed to administer this chapter.

C. Upon a determination of a violation by the Board, pursuant to the Administrative Process Act, any entity, other than a practitioner, that presents or causes to be presented a bill or claim for services that the entity knows or has reason to know is prohibited by § 54.1-2411 shall be subject to a monetary penalty of no more than $20,000 per referral, bill, or claim. The monetary penalty may be sued for and recovered in the name of the Commonwealth. All such monetary penalties shall be deposited in the Literary Fund.

D. Any violation of this chapter by a practitioner shall constitute grounds for disciplinary action as unprofessional conduct by the appropriate health regulatory board within the Department of Health Professions. Sanctions for violation of this chapter may include, but are not limited to, the monetary penalty authorized in § 54.1-2401.

1993, c. 869.

A. No hospital licensed in the Commonwealth shall discriminate against or otherwise penalize any practitioner for compliance with the provisions of this chapter.

B. No practitioner, other health care worker, or entity shall enter into any agreement, arrangement, or scheme intended to evade the provisions of this chapter by inducing patient referrals in a manner which would be prohibited by this chapter if the practitioner made the referrals directly.

C. No group practice shall be formed for the purpose of facilitating referrals that would otherwise be prohibited by this chapter.

D. Notwithstanding the provisions of this chapter, a practitioner may refer a patient who is a member of a health maintenance organization to an entity in which the practitioner is an investor if the referral is made pursuant to a contract with the health maintenance organization.

E. Notwithstanding the provisions of this chapter, a referral to an entity in which the referring practitioner or his immediate family member is an investor shall not be in violation of this chapter if (i) the health service to be provided is a designated health service as defined in 42 U.S.C. § 1395nn (h)(6), as amended, and an exception authorized by 42 U.S.C. § 1395nn, as amended, or any regulations adopted pursuant thereto, applies, or (ii) the health service to be provided is not a designated health service as defined in 42 U.S.C. § 1395nn (h)(6), as amended, but would qualify for an exception authorized by 42 U.S.C. § 1395nn, as amended, or any regulations adopted pursuant thereto, if the health service were a designated health service.

1993, c. 869; 2005, c. 402; 2010, c. 743.

This chapter shall apply, in the case of any investment interest acquired after February 1, 1993, to referrals for health services made by a practitioner on or after July 1, 1993. However, in the case of any investment interest acquired prior to February 1, 1993, compliance with the provisions of this chapter is required by July 1, 1996.

1993, c. 869.

Chapter 25. Department of Health Professions.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Board" means the Board of Health Professions.

"Department" means the Department of Health Professions.

"Director" means the Director of the Department of Health Professions.

"Health regulatory board" or "regulatory board" means any board included within the Department of Health Professions as provided in § 54.1-2503.

1977, c. 579, § 54-950; 1980, c. 678; 1983, c. 115; 1985, c. 448; 1986, c. 564; 1987, c. 686; 1988, c. 765.

The Department of Health Professions established within the executive branch, shall be under the supervision and management of the Director of the Department.

1977, c. 579, § 54-950.1; 1984, c. 720; 1986, c. 564; 1988, c. 765.

The Department of Health Professions shall establish a roster of consultants in health care specialties for each health regulatory board, as required. The Department shall contract with each consultant to assist in the investigation and evaluation of violations of statute or regulations of the health regulatory boards and to provide expert testimony as necessary in any subsequent administrative hearing. The cost of the consultants shall be paid by the board for which the services are provided.

Any consultant under contract to the Department shall have immunity from civil liability resulting from any communication, finding, opinion or conclusion made in the course of his duties unless such person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

1986, c. 564, § 54-960.1; 1988, c. 765.

In addition to the Board of Health Professions, the following boards are included within the Department: Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology, Board of Counseling, Board of Dentistry, Board of Funeral Directors and Embalmers, Board of Long-Term Care Administrators, Board of Medicine, Board of Nursing, Board of Optometry, Board of Pharmacy, Board of Physical Therapy, Board of Psychology, Board of Social Work and Board of Veterinary Medicine.

1977, c. 579, § 54-950.2; 1980, c. 678; 1983, c. 115; 1987, c. 686; 1988, c. 765; 1992, cc. 706, 841; 1993, c. 869; 2000, cc. 473, 688; 2005, cc. 610, 924.

The Director of the Department of Health Professions shall be appointed by the Governor, subject to confirmation by the General Assembly, to serve at the pleasure of the Governor.

1986, c. 564, § 54-954.1; 1988, c. 765.

The Director of the Department shall have the following powers and duties:

1. To supervise and manage the Department;

2. To perform or consolidate such administrative services or functions as may assist the operation of the boards;

3. To prepare, approve and submit to the Governor, after consultation with the boards, all requests for appropriations and be responsible for all expenditures pursuant to appropriations;

4. To provide such office facilities as will allow the boards to carry out their duties;

5. To employ personnel as required for the proper performance of the responsibilities of the Department subject to Chapter 29 (§ 2.2-2900 et seq.) of Title 2.2 within the limits of appropriations made by law;

6. To receive all complaints made against regulated health care professionals;

7. To develop administrative policies and procedures governing the receipt and recording of complaints;

8. To monitor the status of actions taken under the auspices of the boards regarding complaints until the closure of each case;

9. To provide investigative and such other services as needed by the boards to enforce their respective statutes and regulations;

10. To provide staff to assist in the performance of the duties of the Board of Health Professions;

11. To collect and account for all fees to be paid into each board and account for and deposit the moneys so collected into a special fund from which the expenses of the health regulatory boards, the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program, and the Department and Board of Health Professions shall be paid. Such fees shall be held exclusively to cover the expenses of the health regulatory boards, the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program, and the Department and Board of Health Professions and shall not be transferred to any agency other than the Department of Health Professions, except as provided in §§ 54.1-3011.1 and 54.1-3011.2;

12. To make and enter into all contracts and agreements necessary or incidental to the performance of his duties and the execution of his powers, including, but not limited to, contracts with the United States, other states, agencies and governmental subdivisions of the Commonwealth;

13. To accept grants from the United States government, its agencies and instrumentalities, and any other source. The Director shall have the power to comply with conditions and execute agreements as may be necessary, convenient or desirable;

14. To promulgate and revise regulations necessary for the administration of the Department and such regulations as are necessary for the implementation of the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program pursuant to Chapter 25.1 (§ 54.1-2515 et seq.) of this title and subdivision 19 of this section;

15. To report promptly, after consultation with the presiding officer of the appropriate health regulatory board or his designee, to the Attorney General or the appropriate attorney for the Commonwealth any information the Department obtains which, upon appropriate investigation, indicates, in the judgment of the Director, that a person licensed by any of the health regulatory boards has violated any provision of criminal law, including the laws relating to manufacturing, distributing, dispensing, prescribing or administering drugs other than drugs classified as Schedule VI drugs. When necessary, the Attorney General or the attorney for the Commonwealth shall request that the Department of Health Professions or the Department of State Police conduct any subsequent investigation of such report. Upon request and affidavit from an attorney for the Commonwealth, the Director shall provide documents material to a criminal investigation of a person licensed by a health regulatory board; however, peer review documents shall not be released and shall remain privileged pursuant to § 8.01-581.17. For the purpose of this section, the terms manufacturing, distributing, dispensing, prescribing or administering drugs shall not include minor administrative or clerical errors which do not affect the inventory of drugs required by Chapter 34 (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) of this title and do not indicate a pattern of criminal behavior;

16. To keep records of the names and qualifications of registered, certified or licensed persons;

17. To exercise other powers and perform other duties required of the Director by the Governor;

18. To issue subpoenas in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) for any informal fact finding or formal proceeding within the jurisdiction of the Department or any regulatory board;

19. To establish, and revise as necessary, a health practitioners' monitoring program pursuant to Chapter 25.1 (§ 54.1-2515 et seq.) of this title;

20. To establish, and revise as necessary, with such federal funds, grants, or general funds as may be appropriated or made available for this program, the Prescription Monitoring Program pursuant to Chapter 25.2 (§ 54.1-2519 et seq.) of this title; and

21. To assess a civil penalty against any person who is not licensed by a health regulatory board for failing to report a violation pursuant to § 54.1-2400.6 or § 54.1-2909.

1977, c. 579, § 54-955; 1980, c. 678; 1983, c. 528; 1986, c. 564; 1988, cc. 266, 765; 1997, c. 439; 2002, c. 481; 2003, cc. 753, 762; 2004, c. 64; 2006, c. 631; 2009, c. 472.

A. The Director and investigative personnel appointed by him shall be sworn to enforce the statutes and regulations pertaining to the Department, the Board, and the health regulatory boards and shall have the authority to investigate any violations of those statutes and regulations and to the extent otherwise authorized by law inspect any office or facility operated, owned or employing individuals regulated by any health regulatory board. The Director or his designee shall have the power to subpoena witnesses and to request and obtain patient records, business records, papers, and physical or other evidence in the course of any investigation or to issue subpoenas requiring the production of such evidence. A subpoena issued pursuant to this section may be served by (i) any person authorized to serve process under § 8.01-293, (ii) investigative personnel appointed by the Director, (iii) registered or certified mail or by equivalent commercial parcel delivery service, or (iv) email or facsimile if requested to do so by the recipient. Upon failure of any person to comply with a subpoena duly served, the Director may, pursuant to § 54.1-111, request that the Attorney General or the attorney for the Commonwealth for the jurisdiction in which the recipient of the subpoena resides, is found, or transacts business seek enforcement of the subpoena in such jurisdiction.

B. All investigative personnel shall be vested with the authority to (i) administer oaths or affirmations for the purpose of receiving complaints of violations of this subtitle, (ii) serve and execute any warrant, paper or process issued by any court or magistrate, the Board, the Director or in his absence a designated subordinate, or by any regulatory board under the authority of the Director, (iii) request and receive criminal history information under the provisions of § 19.2-389, and (iv) request and receive social security numbers from practitioners or federal employee identification numbers from facilities.

C. The Director shall have the authority to issue summonses for violations of statutes and regulations governing the unlicensed practice of professions regulated by the Department. The Director may delegate such authority to investigators appointed by him. In the event a person issued such a summons fails or refuses to discontinue the unlawful acts or refuses to give a written promise to appear at the time and place specified in the summons, the investigator may appear before a magistrate or other issuing authority having jurisdiction to obtain a criminal warrant pursuant to § 19.2-72.

1980, c. 678, § 54-960; 1986, c. 564; 1988, c. 765; 1993, c. 869; 2003, cc. 753, 762; 2008, c. 37; 2011, c. 50; 2018, c. 466.

The Department shall investigate all complaints that are within the jurisdiction of the relevant health regulatory board received from (i) the general public and (ii) all reports received pursuant to §§ 54.1-2400.6, 54.1-2400.7, 54.1-2709.3, 54.1-2709.4, 54.1-2908, or § 54.1-2909.

2003, cc. 753, 762; 2004, c. 64.

A. The Department is authorized to require individuals applying for initial licensure, certification, or registration, and individuals who are licensed, certified, or registered by a health regulatory board to provide information in addition to that which is required to determine the individual's qualifications. Such additional information shall include identification of the individual's self-designated specialties and subspecialties; credentials and certifications issued by professional associations, institutions and boards; and locations of each practice site, number of hours spent practicing at each practice site location, and demographic information. The Department, in consultation with the health regulatory boards, may establish criteria to identify additional data elements deemed necessary for workforce and health planning purposes. Such information shall be collected and maintained by the Department for workforce and health planning purposes in cooperation with agencies and institutions of the Commonwealth and shall be released by the Department only in the aggregate without reference to any person's name or other individual identifiers; however, the Department may release any information that identifies specific individuals for the purpose of determining shortage designations and to qualified personnel if pertinent to an investigation, research, or study, provided a written agreement between such qualified personnel and the Department, which ensures that any person to whom such identities are divulged shall preserve the confidentiality of those identities, is executed. Prior to collecting any information described in this section from individuals, the Department shall first attempt to obtain from other sources information sufficient for workforce planning purposes.

B. For the purpose of expediting the dissemination of public health information, including notice about a public health emergency, the Department is authorized to require certain licensed, certified or registered persons to report any email address, telephone number and facsimile number that may be used to contact such person in the event of a public health emergency or to provide information related to serving during a public health emergency. In the event of an animal health emergency, the Department shall provide to the State Veterinarian the email addresses, telephone numbers and facsimile numbers that may be used to contact licensed veterinarians.

Such email addresses, telephone numbers and facsimile numbers shall not be published, released or made available for any other purpose by the Department, the Department of Health, or the State Veterinarian.

The Director, in consultation with the Department of Health and the Department of Emergency Management, shall adopt regulations that identify those licensed, certified or registered persons to which the requirement to report shall apply and the procedures for reporting.

1994, c. 853; 1997, c. 806; 2003, c. 602; 2005, c. 55; 2009, c. 382.

Whenever funds are held in escrow, in trust, or in some other fiduciary capacity by a person licensed by any of the health regulatory boards and the Director or investigative personnel appointed by him have reason to believe that such person is not able or is unwilling to adequately protect such funds or the interest of any person therein, the Director may file a petition with any court of record having equity jurisdiction over such person or any of the funds held by such person stating the facts upon which he relies. The court may temporarily enjoin further activity by such person and take such further action as shall be necessary to conserve, protect and disburse the funds involved, including the appointment of a receiver. If a receiver is appointed his expenses and a reasonable fee as determined by the court shall be paid by such person.

1995, c. 738.

The Board of Health Professions shall consist of one member from each health regulatory board appointed by the Governor and five members to be appointed by the Governor from the Commonwealth at large. No member of the Board of Health Professions who represents a health regulatory board shall serve as such after he ceases to be a member of a board. The members appointed by the Governor shall be subject to confirmation by the General Assembly and shall serve for four-year terms or terms concurrent with their terms as members of health regulatory boards, whichever is less.

1977, c. 579, § 54-951; 1985, c. 448; 1986, c. 564; 1988, c. 765; 2016, c. 105.

The chairman of the Board of Health Professions shall be elected by the Board from its members. The Board shall meet at least annually and may hold additional meetings as necessary to perform its duties. A majority of the Board shall constitute a quorum for the conduct of business.

1977, c. 579, § 54-953; 1980, c. 678; 1986, c. 564; 1988, c. 765; 2012, c. 361.

All members of the Board shall be compensated in accordance with § 2.2-2813 from the funds of the Department.

1977, c. 579, § 54-954; 1980, cc. 678, 728; 1986, c. 564; 1988, c. 765.

The Board of Health Professions shall have the following powers and duties:

1. To evaluate the need for coordination among the health regulatory boards and their staffs and report its findings and recommendations to the Director and the boards;

2. To evaluate all health care professions and occupations in the Commonwealth, including those regulated and those not regulated by other provisions of this title, to consider whether each such profession or occupation should be regulated and the degree of regulation to be imposed. Whenever the Board determines that the public interest requires that a health care profession or occupation which is not regulated by law should be regulated, the Board shall recommend to the General Assembly a regulatory system to establish the appropriate degree of regulation;

3. To review and comment on the budget for the Department;

4. To provide a means of citizen access to the Department;

5. To provide a means of publicizing the policies and programs of the Department in order to educate the public and elicit public support for Department activities;

6. To monitor the policies and activities of the Department, serve as a forum for resolving conflicts among the health regulatory boards and between the health regulatory boards and the Department and have access to departmental information;

7. To advise the Governor, the General Assembly and the Director on matters relating to the regulation or deregulation of health care professions and occupations;

8. To make bylaws for the government of the Board of Health Professions and the proper fulfillment of its duties under this chapter;

9. To promote the development of standards to evaluate the competency of the professions and occupations represented on the Board;

10. To review and comment, as it deems appropriate, on all regulations promulgated or proposed for issuance by the health regulatory boards under the auspices of the Department. At least one member of the relevant board shall be invited to be present during any comments by the Board on proposed board regulations;

11. To review periodically the investigatory, disciplinary and enforcement processes of the Department and the individual boards to ensure the protection of the public and the fair and equitable treatment of health professionals;

12. To examine scope of practice conflicts involving regulated and unregulated professions and advise the health regulatory boards and the General Assembly of the nature and degree of such conflicts;

13. To receive, review, and forward to the appropriate health regulatory board any departmental investigative reports relating to complaints of violations by practitioners of Chapter 24.1 (§ 54.1-2410 et seq.) of this subtitle;

14. To determine compliance with and violations of and grant exceptions to the prohibitions set forth in Chapter 24.1 of this subtitle; and

15. To take appropriate actions against entities, other than practitioners, for violations of Chapter 24.1 of this subtitle.

1977, c. 579, § 54-955.1; 1980, c. 678; 1984, cc. 447, 720, 734; 1986, c. 564; 1988, c. 765; 1993, c. 869.

Chapter 25.1. Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Committee" means the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program Committee as described in § 54.1-2517.

"Contract" means a written agreement between a practitioner and the Committee providing the terms and conditions of program participation or a written agreement entered into by the Director for the implementation of monitoring services.

"Disciplinary action" means any proceeding that may lead to a monetary penalty or probation or to a reprimand, restriction, revocation, suspension, denial, or other order relating to the license, certificate, registration, or multistate privilege of a health care practitioner issued by a health regulatory board.

"Impairment" means a physical or mental disability, including but not limited to substance abuse, that substantially alters the ability of a practitioner to practice his profession with safety to his patients and the public.

"Practitioner" means any individual regulated by any health regulatory board listed in § 54.1-2503.

"Program" means the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program established pursuant to § 54.1-2516.

1997, c. 439; 2009, c. 472; 2016, c. 105.

A. The Director of the Department of Health Professions shall maintain a health practitioners' monitoring program that provides an alternative to disciplinary action for impaired health practitioners. The Director shall promulgate such regulations as are necessary for the implementation of this program after consulting with the various health regulatory boards.

The Director may, in consultation and coordination with the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program Committee, enter into contracts as may be necessary for the implementation of monitoring services. Such services may include education, assessment, referral for intervention and treatment, and monitoring of impaired practitioners. If the Director enters into an agreement with another agency of the Commonwealth pursuant to this section, that agency shall be immune from liability resulting from the good faith exercise of its obligations under the agreement.

When evaluating such contracts, the Director shall consider the utilization of programs, as appropriate, that have been established by professional organizations for peer assistance of impaired practitioners.

The Program's operating costs, including any contractual obligations for services, shall be funded by special dedicated revenues consistent with the provisions of §§ 54.1-113, 54.1-2400, and 54.1-2505. However, this section shall not prohibit the Committee from charging participants a reasonable portion of a fee related to the costs of participation in the Program. No participant shall be denied entry into the Program due to the inability to pay a portion of the costs related to participation.

Any monitoring program for individuals licensed or certified by the Board of Medicine, and any contract for the implementation of monitoring services with respect to any such individuals, shall be subject to the prior approval of that Board.

B. Any health practitioner who has an impairment as defined in this chapter, may, on a voluntary basis, participate in the Program regardless of whether the impairment constitutes grounds for disciplinary action.

C. Disciplinary action shall be stayed upon entry of the practitioner in the Program under the following conditions:

1. No report of a possible violation of law or regulation has been made against the practitioner other than impairment or the diversion of controlled substances for personal use and such use does not constitute a danger to patients or clients.

2. The practitioner has entered the Program by written contract with the Committee.

3. Disciplinary action against the practitioner has not previously been stayed in accordance with this section.

4. The practitioner remains in compliance with the terms of his contract with the Committee.

5. The Committee has consulted with the designated representative of the relevant health regulatory board.

1997, c. 439; 2009, c. 472.

A. The Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program Committee shall consist of nine persons appointed by the Director to advise and assist in the operation of the Program, of whom eight shall be licensed, certified, or registered practitioners and one shall be a citizen member. Of the members who are licensed, certified, or registered practitioners, at least one shall be licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy in Virginia and engaged in active clinical practice, at least one shall be a registered nurse engaged in active practice, and all shall be knowledgeable about impairment and rehabilitation, particularly as related to the monitoring of health care practitioners. The Committee shall have the following powers and duties:

1. To determine, in accordance with the regulations, eligibility to enter into the Program;

2. To determine, in accordance with the regulations, those Program participants who are eligible for stayed disciplinary action;

3. To enter into written contracts with practitioners which may include, among other terms and conditions, withdrawal from practice or limitations on the scope of the practice for a period of time;

4. To report to the Director and the health regulatory boards as necessary on the status of applicants for and participants in the Program;

5. To report to the Director, at least annually, on the performance of the Program; and

6. To assist the Director in carrying out the provisions of this chapter.

B. Records of the Program, to the extent such records identify individual practitioners in the Program, shall be privileged and confidential, and shall not be disclosed consistent with the Virginia Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq.). Such records shall be used only in the exercise of the proper functions as set forth in this chapter and shall not be public records nor shall such records be subject to court order, except as provided in subdivision C 4, or be subject to discovery or introduction as evidence in any civil, criminal, or administrative proceedings except those conducted by a health regulatory board.

C. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection B and of subdivision 2 of § 2.2-3705.5, the Committee may disclose such records relative to an impaired practitioner only:

1. When disclosure of the information is essential to the monitoring needs of the impaired practitioner;

2. When release of the information has been authorized in writing by the impaired practitioner;

3. To a health regulatory board within the Department of Health Professions; or

4. When an order by a court of competent jurisdiction has been granted, upon a showing of good cause therefor, including the need to avert a substantial risk of death or serious bodily harm. In assessing good cause, the court shall weigh the public interest and the need for disclosure against the injury to the patient, to the physician-patient relationship, and to the treatment services. Upon the granting of such order, the court, in determining the extent to which any disclosure of all or any part of any record is necessary, shall impose appropriate protections against unauthorized disclosures.

D. Pursuant to subdivision A 24 of § 2.2-3711, the proceedings of the Committee which in any way pertain or refer to a specific practitioner who may be, or who is actually, impaired and who may be or is, by reason of such impairment, subject to disciplinary action by the relevant board shall be excluded from the requirements of the Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq.) and may be closed. Such proceedings shall be privileged and confidential.

E. The members of the Committee shall be immune from liability resulting from the exercise of the powers and duties of the Committee as provided in § 8.01-581.13.

1997, c. 439; 1999, cc. 703, 726; 2004, c. 690; 2009, c. 472; 2016, c. 105; 2017, c. 778.

This chapter shall not be construed to inhibit an investigation into the conduct of a practitioner by the Department of Health Professions or any other authorized agency, including, but not limited to, law-enforcement or health regulatory agencies, or to prohibit the prosecution of any practitioner for any violation of law.

1997, c. 439.

Chapter 25.2. Prescription Monitoring Program.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Administer" means the direct application of a controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion or any other means, to the body of a patient or research subject by (i) a practitioner or, under the practitioner's direction, his authorized agent or (ii) the patient or research subject at the direction and in the presence of the practitioner.

"Bureau" means the Virginia Department of State Police, Bureau of Criminal Investigation, Drug Diversion Unit.

"Controlled substance" means a drug, substance or immediate precursor in Schedules I through VI of the Drug Control Act, Chapter 34 (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) of this title.

"Covered substance" means all controlled substances included in Schedules II, III, and IV; controlled substances included in Schedule V for which a prescription is required; naloxone; and all drugs of concern that are required to be reported to the Prescription Monitoring Program, pursuant to this chapter. "Covered substance" also includes cannabis products dispensed by a pharmaceutical processor in Virginia.

"Department" means the Virginia Department of Health Professions.

"Director" means the Director of the Virginia Department of Health Professions.

"Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to an ultimate user, research subject, or owner of an animal patient by or pursuant to the lawful order of a practitioner, including the prescribing and administering, packaging, labeling or compounding necessary to prepare the substance for that delivery.

"Dispenser" means a person or entity that (i) is authorized by law to dispense a covered substance or to maintain a stock of covered substances for the purpose of dispensing, and (ii) dispenses the covered substance to a citizen of the Commonwealth regardless of the location of the dispenser, or who dispenses such covered substance from a location in Virginia regardless of the location of the recipient.

"Drug of concern" means any drug or substance, including any controlled substance or other drug or substance, where there has been or there is the potential for abuse and that has been identified by the Board of Pharmacy pursuant to § 54.1-3456.1.

"Prescriber" means a practitioner licensed in the Commonwealth who is authorized pursuant to §§ 54.1-3303 and 54.1-3408 to issue a prescription for a covered substance or a practitioner licensed in another state to so issue a prescription for a covered substance.

"Recipient" means a person who receives a covered substance from a dispenser and includes the owner of an animal patient.

"Relevant health regulatory board" means any such board that licenses persons or entities with the authority to prescribe or dispense covered substances, including the Board of Dentistry, the Board of Medicine, the Board of Veterinary Medicine, and the Board of Pharmacy.

2002, c. 481; 2005, cc. 637, 678; 2014, c. 664; 2018, cc. 185, 379, 567, 772; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 227, 228.

A. The Director shall establish, maintain, and administer an electronic system to monitor the dispensing of covered substances to be known as the Prescription Monitoring Program.

B. The Director, after consultation with relevant health regulatory boards, shall promulgate, in accordance with the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.), such regulations as are necessary to implement the prescription monitoring program as provided in this chapter, including, but not limited to, the establishment of criteria for granting waivers of the reporting requirements set forth in § 54.1-2521.

C. The Director may enter into contracts as may be necessary for the implementation and maintenance of the Prescription Monitoring Program.

D. The Director shall provide dispensers with a basic file layout to enable electronic transmission of the information required in this chapter. For those dispensers unable to transmit the required information electronically, the Director shall provide an alternative means of data transmission.

E. The Director shall also establish an advisory committee within the Department to assist in the implementation and evaluation of the Prescription Monitoring Program. Such advisory committee shall provide guidance to the Director regarding information disclosed pursuant to subdivision C 9 of § 54.1-2523.

2002, c. 481; 2005, cc. 637, 678; 2014, c. 664; 2016, cc. 410, 568; 2018, cc. 185, 379.

A. The failure by any person subject to the reporting requirements set forth in this section and the Department's regulations to report the dispensing of covered substances shall constitute grounds for disciplinary action by the relevant health regulatory board.

B. Upon dispensing a covered substance, a dispenser of such covered substance shall report the following information:

1. The recipient's name and address.

2. The recipient's date of birth.

3. The covered substance that was dispensed to the recipient, which, in the case of a cannabis product, shall be listed as the primary cannabinoid of such cannabis product.

4. The quantity of the covered substance that was dispensed.

5. The date of the dispensing.

6. The prescriber's identifier number and, in cases in which the covered substance is a cannabis product, the product's national drug code and the expiration date of the written certification.

7. The dispenser's identifier number.

8. The method of payment for the prescription.

9. Any other non-clinical information that is designated by the Director as necessary for the implementation of this chapter in accordance with the Department's regulations.

10. Any other information specified in regulations promulgated by the Director as required in order for the Prescription Monitoring Program to be eligible to receive federal funds.

C. Except as provided in subdivision 7 of § 54.1-2522, in cases where the ultimate user of a covered substance is an animal, the dispenser shall report the relevant information required by subsection B for the owner of the animal.

D. The reports required herein shall be made to the Department or its agent within 24 hours or the dispenser's next business day, whichever comes later, and shall be made and transmitted in such manner and format and according to the standards and schedule established in the Department's regulations.

2002, c. 481; 2006, c. 167; 2012, cc. 21, 71; 2016, c. 309; 2018, cc. 567, 772; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 227, 228; 2023, c. 799.

The dispensing of covered substances under the following circumstances shall be exempt from the reporting requirements set forth in § 54.1-2521:

1. Dispensing of manufacturers' samples of such covered substances or of covered substances dispensed pursuant to an indigent patient program offered by a pharmaceutical manufacturer.

2. Dispensing of covered substances by a practitioner of the healing arts to his patient in a bona fide medical emergency or when pharmaceutical services are not available.

3. Administering of covered substances.

4. Dispensing of covered substances within an appropriately licensed narcotic maintenance treatment program.

5. Dispensing of covered substances to inpatients in hospitals or nursing facilities licensed by the Board of Health or facilities that are otherwise authorized by law to operate as hospitals or nursing homes in the Commonwealth.

6. Dispensing of covered substances to inpatients in hospices licensed by the Board of Health.

7. Dispensing of covered substances by veterinarians to animals within the usual course of their professional practice for a course of treatment to last seven days or less or if such covered substance is feline buprenorphine or canine butorphanol.

8. Dispensing of covered substances as otherwise provided in the Department's regulations.

2002, c. 481; 2018, c. 772; 2019, c. 686.

A. Any prescriber who is licensed in the Commonwealth to treat human patients and is authorized pursuant to §§ 54.1-3303 and 54.1-3408 to issue a prescription for a covered substance shall be registered with the Prescription Monitoring Program by the Department of Health Professions.

B. A prescriber registered with the Prescription Monitoring Program or a person to whom he has delegated authority to access information in the possession of the Prescription Monitoring Program pursuant to § 54.1-2523.2 shall, at the time of initiating a new course of treatment to a human patient that includes the prescribing of opioids anticipated at the onset of treatment to last more than seven consecutive days, request information from the Director for the purpose of determining what, if any, other covered substances are currently prescribed to the patient. In addition, any prescriber who holds a special identification number from the Drug Enforcement Administration authorizing the prescribing of controlled substances approved for use in opioid addiction therapy shall, prior to or as a part of execution of a treatment agreement with the patient, request information from the Director for the purpose of determining what, if any, other covered substances the patient is currently being prescribed. Nothing in this section shall prohibit prescribers from making additional periodic requests for information from the Director as may be required by routine prescribing practices.

C. A prescriber shall not be required to meet the provisions of subsection B if:

1. The opioid is prescribed to a patient currently receiving hospice or palliative care;

2. The opioid is prescribed to a patient during an inpatient hospital admission or at discharge;

3. The opioid is prescribed to a patient in a nursing home or a patient in an assisted living facility that uses a sole source pharmacy;

4. The Prescription Monitoring Program is not operational or available due to temporary technological or electrical failure or natural disaster; or

5. The prescriber is unable to access the Prescription Monitoring Program due to emergency or disaster and documents such circumstances in the patient's medical record.

D. Prior to issuing a written certification for the use of cannabis oil in accordance with § 54.1-3408.3, a practitioner shall request information from the Director for the purpose of determining what, if any, other covered substances have been dispensed to the patient.

2014, cc. 93, 178; 2015, c. 517; 2016, cc. 113, 406; 2017, cc. 249, 252; 2018, cc. 102, 106, 567.

A. Any prescriber who is licensed in the Commonwealth to treat human patients and is authorized pursuant to §§ 54.1-3303 and 54.1-3408 to issue a prescription for a covered substance shall be registered with the Prescription Monitoring Program by the Department of Health Professions.

B. A prescriber registered with the Prescription Monitoring Program or a person to whom he has delegated authority to access information in the possession of the Prescription Monitoring Program pursuant to § 54.1-2523.2 shall, at the time of initiating a new course of treatment to a human patient that includes the prescribing of opioids anticipated at the onset of treatment to last more than seven consecutive days, request information from the Director for the purpose of determining what, if any, other covered substances are currently prescribed to the patient. In addition, any prescriber who holds a special identification number from the Drug Enforcement Administration authorizing the prescribing of controlled substances approved for use in opioid addiction therapy shall, prior to or as a part of execution of a treatment agreement with the patient, request information from the Director for the purpose of determining what, if any, other covered substances the patient is currently being prescribed. Nothing in this section shall prohibit prescribers from making additional periodic requests for information from the Director as may be required by routine prescribing practices.

C. A prescriber shall not be required to meet the provisions of subsection B if:

1. The opioid is prescribed to a patient currently receiving hospice or palliative care;

2. The opioid is prescribed to a patient during an inpatient hospital admission or at discharge;

3. The opioid is prescribed to a patient in a nursing home or a patient in an assisted living facility that uses a sole source pharmacy;

4. The Prescription Monitoring Program is not operational or available due to temporary technological or electrical failure or natural disaster; or

5. The prescriber is unable to access the Prescription Monitoring Program due to emergency or disaster and documents such circumstances in the patient's medical record.

D. Prior to issuing a written certification for the use of cannabis oil in accordance with § 4.1-1601, a practitioner shall request information from the Director for the purpose of determining what, if any, other covered substances have been dispensed to the patient.

2014, cc. 93, 178; 2015, c. 517; 2016, cc. 113, 406; 2017, cc. 249, 252; 2018, cc. 102, 106, 567; 2023, cc. 740, 773.

A. Any prescriber who is licensed in the Commonwealth to treat human patients and is authorized pursuant to §§ 54.1-3303 and 54.1-3408 to issue a prescription for a covered substance shall be registered with the Prescription Monitoring Program by the Department of Health Professions.

B. Prescribers registered with the Prescription Monitoring Program shall, at the time of initiating a new course of treatment to a human patient that includes the prescribing of benzodiazepine or an opiate anticipated at the onset of treatment to last more than 90 consecutive days, request information from the Director for the purpose of determining what, if any, other covered substances are currently prescribed to the patient. In addition, any prescriber who holds a special identification number from the Drug Enforcement Administration authorizing the prescribing of controlled substances approved for use in opioid addiction therapy shall, prior to or as a part of execution of a treatment agreement with the patient, request information from the Director for the purpose of determining what, if any, other covered substances the patient is currently being prescribed. Nothing in this section shall prohibit prescribers from making additional periodic requests for information from the Director as may be required by routine prescribing practices.

C. The Secretary of Health and Human Resources may identify and publish a list of benzodiazepines or opiates that have a low potential for abuse by human patients. Prescribers who prescribe such identified benzodiazepines or opiates shall not be required to meet the provisions of subsection B. In addition, a prescriber shall not be required to meet the provisions of subsection B if the course of treatment arises from pain management relating to dialysis or cancer treatments.

D. Prior to issuing a written certification for the use of cannabis oil in accordance with § 4.1-1601, a practitioner shall request information from the Director for the purpose of determining what, if any, other covered substances have been dispensed to the patient.

2014, cc. 93, 178; 2015, c. 517; 2016, cc. 113, 406; 2017, cc. 249, 252; 2018, cc. 102, 106, 567; 2023, cc. 740, 773.

The Department shall register every dispenser licensed by the Board of Pharmacy pursuant to Article 3 (§ 54.1-3310 et seq.) of Chapter 33 with the Prescription Monitoring Program.

2015, c. 517.

A. All data, records, and reports relating to the prescribing and dispensing of covered substances to recipients and any abstracts from such data, records, and reports that are in the possession of the Prescription Monitoring Program pursuant to this chapter and any material relating to the operation or security of the program shall be confidential and shall be exempt from the Virginia Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq.) pursuant to subdivision 2 of § 2.2-3705.5. Records in possession of the Prescription Monitoring Program shall not be available for civil subpoena, nor shall such records be disclosed, discoverable, or compelled to be produced in any civil proceeding, nor shall such records be deemed admissible as evidence in any civil proceeding for any reason. Further, the Director shall only have discretion to disclose any such information as provided in subsections B and C.

B. Upon receiving a request for information in accordance with the Department's regulations and in compliance with applicable federal law and regulations, the Director shall disclose the following:

1. Information relevant to a specific investigation of a specific recipient or of a specific dispenser or prescriber to an agent who has completed the Virginia State Police Drug Diversion School designated by the superintendent of the Department of State Police or designated by the chief law-enforcement officer of any county, city, or town or campus police department to conduct drug diversion investigations pursuant to § 54.1-3405.

2. Information relevant to an investigation or inspection of or allegation of misconduct by a specific person licensed, certified, or registered by or an applicant for licensure, certification, or registration by a health regulatory board; information relevant to a disciplinary proceeding before a health regulatory board or in any subsequent trial or appeal of an action or board order to designated employees of the Department of Health Professions; or to designated persons operating the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program pursuant to Chapter 25.1 (§ 54.1-2515 et seq.).

3. Information relevant to the proceedings of any investigatory grand jury or special grand jury that has been properly impaneled in accordance with the provisions of Chapter 13 (§ 19.2-191 et seq.) of Title 19.2.

4. Information relevant to a specific investigation of a specific recipient, dispenser, or prescriber to an agent of a federal law-enforcement agency with authority to conduct drug diversion investigations.

5. Information relevant to a specific investigation, supervision, or monitoring of a specific recipient for purposes of the administration of criminal justice pursuant to Chapter 1 (§ 9.1-100 et seq.) of Title 9.1 to a probation or parole officer as described in Article 2 (§ 53.1-141 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 53.1 or a local community-based probation officer as described in § 9.1-176.1 who has completed the Virginia State Police Drug Diversion School designated by the Director of the Department of Corrections or his designee.

6. Information relevant to a specific investigation of a specific individual into a possible delivery of a controlled substance in violation of § 18.2-474.1 to an investigator for the Department of Corrections who has completed the Virginia State Police Drug Diversion School and who has been designated by the Director of the Department of Corrections or his designee.

7. Information about a specific recipient to the Emergency Department Care Coordination Program in accordance with subdivision B 6 of § 32.1-372.

C. In accordance with the Department's regulations and applicable federal law and regulations, the Director may, in his discretion, disclose:

1. Information in the possession of the Prescription Monitoring Program concerning a recipient who is over the age of 18 to that recipient. The information shall be mailed to the street or mailing address indicated on the recipient request form.

2. Information on a specific recipient to a prescriber, as defined in this chapter, for the purpose of establishing the treatment history of the specific recipient when such recipient is either under care and treatment by the prescriber or the prescriber is consulting on or initiating treatment of such recipient. In a manner specified by the Director in regulation, notice shall be given to patients that information may be requested by the prescriber from the Prescription Monitoring Program.

3. Information on a specific recipient to a dispenser for the purpose of establishing a prescription history to assist the dispenser in (i) determining the validity of a prescription in accordance with § 54.1-3303 or (ii) providing clinical consultation on the care and treatment of the recipient. In a manner specified by the Director in regulation, notice shall be given to patients that information may be requested by the dispenser from the Prescription Monitoring Program.

4. Information relevant to an investigation or regulatory proceeding of a specific dispenser or prescriber to other regulatory authorities concerned with granting, limiting or denying licenses, certificates or registrations to practice a health profession when such regulatory authority licenses such dispenser or prescriber or such dispenser or prescriber is seeking licensure by such other regulatory authority.

5. Information relevant to an investigation relating to a specific dispenser or prescriber who is a participating provider in the Virginia Medicaid program or information relevant to an investigation relating to a specific recipient who is currently eligible for and receiving or who has been eligible for and has received medical assistance services to the Medicaid Fraud Control Unit of the Office of the Attorney General or to designated employees of the Department of Medical Assistance Services, as appropriate.

6. Information relevant to determination of the cause of death of a specific recipient to the designated employees of the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner.

7. Information for the purpose of bona fide research or education to qualified personnel; however, data elements that would reasonably identify a specific recipient, prescriber, or dispenser shall be deleted or redacted from such information prior to disclosure. Further, release of the information shall only be made pursuant to a written agreement between such qualified personnel and the Director in order to ensure compliance with this subdivision.

8. Information relating to prescriptions for covered substances issued by a specific prescriber, which have been dispensed and reported to the Prescription Monitoring Program, to that prescriber.

9. Information about a specific recipient who is a member of a Virginia Medicaid managed care program to a physician or pharmacist licensed in the Commonwealth and employed by the Virginia Medicaid managed care program or to his clinical designee who holds a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing or a license issued by a health regulatory board within the Department of Health Professions and is employed by the Virginia Medicaid managed care program. Such information shall only be used to determine eligibility for and to manage the care of the specific recipient in a Patient Utilization Management Safety or similar program. Notice shall be given to recipients that information may be requested by a licensed physician or pharmacist employed by the Virginia Medicaid managed care program from the Prescription Monitoring Program.

10. (Expired July 1, 2022)

11. Information about a specific recipient who is currently eligible for and receiving medical assistance from the Department of Medical Assistance Services to a physician or pharmacist licensed in the Commonwealth or to his clinical designee who holds a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing or a license issued by a health regulatory board within the Department of Health Professions and is employed by the Department of Medical Assistance Services.

Such information shall be used only to determine eligibility for and to manage the care of the specific recipient in a Patient Utilization Management Safety or similar program. Notice shall be given to recipients that information may be requested by a licensed physician or pharmacist employed by the Department of Medical Assistance Services from the Prescription Monitoring Program.

D. The Director may enter into agreements for mutual exchange of information among prescription monitoring programs in other jurisdictions, which shall only use the information for purposes allowed by this chapter.

E. This section shall not be construed to supersede the provisions of § 54.1-3406 concerning the divulging of confidential records relating to investigative information.

F. Confidential information that has been received, maintained or developed by any board or disclosed by the board pursuant to subsection A shall not, under any circumstances, be available for discovery or court subpoena or introduced into evidence in any medical malpractice suit or other action for damages arising out of the provision of or failure to provide services. However, this subsection shall not be construed to inhibit any investigation or prosecution conducted pursuant to Article 1 (§ 18.2-247 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2.

2002, c. 481; 2004, c. 690; 2005, cc. 637, 678; 2009, cc. 158, 162, 472; 2012, cc. 21, 71; 2013, c. 739; 2014, cc. 12, 97; 2015, cc. 118, 507; 2016, cc. 309, 410, 447, 568; 2017, cc. 186, 778; 2018, c. 108; 2019, c. 679; 2020, cc. 1066, 1067.

A. The Director shall develop, in consultation with an advisory panel which shall include representatives of the Boards of Medicine and Pharmacy, the Department of Health, the Department of Medical Assistance Services, and the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, criteria for indicators of unusual patterns of prescribing or dispensing of covered substances by prescribers or dispensers and misuse of covered substances by recipients and a method for analysis of data collected by the Prescription Monitoring Program using the criteria for indicators of misuse to identify unusual patterns of prescribing or dispensing of covered substances by individual prescribers or dispensers or potential misuse of a covered substance by a recipient. The Director, in consultation with the panel, shall annually review controlled substance prescribing and dispensing patterns and shall (i) make any necessary changes to the criteria for unusual patterns of prescribing and dispensing required by this subsection and (ii) report any findings and recommendations for best practices to the Joint Commission on Health Care by November 1 of each year.

B. In cases in which analysis of data collected by the Prescription Monitoring Program using the criteria for indicators of misuse indicates an unusual pattern of prescribing or dispensing of a covered substance by an individual prescriber or dispenser or potential misuse of a covered substance by a recipient, the Director may, in addition to the discretionary disclosure of information pursuant to § 54.1-2523:

1. Disclose information about the unusual prescribing or dispensing of a covered substance by an individual prescriber or dispenser to the Enforcement Division of the Department of Health Professions; or

2. Disclose information about the specific recipient to (i) the prescriber or prescribers who have prescribed a covered substance to the recipient for the purpose of intervention to prevent misuse of such covered substance or (ii) an agent who has completed the Virginia State Police Drug Diversion School designated by the Superintendent of State Police or designated by the chief law-enforcement officer of any county, city, or town or campus police department for the purpose of an investigation into possible drug diversion.

2005, cc. 637, 678; 2012, cc. 21, 71; 2013, c. 739; 2016, c. 98; 2018, cc. 190, 239.

Any prescriber or dispenser authorized to access the information in the possession of the Prescription Monitoring Program pursuant to this chapter may, pursuant to regulations promulgated by the Director to implement the provisions of this section, delegate such authority to individuals who are employed or engaged at the same facility and under the direct supervision of the prescriber or dispenser and (i) are licensed, registered, or certified by a health regulatory board under the Department of Health Professions or in another jurisdiction or (ii) have routine access to confidential patient data and have signed a patient data confidentiality agreement.

2009, cc. 158, 162; 2012, cc. 21, 71; 2014, c. 72; 2016, cc. 113, 406; 2022 c. 747.

Any prescriber or dispenser authorized to access the information in the possession of the Prescription Monitoring Program pursuant to this chapter may, pursuant to regulations promulgated by the Director to implement the provisions of this section, delegate such authority to health care professionals who are (i) licensed, registered, or certified by a health regulatory board under the Department of Health Professions or in another jurisdiction and (ii) employed at the same facility and under the direct supervision of the prescriber or dispenser.

2009, cc. 158, 162; 2012, cc. 21, 71; 2014, c. 72; 2022 c. 747.

A. All data, records, and reports relating to the prescribing and dispensing of covered substances to recipients and any abstracts from such data, records, and reports that are in the possession of the Prescription Monitoring Program pursuant to this chapter and any material relating to the operation or security of the program shall be confidential and shall be exempt from the Virginia Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq.) pursuant to subdivision 2 of § 2.2-3705.5. Records in possession of the Prescription Monitoring Program shall not be available for civil subpoena, nor shall such records be disclosed, discoverable, or compelled to be produced in any civil proceeding, nor shall such records be deemed admissible as evidence in any civil proceeding for any reason. Further, the Director shall only have discretion to disclose any such information as provided in subsections B and C.

B. Upon receiving a request for information in accordance with the Department's regulations and in compliance with applicable federal law and regulations, the Director shall disclose the following:

1. Information relevant to a specific investigation of a specific recipient or of a specific dispenser or prescriber to an agent who has completed the Virginia State Police Drug Diversion School designated by the superintendent of the Department of State Police or designated by the chief law-enforcement officer of any county, city, or town or campus police department to conduct drug diversion investigations pursuant to § 54.1-3405.

2. Information relevant to an investigation or inspection of or allegation of misconduct by a specific person licensed, certified, or registered by or an applicant for licensure, certification, or registration by a health regulatory board; information relevant to a disciplinary proceeding before a health regulatory board or in any subsequent trial or appeal of an action or board order to designated employees of the Department of Health Professions; or to designated persons operating the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program pursuant to Chapter 25.1 (§ 54.1-2515 et seq.).

3. Information relevant to the proceedings of any investigatory grand jury or special grand jury that has been properly impaneled in accordance with the provisions of Chapter 13 (§ 19.2-191 et seq.) of Title 19.2.

4. Information relevant to a specific investigation of a specific recipient, dispenser, or prescriber to an agent of a federal law-enforcement agency with authority to conduct drug diversion investigations.

5. Information relevant to a specific investigation, supervision, or monitoring of a specific recipient for purposes of the administration of criminal justice pursuant to Chapter 1 (§ 9.1-100 et seq.) of Title 9.1 to a probation or parole officer as described in Article 2 (§ 53.1-141 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 53.1 or a local community-based probation officer as described in § 9.1-176.1 who has completed the Virginia State Police Drug Diversion School designated by the Director of the Department of Corrections or his designee.

6. Information relevant to a specific investigation of a specific individual into a possible delivery of a controlled substance in violation of § 18.2-474.1 to an investigator for the Department of Corrections who has completed the Virginia State Police Drug Diversion School and who has been designated by the Director of the Department of Corrections or his designee.

7. Information about a specific recipient to the Smartchart Network Program in accordance with subdivision B 7 of § 32.1-372.

C. In accordance with the Department's regulations and applicable federal law and regulations, the Director may, in his discretion, disclose:

1. Information in the possession of the Prescription Monitoring Program concerning a recipient who is over the age of 18 to that recipient. The information shall be mailed to the street or mailing address indicated on the recipient request form.

2. Information on a specific recipient to a prescriber, as defined in this chapter, for the purpose of establishing the treatment history of the specific recipient when such recipient is either under care and treatment by the prescriber or the prescriber is consulting on or initiating treatment of such recipient. In a manner specified by the Director in regulation, notice shall be given to patients that information may be requested by the prescriber from the Prescription Monitoring Program.

3. Information on a specific recipient to a dispenser for the purpose of establishing a prescription history to assist the dispenser in (i) determining the validity of a prescription in accordance with § 54.1-3303 or (ii) providing clinical consultation on the care and treatment of the recipient. In a manner specified by the Director in regulation, notice shall be given to patients that information may be requested by the dispenser from the Prescription Monitoring Program.

4. Information relevant to an investigation or regulatory proceeding of a specific dispenser or prescriber to other regulatory authorities concerned with granting, limiting or denying licenses, certificates or registrations to practice a health profession when such regulatory authority licenses such dispenser or prescriber or such dispenser or prescriber is seeking licensure by such other regulatory authority.

5. Information relevant to an investigation relating to a specific dispenser or prescriber who is a participating provider in the Virginia Medicaid program or information relevant to an investigation relating to a specific recipient who is currently eligible for and receiving or who has been eligible for and has received medical assistance services to the Medicaid Fraud Control Unit of the Office of the Attorney General or to designated employees of the Department of Medical Assistance Services, as appropriate.

6. Information relevant to determination of the cause of death of a specific recipient to the designated employees of the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner.

7. Information for the purpose of bona fide research or education to qualified personnel; however, data elements that would reasonably identify a specific recipient, prescriber, or dispenser shall be deleted or redacted from such information prior to disclosure. Further, release of the information shall only be made pursuant to a written agreement between such qualified personnel and the Director in order to ensure compliance with this subdivision.

8. Information relating to prescriptions for covered substances issued by a specific prescriber, which have been dispensed and reported to the Prescription Monitoring Program, to that prescriber.

9. Information about a specific recipient who is a member of a Virginia Medicaid managed care program to a physician or pharmacist licensed in the Commonwealth and employed by the Virginia Medicaid managed care program or to his clinical designee who holds a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing or a license issued by a health regulatory board within the Department of Health Professions and is employed by the Virginia Medicaid managed care program. Such information shall only be used to determine eligibility for and to manage the care of the specific recipient in a Patient Utilization Management Safety or similar program. Notice shall be given to recipients that information may be requested by a licensed physician or pharmacist employed by the Virginia Medicaid managed care program from the Prescription Monitoring Program.

10. [Expired.]

11. Information about a specific recipient who is currently eligible for and receiving medical assistance from the Department of Medical Assistance Services to a physician or pharmacist licensed in the Commonwealth or to his clinical designee who holds a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing or a license issued by a health regulatory board within the Department of Health Professions and is employed by the Department of Medical Assistance Services.

Such information shall be used only to determine eligibility for and to manage the care of the specific recipient in a Patient Utilization Management Safety or similar program. Notice shall be given to recipients that information may be requested by a licensed physician or pharmacist employed by the Department of Medical Assistance Services from the Prescription Monitoring Program.

D. The Director may enter into agreements for mutual exchange of information among prescription monitoring programs in other jurisdictions, which shall only use the information for purposes allowed by this chapter.

E. This section shall not be construed to supersede the provisions of § 54.1-3406 concerning the divulging of confidential records relating to investigative information.

F. Confidential information that has been received, maintained or developed by any board or disclosed by the board pursuant to subsection A shall not, under any circumstances, be available for discovery or court subpoena or introduced into evidence in any medical malpractice suit or other action for damages arising out of the provision of or failure to provide services. However, this subsection shall not be construed to inhibit any investigation or prosecution conducted pursuant to Article 1 (§ 18.2-247 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2.

2002, c. 481; 2004, c. 690; 2005, cc. 637, 678; 2009, cc. 158, 162, 472; 2012, cc. 21, 71; 2013, c. 739; 2014, cc. 12, 97; 2015, cc. 118, 507; 2016, cc. 309, 410, 447, 568; 2017, cc. 186, 778; 2018, c. 108; 2019, c. 679; 2020, cc. 1066, 1067; 2023, cc. 628, 629.

A. The Director and the employees of the Department of Health Professions shall not be liable for any civil damages resulting from the accuracy or inaccuracy of any information reported to and compiled and maintained by the Department pursuant to this chapter.

Further, the Director and the employees of the Department of Health Professions shall not be liable for any civil damages resulting from the disclosure of or failure to disclose any information in compliance with subsections B and C of § 54.1-2523 and the Department's regulations.

B. In the absence of gross negligence or willful misconduct, prescribers or dispensers complying in good faith with the reporting requirements of this chapter shall not be liable for any civil damages for any act or omission resulting from the submission of such required reports.

2002, c. 481.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person having access to the confidential information in the possession of the program or any data or reports produced by the program to disclose such confidential information except as provided in this chapter. Any person having access to the confidential information in the possession of the program or any data or reports produced by the program who discloses such confidential information in violation of this chapter shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor upon conviction.

B. It shall be unlawful for any person who lawfully receives confidential information from the Prescription Monitoring Program to redisclose or use such confidential information in any way other than the authorized purpose for which the request was made. Any person who lawfully receives information from the Prescription Monitoring Program and discloses such confidential information in violation of this chapter shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor upon conviction.

C. Nothing in this section shall prohibit (i) a person who prescribes or dispenses a covered substance to a recipient required to be reported to the program from redisclosing information obtained from the Prescription Monitoring Program to another prescriber or dispenser who has responsibility for treating the recipient or (ii) a person who prescribes a covered substance from placing information obtained from the Prescription Monitoring Program in the recipient's medical record.

D. Information obtained from the Prescription Monitoring Program pursuant to subdivision B 6 of § 32.1-372 shall become part of the patient's medical record.

E. Unauthorized use or disclosure of confidential information received from the Prescription Monitoring Program shall also be grounds for disciplinary action by the relevant health regulatory board.

2002, c. 481; 2011, cc. 812, 844; 2016, c. 309; 2020, cc. 1066, 1067.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person having access to the confidential information in the possession of the program or any data or reports produced by the program to disclose such confidential information except as provided in this chapter. Any person having access to the confidential information in the possession of the program or any data or reports produced by the program who discloses such confidential information in violation of this chapter shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor upon conviction.

B. It shall be unlawful for any person who lawfully receives confidential information from the Prescription Monitoring Program to redisclose or use such confidential information in any way other than the authorized purpose for which the request was made. Any person who lawfully receives information from the Prescription Monitoring Program and discloses such confidential information in violation of this chapter shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor upon conviction.

C. Nothing in this section shall prohibit (i) a person who prescribes or dispenses a covered substance to a recipient required to be reported to the program from redisclosing information obtained from the Prescription Monitoring Program to another prescriber or dispenser who has responsibility for treating the recipient or (ii) a person who prescribes a covered substance from placing information obtained from the Prescription Monitoring Program in the recipient's medical record.

D. Information obtained from the Prescription Monitoring Program pursuant to subdivision B 7 of § 32.1-372 shall become part of the patient's medical record.

E. Unauthorized use or disclosure of confidential information received from the Prescription Monitoring Program shall also be grounds for disciplinary action by the relevant health regulatory board.

2002, c. 481; 2011, cc. 812, 844; 2016, c. 309; 2020, cc. 1066, 1067; 2023, cc. 628, 629.

The provisions of Chapter 20.1 (§ 2.2-2005 et seq.) of Title 2.2 shall not apply to the Prescription Monitoring Program pursuant to this chapter operated by the Department of Health Professions until July 1, 2012, unless an alternate date is mutually agreed upon.

2009, cc. 158, 162.

Chapter 26. Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Audiologist" means any person who engages in the practice of audiology.

"Board" means the Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology.

"Practice of audiology" means the practice of conducting measurement, testing and evaluation relating to hearing and vestibular systems, including audiologic and electrophysiological measures, and conducting programs of identification, hearing conservation, habilitation, and rehabilitation for the purpose of identifying disorders of the hearing and vestibular systems and modifying communicative disorders related to hearing loss, including but not limited to vestibular evaluation, limited cerumen management, electrophysiological audiometry and cochlear implants. Any person offering services to the public under any descriptive name or title which would indicate that audiology services are being offered shall be deemed to be practicing audiology.

"Practice of speech-language pathology" means the practice of facilitating development and maintenance of human communication through programs of screening, identifying, assessing and interpreting, diagnosing, habilitating and rehabilitating speech-language disorders, including but not limited to:

1. Providing alternative communication systems and instruction and training in the use thereof;

2. Providing aural habilitation, rehabilitation and counseling services to individuals who are deaf or hard of hearing and their families;

3. Enhancing speech-language proficiency and communication effectiveness; and

4. Providing audiologic screening.

Any person offering services to the public under any descriptive name or title which would indicate that professional speech-language pathology services are being offered shall be deemed to be practicing speech-language pathology.

"Speech-language disorders" means disorders in fluency, speech articulation, voice, receptive and expressive language (syntax, morphology, semantics, pragmatics), swallowing disorders, and cognitive communication functioning.

"Speech-language pathologist" means any person who engages in the practice of speech-language pathology.

1972, c. 181, § 54-83.1:5; 1974, c. 534; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 706; 2014, c. 327; 2019, c. 288.

This chapter shall not:

1. Prevent any person from engaging, individually or through his employees, in activities for which he is licensed or from using appropriate descriptive words, phrases or titles to refer to his services;

2. Prevent any person employed by a federal, state, county or municipal agency, or an educational institution as a speech or hearing specialist or therapist from performing the regular duties of his office or position;

3. Prevent any student, intern or trainee in audiology or speech-language pathology, pursuing a course of study at an accredited institution of higher education, or working in a recognized training center, under the direct supervision of a licensed or certified audiologist or speech-language pathologist, from performing services constituting a part of his supervised course of study;

4. Prevent a licensed audiologist or speech-language pathologist from employing or using the services of unlicensed persons as necessary to assist him in his practice;

5. Authorize any person, unless otherwise licensed to do so, to prepare, order, dispense, alter or repair hearing aids or parts of or attachments to hearing aids for consideration. However, audiologists licensed under this chapter may make earmold impressions and prepare and alter earmolds for clinical use and research;

6. Prevent an audiologist from volunteering to provide free health care to an underserved area of the Commonwealth under the auspices of a publicly supported nonprofit organization that sponsors the provision of health care to populations of underserved people if they do so for a period not exceeding three consecutive days and if the nonprofit organization verifies that the practitioner has a valid, unrestricted license in another state.

1972, c. 181, § 54-83.1:7; 1978, c. 34; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 706; 2022, c. 173.

The Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology shall consist of seven members as follows: two licensed audiologists, two licensed speech-language pathologists, one otolaryngologist, and two citizen members. The terms of Board members shall be four years. All professional members of the Board shall have actively practiced their professions for at least two years prior to their appointments.

The Board shall elect annually a chairman and a vice-chairman.

The Board shall be authorized to promulgate canons of ethics under which the professional activities of persons regulated shall be conducted.

1972, c. 181, §§ 54-83.1:8, 54-83.1:10; 1978, c. 34; 1979, c. 296; 1981, c. 447; 1987, c. 686, § 54-83.1:8.1; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 706; 2013, c. 436.

A. In order to practice audiology or speech pathology, it shall be necessary to hold a valid license.

B. Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision 2 of § 54.1-2601, the Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology may license as school speech-language pathologists any person who holds a master's degree in speech-language pathology. The Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology shall issue licenses to such persons without examination, upon review of credentials and payment of an application fee in accordance with regulations of the Board for school speech-language pathologists.

Persons holding such licenses as school speech-language pathologists, without examination, shall practice solely in public school divisions; holding a license as a school speech-language pathologist pursuant to this section shall not authorize such persons to practice outside the school setting or in any setting other than the public schools of the Commonwealth, unless such individuals are licensed by the Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology to offer to the public the services defined in § 54.1-2600.

The Board shall issue any person licensed as a school speech-language pathologist a license that notes the limitations on practice set forth in this subsection.

Persons who hold licenses issued by the Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology without these limitations shall be exempt from the requirements of this subsection.

1979, c. 408, § 54-83.1:011; 1988, c. 765; 1999, cc. 967, 1005; 2014, c. 781.

The Board may issue a provisional license to an applicant for licensure in audiology or speech-language pathology who has met the educational and examination requirements for licensure, to allow for the applicant to obtain clinical experience as specified in the Board's regulations. However, a person practicing with a provisional license in audiology shall practice only under the supervision of a licensed audiologist and a person practicing with a provisional license in speech-language pathology shall practice only under the supervision of a licensed speech-language pathologist in accordance with regulations established by the Board.

2006, c. 97; 2013, c. 436.

A person who has met the qualifications prescribed by the Board may practice as an assistant speech-language pathologist in accordance with regulations of the Board and may perform limited duties that are otherwise restricted to the practice of a speech-language pathologist under the supervision and direction of a licensed speech-language pathologist.

2014, c. 661; 2016, c. 77.

Article 2. Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology Interstate Compact.

The General Assembly hereby enacts, and the Commonwealth of Virginia hereby enters into, the Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology Interstate Compact with any and all states legally joining therein according to its terms, in the form substantially as follows:

AUDIOLOGY AND SPEECH-LANGUAGE PATHOLOGY INTERSTATE COMPACT

The purpose of this Compact is to facilitate interstate practice of audiology and speech-language pathology with the goal of improving public access to audiology and speech-language pathology services. The practice of audiology and speech-language pathology occurs in the state where the patient/client/student is located at the time of the patient/client/student encounter. The Compact preserves the regulatory authority of states to protect public health and safety through the current system of state licensure.

This Compact is designed to achieve the following objectives:

1. Increase public access to audiology and speech-language pathology services by providing for the mutual recognition of other member state licenses;

2. Enhance the states' ability to protect the public's health and safety;

3. Encourage the cooperation of member states in regulating multistate audiology and speech-language pathology practice;

4. Support spouses of relocating active duty military personnel;

5. Enhance the exchange of licensure, investigative, and disciplinary information between member states;

6. Allow a remote state to hold a provider of services with a compact privilege in that state accountable to that state's practice standards; and

7. Allow for the use of telehealth technology to facilitate increased access to audiology and speech-language pathology services.

2023, c. 337.

As used in this Compact, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Active duty military" means full-time duty status in the active uniformed service of the United States, including members of the National Guard and Reserve on active duty orders pursuant to 10 U.S.C. Chapters 1209 and 1211.

"Adverse action" means any administrative, civil, equitable, or criminal action permitted by a state's laws that is imposed by a licensing board or other authority against an audiologist or speech-language pathologist, including actions against an individual's license or privilege to practice, such as revocation, suspension, probation, monitoring of the licensee, or restriction on the licensee's practice.

"Alternative program" means a nondisciplinary monitoring process approved by an audiology or speech-language pathology licensing board to address impaired practitioners.

"Audiologist" means an individual who is licensed by a state to practice audiology.

"Audiology" means the care and services provided by a licensed audiologist as set forth in the member state's statutes and rules.

"Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology Compact Commission" or "Commission" means the national administrative body whose membership consists of all states that have enacted the Compact.

"Audiology and speech-language pathology licensing board," "audiology licensing board," "speech-language pathology licensing board," or "licensing board" means the agency of a state that is responsible for the licensing and regulation of audiologists and/or speech-language pathologists.

"Compact privilege" means the authorization granted by a remote state to allow a licensee from another member state to practice as an audiologist or speech-language pathologist in the remote state under its laws and rules. The practice of audiology or speech-language pathology occurs in the member state where the patient/client/student is located at the time of the patient/client/student encounter.

"Current significant investigative information" means investigative information that a licensing board, after an inquiry or investigation that includes notification and an opportunity for the audiologist or speech-language pathologist to respond, if required by state law, has reason to believe is not groundless and, if proved true, would indicate more than a minor infraction.

"Data system" means a repository of information about licensees, including, but not limited to, continuing education, examination, licensure, investigative, compact privilege, and adverse action.

"Encumbered license" means a license in which an adverse action restricts the practice of audiology or speech-language pathology by the licensee and said adverse action has been reported to the National Practitioners Data Bank (NPDB).

"Executive Committee" means a group of directors elected or appointed to act on behalf of, and within the powers granted to them by, the Commission.

"Home state" means the member state that is the licensee's primary state of residence.

"Impaired practitioner" means individuals whose professional practice is adversely affected by substance abuse, addiction, or other health-related conditions.

"Licensee" means an individual who currently holds an authorization from the state licensing board to practice as an audiologist or speech-language pathologist.

"Member state" means a state that has enacted the Compact.

"Privilege to practice" means a legal authorization permitting the practice of audiology or speech-language pathology in a remote state.

"Remote state" means a member state other than the home state where a licensee is exercising or seeking to exercise the compact privilege.

"Rule" means a regulation, principle, or directive promulgated by the Commission that has the force of law.

"Single-state license" means an audiology or speech-language pathology license issued by a member state that authorizes practice only within the issuing state and does not include a privilege to practice in any other member state.

"Speech-language pathologist" means an individual who is licensed by a state to practice speech-language pathology.

"Speech-language pathology" means the care and services provided by a licensed speech-language pathologist as set forth in the member state's statutes and rules.

"State" means any state, commonwealth, district, or territory of the United States of America that regulates the practice of audiology and speech-language pathology.

"State practice laws" means a member state's laws, rules, and regulations that govern the practice of audiology or speech-language pathology, define the scope of audiology or speech-language pathology practice, and create the methods and grounds for imposing discipline.

"Telehealth" means the application of telecommunication technology to deliver audiology or speech-language pathology services at a distance for assessment, intervention, and/or consultation.

2023, c. 337.

A. A license issued to an audiologist or speech-language pathologist by a home state to a resident in that state shall be recognized by each member state as authorizing an audiologist or speech-language pathologist to practice audiology or speech-language pathology, under a privilege to practice, in each member state.

B. A state must implement or utilize procedures for considering the criminal history records of applicants for initial privilege to practice. These procedures shall include the submission of fingerprints or other biometric-based information by applicants for the purpose of obtaining an applicant's criminal history record information from the Federal Bureau of Investigation and the agency responsible for retaining that state's criminal records.

1. A member state must fully implement a criminal background check requirement, within a time frame established by rule, by receiving the results of the Federal Bureau of Investigation record search on criminal background checks and use the results in making licensure decisions.

2. Communication between a member state and the Commission and among member states regarding the verification of eligibility for licensure through the Compact shall not include any information received from the Federal Bureau of Investigation relating to a federal criminal records check performed by a member state under Public Law 92-544.

C. Upon application for a privilege to practice, the licensing board in the issuing remote state shall ascertain, through the data system, whether the applicant has ever held, or is the holder of, a license issued by any other state, whether there are any encumbrances on any license or privilege to practice held by the applicant, and whether any adverse action has been taken against any license or privilege to practice held by the applicant.

D. Each member state shall require an applicant to obtain or retain a license in the home state and meet the home state's qualifications for licensure or renewal of licensure, as well as all other applicable state laws.

E. For an audiologist:

1. Must meet one of the following educational requirements:

a. On or before December 31, 2007, has graduated with a master's degree or doctorate in audiology, or equivalent degree regardless of degree name, from a program that is accredited by an accrediting agency recognized by the Council for Higher Education Accreditation, or its successor, or by the United States Department of Education and is operated by a college or university accredited by a regional or national accrediting organization recognized by the Board; or

b. On or after January 1, 2008, has graduated with a doctoral degree in audiology, or equivalent degree, regardless of degree name, from a program that is accredited by an accrediting agency recognized by the Council for Higher Education Accreditation, or its successor, or by the United States Department of Education and is operated by a college or university accredited by a regional or national accrediting organization recognized by the Board; or

c. Has graduated from an audiology program that is housed in an institution of higher education outside of the United States for which (i) the program and institution have been approved by the authorized accrediting body in the applicable country and (ii) the degree program has been verified by an independent credentials review agency to be comparable to a state licensing board-approved program;

2. Has completed a supervised clinical practicum experience from an accredited educational institution or its cooperating programs as required by the Commission;

3. Has successfully passed a national examination approved by the Commission;

4. Holds an active, unencumbered license;

5. Has not been convicted or found guilty, and has not entered into an agreed disposition, of a felony related to the practice of audiology, under applicable state or federal criminal law; and

6. Has a valid United States social security number or National Practitioner Identification number.

F. For a speech-language pathologist:

1. Must meet one of the following educational requirements:

a. Has graduated with a master's degree from a speech-language pathology program that is accredited by an organization recognized by the United States Department of Education and operated by a college or university accredited by a regional or national accrediting organization recognized by the Board; or

b. Has graduated from a speech-language pathology program that is housed in an institution of higher education outside of the United States for which (i) the program and institution have been approved by the authorized accrediting body in the applicable country and (ii) the degree program has been verified by an independent credentials review agency to be comparable to a state licensing board-approved program;

2. Has completed a supervised clinical practicum experience from an educational institution or its cooperating programs as required by the Commission;

3. Has completed a supervised postgraduate professional experience as required by the Commission;

4. Has successfully passed a national examination approved by the Commission;

5. Holds an active, unencumbered license;

6. Has not been convicted or found guilty, and has not entered into an agreed disposition, of a felony related to the practice of speech-language pathology, under applicable state or federal criminal law; and

7. Has a valid United States social security number or National Practitioner Identification number.

G. The privilege to practice is derived from the home state license.

H. An audiologist or speech-language pathologist practicing in a member state must comply with the state practice laws of the state in which the client is located at the time service is provided. The practice of audiology and speech-language pathology shall include all audiology and speech-language pathology practice as defined by the state practice laws of the member state in which the client is located. The practice of audiology and speech-language pathology in a member state under a privilege to practice shall subject an audiologist or speech-language pathologist to the jurisdiction of the licensing board, the courts, and the laws of the member state in which the client is located at the time service is provided.

I. Individuals not residing in a member state shall continue to be able to apply for a member state's single-state license as provided under the laws of each member state. However, the single-state license granted to these individuals shall not be recognized as granting the privilege to practice audiology or speech-language pathology in any other member state. Nothing in this Compact shall affect the requirements established by a member state for the issuance of a single-state license.

J. Member states may charge a fee for granting a compact privilege.

K. Member states must comply with the bylaws and rules and regulations of the Commission.

2023, c. 337.

A. To exercise the compact privilege under the terms and provisions of this Compact, the audiologist or speech-language pathologist shall:

1. Hold an active license in the home state;

2. Have no encumbrance on any state license;

3. Be eligible for a compact privilege in any member state in accordance with § 54.1-2608;

4. Have not had any adverse action against any license or compact privilege within the previous two years from date of application;

5. Notify the Commission that the licensee is seeking the compact privilege within a remote state;

6. Pay any applicable fees, including any state fee, for the compact privilege; and

7. Report to the Commission adverse action taken by any non-member state within 30 days from the date the adverse action is taken.

B. For the purposes of the compact privilege, an audiologist or speech-language pathologist shall only hold one home state license at a time.

C. Except as provided in § 54.1-2611, if an audiologist or speech-language pathologist changes his primary state of residence by moving between two-member states, the audiologist or speech-language pathologist must apply for licensure in the new home state, and the license issued by the prior home state shall be deactivated in accordance with applicable rules adopted by the Commission.

D. The audiologist or speech-language pathologist may apply for licensure in advance of a change in his primary state of residence.

E. A license shall not be issued by the new home state until the audiologist or speech-language pathologist provides satisfactory evidence of a change in his primary state of residence to the new home state and satisfies all applicable requirements to obtain a license from the new home state.

F. If an audiologist or speech-language pathologist changes his primary state of residence by moving from a member state to a non-member state, the license issued by the prior home state shall convert to a single-state license, valid only in the former home state.

G. The compact privilege is valid until the expiration date of the home state license. The licensee must comply with the requirements of subsection A to maintain the compact privilege in the remote state.

H. A licensee providing audiology or speech-language pathology services in a remote state under the compact privilege shall function within the laws and regulations of the remote state.

I. A licensee providing audiology or speech-language pathology services in a remote state is subject to that state's regulatory authority. A remote state may, in accordance with due process and that state's laws, remove a licensee's compact privilege in the remote state for a specific period of time, impose fines, and take any other necessary actions to protect the health and safety of its citizens.

J. If a home state license is encumbered, the licensee shall lose the compact privilege in any remote state until the following occur:

1. The home state license is no longer encumbered; and

2. Two years have elapsed from the date of the adverse action.

K. Once an encumbered license in the home state is restored to good standing, the licensee must meet the requirements of subsection A to obtain a compact privilege in any remote state.

L. Once the requirements of subsection J have been met, the licensee must meet the requirements in subsection A to obtain a compact privilege in a remote state.

2023, c. 337.

Member states shall recognize the right of an audiologist or speech-language pathologist, licensed by a home state in accordance with § 54.1-2608 and under rules promulgated by the Commission, to practice audiology or speech-language pathology in any member state via telehealth under a privilege to practice as provided in this Compact and rules promulgated by the Commission.

2023, c. 337.

Active duty military personnel, or their spouse, shall designate a home state where the individual has a current license in good standing. The individual may retain the home state designation during the period the service member is on active duty. Subsequent to designating a home state, the individual shall only change his home state through application for licensure in the new state.

2023, c. 337.

A. In addition to the other powers conferred by state law, a remote state shall have the authority, in accordance with existing state due process law, to:

1. Take adverse action against an audiologist's or speech-language pathologist's privilege to practice within that member state.

2. Issue subpoenas for both hearings and investigations that require the attendance and testimony of witnesses as well as the production of evidence. Subpoenas issued by a licensing board in a member state for the attendance and testimony of witnesses or the production of evidence from another member state shall be enforced in the latter state by any court of competent jurisdiction, according to the practice and procedure of that court applicable to subpoenas issued in proceedings pending before it. The issuing authority shall pay any witness fees, travel expenses, mileage, and other fees required by the service statutes of the state in which the witnesses or evidence are located.

3. Only the home state shall have the power to take adverse action against an audiologist's or speech-language pathologist's license issued by the home state.

B. For purposes of taking adverse action, the home state shall give the same priority and effect to reported conduct received from a member state as it would if the conduct had occurred within the home state. In so doing, the home state shall apply its own state laws to determine appropriate action.

C. The home state shall complete any pending investigations of an audiologist or speech-language pathologist who changes his primary state of residence during the course of the investigations. The home state shall also have the authority to take appropriate action and shall promptly report the conclusions of the investigations to the administrator of the data system. The administrator of the coordinated licensure information system shall promptly notify the new home state of any adverse actions.

D. If otherwise permitted by state law, the member state may recover from the affected audiologist or speech-language pathologist the costs of investigations and disposition of cases resulting from any adverse action taken against that audiologist or speech-language pathologist.

E. The member state may take adverse action based on the factual findings of the remote state, provided that the member state follows the member state's own procedures for taking the adverse action.

F. Joint Investigations.

1. In addition to the authority granted to a member state by its respective audiology or speech-language pathology practice act or other applicable state law, any member state may participate with other member states in joint investigations of licensees.

2. Member states shall share any investigative, litigation, or compliance materials in furtherance of any joint or individual investigation initiated under this Compact.

G. If adverse action is taken by the home state against an audiologist's or speech language pathologist's license, the audiologist's or speech-language pathologist's privilege to practice in all other member states shall be deactivated until all encumbrances have been removed from the state license. All home state disciplinary orders that impose adverse action against an audiologist's or speech-language pathologist's license shall include a statement that the audiologist's or speech-language pathologist's privilege to practice is deactivated in all member states during the pendency of the order.

H. If a member state takes adverse action, it shall promptly notify the administrator of the data system. The administrator of the data system shall promptly notify the home state of any adverse actions by remote states.

I. Nothing in this Compact shall override a member state's decision that participation in an alternative program may be used in lieu of adverse action.

2023, c. 337.

A. The Compact member states hereby create and establish a joint public agency known as the Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology Compact Commission:

1. The Commission is an instrumentality of the Compact states.

2. Venue is proper and judicial proceedings by or against the Commission shall be brought solely and exclusively in a court of competent jurisdiction where the principal office of the Commission is located. The Commission may waive venue and jurisdictional defenses to the extent it adopts or consents to participate in alternative dispute resolution proceedings.

3. Nothing in this Compact shall be construed to be a waiver of sovereign immunity.

B. Membership, Voting, and Meetings.

1. Each member state shall have two delegates selected by that member state's licensing board. The delegates shall be current members of the licensing board. One shall be an audiologist and one shall be a speech-language pathologist.

2. An additional five delegates, who are either a public member or board administrator from a state licensing board, shall be chosen by the Executive Committee from a pool of nominees provided by the Commission at large.

3. Any delegate may be removed or suspended from office as provided by the law of the state from which the delegate is appointed.

4. The member state board shall fill any vacancy occurring on the Commission within 90 days.

5. Each delegate shall be entitled to one vote with regard to the promulgation of rules and creation of bylaws and shall otherwise have an opportunity to participate in the business and affairs of the Commission.

6. A delegate shall vote in person or by other means as provided in the bylaws. The bylaws may provide for delegates' participation in meetings by telephone or other means of communication.

7. The Commission shall meet at least once during each calendar year. Additional meetings shall be held as set forth in the bylaws.

C. The Commission shall have the following powers and duties:

1. Establish the fiscal year of the Commission;

2. Establish bylaws;

3. Establish a Code of Ethics;

4. Maintain its financial records in accordance with the bylaws;

5. Meet and take actions as are consistent with the provisions of this Compact and the bylaws;

6. Promulgate uniform rules to facilitate and coordinate implementation and administration of this Compact. The rules shall have the force and effect of law and shall be binding in all member states;

7. Bring and prosecute legal proceedings or actions in the name of the Commission, provided that the standing of any state audiology or speech-language pathology licensing board to sue or be sued under applicable law shall not be affected;

8. Purchase and maintain insurance and bonds;

9. Borrow, accept, or contract for services of personnel, including employees of a member state;

10. Hire employees, elect or appoint officers, fix compensation, define duties, grant individuals appropriate authority to carry out the purposes of this Compact, and to establish the Commission's personnel policies and programs relating to conflicts of interest, qualifications of personnel, and other related personnel matters;

11. Accept any and all appropriate donations and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials, and services, and to receive, utilize, and dispose of the same, provided that at all times the Commission shall avoid any appearance of impropriety and conflict of interest;

12. Lease, purchase, accept appropriate gifts or donations of, or otherwise to own, hold, improve or use, any property, real, personal, or mixed, provided that at all times the Commission shall avoid any appearance of impropriety;

13. Sell, convey, mortgage, pledge, lease, exchange, abandon, or otherwise dispose of any property real, personal, or mixed;

14. Establish a budget and make expenditures;

15. Borrow money;

16. Appoint committees, including standing committees composed of members and other interested persons as may be designated in this Compact and the bylaws;

17. Provide and receive information from, and cooperate with, law-enforcement agencies;

18. Establish and elect an Executive Committee; and

19. Perform other functions as may be necessary or appropriate to achieve the purposes of this Compact consistent with the state regulation of audiology and speech-language pathology licensure and practice.

D. The Executive Committee. The Executive Committee shall have the power to act on behalf of the Commission according to the terms of this Compact:

1. The Executive Committee shall be composed of 10 members:

a. Seven voting members who are elected by the Commission from the current membership of the Commission;

b. Two ex-officio members, consisting of one nonvoting member from a recognized national audiology professional association and one nonvoting member from a recognized national speech-language pathology association; and

c. One ex-officio, nonvoting member from the recognized membership organization of the audiology and speech-language pathology licensing boards.

E. The ex-officio members shall be selected by their respective organizations.

1. The Commission may remove any member of the Executive Committee as provided in bylaws.

2. The Executive Committee shall meet at least annually.

3. The Executive Committee shall have the following duties and responsibilities:

a. Recommend to the entire Commission changes to the rules or bylaws, changes to this Compact legislation, fees paid by Compact member states such as annual dues, and any commission Compact fee charged to licensees for the compact privilege;

b. Ensure Compact administration services are appropriately provided, contractual or otherwise;

c. Prepare and recommend the budget;

d. Maintain financial records on behalf of the Commission;

e. Monitor Compact compliance of member states and provide compliance reports to the Commission;

f. Establish additional committees as necessary; and

g. Perform other duties as provided in rules or bylaws.

4. All meetings of the Commission shall be open to the public, and public notice of meetings shall be given in the same manner as required under the rulemaking provisions in § 54.1-2615.

5. The Commission or the Executive Committee or other committees of the Commission may convene in a closed, nonpublic meeting if the Commission or Executive Committee or other committees of the Commission must discuss:

a. Noncompliance of a member state with its obligations under the Compact;

b. The employment, compensation, or discipline or other matters, practices, or procedures related to specific employees or other matters related to the Commission's internal personnel practices and procedures;

c. Current, threatened, or reasonably anticipated litigation;

d. Negotiation of contracts for the purchase, lease, or sale of goods, services, or real estate;

e. Accusation of any person of a crime or formal censure of any person;

f. Disclosure of trade secrets or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential;

g. Disclosure of information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;

h. Disclosure of investigative records compiled for law-enforcement purposes;

i. Disclosure of information related to any investigative reports prepared by or on behalf of or for use of the Commission or another committee charged with responsibility of investigation or determination of compliance issues pursuant to this Compact; or

j. Matters specifically exempted from disclosure by federal or member state statute.

6. If a meeting, or portion of a meeting, is closed pursuant to this provision, the Commission's legal counsel or designee shall certify that the meeting may be closed and shall reference each relevant exempting provision.

7. The Commission shall keep minutes that fully and clearly describe all matters discussed in a meeting and shall provide a full and accurate summary of actions taken and the reasons therefore, including a description of the views expressed. All documents considered in connection with an action shall be identified in minutes. All minutes and documents of a closed meeting shall remain under seal, subject to release by a majority vote of the Commission or order of a court of competent jurisdiction.

8. Financing of the Commission.

a. The Commission shall pay, or provide for the payment of, the reasonable expenses of its establishment, organization, and ongoing activities.

b. The Commission may accept any and all appropriate revenue sources, donations, and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials, and services.

c. The Commission may levy on and collect an annual assessment from each member state or impose fees on other parties to cover the cost of the operations and activities of the Commission and its staff, which must be in a total amount sufficient to cover its annual budget as approved each year for which revenue is not provided by other sources. The aggregate annual assessment amount shall be allocated based upon a formula to be determined by the Commission, which shall promulgate a rule binding upon all member states.

9. The Commission shall not incur obligations of any kind prior to securing the funds adequate to meet the same, nor shall the Commission pledge the credit of any of the member states, except by and with the authority of the member state.

10. The Commission shall keep accurate accounts of all receipts and disbursements. The receipts and disbursements of the Commission shall be subject to the audit and accounting procedures established under its bylaws. However, all receipts and disbursements of funds handled by the Commission shall be audited yearly by a certified or licensed public accountant, and the report of the audit shall be included in and become part of the annual report of the Commission.

F. Qualified Immunity, Defense, and Indemnification.

1. The members, officers, executive director, employees, and representatives of the Commission shall be immune from suit and liability, either personally or in their official capacity, for any claim for damage to or loss of property or personal injury or other civil liability caused by or arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, provided that nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to protect any person from suit and liability for any damage, loss, injury, or liability caused by the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person.

2. The Commission shall defend any member, officer, executive director, employee, or representative of the Commission in any civil action seeking to impose liability arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, provided that nothing herein shall be construed to prohibit that person from retaining his or her own counsel and provided further, that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from that person's intentional or willful or wanton misconduct.

3. The Commission shall indemnify and hold harmless any member, officer, executive director, employee, or representative of the Commission for the amount of any settlement or judgment obtained against that person arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that person had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, provided that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person.

2023, c. 337.

A. The Commission shall provide for the development, maintenance, and utilization of a coordinated database and reporting system containing licensure, adverse action, and investigative information on all licensed individuals in member states.

B. Notwithstanding any other provision of state law to the contrary, a member state shall submit a uniform data set to the data system on all individuals to whom this Compact is applicable as required by the rules of the Commission, including:

1. Identifying information;

2. Licensure data;

3. Adverse actions against a license or compact privilege;

4. Nonconfidential information related to alternative program participation;

5. Any denial of application for licensure, and the reason for denial; and

6. Other information that may facilitate the administration of this Compact, as determined by the rules of the Commission.

C. Investigative information pertaining to a licensee in any member state shall only be available to other member states.

D. The Commission shall promptly notify all member states of any adverse action taken against a licensee or an individual applying for a license. Adverse action information pertaining to a licensee in any member state shall be available to any other member state.

E. Member states contributing information to the data system may designate information that may not be shared with the public without the express permission of the contributing state.

F. Any information submitted to the data system that is subsequently required to be expunged by the laws of the member state contributing the information shall be removed from the data system.

2023, c. 337.

A. The Commission shall exercise its rulemaking powers pursuant to the criteria set forth in this section and the rules adopted thereunder. Rules and amendments shall become binding as of the date specified in each rule or amendment.

B. If a majority of the legislatures of the member states rejects a rule, by enactment of a statute or resolution in the same manner used to adopt the Compact within four years of the date of adoption of the rule, the rule shall have no further force and effect in any member state.

C. Rules or amendments to the rules shall be adopted at a regular or special meeting of the Commission.

D. Prior to promulgation and adoption of a final rule or rules by the Commission, and at least 30 days in advance of the meeting at which the rule shall be considered and voted upon, the Commission shall file a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking:

1. On the website of the Commission or other publicly accessible platform; and

2. On the website of each member state audiology or speech-language pathology licensing board or other publicly accessible platform or the publication in which each state would otherwise publish proposed rules.

E. The Notice of Proposed Rulemaking shall include:

1. The proposed time, date, and location of the meeting in which the rule shall be considered and voted upon;

2. The text of the proposed rule or amendment and the reason for the proposed rule;

3. A request for comments on the proposed rule from any interested person; and

4. The manner in which interested persons may submit notice to the Commission of their intention to attend the public hearing and any written comments.

F. Prior to the adoption of a proposed rule, the Commission shall allow persons to submit written data, facts, opinions, and arguments, which shall be made available to the public.

G. The Commission shall grant an opportunity for a public hearing before it adopts a rule or amendment if a hearing is requested by:

1. At least 25 persons;

2. A state or federal governmental subdivision or agency; or

3. An association having at least 25 members.

H. If a public hearing is held on the proposed rule or amendment, the Commission shall publish the place, time, and date of the scheduled public hearing. If the public hearing is held via electronic means, the Commission shall publish the mechanism for access to the electronic hearing.

1. All persons wishing to be heard at the public hearing shall notify the executive director of the Commission or other designated member in writing of their desire to appear and testify at the public hearing not less than five business days before the scheduled date of the public hearing.

2. Public hearings shall be conducted in a manner providing each person who wishes to comment a fair and reasonable opportunity to comment orally or in writing.

3. All public hearings shall be recorded. A copy of the recording shall be made available on request.

4. Nothing in this section shall be construed as requiring a separate public hearing on each rule. Rules may be grouped for the convenience of the Commission at public hearings required by this section.

I. Following the scheduled hearing date, or by the close of business on the scheduled hearing date if the hearing was not held, the Commission shall consider all written and oral comments received.

J. If no written notice of intent to attend the public hearing by interested parties is received, the Commission may proceed with promulgation of the proposed rule without a public hearing.

K. The Commission shall, by majority vote of all members, take final action on the proposed rule and shall determine the effective date of the rule, if any, based on the rulemaking record and the full text of the rule.

L. Upon determination that an emergency exists, the Commission may consider and adopt an emergency rule without prior notice, opportunity for comment, or a public hearing, provided that the usual rulemaking procedures provided in this Compact and in this section shall be retroactively applied to the rule as soon as reasonably possible, and in no event later than 90 days after the effective date of the rule. For the purposes of this provision, an emergency rule is one that must be adopted immediately in order to:

1. Meet an imminent threat to public health, safety, or welfare;

2. Prevent a loss of Commission or member state funds; or

3. Meet a deadline for the promulgation of an administrative rule that is established by federal law or rule.

M. The Commission or an authorized committee of the Commission may direct revisions to a previously adopted rule or amendment for purposes of correcting typographical errors, errors in format, errors in consistency, or grammatical errors. Public notice of any revisions shall be posted on the website of the Commission. The revision shall be subject to challenge by any person for a period of 30 days after posting. The revision may be challenged only on grounds that the revision results in a material change to a rule. A challenge shall be made in writing and delivered to the chair of the Commission prior to the end of the notice period. If no challenge is made, the revision shall take effect without further action. If the revision is challenged, the revision may not take effect without the approval of the Commission.

2023, c. 337.

A. Dispute Resolution.

1. Upon request by a member state, the Commission shall attempt to resolve disputes related to this Compact that arise among member states and between member and non-member states.

2. The Commission shall promulgate a rule providing for both mediation and binding dispute resolution for disputes as appropriate.

B. Enforcement.

1. The Commission, in the reasonable exercise of its discretion, shall enforce the provisions and rules of this Compact.

2. By majority vote, the Commission may initiate legal action in the United States District Court for the District of Columbia or the federal district where the Commission has its principal offices against a member state in default to enforce compliance with the provisions of this Compact and its promulgated rules and bylaws. The relief sought may include both injunctive relief and damages. In the event judicial enforcement is necessary, the prevailing member shall be awarded all costs of litigation, including reasonable attorney fees.

3. The remedies herein shall not be the exclusive remedies of the Commission. The Commission may pursue any other remedies available under federal or state law.

2023, c. 337.

A. The Compact shall come into effect on the date on which the Compact statute is enacted into law in the tenth member state. The provisions, which become effective at that time, shall be limited to the powers granted to the Commission relating to assembly and the promulgation of rules. Thereafter, the Commission shall meet and exercise rulemaking powers necessary to the implementation and administration of the Compact.

B. Any state that joins the Compact subsequent to the Commission's initial adoption of the rules shall be subject to the rules as they exist on the date on which the Compact becomes law in that state. Any rule that has been previously adopted by the Commission shall have the full force and effect of law on the day the Compact becomes law in that state.

C. Any member state may withdraw from this Compact by enacting a statute repealing the same.

1. A member state's withdrawal shall not take effect until six months after enactment of the repealing statute.

2. Withdrawal shall not affect the continuing requirement of the withdrawing state's audiology or speech-language pathology licensing board to comply with the investigative and adverse action reporting requirements of this Compact prior to the effective date of withdrawal.

D. Nothing contained in this Compact shall be construed to invalidate or prevent any audiology or speech-language pathology licensure agreement or other cooperative arrangement between a member state and a non-member state that does not conflict with the provisions of this Compact.

E. This Compact may be amended by the member states. No amendment to this Compact shall become effective and binding upon any member state until it is enacted into the laws of all member states.

2023, c. 337.

This Compact shall be liberally construed so as to effectuate the purposes thereof. The provisions of this Compact shall be severable and if any phrase, clause, sentence, or provision of this Compact is declared to be contrary to the constitution of any member state or of the United States or the applicability thereof to any government, agency, person, or circumstance is held invalid, the validity of the remainder of this Compact and the applicability thereof to any government, agency, person, or circumstance shall not be affected thereby. If this Compact shall be held contrary to the constitution of any member state, the Compact shall remain in full force and effect as to the remaining member states and in full force and effect as to the member state affected as to all severable matters.

2023, c. 337.

A. Nothing herein prevents the enforcement of any other law of a member state that is not inconsistent with this Compact.

B. All laws in a member state in conflict with this Compact are superseded to the extent of the conflict.

C. All lawful actions of the Commission, including all rules and bylaws promulgated by the Commission, are binding upon the member states.

D. All agreements between the Commission and the member states are binding in accordance with their terms.

E. In the event any provision of this Compact exceeds the constitutional limits imposed on the legislature of any member state, the provision shall be ineffective to the extent of the conflict with the constitutional provision in question in that member state.

2023, c. 337.

Chapter 27. Dentistry.

Article 1. Board of Dentistry.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Appliance" means a permanent or removable device used in a plan of dental care, including crowns, fillings, bridges, braces, dentures, orthodontic aligners, and sleep apnea devices.

"Board" means the Board of Dentistry.

"Dental hygiene" means duties related to patient assessment and the rendering of educational, preventive, and therapeutic dental services specified in regulations of the Board and not otherwise restricted to the practice of dentistry.

"Dental hygienist" means a person who is licensed by the Board to practice dental hygiene.

"Dentist" means a person who has been awarded a degree in and is licensed by the Board to practice dentistry.

"Dentistry" means the evaluation, diagnosis, prevention, and treatment, through surgical, nonsurgical, or related procedures, of diseases, disorders, and conditions of the oral cavity and the maxillofacial, adjacent, and associated structures and their impact on the human body.

"Digital scan" means digital technology that creates a computer-generated replica of the hard and soft tissues of the oral cavity using enhanced digital photography.

"Digital scan technician" means a person who has completed a training program approved by the Board to take digital scans of intraoral and extraoral hard and soft tissues for use in teledentistry.

"Digital work order" means the digital equivalent of a written dental laboratory work order used in the construction or repair of an appliance.

"License" means the document issued to an applicant upon completion of requirements for admission to practice dentistry or dental hygiene in the Commonwealth or upon registration for renewal of license to continue the practice of dentistry or dental hygiene in the Commonwealth.

"License to practice dentistry" means any license to practice dentistry issued by the Board.

"Maxillofacial" means pertaining to the jaws and face, particularly with reference to specialized surgery of this region.

"Oral and maxillofacial surgeon" means a person who has successfully completed an oral and maxillofacial residency program, approved by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association, and who holds a valid license from the Board.

"Store-and-forward technologies" means the technologies that allow for the electronic transmission of dental and health information, including images, photographs, documents, and health histories, through a secure communication system.

"Teledentistry" means the delivery of dentistry between a patient and a dentist who holds a license to practice dentistry issued by the Board through the use of telehealth systems and electronic technologies or media, including interactive, two-way audio or video.

1950, p. 983, § 54-200.1; 1970, c. 639; 1972, c. 805; 1988, c. 765; 2001, c. 662; 2013, c. 240; 2020, cc. 37, 220.

This chapter shall not:

1. Apply to a licensed physician or surgeon unless he practices dentistry as a specialty;

2. Apply to an advanced practice registered nurse certified by the Board of Nursing and the Board of Medicine except that intraoral procedures shall be performed only under the direct supervision of a licensed dentist;

3. Apply to a dentist or a dental hygienist of the United States Army, Navy, Coast Guard, Air Force, Public Health Service, or Department of Veterans Affairs;

4. Apply to any dentist of the United States Army, Navy, Coast Guard, or Air Force rendering services voluntarily and without compensation while deemed to be licensed pursuant to § 54.1-106;

5. Apply to any dentist or dental hygienist who (i) does not regularly practice dentistry in Virginia, (ii) holds a current valid license or certificate to practice as a dentist or dental hygienist in another state, territory, district or possession of the United States, (iii) volunteers to provide free health care to an underserved area of the Commonwealth under the auspices of a publicly supported nonprofit organization that sponsors the provision of health care to populations of underserved people, (iv) files a copy of the license or certificate issued in such other jurisdiction with the Board, (v) notifies the Board at least five days prior to the voluntary provision of services of the dates and location of such service, and (vi) acknowledges, in writing, that such licensure exemption shall only be valid, in compliance with the Board's regulations, during the limited period that such free health care is made available through the nonprofit organization on the dates and at the location filed with the Board. Clauses (iv), (v), and (vi) shall not apply to dentists and dental hygienists volunteering to provide free health care to an underserved area of the Commonwealth under the auspices of a publicly supported nonprofit organization that sponsors the provision of health care to populations of underserved people if they do so for a period not exceeding three consecutive days and if the nonprofit organization verifies that the practitioner has a valid, unrestricted license in another state. The Board may deny the right to practice in Virginia to any dentist or dental hygienist whose license has been previously suspended or revoked, who has been convicted of a felony, or who is otherwise found to be in violation of applicable laws or regulations; or

6. Prevent an office assistant from performing usual secretarial duties or other assistance as set forth in regulations promulgated by the Board.

Code 1950, §§ 54-149 through 54-151, 54-172; 1970, c. 639; 1972, c. 805, § 54-200.23; 1975, c. 479; 1988, c. 765; 1995, c. 509; 2002, c. 740; 2003, c. 495; 2019, c. 290; 2023, c. 183.

The Board of Dentistry shall consist of ten members as follows: seven dentists, one citizen member and two dental hygienists.

The professional members of the Board shall be licensed practitioners of dentistry or dental hygiene, of acknowledged ability in the profession, and must have practiced dentistry or dental hygiene in this Commonwealth for at least three years.

The terms of office of the members shall be four years.

The Board shall annually choose a president and a secretary-treasurer and shall meet at least annually at such times and places as it may deem proper. A majority of the members of the Board shall constitute a quorum.

Code 1950, §§ 54-153 through 54-155, 54-157, 54-161, 54-162; 1972, c. 805; 1977, c. 669; 1985, c. 49; 1986, c. 464; 1988, cc. 42, 66, 765; 1992, c. 411.

Employees of the Department of Health Professions, when properly identified, shall be authorized, during ordinary business hours, to enter and inspect any dental office or dental laboratory for the purpose of enforcing the provisions of this chapter.

Code 1950, § 54-167; 1962, c. 45; 1972, c. 805; 1988, c. 765; 2005, cc. 505, 587.

Nominations may be made for each professional vacancy from a list of three names submitted to the Governor by the Virginia Dental Association, the Old Dominion State Dental Society, the Virginia Dental Hygienists' Association, and the Commonwealth Dental Hygienists' Society. Further, any licensee of this chapter may submit nominations to the Governor. The Governor shall not be bound to make any appointment from among the nominees.

Code 1950, § 54-156; 1972, c. 805; 1977, c. 669; 1986, c. 464; 1988, c. 765; 2005, cc. 505, 587.

The Board shall investigate the qualifications and truthfulness on registration of any applicant for a license to practice dentistry or dental hygiene, and for such purposes shall have power to send for witnesses, papers and documents, and administer oaths. The cost of such inquiry shall be borne by the applicant.

Code 1950, § 54-176; 1972, c. 805; 1975, c. 479; 1988, c. 765.

The Board may refuse to admit a candidate to any examination, refuse to issue a license to any applicant, suspend for a stated period or indefinitely, or revoke any license or censure or reprimand any licensee or place him on probation for such time as it may designate for any of the following causes:

1. Fraud, deceit or misrepresentation in obtaining a license;

2. The conviction of any felony or the conviction of any crime involving moral turpitude;

3. Use of alcohol or drugs to the extent that such use renders him unsafe to practice dentistry or dental hygiene;

4. Any unprofessional conduct likely to defraud or to deceive the public or patients;

5. Intentional or negligent conduct in the practice of dentistry or dental hygiene which causes or is likely to cause injury to a patient or patients;

6. Employing or assisting persons whom he knew or had reason to believe were unlicensed to practice dentistry or dental hygiene;

7. Publishing or causing to be published in any manner an advertisement relating to his professional practice which (i) is false, deceptive or misleading, (ii) contains a claim of superiority, or (iii) violates regulations promulgated by the Board governing advertising;

8. Mental or physical incompetence to practice his profession with safety to his patients and the public;

9. Violating, assisting, or inducing others to violate any provision of this chapter or any Board regulation;

10. Conducting his practice in a manner contrary to the standards of ethics of dentistry or dental hygiene;

11. Practicing or causing others to practice in a manner as to be a danger to the health and welfare of his patients or to the public;

12. Practicing outside the scope of the dentist's or dental hygienist's education, training, and experience;

13. Performing a procedure subject to certification without such valid certification required by the Board pursuant to § 54.1-2709.1 and Board regulations; however, procedures performed pursuant to the provisions of subsection A of § 54.1-2711.1 as part of an American Dental Association accredited residency program shall not require such certification;

14. The revocation, suspension or restriction of a license to practice dentistry or dental hygiene in another state, possession or territory of the United States or foreign country; or

15. The violation of any provision of a state or federal law or regulation relating to manufacturing, distributing, dispensing or administering drugs.

Code 1950, § 54-187; 1962, c. 45; 1972, c. 805; 1973, c. 391; 1975, c. 479; 1978, cc. 247, 248; 1984, c. 28; 1988, c. 765; 2001, c. 662; 2004, c. 64; 2005, cc. 505, 587.

Reserved.

Except in the case of a monetary penalty, the Board may take disciplinary action notwithstanding any action pending before or consummated before any court or any criminal penalty which has been or may be imposed.

1972, c. 805, § 54-189.1; 1975, c. 479; 1978, c. 248; 1988, cc. 64; 765; 1997, c. 556.

Repealed by Acts 1997, c. 698.

The Board may recover from any licensee against whom disciplinary action has been imposed reasonable administrative costs associated with investigating and monitoring such licensee and confirming compliance with any terms and conditions imposed upon the licensee as set forth in the order imposing disciplinary action. Such recovery shall not exceed a total of $5,000. All administrative costs recovered pursuant to this section shall be paid by the licensee to the Board. Such administrative costs shall be deposited into the account of the Board and shall not constitute a fine or penalty.

2009, c. 89.

No person shall operate a mobile dental clinic or other portable dental operation without first registering such mobile dental clinic or other portable dental operation with the Board, except that the following shall be exempt from such registration requirement: (i) mobile dental clinics or other portable dental operations operated by federal, state, or local government agencies or other entities identified by the Board in regulations; (ii) mobile dental clinics operated by federally qualified health centers with a dental component that provides dental services via mobile model to adults and children within 30 miles of the federally qualified health center; (iii) mobile dental clinics operated by free health clinics or health safety net clinics that have been granted tax-exempt status pursuant to § 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code that provide dental services via mobile model to adults and children within 30 miles of the free health clinic or health safety net clinic; and (iv) mobile dental clinics that provide dental services via mobile model to individuals who are not ambulatory and who reside in long-term care facilities, assisted living facilities, adult care homes, or private homes.

The Board shall promulgate regulations for mobile dental clinics and other portable dental operations to ensure that patient safety is protected, appropriate dental services are rendered, and needed follow-up care is provided. Such regulations shall include, but not be limited to, requirements for the registration of mobile dental clinics, locations where services may be provided, requirements for reporting by providers, and other requirements necessary to provide accountability for services rendered.

2010, c. 405; 2016, c. 78.

The Board shall adopt regulations for the prescribing of opioids, which shall include guidelines for:

1. The treatment of acute pain, which shall include (i) requirements for an appropriate patient history and evaluation, (ii) limitations on dosages or day supply of drugs prescribed, (iii) requirements for appropriate documentation in the patient's health record, and (iv) a requirement that the prescriber request and review information contained in the Prescription Monitoring Program in accordance with § 54.1-2522.1;

2. The treatment of chronic pain, which shall include, in addition to the requirements for treatment of acute pain set forth in subdivision 1, requirements for (i) development of a treatment plan for the patient, (ii) an agreement for treatment signed by the provider and the patient that includes permission to obtain urine drug screens, and (iii) periodic review of the treatment provided at specific intervals to determine the continued appropriateness of such treatment; and

3. Referral of patients to whom opioids are prescribed for substance abuse counseling or treatment, as appropriate.

2017, cc. 291, 682.

Article 2. Licensure of Dentists.

A. No person other than a dentist, dental hygienist, dental assistant I, dental assistant II, digital scan technician, or other person under the direction of a dentist shall obtain dental scans for use in the practice of dentistry.

B. A digital scan technician who obtains dental scans for use in the practice of teledentistry shall work under the direction of a dentist who is (i) licensed by the Board to practice dentistry in the Commonwealth, (ii) accessible and available for communication and consultation with the digital scan technician at all times during the patient interaction, and (iii) responsible for ensuring that the digital scan technician has a program of training approved by the Board for such purpose. All protocols and procedures for the performance of digital scans by digital scan technicians and evidence that a digital scan technician has complied with the training requirements of the Board shall be made available to the Board upon request.

2020, cc. 37, 220.

A. No person shall practice dentistry unless he possesses a current valid license from the Board of Dentistry.

B. An application for such license shall be made to the Board in writing and shall be accompanied by satisfactory proof that the applicant (i) is of good moral character; (ii) is a graduate of an accredited dental school or college, or dental department of an institution of higher education; (iii) has passed all parts of the examination given by the Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations; (iv) has successfully completed a clinical examination acceptable to the Board; and (v) has met other qualifications as determined in regulations promulgated by the Board.

C. The Board may grant a license to practice dentistry to an applicant licensed to practice in another jurisdiction if he (i) meets the requirements of subsection B; (ii) holds a current, unrestricted license to practice dentistry in another jurisdiction in the United States and is certified to be in good standing by each jurisdiction in which he currently holds or has held a license; (iii) has not committed any act that would constitute grounds for denial as set forth in § 54.1-2706; and (iv) has been in continuous clinical practice for five out of the six years immediately preceding application for licensure pursuant to this section. Active patient care in the dental corps of the United States Armed Forces, volunteer practice in a public health clinic, or practice in an intern or residency program may be accepted by the Board to satisfy this requirement.

D. The Board shall provide for an inactive license for those dentists who hold a current, unrestricted dental license in the Commonwealth at the time of application for an inactive license and who do not wish to practice in Virginia. The Board shall promulgate such regulations as may be necessary to carry out the provisions of this section, including requirements for remedial education to activate a license.

E. The Board shall promulgate regulations requiring continuing education for any dental license renewal or reinstatement. The Board may grant extensions or exemptions from these continuing education requirements.

Code 1950, §§ 54-168 through 54-171, 54-175; 1968, c. 604; 1972, cc. 805, 824; 1973, c. 391; 1974, c. 411; 1976, c. 327; 1977, c. 518; 1981, c. 216; 1988, c. 765; 1997, c. 855; 2005, cc. 505, 587; 2007, c. 20; 2012, cc. 20, 116.

A. The Board of Dentistry shall promulgate regulations establishing criteria for certification of board certified or board eligible oral or maxillofacial surgeons to perform certain procedures within the definition of dentistry that are unrelated to the oral cavity or contiguous structures, provided such services (i) are not for the prevention and treatment of disorders, diseases, lesions and malpositions of the human teeth, alveolar process, maxilla, mandible, or adjacent tissues, or any necessary related procedures, and are services the training for which is included in the curricula of dental schools or advanced postgraduate education programs accredited by the Commission of Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association or continuing educational programs recognized by the Board of Dentistry, or (ii) are not provided incident to a head or facial trauma sustained by the patient. The regulations shall include, but need not be limited to, provisions for: (1) promotion of patient safety; (2) identification and categorization of procedures for the purpose of issuing certificates; (3) establishment of an application process for certification to perform such procedures; (4) establishment of minimum education, training, and experience requirements for certification to perform such procedures, including consideration of whether a licensee has been granted practice privileges to perform such procedures from an accredited hospital located in the Commonwealth and consideration of the presentation of a letter attesting to the training of the applicant to perform such procedures from the chairman of an accredited postgraduate residency program; (5) development of protocols for proctoring and criteria for requiring such proctoring; and (6) implementation of a quality assurance review process for such procedures performed by certificate holders.

B. In promulgating the minimum education, training, and experience requirements for oral and maxillofacial surgeons to perform such procedures and the regulations related thereto, the Board of Dentistry shall consult with an advisory committee comprised of three members selected by the Medical Society of Virginia and three members selected by the Virginia Society of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeons. All members of the advisory committee shall be licensed by the Board of Dentistry or the Board of Medicine and shall engage in active clinical practice. The committee shall have a duty to act collaboratively and in good faith to recommend the education, training, and experience necessary to promote patient safety in the performance of such procedures. The advisory committee shall prepare a written report of its recommendations and shall submit this report to the Board of Dentistry and shall also submit its recommendations to the Board of Medicine for such comments as may be deemed appropriate, prior to the promulgation of draft regulations. The advisory committee may meet periodically to advise the Board of Dentistry on the regulation of such procedures.

C. In promulgating the regulations required by this section, the Board shall take due consideration of the education, training, and experience requirements adopted by the American Dental Association Council on Dental Education or the Commission on Dental Accreditation. Further, the Board's regulations shall require that complaints arising out of performance of such procedures be enforced solely by the Board of Dentistry and reviewed jointly by a physician licensed by the Board of Medicine who actively practices in a related specialty and by an oral and maxillofacial surgeon licensed by the Board of Dentistry. However, upon receipt of reports of such complaints the Board of Dentistry shall promptly notify the Board of Medicine which shall maintain the confidentiality of such complaint consistent with § 54.1-2400.2.

2001, c. 662.

The Board of Dentistry shall require all oral and maxillofacial surgeons to annually register with the Board and to report and make available the following information:

1. The names of medical schools or schools of dentistry attended and dates of graduation;

2. Any graduate medical or graduate dental education at any institution approved by the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education, the Commission on Dental Accreditation, American Dental Association;

3. Any specialty board certification or eligibility for certification as approved by the Commission on Dental Accreditation, American Dental Association;

4. The number of years in active, clinical practice as specified by regulations of the Board;

5. Any insurance plans accepted, managed care plans in which the oral and maxillofacial surgeon participates, and hospital affiliations, including specification of any privileges granted by the hospital;

6. Any appointments, within the most recent 10-year period, of the oral and maxillofacial surgeon to a dental school faculty and any publications in peer-reviewed literature within the most recent five-year period and as specified by regulations of the Board;

7. The location of any primary and secondary practice settings and the approximate percentage of the oral and maxillofacial surgeon's time spent practicing in each setting;

8. The access to any translating service provided to the primary practice setting of the oral and maxillofacial surgeon;

9. The status of the oral and maxillofacial surgeon's participation in the Virginia Medicaid Program;

10. Any final disciplinary or other action required to be reported to the Board by health care institutions, other practitioners, insurance companies, health maintenance organizations, and professional organizations pursuant to §§ 54.1-2400.6, 54.1-2709.3, and 54.1-2709.4 that results in a suspension or revocation of privileges or the termination of employment or a final order of the Board relating to disciplinary action; and

11. Other information related to the competency of oral and maxillofacial surgeons as specified in the regulations of the Board.

The Board shall promulgate regulations to implement the provisions of this section, including, but not limited to, the release, upon request by a consumer, of such information relating to an oral and maxillofacial surgeon. The regulations promulgated by the Board shall provide for reports to include all paid claims in categories indicating the level of significance of each award or settlement.

2001, c. 662; 2004, c. 64.

A. The presidents of the Virginia Dental Association and the Virginia Society of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeons shall report to the Board of Dentistry any disciplinary actions taken by his organization against any oral and maxillofacial surgeon licensed under this chapter if such disciplinary action is a result of conduct involving professional ethics, professional incompetence, moral turpitude, drug or alcohol abuse.

B. The president of any association, society, academy or organization shall report to the Board of Dentistry any disciplinary action taken against any oral and maxillofacial surgeon licensed under this chapter if such disciplinary action is a result of conduct involving professional ethics, professional incompetence, moral turpitude, drug addictions or alcohol abuse.

C. Any report required by this section shall be in writing directed to the Board of Dentistry, shall give the name and address of the person who is the subject of the report and shall describe fully the circumstances surrounding the conduct to be reported.

D. Any person making a report required by this section or testifying in a judicial or administrative proceeding as a result of such report shall be immune from any civil liability resulting therefrom unless such person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

E. In the event that any organization enumerated in subsection A or any component thereof receives a complaint against an oral and maxillofacial surgeon, such organization may, in lieu of considering disciplinary action against such oral and maxillofacial surgeon, request that the Board investigate the matter pursuant to this chapter, in which event any person participating in the decision to make such a request or testifying in a judicial or administrative proceeding as a result of such request shall be immune from any civil liability alleged to have resulted therefrom unless such person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

2001, c. 662.

A. The following matters shall be reported to the Board:

1. Any disciplinary action taken against an oral and maxillofacial surgeon licensed under this chapter by another state or by a federal health institution or voluntary surrender of a license in another state while under investigation;

2. Any malpractice judgment against an oral and maxillofacial surgeon licensed under this chapter;

3. Any incident of two settlements of malpractice claims against an individual oral and maxillofacial surgeon licensed under this chapter within a three-year period; and

4. Any evidence that indicates to a reasonable probability that an oral and maxillofacial surgeon licensed under this chapter is or may be professionally incompetent, guilty of unprofessional conduct or mentally or physically unable to engage safely in the practice of his profession.

B. The following persons and entities are subject to the reporting requirements set forth in this section:

1. Any oral and maxillofacial surgeon licensed under this chapter who is the subject of a disciplinary action, settlement judgment or evidence for which reporting is required pursuant to this section;

2. Any other person licensed under this chapter, except as provided in the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program;

3. The presidents of all professional societies in the Commonwealth, and their component societies whose members are regulated by the Board, except as provided for in the protocol agreement entered into by the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program;

4. All health care institutions licensed by the Commonwealth;

5. The malpractice insurance carrier of any oral and maxillofacial surgeon who is the subject of a judgment or of two settlements within a three-year period. The carrier shall not be required to report any settlements except those in which it has participated that have resulted in a least two settlements on behalf of an individual oral and maxillofacial surgeon during a three-year period; and

6. Any health maintenance organization licensed by the Commonwealth.

C. No person or entity shall be obligated to report any matter to the Board if the person or entity has actual notice that the matter has already been reported to the Board.

D. Any report required by this section shall be in writing directed to the Board, shall give the name and address of the person who is the subject of the report and shall describe the circumstances surrounding the conduct required to be reported.

E. Any person making a report required by this section shall be immune from any civil liability or criminal prosecution resulting therefrom unless such person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

F. The clerk of any circuit court or any district court in the Commonwealth shall report to the Board the conviction of any oral and maxillofacial surgeon known by such clerk to be licensed under this chapter of any (i) misdemeanor involving a controlled substance, marijuana or substance abuse or involving an act of moral turpitude or (ii) felony.

2001, c. 662; 2009, c. 472.

A. Except as provided in subsection C, the Board shall require any dentist who provides or administers sedation or anesthesia in a dental office to obtain either a conscious/moderate sedation permit or a deep sedation/general anesthesia permit issued by the Board. The Board shall establish by regulation reasonable education, training, and equipment standards for safe administration and monitoring of sedation and anesthesia to patients in a dental office.

B. A permit for conscious/moderate sedation shall not be required if a permit has been issued for the administration of deep sedation/general anesthesia.

C. This section shall not apply to:

1. An oral and maxillofacial surgeon who maintains membership in the American Association of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeons (AAOMS) and who provides the Board with reports which result from the periodic office examinations required by AAOMS; or

2. Any dentist who administers or prescribes medication or administers nitrous oxide/oxygen or a combination of a medication and nitrous oxide/oxygen for the purpose of inducing anxiolysis or minimal sedation consistent with the Board's regulations.

2011, c. 526.

Repealed by Acts 2005, cc. 505 and 587, cl. 2.

A. Any person shall be deemed to be practicing dentistry who (i) uses the words dentist, or dental surgeon, the letters D.D.S., D.M.D., or any letters or title in connection with his name, which in any way represents him as engaged in the practice of dentistry; (ii) holds himself out, advertises, or permits to be advertised that he can or will perform dental operations of any kind; (iii) diagnoses, treats, or professes to diagnose or treat any of the diseases or lesions of the oral cavity, its contents, or contiguous structures; or (iv) extracts teeth, corrects malpositions of the teeth or jaws, takes or causes to be taken digital scans or impressions for the fabrication of appliances or dental prosthesis, supplies or repairs artificial teeth as substitutes for natural teeth, or places in the mouth and adjusts such substitutes. Taking impressions for mouth guards that may be self-fabricated or obtained over-the-counter does not constitute the practice of dentistry.

B. No person shall practice dentistry unless a bona fide dentist-patient relationship is established in person or through teledentistry. A bona fide dentist-patient relationship shall exist if the dentist has (i) obtained or caused to be obtained a health and dental history of the patient; (ii) performed or caused to be performed an appropriate examination of the patient, either physically, through use of instrumentation and diagnostic equipment through which digital scans, photographs, images, and dental records are able to be transmitted electronically, or through use of face-to-face interactive two-way real-time communications services or store-and-forward technologies; (iii) provided information to the patient about the services to be performed; and (iv) initiated additional diagnostic tests or referrals as needed. In cases in which a dentist is providing teledentistry, the examination required by clause (ii) shall not be required if the patient has been examined in person by a dentist licensed by the Board within the six months prior to the initiation of teledentistry and the patient's dental records of such examination have been reviewed by the dentist providing teledentistry.

C. No person shall deliver dental services through teledentistry unless he holds a license to practice dentistry in the Commonwealth issued by the Board and has established written or electronic protocols for the practice of teledentistry that include (i) methods to ensure that patients are fully informed about services provided through the use of teledentistry, including obtaining informed consent; (ii) safeguards to ensure compliance with all state and federal laws and regulations related to the privacy of health information; (iii) documentation of all dental services provided to a patient through teledentistry, including the full name, address, telephone number, and Virginia license number of the dentist providing such dental services; (iv) procedures for providing in-person services or for the referral of patients requiring dental services that cannot be provided by teledentistry to another dentist licensed to practice dentistry in the Commonwealth who actually practices dentistry in an area of the Commonwealth the patient can readily access; (v) provisions for the use of appropriate encryption when transmitting patient health information via teledentistry; and (vi) any other provisions required by the Board. A dentist who delivers dental services using teledentistry shall, upon request of the patient, provide health records to the patient or a dentist of record in a timely manner in accordance with § 32.1-127.1:03 and any other applicable federal or state laws or regulations. All patients receiving dental services through teledentistry shall have the right to speak or communicate with the dentist providing such services upon request.

D. Dental services delivered through use of teledentistry shall (i) be consistent with the standard of care as set forth in § 8.01-581.20, including when the standard of care requires the use of diagnostic testing or performance of a physical examination, and (ii) comply with the requirements of this chapter and the regulations of the Board.

E. In cases in which teledentistry is provided to a patient who has a dentist of record but has not had a dental wellness examination in the six months prior to the initiation of teledentistry, the dentist providing teledentistry shall recommend that the patient schedule a dental wellness examination. If a patient to whom teledentistry is provided does not have a dentist of record, the dentist shall provide or cause to be provided to the patient options for referrals for obtaining a dental wellness examination.

F. No dentist shall be supervised within the scope of the practice of dentistry by any person who is not a licensed dentist.

Code 1950, § 54-146; 1972, c. 805; 1988, c. 765; 2020, cc. 37, 220.

A. Upon recommendation by the dean of the school of dentistry or the dental program director, the Board may issue a temporary annual license to practice dentistry to persons enrolled in advanced dental education programs and persons serving as dental interns, residents or post-doctoral certificate or degree candidates in hospitals or schools of dentistry that maintain dental intern, residency or post-doctoral programs accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association. Such license shall expire upon the holder's graduation, withdrawal or termination from the relevant program.

B. Temporary licenses issued pursuant to this section shall authorize the licensee to perform patient care activities associated with the program in which he is enrolled that take place only within educational facilities owned or operated by, or affiliated with, the dental school or program. Temporary licenses issued pursuant to this section shall not authorize a licensee to practice dentistry in nonaffiliated clinics or private practice settings.

C. The Board may prescribe such regulations not in conflict with existing law and require such reports from any hospital or the school of dentistry operating an accredited advanced dental education program in the Commonwealth as may be necessary to carry out the provisions of this section.

2004, c. 754; 2012, cc. 20, 116.

In addition to the possession and administration of botulinum toxin injections for dental purposes, a dentist may possess and administer botulinum toxin injections for cosmetic purposes, provided that the dentist has completed training and continuing education in the administration of botulinum toxin injections for cosmetic purposes, as deemed appropriate by the Board.

2023, c. 413.

The following activities shall be permissible:

1. Dental assistants or dental hygienists aiding or assisting licensed dentists, or dental assistants aiding or assisting dental hygienists under the general supervision of a dentist in accordance with regulations promulgated pursuant to § 54.1-2729.01;

2. The performance of mechanical work on inanimate objects only, for licensed dentists, by any person employed in or operating a dental laboratory;

3. Dental students who are enrolled in accredited D.D.S. or D.M.D. degree programs performing dental operations, under the direction of competent instructors (i) within a dental school or college, dental department of an institution of higher education, or other dental facility within an institution of higher education that is accredited by an accrediting agency recognized by the U.S. Department of Education; (ii) in a dental clinic operated by a nonprofit organization providing indigent care; (iii) in governmental or indigent care clinics in which the student is assigned to practice during his final academic year rotations; (iv) in a private dental office for a limited time during the student's final academic year when under the direct tutorial supervision of a licensed dentist holding appointment on the dental faculty of the school in which the student is enrolled; or (v) practicing dental hygiene in a private dental office under the direct supervision of a licensed dentist holding appointment on the dental faculty of the school in which the student is enrolled;

4. A licensed dentist from another state or country appearing as a clinician for demonstrating technical procedures before a dental society or organization, convention, or dental college, or performing his duties in connection with a specific case on which he may have been called to the Commonwealth;

5. Dental hygiene students enrolled in an accredited dental hygiene program performing dental hygiene practices as a requisite of the program, under the direction of competent instructors, as defined by regulations of the Board of Dentistry, (i) within a dental hygiene program in a dental school or college, or department thereof, or other dental facility within an institution of higher education that is accredited by an accrediting agency recognized by the U.S. Department of Education; (ii) in a dental clinic operated by a nonprofit organization providing indigent care; (iii) in a governmental or indigent care clinic in which the student is assigned to practice during his final academic year rotations; or (iv) in a private dental office for a limited time during the student's final academic year when under the direct supervision of a licensed dentist or licensed dental hygienist holding appointment on the dental faculty of the school in which the student is enrolled; and

6. A graduate of an accredited dental program or a graduate of an accredited dental hygiene program engaging in clinical practice under the supervision of a licensed faculty member, but only while participating in a continuing education course offered by a dental program or dental hygiene program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association.

Code 1950, § 54-147; 1970, c. 639; 1972, c. 805; 1975, c. 479; 1985, c. 373; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 131; 1994, c. 749; 2004, c. 754; 2005, cc. 505, 587; 2008, cc. 84, 264; 2012, cc. 20, 116.

A. The Board may issue a restricted volunteer license to a dentist who:

1. Held an unrestricted license in Virginia or another state as a licensee in good standing at the time the license expired or became inactive;

2. Is volunteering for a public health or community free clinic that provides dental services to populations of underserved people;

3. Has fulfilled the Board's requirement related to knowledge of the laws and regulations governing the practice of dentistry in Virginia;

4. Has not failed a clinical examination within the past five years; and

5. Has had at least five years of clinical practice.

B. A person holding a restricted volunteer license under this section shall:

1. Only practice in public health or community free clinics that provide dental services to underserved populations;

2. Only treat patients who have been screened by the approved clinic and are eligible for treatment;

3. Attest on a form provided by the Board that he will not receive remuneration directly or indirectly for providing dental services; and

4. Not be required to complete continuing education in order to renew such a license.

C. If a dentist with a restricted volunteer license issued under this section has not held an active, unrestricted license and been engaged in active practice within the past five years, he shall only practice dentistry and perform dental procedures if a dentist with an unrestricted Virginia license, volunteering at the clinic, reviews the quality of care rendered by the dentist with the restricted volunteer license at least every 30 days.

D. A restricted voluntary license granted pursuant to this section shall expire on the June 30 of the second year after its issuance, or shall terminate when the supervising dentist withdraws his sponsorship. Such license may be renewed annually in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Board.

E. A dentist holding a restricted volunteer license issued pursuant to this section is subject to the provisions of this chapter, the regulations promulgated under this chapter, and the disciplinary regulations which apply to all dentists practicing in Virginia.

1997, c. 719; 1998, c. 326; 2005, cc. 505, 587.

A. Upon payment of the prescribed fee and provided that no grounds exist to deny licensure pursuant to § 54.1-2706, the Board may grant, without examination, a faculty license to teach dentistry in a dental program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association to any applicant who meets one of the following qualifications:

1. Is a graduate of a dental school or college or the dental department of an institution of higher education, has a current unrestricted license to practice dentistry in at least one other United States jurisdiction, and has never been licensed to practice dentistry in the Commonwealth;

2. Is a graduate of a dental school or college or the dental department of an institution of higher education, has completed an advanced dental education program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association, and has never been licensed to practice dentistry in the Commonwealth; or

3. Is a graduate of a dental school or college or the dental department of an institution of higher education in a foreign country and has been granted a certification letter from the dean or program director of an accredited dental program confirming that the applicant has clinical competency and clinical experience that meet the credentialing standards of the dental school with which the applicant is to be affiliated.

B. The dean or program director of the accredited dental program shall provide to the Board verification that the applicant is being hired by the program and shall include an assessment of the applicant's clinical competency and clinical experience that qualifies the applicant for a faculty license.

C. The holder of a license issued pursuant to this section shall be entitled to perform all activities that a person licensed to practice dentistry would be entitled to perform and that are part of his faculty duties, including all patient care activities associated with teaching, research, and the delivery of patient care, which take place only within educational facilities owned or operated by or affiliated with the dental school or program. A licensee who is qualified based on educational requirements for a specialty board certification shall only practice in the specialty for which he is qualified. A license issued pursuant to this section shall not authorize the holder to practice dentistry in nonaffiliated clinics or in private practice settings.

D. Any license issued under this section shall expire on June 30 of the second year after its issuance or shall terminate when the licensee leaves employment at the accredited dental program. Such license may be renewed annually thereafter as long as the accredited program certifies to the licensee's continuing employment.

1975, c. 479, § 54-175.1; 1976, c. 327; 1988, c. 765; 2005, cc. 505, 587; 2012, cc. 20, 116; 2022, c. 145.

A. Upon payment of the prescribed fee and provided that no grounds exist to deny licensure pursuant to § 54.1-2706, the Board may grant, without examination, a faculty license to teach dentistry in a dental program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association to any applicant who meets one of the following qualifications:

1. Is a graduate of a dental school or college or the dental department of an institution of higher education, has a current unrestricted license to practice dentistry in at least one other United States jurisdiction, and has never been licensed to practice dentistry in the Commonwealth;

2. Is a graduate of a dental school or college or the dental department of an institution of higher education, has completed an advanced dental education program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association, and has never been licensed to practice dentistry in the Commonwealth; or

3. Is a graduate of a dental school or college or the dental department of an institution of higher education in a foreign country and has been granted a certification letter from the dean or program director of an accredited dental program confirming that the applicant has clinical competency and clinical experience that meet the credentialing standards of the dental school with which the applicant is to be affiliated.

B. The dean or program director of the accredited dental program shall provide to the Board verification that the applicant is being hired by the program and shall include an assessment of the applicant's clinical competency and clinical experience that qualifies the applicant for a faculty license.

C. The holder of a license issued pursuant to this section shall be entitled to perform all activities that a person licensed to practice dentistry would be entitled to perform and that are part of his faculty duties, including all patient care activities associated with teaching, research, and the delivery of patient care, which take place only within educational facilities owned or operated by or affiliated with the dental school or program. A licensee who is qualified based on educational requirements for a specialty board certification shall only practice in the specialty for which he is qualified. A license issued pursuant to this section shall not authorize the holder to practice dentistry in nonaffiliated clinics or in private practice settings.

D. Any license issued under this section shall expire on June 30 of the second year after its issuance or shall terminate when the licensee leaves employment at the accredited dental program. Such license may be renewed annually thereafter as long as the accredited program certifies to the licensee's continuing employment.

1975, c. 479, § 54-175.1; 1976, c. 327; 1988, c. 765; 2005, cc. 505, 587; 2012, cc. 20, 116; 2022, c. 145.

A. The Board may grant, without examination, a restricted license for a temporary appointment to teach dentistry at a dental school in this Commonwealth to any person who:

1. Is a resident of a foreign country;

2. Is licensed to practice dentistry in a foreign country;

3. Holds a faculty appointment in a dental school in a foreign country;

4. Is a graduate of a foreign dental school or college or the dental department of a foreign institution of higher education;

5. Is not licensed to practice dentistry in Virginia;

6. Has not failed an examination for a license to practice dentistry in this Commonwealth;

7. Has received a temporary appointment to the faculty of a dental school in this Commonwealth to teach dentistry;

8. Is, in the opinion of the Board, qualified to teach dentistry; and

9. Submits a completed application, the supporting documents the Board deems necessary to determine his qualifications, and the prescribed fee.

B. A restricted license shall entitle the licensee to perform all operations which a person licensed to practice dentistry may perform but only for the purpose of teaching. No person granted a restricted license shall practice dentistry intramurally or privately or receive fees for his services.

C. A restricted license granted pursuant to this section shall expire 24 months from the date of issuance and may not be renewed or reissued.

1977, c. 349, § 54-175.2; 1988, c. 765; 2012, cc. 20, 116.

Repealed by Acts 2012, cc. 20 and 116, cl. 2.

A. The Board may issue a temporary permit to a graduate of a dental school or college or the dental department of an institution of higher education, who (i) has a D.D.S. or D.M.D. degree and is otherwise qualified, (ii) is not licensed to practice dentistry in Virginia, and (iii) has not failed an examination for a license to practice dentistry in the Commonwealth. Such temporary permits may be issued only to those eligible graduates who serve as clinicians in dental clinics operated by (a) the Virginia Department of Corrections, (b) the Virginia Department of Health, (c) the Virginia Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, or (d) a Virginia charitable corporation granted tax-exempt status under § 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and operating as a clinic for the indigent and uninsured that is organized for the delivery of primary health care services: (i) as a federal qualified health center designated by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services or (ii) at a reduced or sliding fee scale or without charge.

B. Applicants for temporary permits shall be certified to the executive director of the Board by the Director of the Department of Corrections, the Commissioner of Health, the Commissioner of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, or the chief executive officer of a Virginia charitable corporation identified in subsection A. The holder of such a temporary permit shall not be entitled to receive any fee or other compensation other than salary. Such permits shall be valid for no more than two years and shall expire on the June 30 of the second year after their issuance, or shall terminate when the holder ceases to serve as a clinician with the certifying agency or charitable corporation. Such permits may be reissued annually or may be revoked at any time for cause. Reissuance or revocation of a temporary permit is in the discretion of the Board.

C. Dentists licensed pursuant to this chapter may practice as employees of the dental clinics operated as specified in subsection A.

Code 1950, § 54-152; 1968, c. 604; 1970, c. 639; 1972, c. 805; 1975, c. 479; 1976, c. 327; 1985, c. 373; 1988, c. 765; 2002, c. 549; 2004, c. 48; 2005, cc. 505, 587; 2006, c. 176; 2009, cc. 813, 840.

It shall be unlawful for any dentist to practice his profession in a commercial or mercantile establishment, or to advertise, either in person or through any commercial or mercantile establishment, that he is a licensed practitioner and is practicing or will practice dentistry in such commercial or mercantile establishment. This section shall not prohibit the rendering of professional services to the officers and employees of any person, firm or corporation by a dentist, whether or not the compensation for such service is paid by the officers and employees, or by the employer, or jointly by all or any of them. Any dentist who violates any of the provisions of this section shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

For the purposes of this section, the term "commercial or mercantile establishment" means a business enterprise engaged in the selling of commodities or services unrelated to the practice of dentistry or the other healing arts.

Code 1950, § 54-147.1; 1988, c. 765.

A. No corporation shall be formed or foreign corporation domesticated in the Commonwealth for the purpose of practicing dentistry other than a professional corporation as permitted by Chapter 7 (§ 13.1-542.1 et seq.) of Title 13.1.

B. No limited liability company shall be organized or foreign limited liability company domesticated in the Commonwealth for the purpose of practicing dentistry other than a professional limited liability company as permitted by Chapter 13 (§ 13.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 13.1.

C. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsections A and B, dentists licensed pursuant to this chapter may practice as employees of the dental clinics operated as specified in subsection A of § 54.1-2715.

Code 1950, § 54-183; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 574; 2004, c. 48; 2022, c. 234.

A. No person shall practice, offer to practice, or hold himself out as practicing dentistry, under a name other than his own. This section shall not prohibit the practice of dentistry by a partnership under a firm name, or a licensed dentist from practicing dentistry as the employee of a licensed dentist, practicing under his own name or under a firm name, or as the employee of a professional corporation, or as a member, manager, employee, or agent of a professional limited liability company or as the employee of a dental clinic operated as specified in subsection A of § 54.1-2715.

B. A dentist, partnership, professional corporation, or professional limited liability company that owns a dental practice may adopt a trade name for that practice so long as the trade name meets the following requirements:

1. The trade name incorporates one or more of the following: (i) a geographic location, e.g., to include, but not be limited to, a street name, shopping center, neighborhood, city, or county location; (ii) type of practice; or (iii) a derivative of the dentist's name.

2. Derivatives of American Dental Association approved specialty board certifications may be used to describe the type of practice if one or more dentists in the practice are certified in the specialty or if the specialty name is accompanied by the conspicuous disclosure that services are provided by a general dentist in every advertising medium in which the trade name is used.

3. The trade name is used in conjunction with either (i) the name of the dentist or (ii) the name of the partnership, professional corporation, or professional limited liability company that owns the practice. The owner's name shall be conspicuously displayed along with the trade name used for the practice in all advertisements in any medium.

4. Marquee signage, web page addresses, and email addresses are not considered to be advertisements and may be limited to the trade name adopted for the practice.

Code 1950, § 54-184; 1970, c. 639; 1975, c. 479; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 574; 2004, c. 48; 2005, cc. 505, 587.

A. Licensed dentists may employ or engage the services of any person, firm, or corporation to construct or repair an appliance, extraorally, in accordance with a written or digital work order. Any appliance constructed or repaired by a person, firm, or corporation pursuant to this section shall be evaluated and reviewed by the licensed dentist who submitted the written or digital work order, or a licensed dentist in the same dental practice. A person, firm, or corporation so employed or engaged shall not be considered to be practicing dentistry. No such person, firm, or corporation shall perform any direct dental service for a patient, but they may assist a dentist in the selection of shades for the matching of prosthetic devices when the dentist sends the patient to them with a written or digital work order.

B. Any licensed dentist who employs the services of any person, firm, or corporation not working in a dental office under the dentist's direct supervision to construct or repair an appliance extraorally shall furnish such person, firm, or corporation with a written or digital work order on forms prescribed by the Board, which shall, at minimum, contain (i) the name and address of the person, firm, or corporation; (ii) the patient's name or initials or an identification number; (iii) the date the work order was written; (iv) a description of the work to be done, including diagrams, if necessary; (v) specification of the type and quality of materials to be used; and (vi) the signature and address of the dentist.

The person, firm, or corporation shall retain the original written work order or an electronic copy of a digital work order, and the dentist shall retain a duplicate of the written work order or an electronic copy of a digital work order, for three years.

C. If the person, firm, or corporation receives a written or digital work order from a licensed dentist, a written disclosure and subwork order shall be furnished to the dentist on forms prescribed by the Board, which shall, at minimum, contain (i) the name and address of the person, firm, or corporation and subcontractor; (ii) a number identifying the subwork order with the original work order; (iii) the date any subwork order was written; (iv) a description of the work to be done and the work to be done by the subcontractor, including diagrams or digital files, if necessary; (v) a specification of the type and quality of materials to be used; and (vi) the signature of the person issuing the disclosure and subwork order.

The subcontractor shall retain the subwork order, and the issuer shall retain a duplicate of the subwork order, which shall be attached to the work order received from the licensed dentist, for three years.

D. No person, firm, or corporation engaged in the construction or repair of appliances shall refuse to allow the Board or its agents to inspect the files of work orders or subwork orders during ordinary business hours.

1962, c. 45, § 54-147.2; 1972, c. 805; 1988, c. 765; 2020, cc. 37, 220.

Every person practicing dentistry under a firm name, and every person practicing dentistry as an employee of another licensed dentist shall conspicuously display his name at the entrance of the office. Any licensed dentist who fails to display his name shall be subject to disciplinary action by the Board.

Code 1950, § 54-186; 1972, c. 805; 1988, c. 765; 2005, cc. 505, 587.

Every person practicing dentistry in this Commonwealth shall display his license in his office in plain view of patients. Any person practicing dentistry without having his license on display shall be subject to disciplinary action by the Board.

The provisions of this section shall not apply to any dentist while he is serving as a volunteer providing dental services in an underserved area of the Commonwealth under the auspices of a Virginia charitable corporation granted tax-exempt status under § 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and operating as a clinic for the indigent and uninsured that is organized for the delivery of primary health care services.

Code 1950, § 54-197; 1972, c. 805; 1988, c. 765; 2006, c. 823.

Article 3. Licensure of Dental Hygienists.

A. No person shall practice dental hygiene unless he possesses a current, active, and valid license from the Board of Dentistry. The licensee shall have the right to practice dental hygiene in the Commonwealth for the period of his license as set by the Board, under the direction of any licensed dentist.

B. An application for such license shall be made to the Board in writing and shall be accompanied by satisfactory proof that the applicant (i) is of good moral character, (ii) is a graduate of a dental hygiene program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation and offered by an accredited institution of higher education, (iii) has passed the dental hygiene examination given by the Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations, and (iv) has successfully completed a clinical examination acceptable to the Board.

C. The Board may grant a license to practice dental hygiene to an applicant licensed to practice in another jurisdiction if he (i) meets the requirements of subsection B; (ii) holds a current, unrestricted license to practice dental hygiene in another jurisdiction in the United States; (iii) has not committed any act that would constitute grounds for denial as set forth in § 54.1-2706; and (iv) meets other qualifications as determined in regulations promulgated by the Board.

D. A licensed dental hygienist may, under the direction or general supervision of a licensed dentist and subject to the regulations of the Board, perform services that are educational, diagnostic, therapeutic, or preventive. These services shall not include the establishment of a final diagnosis or treatment plan for a dental patient. Pursuant to subsection V of § 54.1-3408, a licensed dental hygienist may administer topical oral fluorides under an oral or written order or a standing protocol issued by a dentist or a doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine.

A dentist may also authorize a dental hygienist under his direction to administer Schedule VI nitrous oxide and oxygen inhalation analgesia and, to persons 18 years of age or older, Schedule VI local anesthesia. In its regulations, the Board of Dentistry shall establish the education and training requirements for dental hygienists to administer such controlled substances under a dentist's direction.

For the purposes of this section, "general supervision" means that a dentist has evaluated the patient and prescribed authorized services to be provided by a dental hygienist; however, the dentist need not be present in the facility while the authorized services are being provided.

The Board shall provide for an inactive license for those dental hygienists who hold a current, unrestricted license to practice in the Commonwealth at the time of application for an inactive license and who do not wish to practice in Virginia. The Board shall promulgate such regulations as may be necessary to carry out the provisions of this section, including requirements for remedial education to activate a license.

E. For the purposes of this subsection, "remote supervision" means that a public health dentist has regular, periodic communications with a public health dental hygienist regarding patient treatment, but such dentist may not have conducted an initial examination of the patients who are to be seen and treated by the dental hygienist and may not be present with the dental hygienist when dental hygiene services are being provided.

Notwithstanding any provision of law, a dental hygienist employed by the Virginia Department of Health or the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services who holds a license issued by the Board of Dentistry may provide educational and preventative dental care in the Commonwealth under the remote supervision of a dentist employed by the Department of Health or the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services. A dental hygienist providing such services shall practice pursuant to protocols developed jointly by the Department of Health and the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services for each agency, in consultation with the Virginia Dental Association and the Virginia Dental Hygienists' Association. Such protocols shall be adopted by the Board as regulations.

A report of services provided by dental hygienists employed by the Virginia Department of Health pursuant to such protocol, including their impact upon the oral health of the citizens of the Commonwealth, shall be prepared and submitted annually to the Secretary of Health and Human Resources by the Department of Health, and a report of services provided by dental hygienists employed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services shall be prepared and submitted annually to the Secretary of Health and Human Resources by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services. Nothing in this section shall be construed to authorize or establish the independent practice of dental hygiene.

F. For the purposes of this subsection, "remote supervision" means that a supervising dentist is accessible and available for communication and consultation with a dental hygienist during the delivery of dental hygiene services, but such dentist may not have conducted an initial examination of the patients who are to be seen and treated by the dental hygienist and may not be present with the dental hygienist when dental hygiene services are being provided.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a dental hygienist may practice dental hygiene under the remote supervision of a dentist who holds an active license by the Board and who has a dental practice physically located in the Commonwealth. No dental hygienist shall practice under remote supervision unless he has (i) completed a continuing education course designed to develop the competencies needed to provide care under remote supervision offered by an accredited dental education program or from a continuing education provider approved by the Board and (ii) at least two years of clinical experience, consisting of at least 2,500 hours of clinical experience. A dental hygienist practicing under remote supervision shall have professional liability insurance with policy limits acceptable to the supervising dentist. A dental hygienist shall only practice under remote supervision at a federally qualified health center; charitable safety net facility; free clinic; long-term care facility; elementary or secondary school; Head Start program; mobile dentistry program for adults with developmental disabilities operated by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services' Office of Integrated Health; or women, infants, and children (WIC) program.

A dental hygienist practicing under remote supervision may (a) obtain a patient's treatment history and consent, (b) perform an oral assessment, (c) perform scaling and polishing, (d) perform all educational and preventative services, (e) take X-rays as ordered by the supervising dentist or consistent with a standing order, (f) maintain appropriate documentation in the patient's chart, (g) administer topical oral fluorides, topical oral anesthetics, topical and directly applied antimicrobial agents for treatment of periodontal pocket lesions, and any other Schedule VI topical drug approved by the Board of Dentistry under an oral or written order or a standing protocol issued by a dentist or a doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine pursuant to subsection V of § 54.1-3408, and (h) perform any other service ordered by the supervising dentist or required by statute or Board regulation. No dental hygienist practicing under remote supervision shall administer local anesthetic or nitrous oxide.

Prior to providing a patient dental hygiene services, a dental hygienist practicing under remote supervision shall obtain (1) the patient's or the patient's legal representative's signature on a statement disclosing that the delivery of dental hygiene services under remote supervision is not a substitute for the need for regular dental examinations by a dentist and (2) verbal confirmation from the patient that he does not have a dentist of record whom he is seeing regularly.

After conducting an initial oral assessment of a patient, a dental hygienist practicing under remote supervision may provide further dental hygiene services following a written practice protocol developed and provided by the supervising dentist. Such written practice protocol shall consider, at a minimum, the medical complexity of the patient and the presenting signs and symptoms of oral disease.

A dental hygienist practicing under remote supervision shall inform the supervising dentist of all findings for a patient. A dental hygienist practicing under remote supervision may continue to treat a patient for 90 days. After such 90-day period, the supervising dentist, absent emergent circumstances, shall either conduct an examination of the patient or refer the patient to another dentist to conduct an examination. The supervising dentist shall develop a diagnosis and treatment plan for the patient, and either the supervising dentist or the dental hygienist shall provide the treatment plan to the patient. The supervising dentist shall review a patient's records at least once every 10 months.

Nothing in this subsection shall prevent a dental hygienist from practicing dental hygiene under general supervision whether as an employee or as a volunteer.

1950, pp. 983-985, §§ 54-200.2, 54-200.4, 54-200.7 through 54-200.9, 54-200.11; 1968, c. 604; 1970, c. 639; 1972, cc. 805, 824; 1973, c. 391; 1975, c. 479; 1976, c. 327; 1986, c. 178; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 441; 1997, c. 855; 2002, c. 170; 2005, cc. 505, 587; 2006, c. 858; 2007, c. 702; 2009, cc. 99, 506, 561; 2011, c. 289; 2012, c. 102; 2013, c. 240; 2016, c. 497; 2017, c. 410; 2019, cc. 86, 431.

Repealed by Acts 2005, cc. 505 and 587, cl. 2.

The Board shall determine by regulation the total number of dental hygienists, including dental hygienists under general supervision and dental hygienists under remote supervision, who may work at one time for a dentist. No dentist shall employ more than two dental hygienists who practice under remote supervision at one time. The State Board of Health may employ the necessary number of hygienists in public school dental clinics, subject to regulations of the Board.

1950, p. 984, § 54-200.6; 1972, c. 805; 1978, c. 247; 1988, c. 765; 2016, c. 497.

A. Upon payment of the prescribed fee, the Board shall grant, without examination, a license to teach dental hygiene to any applicant who (i) is a graduate of a dental hygiene school or college or the dental hygiene department of an institution of higher education accredited by the Commission of Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association; (ii) has a B.S., B.A., A.B., or M.S. degree and is otherwise qualified; (iii) is not licensed to practice dental hygiene; and (iv) has a license to practice dental hygiene in at least one other United States jurisdiction.

B. The dean or program director of the accredited dental hygiene program shall provide to the Board verification that the applicant is being hired by the program and shall include an assessment of the applicant's clinical competency and clinical experience that qualifies the applicant for a faculty license.

C. The holder of a license issued pursuant to this section shall be entitled to perform all activities that a person licensed to practice dental hygiene would be entitled to perform that are part of his faculty duties, including all patient care activities associated with teaching, research, and the delivery of patient care that take place only within educational facilities owned or operated by or affiliated with the dental school or program. A license issued pursuant to this section does not entitle the holder to practice dental hygiene in nonaffiliated clinics or other private practice settings.

D. Any license issued under this section shall expire on June 30 of the second year after its issuance or shall terminate when the licensee leaves employment at the accredited dental program. Such license may be renewed annually thereafter as long as the accredited program certifies to the licensee's continuing employment.

1975, c. 479, § 54-175.1; 1976, c. 327; 1988, c. 765; 2012, cc. 20, 116.

A. The Board may issue a temporary permit to a graduate of an accredited dental hygiene program who is otherwise qualified, has not held a license to practice dental hygiene in Virginia, and has not failed an examination for a license to practice dental hygiene in the Commonwealth. Such temporary permits shall be issued only to those eligible graduates who serve in the Department of Health or the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services in a dental clinic operated by the Commonwealth or in a Virginia charitable corporation granted tax-exempt status under § 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and operated as a clinic for the indigent and uninsured that is organized for the delivery of primary health care services: (i) as a federally qualified health center designated by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) or (ii) at a reduced or sliding fee scale or without charge.

B. Applicants for temporary permits shall be certified to the executive director of the Board by the Commissioner of Health or the Commissioner of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services or the chief executive officer of a Virginia charitable corporation pursuant to subsection A. The holder of such permit shall not be entitled to receive any fee or compensation other than salary. Such permits shall be valid for no more than two years and shall expire on the June 30 of the second year after their issuance, or shall terminate when the holder ceases to be employed by the certifying agency. Such permits may be reissued annually or may be revoked at any time for cause. Reissuance or revocation of a temporary permit is in the discretion of the Board.

The holder of a temporary permit shall function under the direction of a dentist.

Code 1950, § 54-152; 1968, c. 604; 1970, c. 639; 1972, c. 805; 1975, c. 479; 1976, c. 327; 1985, c. 373; 1988, c. 765; 2005, cc. 505, 587; 2009, cc. 813, 840.

A. The Board may issue a restricted volunteer license to a dental hygienist who:

1. Held an unrestricted license in Virginia or another state as a licensee in good standing at the time the license expired or became inactive;

2. Is sponsored and supervised by a dentist who holds an unrestricted license in the Commonwealth;

3. Is volunteering for a public health or community free clinic that provides dental services to populations of underserved people;

4. Has fulfilled the Board's requirement related to knowledge of the laws and regulations governing the practice of dentistry in Virginia;

5. Has not failed a clinical examination within the past five years; and

6. Has had at least five years of clinical practice.

B. A person holding a restricted volunteer license under this section shall:

1. Only practice in public health or community free clinics that provide dental hygiene services to underserved populations;

2. Only treat patients who have been screened by the approved clinic and are eligible for treatment;

3. Attest on a form provided by the Board that he will not receive remuneration directly or indirectly for providing dental hygiene services; and

4. Not be required to complete continuing education in order to renew such a license.

C. A dental hygienist with a restricted volunteer license issued under this section shall only practice dental hygiene under the direction of a dentist with an unrestricted license in Virginia.

D. A restricted voluntary license granted pursuant to this section shall expire on the June 30 of the second year after its issuance, or shall terminate when the supervising dentist withdraws his sponsorship. Such license may be renewed annually thereafter as long as the supervising dentist continues to sponsor the licensee.

E. A dental hygienist holding a restricted volunteer license issued pursuant to this section is subject to the provisions of this chapter, the regulations promulgated under this chapter, and the disciplinary regulations which apply to all dental hygienists practicing in Virginia.

1997, c. 719; 1998, c. 326; 2005, cc. 505, 587.

Every person practicing dental hygiene shall at all times display his license in a conspicuous place in his office in plain view of patients.

The provisions of this section shall not apply to any dental hygienist while he is serving as a volunteer providing dental hygiene services in an underserved area of the Commonwealth under the auspices of a Virginia charitable corporation granted tax-exempt status under § 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and operating as a clinic for the indigent and uninsured that is organized for the delivery of primary health care services.

1950, p. 985, § 54-200.14; 1972, c. 805; 1988, c. 765; 2006, c. 823.

The Board may revoke or suspend the license of any dental hygienist for any of the causes set forth in § 54.1-2706, insofar as applicable to the practice of dental hygiene.

1950, p. 986, § 54-200.18; 1972, c. 805; 1988, c. 765; 2005, cc. 505, 587.

The Board shall promulgate regulations requiring continuing education for any dental hygienist license renewal or reinstatement. The Board may grant exceptions or exemptions from these continuing education requirements.

1993, c. 555; 1997, c. 3; 2004, c. 137; 2005, cc. 505, 587.

Article 4. Practice of Dental Assistants.

A. A person who is employed to assist a licensed dentist or dental hygienist by performing duties not otherwise restricted to the practice of a dentist, dental hygienist, or dental assistant II, as prescribed in regulations promulgated by the Board may practice as a dental assistant I.

B. A person who (i) has met the educational and training requirements prescribed by the Board; (ii) holds a certification from a credentialing organization recognized by the American Dental Association; and (iii) has met any other qualifications for registration as prescribed in regulations promulgated by the Board may practice as a dental assistant II. A dental assistant II may perform duties not otherwise restricted to the practice of a dentist or dental hygienist under the direction of a licensed dentist that are reversible, intraoral procedures specified in regulations promulgated by the Board.

2008, cc. 84, 264.

Chapter 27.01. Dialysis Patient Care Technicians.

This chapter shall not preclude or affect the ability of unregulated persons to perform services relating to the technical elements of dialysis, such as equipment maintenance and preparation of dialyzers for reuse by the same patient.

2003, c. 995.

"Dialysis patient care technician" or "dialysis care technician" means a person who has obtained certification from an organization approved by the Board of Health Professions to provide, under the supervision of a licensed practitioner of medicine or a registered nurse, direct care to patients undergoing renal dialysis treatments in a Medicare-certified renal dialysis facility. Such direct care may include, but need not be limited to, the administration of heparin, topical needle site anesthetics, dialysis solutions, sterile normal saline solution, and blood volumizers in accordance with the order of a licensed physician, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant. However, a person who has completed a training program in dialysis patient care may engage in provisional practice to obtain practical experience in providing direct patient care under direct and immediate supervision in accordance with § 54.1-3408, until he has taken and received the results of any examination required by a certifying organization approved by the Board or for 24 months from the date of initial practice, whichever occurs sooner.

2003, c. 995; 2006, c. 75; 2023, c. 183.

A. No person shall hold himself out to be or advertise or permit to be advertised that he is a dialysis patient care technician or dialysis care technician as defined in this chapter unless such person has obtained certification from an organization approved by the Board of Health Professions as examining candidates for appropriate competency or technical proficiency to perform as dialysis patient care technicians or dialysis care technicians.

B. The title restrictions provided by this section shall apply to the use of the terms "dialysis patient care technician" and "dialysis care technician" or any other term or combination of terms used alone or in combination with the terms "licensed," "certified," or "registered," as such terms also imply a minimum level of education, training, and competence. A person who is authorized for provisional practice to provide direct patient care while obtaining practical experience shall be identified as a "trainee" while working in a renal dialysis facility.

C. The Board of Health Professions may require such continuing competency training as it may deem necessary for dialysis patient care technicians or dialysis care technicians.

D. Any person who willfully violates the provisions of this chapter shall be guilty of a Class 3 misdemeanor.

2003, c. 995; 2006, c. 75.

Chapter 27.1. Dietitians and Nutritionists.

Nothing in this chapter shall preclude or affect in any fashion the ability of any person to provide any assessment, evaluation, advice, counseling, information or services of any nature that are otherwise allowed by law, whether or not such services are provided in connection with the marketing and sale of products.

1995, c. 391.

A. As used in this section, "nutritional genomics" means the consideration of biochemical or genetic information to evaluate how genetics affect gene function and how genetic variation alters nutrient response, including the study of how dietary and other lifestyle choices influence the function of humans at the molecular, cellular, organismal, and populational levels.

B. No person shall hold himself out to be or advertise or permit to be advertised that such person is a dietitian or nutritionist unless such person:

1. Has (i) received a baccalaureate or higher degree in nutritional sciences, community nutrition, public health nutrition, food and nutrition, dietetics, or human nutrition from a regionally accredited institution of higher education and (ii) satisfactorily completed a program of supervised clinical experience approved by the Commission on Dietetic Registration of the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics;

2. Has active registration through the Commission on Dietetic Registration of the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics;

3. Has an active certificate of the Board for Certification of Nutrition Specialists as a Certified Nutrition Specialist;

4. Has an active certification as a Diplomate of the American Clinical Board of Nutrition;

5. Has a current license or certificate as a dietitian or nutritionist issued by another state; or

6. Has the minimum requisite education, training and experience determined by the Board of Health Professions appropriate for such person to hold himself out to be, or advertise or allow himself to be advertised as, a dietitian or nutritionist.

The restrictions of this section apply to the use of the terms "dietitian" and "nutritionist" as used alone or in any combination with the terms "licensed," "certified," or "registered," as those terms also imply a minimum level of education, training and competence.

C. Any person who meets the requirements set forth in subsection B who receives nutritional genomics testing information shall maintain such information in accordance with applicable federal and state law.

D. A person who does not meet the requirements of subsection B but who (i) has a baccalaureate degree with a major in food and nutrition or dietetics or has equivalent hours of food and nutrition coursework and (ii) has two years of work experience in nutrition or dietetics concurrent with or subsequent to completion of such degree may hold himself out as a dietitian or nutritionist, provided he is employed by or under contract to a government agency and practices solely within the scope of such employment.

E. Any person who willfully violates the provisions of this section is guilty of a Class 3 misdemeanor.

1995, c. 391; 2016, c. 91.

Chapter 28. Funeral Services.

Article 1. Board of Funeral Directors and Embalmers.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Advertisement" means any information disseminated or placed before the public.

"At-need" means at the time of death or while death is imminent.

"Board" means the Board of Funeral Directors and Embalmers.

"Cremate" means to reduce a dead human body to ashes and bone fragments by the action of fire.

"Cremator" means a person or establishment that owns or operates a crematory or crematorium or cremates dead human bodies.

"Crematory" or "crematorium" means a facility containing a furnace for cremation of dead human bodies.

"Embalmer" means any person engaged in the practice of embalming.

"Embalming" means the process of chemically treating the dead human body by arterial injection and cavity treatment or, when necessary, hypodermic tissue injection to reduce the presence and growth of microorganisms to temporarily retard organic decomposition.

"Funeral directing" means the for-profit profession of directing or supervising funerals, preparing human dead for burial by means other than embalming, or making arrangements for funeral services or the financing of funeral services.

"Funeral director" means any person engaged in the practice of funeral directing.

"Funeral service establishment" means any main establishment, branch, or chapel that is permanently affixed to the real estate and for which a certificate of occupancy has been issued by the local building official where any part of the profession of funeral directing, the practice of funeral services, or the act of embalming is performed.

"Funeral service intern" means a person who is preparing to be licensed for the practice of funeral services under the direct supervision of a practitioner licensed by the Board.

"Funeral service licensee" means a person who is licensed in the practice of funeral services.

"In-person communication" means face-to-face communication and telephonic communication.

"Next of kin" means any of the following persons, regardless of the relationship to the decedent: any person designated to make arrangements for the disposition of the decedent's remains upon his death pursuant to § 54.1-2825, the legal spouse, child aged 18 years or older, parent of a decedent aged 18 years or older, custodial parent or noncustodial parent of a decedent younger than 18 years of age, siblings over 18 years of age, guardian of minor child, guardian of minor siblings, maternal grandparents, paternal grandparents, maternal siblings over 18 years of age and paternal siblings over 18 years of age, or any other relative in the descending order of blood relationship.

"Practice of funeral services" means engaging in the care and disposition of the human dead, the preparation of the human dead for the funeral service, burial or cremation, the making of arrangements for the funeral service or for the financing of the funeral service and the selling or making of financial arrangements for the sale of funeral supplies to the public.

"Preneed" means at any time other than at-need.

"Preneed funeral contract" means any agreement where payment is made by the consumer prior to the receipt of services or supplies contracted for, which evidences arrangements prior to death for (i) the providing of funeral services or (ii) the sale of funeral supplies.

"Preneed funeral planning" means the making of arrangements prior to death for (i) the providing of funeral services or (ii) the sale of funeral supplies.

"Solicitation" means initiating contact with consumers with the intent of influencing their selection of a funeral plan or funeral service provider.

Code 1950, § 54-260.1; 1956, c. 220; 1972, c. 797, § 54-260.67; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 684; 1991, c. 539; 1997, c. 116; 1998, cc. 718, 867; 2003, c. 505; 2006, c. 56; 2015, cc. 534, 670.

A. The provisions of this chapter shall not apply to any officer of local or state institutions or to the burial of the bodies of inmates of state institutions when buried at the expense of the Commonwealth or any of its political subdivisions.

B. Any person holding a license as a funeral director or embalmer or an equivalent in another state, having substantially similar requirements as the Board, may apply to the Board for courtesy card privileges to remove bodies from and to arrange funerals or embalm bodies in this Commonwealth. However, these privileges shall not include the right to establish or engage generally in the business of funeral directing and embalming in Virginia.

Code 1950, §§ 54-260.1, 54-260.22 through 54-260.30, 54-260.32; 1956, c. 220; 1966, c. 284, § 54-260.70; 1972, c. 797, § 54-260.67; 1973, c. 296; 1974, c. 686; 1978, c. 849; 1986, c. 43; 1988, c. 765.

The Board of Funeral Directors and Embalmers shall consist of nine members as follows: seven funeral service licensees of the Board with at least five consecutive years of funeral service practice in the Commonwealth immediately prior to appointment and two nonlegislative citizen members. The terms of office shall be for four years from July 1. Appointments shall be made annually on or before June 30 as the terms of the members respectively expire. Appointments to the Board should generally represent the geographical areas of the Commonwealth. The Board shall annually elect a president, a vice-president, and a secretary-treasurer.

The Board shall hold at least two meetings each year. In addition, the Board may meet as often as its duties require. Five members shall constitute a quorum.

1988, cc. 42, 765; 2000, c. 773; 2015, c. 534.

In addition to the general powers and duties conferred in this subtitle, the Board shall have the following specific powers and duties to:

1. Establish standards of service and practice for the funeral service profession in the Commonwealth.

2. Regulate and inspect funeral service establishments, their operation and licenses.

3. Require licensees and funeral service interns to submit all information relevant to their practice or business.

4. Enforce the relevant regulations of the Board of Health.

5. Enforce local ordinances relating to funeral service establishments.

6. Advise the Department of Health Professions of any training appropriate for inspectors serving as the Board's agents.

7. Establish, supervise, regulate and control, in accordance with the law, programs for funeral service interns.

8. Establish standards for and approve schools of mortuary science or funeral service.

9. Regulate preneed funeral contracts and preneed funeral trust accounts as prescribed by this chapter, including, but not limited to, the authority to prescribe preneed contract forms, disclosure requirements and disclosure forms and to require reasonable bonds to insure performance of preneed contracts.

10. Inspect crematories and their operations.

Code 1950, §§ 54-260.3, 54-260.4, 54-260.6, 54-260.7, 54-260.11 through 54-260.14, 54-260.16 through 54-260.18, 54-260.20, 54-260.21, 54-260.45 through 54-260.49; 1956, c. 220; 1960, c. 61, § 54-260.69; 1966, c. 283, § 54-260.65; 1970, c. 385; 1972, c. 797, §§ 54-260.64, 54-260.68; 1978, c. 849; 1979, c. 650; 1980, c. 728; 1984, cc. 627, 704; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 684; 2000, c. 773; 2003, c. 505; 2006, c. 56.

The Board is authorized to determine the qualifications to enable any person to engage in the practice of funeral service, preneed funeral planning, funeral directing, embalming and the operation of a funeral service establishment. The Board shall promulgate regulations that establish the requirements of licensure for funeral directors and embalmers.

Code 1950, § 54-260.70; Code 1950, §§ 54-260.22 through 54-260.30, 54-260.32; 1956, c. 220; 1966, c. 284, § 54-260.70; 1972, c. 797; 1973, c. 296; 1974, c. 686; 1978, c. 849; 1986, c. 43; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 684; 2020, c. 943.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person to engage in or hold himself out as engaging in the practice of funeral services or the business of preneed funeral planning, to operate a funeral service establishment, or to act as a funeral director or embalmer or hold himself out as such unless he is licensed by the Board. Engaging in the practice of funeral services, preneed funeral planning, operating a funeral service establishment, or acting as a funeral director or embalmer shall be recognized as that of a health profession.

B. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection A, a person who is duly enrolled in a mortuary education program in the Commonwealth may assist in embalming while under the immediate supervision of a funeral service licensee or embalmer with an active, unrestricted license issued by the Board, provided that such embalming occurs in a funeral service establishment licensed by the Board and in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Board.

1974, c. 257, § 54-260.73:1; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 684; 2000, c. 773; 2018, c. 186.

A. As used in this section, "license" shall include any license, registration, or courtesy card issued by the Board.

B. The Board may refuse to admit a candidate to any examination, refuse to issue a license to any applicant and may suspend a license for a stated period or indefinitely, or revoke any license or censure or reprimand any licensee or place him on probation for such time as it may designate for any of the following causes:

1. Conviction of any felony or any crime involving moral turpitude;

2. Unprofessional conduct that is likely to defraud or to deceive the public or clients;

3. Misrepresentation or fraud in the conduct of the funeral service profession, or in obtaining or renewing a license;

4. False or misleading advertising or solicitation;

5. Solicitation at-need or any preneed solicitation using in-person communication by the licensee, his agents, assistants or employees; however, general advertising and preneed solicitation, other than in-person communication, shall be allowed;

6. Employment by the licensee of persons known as "cappers" or "steerers," or "solicitors," or other such persons to obtain the services of a holder of a license for the practice of funeral service;

7. Employment directly or indirectly of any agent, employee or other person, on part or full time, or on a commission, for the purpose of calling upon individuals or institutions by whose influence dead human bodies may be turned over to a particular funeral establishment;

8. Direct or indirect payment or offer of payment of a commission to others by the licensee, his agents, or employees for the purpose of securing business;

9. Use of alcohol or drugs to the extent that such use renders him unsafe to practice his licensed activity;

10. Aiding or abetting an unlicensed person to practice within the funeral service profession;

11. Using profane, indecent, or obscene language within the immediate hearing of the family or relatives of a deceased, whose body has not yet been interred or otherwise disposed of;

12. Solicitation or acceptance by a licensee of any commission or bonus or rebate in consideration of recommending or causing a dead human body to be disposed of in any crematory, mausoleum, or cemetery;

13. Violation of any statute, ordinance, or regulation affecting the handling, custody, care, or transportation of dead human bodies;

14. Refusing to surrender promptly the custody of a dead human body upon the express order of the person lawfully entitled to custody;

15. Knowingly making any false statement on a certificate of death;

16. Violation of any provisions of Chapter 7 (§ 32.1-249 et seq.) of Title 32.1;

17. Failure to comply with § 54.1-2812, and to keep on file an itemized statement of funeral expenses in accordance with Board regulations;

18. Knowingly disposing of parts of human remains, including viscera, that are received with the body by the funeral establishment, in a manner different from that used for final disposition of the body, unless the persons authorizing the method of final disposition give written permission that the body parts may be disposed of in a manner different from that used to dispose of the body;

19. Violating or failing to comply with Federal Trade Commission rules regulating funeral industry practices;

20. Violating or cooperating with others to violate any provision of Chapter 1 (§ 54.1-100 et seq.), Chapter 24 (§ 54.1-2400 et seq.), this chapter, or the regulations of the Board of Funeral Directors and Embalmers or the Board of Health;

21. Failure to comply with the reporting requirements as set forth in § 54.1-2817 for registered funeral service interns;

22. Failure to provide proper and adequate supervision and training instruction to registered funeral service interns as required by regulations of the Board;

23. Violating any statute or regulation of the Board regarding the confidentiality of information pertaining to the deceased or the family of the deceased or permitting access to the body in a manner that is contrary to the lawful instructions of the next-of-kin of the deceased;

24. Failure to include, as part of the general price list for funeral services, a disclosure statement notifying the next of kin that certain funeral services may be provided off-premises by other funeral service providers;

25. Disciplinary action against a license, certificate, or registration issued by another state, the District of Columbia, or territory or possession of the United States;

26. Failure to ensure that a dead human body is maintained in refrigeration at no more than approximately 40 degrees Fahrenheit or embalmed if it is to be stored for more than 48 hours prior to disposition. A dead human body shall be maintained in refrigeration and shall not be embalmed in the absence of express permission by a next of kin of the deceased or a court order; and

27. Mental or physical incapacity to practice his profession with safety to the public.

Code 1950, §§ 54-260.50, 54-260.59; 1956, c. 220; 1972, c. 797, § 54-260.74; 1979, c. 720; 1981, c. 258; 1986, c. 91; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 684; 1990, c. 363; 1996, c. 142; 2003, c. 505; 2006, c. 56; 2010, c. 324; 2015, c. 534; 2020, c. 885.

A. A person licensed for the practice of funeral service shall not (i) remove or embalm a body when he has information indicating the death was such that an investigation by the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner is required pursuant to § 32.1-283 or 32.1-285.1 or (ii) cremate or bury at sea a body until he has obtained permission of the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner as required by § 32.1-309.3.

B. Except as provided in § 32.1-301 and Chapter 8.1 (§ 32.1-309.1 et seq.) of Title 32.1, funeral service establishments shall not accept a dead human body from any public officer, except the Chief Medical Examiner, an Assistant Chief Medical Examiner, or a medical examiner appointed pursuant to § 32.1-282, or from any public or private facility or person having a professional relationship with the decedent without having first inquired about the desires of the next of kin and the persons liable for the funeral expenses of the decedent. The authority and directions of any next of kin shall govern the disposal of the body, subject to the provisions of § 54.1-2807.01 or 54.1-2825.

Any funeral service establishment violating this subsection shall not charge for any service delivered without the directions of the next of kin. However, in cases of accidental or violent death, the funeral service establishment may charge and be reimbursed for the removal of bodies and rendering necessary professional services until the next of kin or the persons liable for the funeral expenses have been notified.

C. No company, corporation, or association engaged in the business of paying or providing for the payment of the expenses for the care of the remains of deceased certificate holders or members or engaged in providing life insurance when the contract might or could give rise to an obligation to care for the remains of the insured shall contract to pay or pay any benefits to any licensee of the Board or other individual in a manner which could restrict the freedom of choice of the representative or next of kin of a decedent in procuring necessary and proper services and supplies for the care of the remains of the decedent.

D. No person licensed for the practice of funeral service or preneed funeral planning or any of his agents shall interfere with the freedom of choice of the general public in the choice of persons or establishments for the care of human remains or of preneed funeral planning or preneed funeral contracts.

E. This section shall not be construed to apply to the authority of any administrator, executor, trustee, or other person having a fiduciary relationship with the decedent.

Code 1950, §§ 54-260.50, 54-260.59; 1956, c. 220; 1972, c. 797, § 54-260.74; 1979, c. 720; 1981, c. 258; 1986, c. 91; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 684; 1993, c. 965; 2005, c. 905; 2010, c. 383; 2014, cc. 228, 583.

A. In the absence of a designation under § 54.1-2825, when there is a disagreement among a decedent's next of kin concerning the arrangements for his funeral or the disposition of his remains, any of the next of kin may petition the circuit court where the decedent resided at the time of his death to determine which of the next of kin shall have the authority to make arrangements for the decedent's funeral or the disposition of his remains. The court may require notice to and the convening of such of the next of kin as it deems proper.

B. In determining the matter before it, the court shall consider the expressed wishes, if any, of the decedent, the legal and factual relationship between or among the disputing next of kin and between each of the disputing next of kin and the decedent, and any other factor the court considers relevant to determine who should be authorized to make the arrangements for the decedent's funeral or the disposition of his remains.

2010, c. 383.

In the absence of a next of kin, a person designated to make arrangements for the decedent's burial or the disposition of his remains pursuant to § 54.1-2825, an agent named in an advance directive pursuant to § 54.1-2984, or any guardian appointed pursuant to Chapter 20 (§ 64.2-2000 et seq.) of Title 64.2 who may exercise the powers conferred in the order of appointment or by § 64.2-2019, or upon the failure or refusal of such next of kin, designated person, agent, or guardian to accept responsibility for the disposition of the decedent, then any other person 18 years of age or older who is able to provide positive identification of the deceased and is willing to pay for the costs associated with the disposition of the decedent's remains shall be authorized to make arrangements for such disposition of the decedent's remains. If a funeral service establishment or funeral service licensee makes arrangements with a person other than a next of kin, designated person, agent, or guardian in accordance with this section, then the funeral service licensee or funeral service establishment shall be immune from civil liability unless such act, decision, or omission resulted from bad faith or malicious intent.

2014, c. 355.

All information received by any person practicing funeral services or his agent regarding the fact that any dead body which they have received harbors an infectious disease shall be confidential, and disclosure of such information shall be grounds for disciplinary action against the funeral service licensee pursuant to § 54.1-2806.

Notification that a dead body harbors an infectious disease will not constitute grounds for any funeral director's refusal to accept the body.

1988, c. 836, § 54-260.74:2.

Repealed by Acts 1998, c. 867.

Except as otherwise provided in § 54.1-2808.2, a funeral director may dispose of the cremains of an individual by interment, entombment, inurnment, or by scattering of the cremains, if after 120 days from the date of cremation, the contracting agent has not claimed the cremains or instructed the funeral director as to final disposition. The funeral director shall keep a permanent record of all cremains which identifies the method and site of final disposition. The costs and all reasonable expenses incurred in disposing of the cremains shall be borne by the contracting agent. Upon the disposition of the cremains, the funeral director shall not be liable for the cremains or for the method of final disposition. Except as otherwise provided in § 54.1-2808.2, any funeral director in possession of unclaimed cremains prior to July 1, 1993, may dispose of such cremains in accordance with the provisions of this section. However, no funeral director shall, without written permission of the contracting agent, dispose of cremains in a manner or a location in which the cremains of the deceased are commingled, except in the scattering of cremains at sea, by air, or in an area used exclusively for such purpose, or place, temporarily, the cremains of persons in the same container or urn.

For the purposes of this section and § 54.1-2808.2, "contracting agent" means any person, organization, association, institution, or group of persons who contracts with a funeral director or funeral establishment for funeral services.

1993, c. 531; 2012, cc. 24, 120; 2015, c. 138.

A. For the purposes of this section:

"Eligible dependent" means a veteran's spouse, a veteran's unmarried child younger than 21 years of age, or veteran's unmarried adult child who before the age of 21 became permanently incapable of self-support because of physical or mental disability.

"Veterans service organization" means an association or other entity organized for the benefit of veterans that has been recognized by the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs or chartered by Congress and any employee or representative of such association or entity.

B. If the contracting agent has not claimed the cremains or instructed the funeral director as to final disposition within 90 days from the date of cremation, the funeral director shall provide names and any other identifying information of the unclaimed cremains to the Department of Veterans Services or a veterans service organization in order for the Department or organization to determine if the unclaimed cremains are those of a veteran or eligible dependent. The names and any personal identifying information submitted by a funeral director to the Department of Veterans Services or veterans service organization in compliance with this section shall be exempt from disclosure under the Virginia Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq.).

C. The Department of Veterans Services or veterans service organization shall notify the funeral director within 45 days of receipt of the information required by subsection B if the cremains are those of a veteran or eligible dependent and, if so, whether such veteran or eligible dependent is eligible for burial in a veterans cemetery in order to permit the transfer of the unclaimed cremains to a veterans cemetery. If the cremains are those of an eligible veteran or eligible dependent, a funeral director may transfer the cremains to the Department of Veterans Services or a veterans service organization for the purpose of disposition of such cremains.

D. No disposal of the unclaimed cremains of an eligible veteran or eligible dependent shall be made until the funeral director has notified the Department of Veterans Services or a veterans service organization and has received a determination as to whether the cremains are those of an eligible veteran or eligible dependent. Absent bad faith or malicious intent, no funeral director who transfers the cremains of a veteran or eligible dependent to the Department of Veterans Services or a veterans service organization for purposes of disposition or a veterans service organization that receives cremains for the purposes of disposition as provided in this section shall be liable for civil negligence.

2012, cc. 24, 120; 2015, c. 138.

A. When arrangements for funeral services have been made with a licensed funeral service establishment, funeral service licensees shall accept caskets provided by third parties in accordance with 16 C.F.R. Part 453, Funeral Industry Practices, Federal Trade Commission.

B. No funeral service establishment or funeral service licensee shall be required to store a casket provided by a third party when preneed arrangements for funeral services have been made.

C. Any person selling or providing preneed caskets shall be subject to the same preneed requirements as set forth in 16 C.F.R. Part 453, Funeral Industry Practices, Federal Trade Commission, and § 54.1-2820.

2018, c. 378; 2019, cc. 93, 603; 2020, c. 97.

Any person, partnership, corporation, association, or its agents or employees who violate any of the provisions of this chapter shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

Code 1950, § 54-260.61; 1956, c. 220; 1972, c. 797, § 54-260.75; 1988, c. 765.

Article 2. Licensure of Funeral Establishments.

No person shall conduct, maintain, manage or operate a funeral establishment unless a license for each such establishment has been issued by the Board. No license to operate a funeral establishment shall be issued by the Board unless each such funeral establishment has in charge, full time, a person licensed for the practice of funeral service or a licensed funeral director. Applications for funeral establishment licenses shall be made on forms furnished by the Board and filed by the owner or the registered agent of the corporation with the Board.

Each funeral establishment license shall expire annually at a time prescribed by Board regulation. A license may be renewed within 30 days of its expiration. Upon expiration of the license, the Board shall notify each licensee of the provisions of this section. Renewal of a license after the expiration of the 30-day period shall be in the discretion of the Board.

Violations of any provisions of this chapter or any Board regulations by any person, or an officer, agent or employee with the knowledge or consent of any person operating a funeral establishment shall be considered sufficient cause for suspension or revocation of the funeral establishment license.

An operator of a funeral establishment shall not allow any person licensed for the practice of funeral service to operate out of his funeral establishment unless the licensee is the operator or an employee of the operator of a licensed funeral establishment.

If the manager of the funeral service establishment is unable, for any reason, to exercise adequate supervision, direction, management, and control of the funeral establishment, the owner shall designate any funeral service licensee to serve as a temporary manager and notify the Board in writing within 14 days. If such inability of the manager exceeds 90 days or is expected to exceed 90 days, a new manager shall be designated and registered with the Board. At the conclusion of the 90-day period for designation of a new manager, a funeral service establishment which has failed to designate a new manager shall not operate as a funeral service establishment.

When licensing funeral establishments, the Board may grant a hardship waiver from the requirement for a full-time manager licensed for the practice of funeral service or licensed as a funeral director, allowing the operation of two funeral establishments having in charge one full-time person licensed for the practice of funeral service or one licensed funeral director who divides his time between the two funeral establishments. Prior to granting a hardship waiver, the Board shall find that (i) the two establishments have been in operation for at least three years; (ii) the combined average number of funeral calls at the two establishments, as submitted in monthly reports to the Division of Vital Records and Health Statistics of the Virginia Department of Health, over the previous three years is no more than 135 per year; and (iii) the distance between the two establishments is 50 miles or less.

Prior to granting a renewal of a license granted under a hardship waiver, the Board shall determine whether the requirements for license renewal under such waiver continue to exist.

Code 1950, §§ 54-260.39, 54-260.40; 1956, c. 220; 1972, c. 797, § 54-260.73; 1974, 164; 1978, c. 849; 1988, c. 765; 1996, c. 757; 2000, c. 773; 2013, c. 108; 2019, c. 66.

A funeral service establishment shall contain a preparation room equipped with a tile, cement or other waterproof floor, proper drainage and ventilation, the necessary instruments and supplies for the preparation and embalming of dead human bodies for burial, transportation or other disposition, and separate restroom facilities.

A funeral service establishment having more than one location at which it performs funeral services shall not be required to maintain more than one preparation room.

The Board may adopt regulations and classifications to prescribe proper drainage and ventilation and necessary instruments and supplies in preparation rooms and separate restroom facilities.

Code 1950, §§ 54-260.39, 54-260.40; 1956, c. 220; 1972, c. 797, § 54-260.73; 1974, 164; 1978, c. 849; 1988, c. 765.

A. Upon taking custody of a dead human body, a funeral service establishment shall maintain such body in a manner that provides complete coverage of the body and that is resistant to leakage or spillage, except during embalming or preparation of an unembalmed body for final disposition; restoration and dressing of a body in preparation for final disposition; and viewing during any visitation and funeral service.

B. If a dead human body is to be stored for more than 48 hours prior to disposition, a funeral services establishment having custody of such body shall ensure that the dead human body is maintained in refrigeration at no more than approximately 40 degrees Fahrenheit or embalmed. A dead human body shall be maintained in refrigeration and shall not be embalmed in the absence of express permission by a next of kin of the deceased or a court order.

C. If a dead human body is to be stored for more than 10 days prior to disposition at a location other than a funeral service establishment, the funeral service establishment shall disclose to the contract buyer the location where the body is to be stored and the method of storage.

D. Funeral services establishments, crematories, or transportation services shall not transport animal remains together with dead human bodies. Further, animal remains shall not be refrigerated in a unit where dead human bodies are being stored.

2010, c. 823.

Every person licensed pursuant to the provisions of this chapter shall furnish a written general price list and a written itemized statement of charges in connection with the care and disposition of the body of a deceased person.

Individuals inquiring in person about funeral arrangements or the prices of funeral goods shall be given the general price list. Upon beginning discussion of funeral arrangements or the selection of any funeral goods or services, the general price list must be offered by the funeral licensee.

The itemized statement shall include, but not be limited to, the following charges: casket, other funeral merchandise, vault or other burial receptacle, facilities used, transportation costs, embalming, preparation of the body, other professional services used and disclosure statements required by the Federal Trade Commission, which shall be set forth in a clear and conspicuous manner.

Further, there shall be included a statement of all anticipated cash advances and expenditures requested by the person contracting for the funeral arrangements and such other items as required by regulation of the Board of Funeral Directors and Embalmers. The statement shall be furnished to the person contracting for funeral arrangements at the time such arrangements are made if the person is present and, if not present, no later than the time of the final disposition of the body.

The general price list and itemized statement of funeral expenses shall comply with forms prescribed by regulation of the Board. All regulations promulgated herewith shall promote the purposes of this section.

1979, c. 8, § 54-260.71:1; 1986, c. 42; 1988, c. 765.

Article 3. Licensure of the Practice of Funeral Service, Funeral Directors and Embalmers.

To be licensed for the practice of funeral service, a person shall (i) be at least 18 years of age; (ii) hold a high school diploma or its equivalent; (iii) have completed a funeral service internship prescribed by the Board in regulation; (iv) have graduated from a school of mortuary science or funeral service approved by the Board; and (v) have passed the examination for licensure.

The Board, in its discretion, may license an individual convicted of a felony if he has successfully fulfilled all conditions of sentencing, been pardoned, or has had his civil rights restored.

The Board, in its discretion, may refuse to license an individual who has a criminal or disciplinary proceeding pending against him in any jurisdiction in the United States.

Code 1950, § 54-260.70; Code 1950, §§ 54-260.22 through 54-260.30, 54-260.32; 1956, c. 220; 1966, c. 284, § 54-260.70; 1972, c. 797; 1973, c. 296; 1974, c. 686; 1978, c. 849; 1986, c. 43; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 363; 2005, c. 477; 2006, c. 56.

Each applicant for license for the practice of funeral service shall be examined in writing on:

1. Basic and health sciences including anatomy, chemistry, bacteriology, pathology, hygiene and public health;

2. Funeral service arts and sciences including embalming and restorative art;

3. Funeral service administration including accounting, funeral law, psychology, and funeral principles, directing and management.

The Board may recognize other examinations that it considers equivalent to its examination.

Code 1950, § 54-260.70; Code 1950, §§ 54-260.22 through 54-260.30, 54-260.32; 1956, c. 220; 1966, c. 284, § 54-260.70; 1972, c. 797; 1973, c. 296; 1974, c. 686; 1978, c. 849; 1986, c. 43; 1988, c. 765; 2000, c. 773.

A. No crematorium, cemeterian, memorial society, or other establishment, organization, or person shall cremate a dead human body without having registered with the Board as a cremator.

B. The Board shall prescribe the procedures for registration under this section. Such procedures shall include a requirement that any crematory registered with the Board that engages in the practice of funeral services operate in compliance with the provisions § 54.1-2810. However, nothing in this subsection shall require a crematory registered with the Board to obtain a license as a funeral service establishment as long as the crematory provides cremation services directly to or for a licensed funeral service establishment only and not to the general public.

C. The Board may suspend or revoke any crematory registration or deny any application for such registration, or refuse to issue or renew any such registration, if the Board finds that the applicant or registrant has violated any provision of this chapter, the Board's regulations, or if the Board finds the crematory has operated or is operating in a manner that endangers the health, safety or welfare of the public.

2000, c. 773; 2003, c. 505.

All applications for examination for a license for the practice of funeral service shall be upon forms furnished by the Board.

All licenses shall be issued or renewed for a period prescribed by the Board, not exceeding two years.

1978, c. 849, § 54-260.70:1; 1988, c. 765; 2015, c. 534.

Prior to the expiration of a license, the Board shall provide to each person licensed to practice funeral service, embalming, or funeral directing a renewal notice to be submitted to the Board together with the prescribed fee. The Board shall provide renewal notices by mail or electronically to any licensee. The license of any person who does not submit the completed form prior to the date of expiration shall automatically expire. The Board shall immediately notify the person of the expiration and the reinstatement requirements. The Board shall reinstate an expired license upon receipt, within 30 days of the notice of expiration, of the completed form and the prescribed fee. Reinstatement after the 30-day period shall be at the discretion of the Board.

1978, c. 849, § 54-260.70:2; 1988, c. 765; 2005, c. 477; 2018, c. 101.

A. The Board shall promulgate regulations governing continuing education requirements for funeral services licensees, funeral directors, and embalmers licensed by the Board.

B. The Board shall approve criteria for continuing education courses, requiring no more than five hours per year, that are directly related to the respective license and scope of practice of funeral service licensees, funeral directors, and embalmers. Approved continuing education courses shall include one hour per year covering compliance with federal or state laws and regulations governing the profession or one hour per year covering preneed funeral arrangements, provided that at least one hour of continuing education in preneed is completed every three years. Course providers may be required to register continuing education courses with the Board pursuant to Board regulations. The Board shall not allow continuing education credit for courses where the principal purpose of the course is to promote, sell, or offer goods, products, or services to funeral homes.

C. All course providers shall furnish written certification to licensees of the Board attending and completing respective courses, indicating the satisfactory completion of an approved continuing education course. Each course provider shall retain records of all persons attending and those persons satisfactorily completing such continuing education courses for a period of two years following each course. Applicants for renewal or reinstatement of licenses issued pursuant to this article shall retain for a period of two years the written certification issued by any Board-approved provider of continuing education courses. The Board may require course providers or licensees to submit copies of such records or certification, as it deems necessary, to ensure compliance with continuing education requirements.

D. The Board shall have the authority to grant exemptions or waivers in cases of certified illness or undue hardship.

E. The Board may provide for an inactive status for those licensees who do not practice in Virginia. The Board may adopt regulations reducing or waiving continuing education requirements for any licensee granted such inactive status. However, no licensees granted inactive status may have their license changed to active status without first obtaining additional continuing education hours as may be determined by the Board. No person or registrant shall practice in Virginia as an embalmer, funeral director, or funeral service licensee unless he holds a current, active license.

2002, c. 270; 2008, c. 396; 2012, c. 497; 2022, c. 170.

A person desiring to become a funeral service intern shall apply on a form provided by the Board. The applicant shall attest that he holds a high school diploma or its equivalent. The Board, in its discretion, may approve an application to be a funeral service intern for an individual convicted of a felony, if he has successfully fulfilled all conditions of sentencing, been pardoned, or has had his civil rights restored. The Board shall not, however, approve an application to be a funeral service intern for any person convicted of embezzlement or of violating subsection B of § 18.2-126.

The Board, in its discretion, may refuse to approve an application to be a funeral service intern for an individual who has a criminal or disciplinary proceeding pending against him in any jurisdiction in the United States.

When the Board is satisfied as to the qualifications of an applicant, it shall issue a certificate of internship. When a funeral service intern wishes to receive in-service training from a person licensed for the practice of funeral service, a request shall be submitted to the Board. If such permission is granted and the funeral service intern later leaves the proctorship of the licensee whose service has been entered, the licensee shall give the funeral service intern an affidavit showing the length of time served with him. The affidavit shall be filed with the Board and made a matter of record in that office. Any funeral service intern seeking permission to continue in-service training shall submit a request to the Board.

A certificate of internship shall be renewable as prescribed by the Board. The Board shall mail or send electronically at such time as it may prescribe by regulation, to each registered funeral service intern at his last known address, a notice that the renewal fee is due and that, if not paid by the prescribed time, a penalty fee shall be due in addition to the renewal fee.

The registration of any funeral service intern who is in the active military service of the United States may, at the discretion of the Board, be held in abeyance for the duration of his service. The Board may also waive the renewal fees for such military personnel.

All registered funeral service interns shall report to the Board on a schedule prescribed by the Board upon forms provided by the Board, showing the work which has been completed during the preceding period of internship. The data contained in the report shall be certified as correct by the person licensed for the practice of funeral service under whom he has served during this period and by the person licensed for the practice of funeral service owning or managing the funeral service establishment.

Before such funeral service intern becomes eligible to be examined for the practice of funeral service, evidence shall be presented along with an affidavit from any licensee under whom the intern worked showing that the intern has assisted in embalming at least 25 bodies and that the intern has assisted in conducting at least 25 funerals. In all applications of funeral service interns for licenses for the practice of funeral service, the eligibility of the applicant shall be determined by the records filed with the Board. The successful completion by any person of the internship shall not entitle him to any privilege except to be examined for such license.

Credit shall not be allowed for any period of internship that has been completed more than three years prior to application for license or more than five years prior to examination for license. If all requirements for licensure are not completed within five years of initial application, the Board may deny an additional internship. A funeral service intern may continue to practice for up to 90 days from the completion of his internship or until he has taken and received the results of all examinations required by the Board. However, the Board may waive such limitation for any person in the armed service of the United States when application for the waiver is made in writing within six months of leaving service or if the Board determines that enforcement of the limitation will create an unreasonable hardship.

The Board shall have power to suspend or revoke a certificate of internship for violation of any provision of this chapter.

No more than two funeral service interns shall be concurrently registered under any one person licensed for the practice of funeral service, funeral directing or embalming. Each sponsor for a registered funeral service intern must be actively employed by or under contract with a funeral establishment.

Code 1950, §§ 54-260.34 through 54-260.38; 1956, c. 220; 1970, c. 513, § 54-260.72; 1972, c. 797; 1973, c. 296; 1974, c. 157; 1978, c. 849; 1981, c. 258; 1986, c. 43; 1988, c. 765; 2005, c. 477; 2006, c. 56; 2018, c. 101.

A copy of all licenses shall be displayed in a conspicuous place in each establishment in which the licensee practices.

Code 1950, § 54-260.31; 1956, c. 220; 1972, c. 797, § 54-260.71; 1988, c. 765.

No dead human body shall be cremated without permission of the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner as required by § 32.1-309.3 and visual identification of the deceased by the next-of-kin or his representative, who may be any person designated to make arrangements for the disposition of the decedent's remains pursuant to § 54.1-2825, an agent named in an advance directive pursuant to § 54.1-2984, or any guardian appointed pursuant to Chapter 20 (§ 64.2-2000 et seq.) of Title 64.2 who may exercise the powers conferred in the order of appointment or by § 64.2-2019, or, in cases in which the next of kin or his representative fails or refuses to provide visual identification of the deceased, by any other person 18 years of age or older who is able to provide positive identification of the deceased. If no such next of kin or his representative or other person 18 years of age or older is available or willing to make visual identification of the deceased, such identification shall be made by a member of the primary law-enforcement agency of the city or county in which the person or institution having initial custody of the body is located, pursuant to court order. When visual identification is not feasible, other positive identification of the deceased may be used as a prerequisite for cremation. Unless such act, decision, or omission resulted from bad faith or malicious intent, the funeral service establishment, funeral service licensee, crematory, cemetery, primary law-enforcement officer, sheriff, county, or city shall be immune from civil liability for any act, decision, or omission resulting from cremation. Nothing in this section shall prevent a law-enforcement agency other than the primary law-enforcement agency from performing the duties established by this section if so requested by the primary law-enforcement agency and agreed to by the other law-enforcement agency.

1998, c. 867; 2010, c. 377; 2011, c. 88; 2014, cc. 228, 355, 583; 2015, c. 670.

Nothing in this article shall be applicable to any officer of any institution operated by the Commonwealth or by any county, city or town in the performance of his duties as such.

1998, c. 867.

Any crematory shall apply for and receive a registration from the Board as a registered crematory. However, this section shall not supersede or restrict the provisions of § 54.1-2814.1.

1998, c. 867; 2003, c. 505.

Unless such act, decision, or omission resulted from bad faith or malicious intent, any funeral service establishment, funeral service licensee, crematory, or registered crematory that receives a body following donation of organs, tissues, or eyes shall be immune from civil liability for any failure to restore such decedent's form or features in a manner acceptable for viewing prior to the final disposition of the remains.

2009, c. 811.

A. In any case in which a funeral service provider licensed pursuant to this chapter believes that a decedent for whom funeral services are being provided is insured under an individual or group life insurance policy, the funeral service provider may request information regarding the deceased person's life insurance policy from the life insurer believed to have issued the policy. Such request for information shall include (i) a copy of the deceased person's death certificate filed in accordance with § 32.1-263; (ii) written authorization for the funeral service provider's submission of the request that is executed by a person designated to make arrangements for the decedent's burial or disposition of his remains pursuant to § 54.1-2825, an agent named in an advance directive pursuant to § 54.1-2984, a guardian appointed pursuant to Chapter 20 (§ 64.2-2000 et seq.) of Title 64.2 who may exercise the powers conferred in the order of appointment or by § 64.2-2019, or the next of kin as defined in § 54.1-2800; and (iii) if the deceased person was covered or is believed to have been covered under a group life insurance policy, the affiliation of the deceased person entitling the deceased to coverage under the group life insurance policy.

B. Upon receipt of the information requested pursuant to subsection A, if the beneficiary of record under the life insurance contract or group life insurance policy is not the estate of the deceased person, the requesting funeral service provider shall make all reasonable efforts to contact all the beneficiaries of record within four calendar days of receiving such information and provide to the beneficiaries all information provided to the funeral service provider by the life insurer. The funeral service provider shall, prior to providing any information to the beneficiaries in accordance with this subsection, inform the beneficiaries that the beneficiary of a life insurance policy has no legal duty or obligation to pay any amounts associated with the provision of funeral services or the debts or obligations of the deceased person.

2017, c. 482.

Article 4. Registration of Surface Transportation and Removal Services.

Any person or private business, except a common carrier engaged in interstate commerce, the Commonwealth and its agencies, or an emergency medical services agency holding a permit issued by the Commissioner of Health pursuant to § 32.1-111.6, shall apply for and receive a registration as a transportation and removal service in order to be authorized to engage in the business of surface transportation or removal of dead human bodies in the Commonwealth.

Surface transportation and removal services shall not arrange or conduct funerals, provide for the care or preparation, including embalming, of dead human bodies, or sell or provide funeral-related goods and services without the issuance of a funeral service establishment license.

The Board shall promulgate regulations for such registration including proper procedures in the handling of all dead human bodies being transported, the application process for registration, and the establishment of registration fees. These regulations shall not require the use of a casket for transportation. No licensed funeral service establishment shall be required to receive such registration in addition to its funeral service establishment license. However, such establishment shall be subject to the regulations pertaining to transportation and removal services.

Every applicant for registration as a surface transportation and removal service shall include the name of a manager of record on any application for registration and shall notify the Board within 30 days of any change in the manager of record. Such notice shall include the name of the new manager of record of the surface transportation and removal service.

All registrations as a surface transportation and removal service shall be renewed annually and no person or private business shall engage in the business as a surface transportation and removal service without holding a valid registration.

Any surface transportation or removal service that is not registered or persons who knowingly engage in transportation or removal services without registration shall be subject to the disciplinary actions provided in this chapter.

This section shall not be construed to prohibit private individuals from transporting or removing the remains of deceased family members and relatives either by preference or in observation of religious beliefs and customs.

1984, c. 761, § 54-260.74:1; 1986, c. 198; 1988, c. 765; 2006, c. 555; 2015, cc. 110, 534.

Article 5. Preneed Funeral Contracts.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person residing or doing business within this Commonwealth, to make, either directly or indirectly by any means, a preneed funeral contract unless the contract:

1. Is made on forms prescribed by the Board and is written in clear, understandable language and printed in easy-to-read type, size and style;

2. Identifies the seller, seller's license number and contract buyer and the person for whom the contract is purchased if other than the contract buyer;

3. Contains a complete description of the supplies or services purchased;

4. Clearly discloses whether the price of the supplies and services purchased is guaranteed;

5. States if funds are required to be trusted pursuant to § 54.1-2822, the amount to be trusted, the name of the trustee, the disposition of the interest, the fees, expenses and taxes which may be deducted from the interest and a statement of the buyer's responsibility for taxes owed on the interest;

6. Contains the name, address and telephone number of the Board and lists the Board as the regulatory agency which handles consumer complaints;

7. Provides that any person who makes payment under the contract may terminate the agreement at any time prior to the furnishing of the services or supplies contracted for except as provided pursuant to subsection B; if the purchaser terminates the contract within 30 days of execution, the purchaser shall be refunded all consideration paid or delivered, together with any interest or income accrued thereon; if the purchaser terminates the contract after 30 days, the purchaser shall be refunded any amounts required to be deposited under § 54.1-2822, together with any interest or income accrued thereon;

8. Provides that if the particular supplies and services specified in the contract are unavailable at the time of delivery, the seller shall be required to furnish supplies and services similar in style and at least equal in quality of material and workmanship and the representative of the deceased shall have the right to choose the supplies or services to be substituted;

9. Discloses any penalties or restrictions, including but not limited to geographic restrictions or the inability of the provider to perform, on the delivery of merchandise, services or prearrangement guarantee; and

10. Complies with all disclosure requirements imposed by the Board.

If the contract seller will not be furnishing the supplies and services to the purchaser, the contract seller must attach to the preneed funeral contract a copy of the seller's agreement with the provider.

B. Subject to the requirements of § 54.1-2822, a preneed funeral contract may provide for an irrevocable trust or an amount in an irrevocable trust that is specifically identified as available exclusively for funeral or burial expenses, where:

1. A person irrevocably contracts for funeral goods and services, such person funds the contract by prepaying for the goods and services, and the funeral provider residing or doing business within the Commonwealth subsequently places the funds in a trust; or

2. A person establishes an irrevocable trust naming the funeral provider as the beneficiary; however, such person shall have the right to change the beneficiary to another funeral provider pursuant to § 54.1-2822.

C. If a life insurance or annuity contract is used to fund the preneed funeral contract, the face amount of any life insurance policy issued to fund a preneed funeral contract shall not be decreased over the life of the life insurance policy except for life insurance policies that have lapsed due to the nonpayment of premiums or have gone to a nonforfeiture option that lowers the face amount as allowed for in the provisions of the policy. The following must also be disclosed as prescribed by the Board:

1. The fact that a life insurance policy or annuity contract is involved or being used to fund the preneed contract;

2. The nature of the relationship among the soliciting agent, the provider of the supplies or services, the prearranger and the insurer;

3. The relationship of the life insurance policy or annuity contract to the funding of the preneed contract and the nature and existence of any guarantees relating to the preneed contract; and

4. The impact on the preneed contract of (i) any changes in the life insurance policy or annuity contract including but not limited to changes in the assignment, beneficiary designation or use of the proceeds, (ii) any penalties to be incurred by the policyholder as a result of failure to make premium payments, (iii) any penalties to be incurred or moneys to be received as a result of cancellation or surrender of the life insurance policy or annuity contract, and (iv) all relevant information concerning what occurs and whether any entitlements or obligations arise if there is a difference between the proceeds of the life insurance policy or annuity contract and the amount actually needed to fund the preneed contract.

D. When the consideration consists in whole or in part of any real estate, the contract shall be recorded as an attachment to the deed whereby such real estate is conveyed, and the deed shall be recorded in the clerk's office of the circuit court of the city or county in which the real estate being conveyed is located.

E. If any funeral supplies are sold and delivered prior to the death of the subject for whom they are provided, and the seller or any legal entity in which he or a member of his family has an interest thereafter stores these supplies, the risk of loss or damage shall be upon the seller during such period of storage.

1989, c. 684; 1991, c. 721; 1992, c. 635; 1998, c. 738; 1999, c. 819; 2003, cc. 663, 673; 2007, c. 621; 2022, cc. 18, 641.

This article shall not apply to the preneed sale of cemetery services or supplies regulated under Chapter 23.1 (§ 54.1-2310 et seq.) of this title.

1989, c. 684.

A. Within 30 days following the receipt of any money paid pursuant to any preneed funeral contract or interest or income accrued thereon, unless such amounts are paid to fund either an annuity or an insurance policy which will be used to purchase the funeral supplies or services contracted for, the person receiving such amounts shall deposit all consideration paid pursuant to the terms of a preneed funeral contract in which the price of the supplies and services is not guaranteed, or ninety percent of all consideration paid pursuant to the terms of a preneed funeral contract in which the price of the supplies and services is guaranteed, in a special account in a bank or savings institution doing business in this Commonwealth.

B. The funds shall be deposited in separate, identifiable trust accounts setting forth the names of the depositor, the trustee for the person who is the subject of the contract, the name of the person who will render the funeral services and the name of the person who is the subject of the contract. The purchaser shall have the right to change the beneficiary and trustee of the trust at any time prior to the furnishing of the services or supplies contracted for under the preneed funeral contract. Trust account records shall be subject to examination by the Board.

C. No funeral director, embalmer, funeral service licensee, owner of a funeral establishment, or any person employed by or having an interest in a funeral establishment shall serve as trustee of a trust account for which any such person, or any funeral establishment owned by or employing such person or in which such person has an interest, has been named the beneficiary or designated the provider of services, unless two or more such persons are named and serve as trustees and are required to act jointly in such fiduciary capacity. Subject to the terms of this subsection, and notwithstanding any other provision of law, the trustee for any such trust account may be an incorporated association that is authorized to sell burial association group life insurance certificates in the Commonwealth, as described in the definition of limited burial insurance authority in § 38.2-1800, whose principal purpose is to assist its members in (i) financial planning for their funerals and burials and (ii) obtaining insurance for the payment, in whole or in part, for funeral, burial, and related expenses.

1989, c. 684; 1992, c. 337; 2007, c. 621.

Every person selling preneed funeral contracts within this Commonwealth shall keep and maintain such records of preneed transactions, including copies of preneed contracts, as may be prescribed by the Board. All such records shall be maintained on the premises of the funeral establishment providing the preneed services and supplies, except that preneed records of funeral establishments under common ownership, control, or management may be maintained at a single location within this Commonwealth.

1995, c. 26.

Any money, personal property or real property paid, delivered or conveyed subject to § 54.1-2822 shall be exempt from levy, garnishment or distress.

1989, c. 684.

Within thirty days following the receipt of any personal property other than money delivered pursuant to any preneed funeral contract, the person receiving it, if title thereto is transferred, or the person making such delivery, if title thereto is not transferred, shall execute in writing a declaration of trust setting forth all the terms, conditions and considerations upon which the personal property is delivered, which shall be acknowledged in the same manner as the contract and recorded in the clerk's office of the circuit court of the city or county in which the person delivering the personal property resides; provided, that if such terms, conditions and considerations are contained in the preneed funeral contract, the contract shall be recorded.

1989, c. 684.

A. Any person may designate in a signed and notarized writing, which has been accepted in writing by the person so designated, an individual who shall make arrangements and be otherwise responsible for his funeral and the disposition of his remains, including cremation, interment, entombment, or memorialization, or some combination thereof, upon his death. Such designee shall have priority over all persons otherwise entitled to make such arrangements, provided that a copy of the signed and notarized writing is provided to the funeral service establishment and to the cemetery, if any, no later than 48 hours after the funeral service establishment has received the remains. Nothing in this section shall preclude any next of kin from paying any costs associated with any funeral or disposition of any remains, provided that such payment is made with the concurrence of any person designated to make arrangements.

B. In cases in which a person has designated in a U.S. Department of Defense Record of Emergency Data (DD Form 93) or any successor form an individual to make arrangements for his funeral and disposition of his remains, and such person dies while serving in any branch of the United States Armed Forces as defined in 10 U.S.C. § 1481, such designee shall be responsible for making such arrangements.

1989, c. 684; 1998, c. 718; 2010, cc. 324, 380.

Chapter 29. Medicine and Other Healing Arts.

Article 1. General Provisions.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Acupuncturist" means an individual approved by the Board to practice acupuncture. This is limited to "licensed acupuncturist" which means an individual other than a doctor of medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic or podiatry who has successfully completed the requirements for licensure established by the Board (approved titles are limited to: Licensed Acupuncturist, Lic.Ac., and L.Ac.).

"Advanced practice registered nurse" means a certified nurse midwife, certified registered nurse anesthetist, clinical nurse specialist, or nurse practitioner who is jointly licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing pursuant to § 54.1-2957, has completed an advanced graduate-level education program in a specialty category of nursing, and has passed a national certifying examination for that specialty.

"Auricular acupuncture" means the subcutaneous insertion of sterile, disposable acupuncture needles in predetermined, bilateral locations in the outer ear when used exclusively and specifically in the context of a chemical dependency treatment program.

"Birth control" means contraceptive methods that are approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration. "Birth control" shall not be considered abortion for the purposes of Title 18.2.

"Board" means the Board of Medicine.

"Certified nurse midwife" means an advanced practice registered nurse who is certified in the specialty of nurse midwifery and who is jointly licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing as an advanced practice registered nurse pursuant to § 54.1-2957.

"Certified registered nurse anesthetist" means an advanced practice registered nurse who is certified in the specialty of nurse anesthesia, who is jointly licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing as an advanced practice registered nurse pursuant to § 54.1-2957, and who practices under the supervision of a doctor of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, or dentistry but is not subject to the practice agreement requirement described in § 54.1-2957.

"Clinical nurse specialist" means an advanced practice registered nurse who is certified in the specialty of clinical nurse specialist and who is jointly licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing as an advanced practice registered nurse pursuant to § 54.1-2957.

"Collaboration" means the communication and decision-making process among health care providers who are members of a patient care team related to the treatment of a patient that includes the degree of cooperation necessary to provide treatment and care of the patient and includes (i) communication of data and information about the treatment and care of a patient, including the exchange of clinical observations and assessments, and (ii) development of an appropriate plan of care, including decisions regarding the health care provided, accessing and assessment of appropriate additional resources or expertise, and arrangement of appropriate referrals, testing, or studies.

"Consultation" means communicating data and information, exchanging clinical observations and assessments, accessing and assessing additional resources and expertise, problem-solving, and arranging for referrals, testing, or studies.

"Genetic counselor" means a person licensed by the Board to engage in the practice of genetic counseling.

"Healing arts" means the arts and sciences dealing with the prevention, diagnosis, treatment and cure or alleviation of human physical or mental ailments, conditions, diseases, pain or infirmities.

"Licensed certified midwife" means a person who is licensed as a certified midwife by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing.

"Medical malpractice judgment" means any final order of any court entering judgment against a licensee of the Board that arises out of any tort action or breach of contract action for personal injuries or wrongful death, based on health care or professional services rendered, or that should have been rendered, by a health care provider, to a patient.

"Medical malpractice settlement" means any written agreement and release entered into by or on behalf of a licensee of the Board in response to a written claim for money damages that arises out of any personal injuries or wrongful death, based on health care or professional services rendered, or that should have been rendered, by a health care provider, to a patient.

"Nurse practitioner" means an advanced practice registered nurse, other than an advanced practice registered nurse licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing in the category of certified nurse midwife, certified registered nurse anesthetist, or clinical nurse specialist, who is jointly licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing pursuant to § 54.1-2957.

"Occupational therapy assistant" means an individual who has met the requirements of the Board for licensure and who works under the supervision of a licensed occupational therapist to assist in the practice of occupational therapy.

"Patient care team" means a multidisciplinary team of health care providers actively functioning as a unit with the management and leadership of one or more patient care team physicians for the purpose of providing and delivering health care to a patient or group of patients.

"Patient care team physician" means a physician who is actively licensed to practice medicine in the Commonwealth, who regularly practices medicine in the Commonwealth, and who provides management and leadership in the care of patients as part of a patient care team.

"Patient care team podiatrist" means a podiatrist who is actively licensed to practice podiatry in the Commonwealth, who regularly practices podiatry in the Commonwealth, and who provides management and leadership in the care of patients as part of a patient care team.

"Physician assistant" means a health care professional who has met the requirements of the Board for licensure as a physician assistant.

"Practice of acupuncture" means the stimulation of certain points on or near the surface of the body by the insertion of needles to prevent or modify the perception of pain or to normalize physiological functions, including pain control, for the treatment of certain ailments or conditions of the body and includes the techniques of electroacupuncture, cupping and moxibustion. The practice of acupuncture does not include the use of physical therapy, chiropractic, or osteopathic manipulative techniques; the use or prescribing of any drugs, medications, serums or vaccines; or the procedure of auricular acupuncture as exempted in § 54.1-2901 when used in the context of a chemical dependency treatment program for patients eligible for federal, state or local public funds by an employee of the program who is trained and approved by the National Acupuncture Detoxification Association or an equivalent certifying body.

"Practice of athletic training" means the prevention, recognition, evaluation, and treatment of injuries or conditions related to athletic or recreational activity that requires physical skill and utilizes strength, power, endurance, speed, flexibility, range of motion or agility or a substantially similar injury or condition resulting from occupational activity immediately upon the onset of such injury or condition; and subsequent treatment and rehabilitation of such injuries or conditions under the direction of the patient's physician or under the direction of any doctor of medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic, podiatry, or dentistry, while using heat, light, sound, cold, electricity, exercise or mechanical or other devices.

"Practice of behavior analysis" means the design, implementation, and evaluation of environmental modifications, using behavioral stimuli and consequences, to produce socially significant improvement in human behavior, including the use of direct observation, measurement, and functional analysis of the relationship between environment and behavior.

"Practice of chiropractic" means the adjustment of the 24 movable vertebrae of the spinal column, and assisting nature for the purpose of normalizing the transmission of nerve energy, but does not include the use of surgery, obstetrics, osteopathy, or the administration or prescribing of any drugs, medicines, serums, or vaccines. "Practice of chiropractic" shall include (i) requesting, receiving, and reviewing a patient's medical and physical history, including information related to past surgical and nonsurgical treatment of the patient and controlled substances prescribed to the patient, and (ii) documenting in a patient's record information related to the condition and symptoms of the patient, the examination and evaluation of the patient made by the doctor of chiropractic, and treatment provided to the patient by the doctor of chiropractic. "Practice of chiropractic" shall also include performing the physical examination of an applicant for a commercial driver's license or commercial learner's permit pursuant to § 46.2-341.12 if the practitioner has (i) applied for and received certification as a medical examiner pursuant to 49 C.F.R. Part 390, Subpart D and (ii) registered with the National Registry of Certified Medical Examiners.

"Practice of genetic counseling" means (i) obtaining and evaluating individual and family medical histories to assess the risk of genetic medical conditions and diseases in a patient, his offspring, and other family members; (ii) discussing the features, history, diagnosis, environmental factors, and risk management of genetic medical conditions and diseases; (iii) ordering genetic laboratory tests and other diagnostic studies necessary for genetic assessment; (iv) integrating the results with personal and family medical history to assess and communicate risk factors for genetic medical conditions and diseases; (v) evaluating the patient's and family's responses to the medical condition or risk of recurrence and providing client-centered counseling and anticipatory guidance; (vi) identifying and utilizing community resources that provide medical, educational, financial, and psychosocial support and advocacy; and (vii) providing written documentation of medical, genetic, and counseling information for families and health care professionals.

"Practice of licensed certified midwifery" means the provision of primary health care for preadolescents, adolescents, and adults within the scope of practice of a certified midwife established in accordance with the Standards for the Practice of Midwifery set by the American College of Nurse-Midwives, including (i) providing sexual and reproductive care and care during pregnancy and childbirth, postpartum care, and care for the newborn for up to 28 days following the birth of the child; (ii) prescribing of pharmacological and non-pharmacological therapies within the scope of the practice of midwifery; (iii) consulting or collaborating with or referring patients to such other health care providers as may be appropriate for the care of the patients; and (iv) serving as an educator in the theory and practice of midwifery.

"Practice of medicine or osteopathic medicine" means the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of human physical or mental ailments, conditions, diseases, pain, or infirmities by any means or method.

"Practice of occupational therapy" means the therapeutic use of occupations for habilitation and rehabilitation to enhance physical health, mental health, and cognitive functioning and includes the evaluation, analysis, assessment, and delivery of education and training in basic and instrumental activities of daily living; the design, fabrication, and application of orthoses (splints); the design, selection, and use of adaptive equipment and assistive technologies; therapeutic activities to enhance functional performance; vocational evaluation and training; and consultation concerning the adaptation of physical, sensory, and social environments.

"Practice of podiatry" means the prevention, diagnosis, treatment, and cure or alleviation of physical conditions, diseases, pain, or infirmities of the human foot and ankle, including the medical, mechanical and surgical treatment of the ailments of the human foot and ankle, but does not include amputation of the foot proximal to the transmetatarsal level through the metatarsal shafts. Amputations proximal to the metatarsal-phalangeal joints may only be performed in a hospital or ambulatory surgery facility accredited by an organization listed in § 54.1-2939. The practice includes the diagnosis and treatment of lower extremity ulcers; however, the treatment of severe lower extremity ulcers proximal to the foot and ankle may only be performed by appropriately trained, credentialed podiatrists in an approved hospital or ambulatory surgery center at which the podiatrist has privileges, as described in § 54.1-2939. The Board of Medicine shall determine whether a specific type of treatment of the foot and ankle is within the scope of practice of podiatry.

"Practice of radiologic technology" means the application of ionizing radiation to human beings for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes.

"Practice of respiratory care" means the (i) administration of pharmacological, diagnostic, and therapeutic agents related to respiratory care procedures necessary to implement a treatment, disease prevention, pulmonary rehabilitative, or diagnostic regimen prescribed by a practitioner of medicine or osteopathic medicine; (ii) transcription and implementation of the written or verbal orders of a practitioner of medicine or osteopathic medicine pertaining to the practice of respiratory care; (iii) observation and monitoring of signs and symptoms, general behavior, general physical response to respiratory care treatment and diagnostic testing, including determination of whether such signs, symptoms, reactions, behavior or general physical response exhibit abnormal characteristics; and (iv) implementation of respiratory care procedures, based on observed abnormalities, or appropriate reporting, referral, respiratory care protocols or changes in treatment pursuant to the written or verbal orders by a licensed practitioner of medicine or osteopathic medicine or the initiation of emergency procedures, pursuant to the Board's regulations or as otherwise authorized by law. The practice of respiratory care may be performed in any clinic, hospital, skilled nursing facility, private dwelling or other place deemed appropriate by the Board in accordance with the written or verbal order of a practitioner of medicine or osteopathic medicine, and shall be performed under qualified medical direction.

"Practice of surgical assisting" means the performance of significant surgical tasks, including manipulation of organs, suturing of tissue, placement of hemostatic agents, injection of local anesthetic, harvesting of veins, implementation of devices, and other duties as directed by a licensed doctor of medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry under the direct supervision of a licensed doctor of medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry.

"Qualified medical direction" means, in the context of the practice of respiratory care, having readily accessible to the respiratory therapist a licensed practitioner of medicine or osteopathic medicine who has specialty training or experience in the management of acute and chronic respiratory disorders and who is responsible for the quality, safety, and appropriateness of the respiratory services provided by the respiratory therapist.

"Radiologic technologist" means an individual, other than a licensed doctor of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, or chiropractic or a dentist licensed pursuant to Chapter 27 (§ 54.1-2700 et seq.), who (i) performs, may be called upon to perform, or is licensed to perform a comprehensive scope of diagnostic or therapeutic radiologic procedures employing ionizing radiation and (ii) is delegated or exercises responsibility for the operation of radiation-generating equipment, the shielding of patient and staff from unnecessary radiation, the appropriate exposure of radiographs, the administration of radioactive chemical compounds under the direction of an authorized user as specified by regulations of the Department of Health, or other procedures that contribute to any significant extent to the site or dosage of ionizing radiation to which a patient is exposed.

"Radiologic technologist, limited" means an individual, other than a licensed radiologic technologist, dental hygienist, or person who is otherwise authorized by the Board of Dentistry under Chapter 27 (§ 54.1-2700 et seq.) and the regulations pursuant thereto, who performs diagnostic radiographic procedures employing equipment that emits ionizing radiation that is limited to specific areas of the human body.

"Radiologist assistant" means an individual who has met the requirements of the Board for licensure as an advanced-level radiologic technologist and who, under the direct supervision of a licensed doctor of medicine or osteopathy specializing in the field of radiology, is authorized to (i) assess and evaluate the physiological and psychological responsiveness of patients undergoing radiologic procedures; (ii) evaluate image quality, make initial observations, and communicate observations to the supervising radiologist; (iii) administer contrast media or other medications prescribed by the supervising radiologist; and (iv) perform, or assist the supervising radiologist to perform, any other procedure consistent with the guidelines adopted by the American College of Radiology, the American Society of Radiologic Technologists, and the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists.

"Respiratory care" means the practice of the allied health profession responsible for the direct and indirect services, including inhalation therapy and respiratory therapy, in the treatment, management, diagnostic testing, control, and care of patients with deficiencies and abnormalities associated with the cardiopulmonary system under qualified medical direction.

"Surgical assistant" means an individual who has met the requirements of the Board for licensure as a surgical assistant and who works under the direct supervision of a licensed doctor of medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry.

Code 1950, § 54-273; 1950, p. 110; 1958, c. 161; 1960, c. 268; 1966, c. 657; 1970, c. 69; 1973, c. 529; 1975, cc. 508, 512; 1977, c. 127; 1980, c. 157; 1986, c. 439; 1987, cc. 522, 543; 1988, cc. 737, 765; 1991, c. 643; 1994, c. 803; 1995, c. 777; 1996, cc. 152, 158, 470, 937, 980; 1998, cc. 319, 557, 593; 1999, cc. 639, 682, 747, 779; 2000, cc. 688, 814; 2001, c. 533; 2004, c. 731; 2007, c. 861; 2008, cc. 64, 89; 2009, cc. 83, 507; 2010, cc. 715, 725; 2011, cc. 121, 187; 2012, cc. 3, 110, 168, 213, 399; 2014, cc. 10, 266; 2015, c. 302; 2016, c. 93; 2017, c. 171; 2019, cc. 92, 137; 2020, cc. 357, 420, 1222; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 157, 200, 201; 2022, c. 151; 2023, c. 183.

A. The provisions of this chapter shall not prevent or prohibit:

1. Any person entitled to practice his profession under any prior law on June 24, 1944, from continuing such practice within the scope of the definition of his particular school of practice;

2. Any person licensed to practice naturopathy prior to June 30, 1980, from continuing such practice in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Board;

3. Any licensed advanced practice registered nurse from rendering care in accordance with the provisions of §§ 54.1-2957 and 54.1-2957.01, any advanced practice registered nurse licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing in the category of certified nurse midwife practicing pursuant to subsection H of § 54.1-2957, or any advanced practice registered nurse licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing in the category of clinical nurse specialist practicing pursuant to subsection J of § 54.1-2957 when such services are authorized by regulations promulgated jointly by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing;

4. Any registered professional nurse, licensed advanced practice registered nurse, graduate laboratory technician or other technical personnel who have been properly trained from rendering care or services within the scope of their usual professional activities which shall include the taking of blood, the giving of intravenous infusions and intravenous injections, and the insertion of tubes when performed under the orders of a person licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant;

5. Any dentist, pharmacist or optometrist from rendering care or services within the scope of his usual professional activities;

6. Any practitioner licensed or certified by the Board from delegating to personnel supervised by him, such activities or functions as are nondiscretionary and do not require the exercise of professional judgment for their performance and which are usually or customarily delegated to such persons by practitioners of the healing arts, if such activities or functions are authorized by and performed for such practitioners of the healing arts and responsibility for such activities or functions is assumed by such practitioners of the healing arts;

7. The rendering of medical advice or information through telecommunications from a physician licensed to practice medicine in Virginia or an adjoining state, or from a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, to emergency medical personnel acting in an emergency situation;

8. The domestic administration of family remedies;

9. The giving or use of massages, steam baths, dry heat rooms, infrared heat or ultraviolet lamps in public or private health clubs and spas;

10. The manufacture or sale of proprietary medicines in this Commonwealth by licensed pharmacists or druggists;

11. The advertising or sale of commercial appliances or remedies;

12. The fitting by nonitinerant persons or manufacturers of artificial eyes, limbs or other apparatus or appliances or the fitting of plaster cast counterparts of deformed portions of the body by a nonitinerant bracemaker or prosthetist for the purpose of having a three-dimensional record of the deformity, when such bracemaker or prosthetist has received a prescription from a licensed physician, licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or licensed physician assistant directing the fitting of such casts and such activities are conducted in conformity with the laws of Virginia;

13. Any person from the rendering of first aid or medical assistance in an emergency in the absence of a person licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy under the provisions of this chapter;

14. The practice of the religious tenets of any church in the ministration to the sick and suffering by mental or spiritual means without the use of any drug or material remedy, whether gratuitously or for compensation;

15. Any legally qualified out-of-state or foreign practitioner from meeting in consultation with legally licensed practitioners in this Commonwealth;

16. Any practitioner of the healing arts licensed or certified and in good standing with the applicable regulatory agency in another state or Canada when that practitioner of the healing arts is in Virginia temporarily and such practitioner has been issued a temporary authorization by the Board from practicing medicine or the duties of the profession for which he is licensed or certified (i) in a summer camp or in conjunction with patients who are participating in recreational activities, (ii) while participating in continuing educational programs prescribed by the Board, or (iii) by rendering at any site any health care services within the limits of his license, voluntarily and without compensation, to any patient of any clinic which is organized in whole or in part for the delivery of health care services without charge as provided in § 54.1-106;

17. The performance of the duties of any active duty health care provider in active service in the army, navy, coast guard, marine corps, air force, or public health service of the United States at any public or private health care facility while such individual is so commissioned or serving and in accordance with his official military duties;

18. Any masseur, who publicly represents himself as such, from performing services within the scope of his usual professional activities and in conformance with state law;

19. Any person from performing services in the lawful conduct of his particular profession or business under state law;

20. Any person from rendering emergency care pursuant to the provisions of § 8.01-225;

21. Qualified emergency medical services personnel, when acting within the scope of their certification, and licensed health care practitioners, when acting within their scope of practice, from following Durable Do Not Resuscitate Orders issued in accordance with § 54.1-2987.1 and Board of Health regulations, or licensed health care practitioners from following any other written order of a physician not to resuscitate a patient in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest;

22. Any commissioned or contract medical officer of the army, navy, coast guard or air force rendering services voluntarily and without compensation while deemed to be licensed pursuant to § 54.1-106;

23. Any provider of a chemical dependency treatment program who is certified as an "acupuncture detoxification specialist" by the National Acupuncture Detoxification Association or an equivalent certifying body, from administering auricular acupuncture treatment under the appropriate supervision of a National Acupuncture Detoxification Association certified licensed physician or licensed acupuncturist;

24. Any employee of any assisted living facility who is certified in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) acting in compliance with the patient's individualized service plan and with the written order of the attending physician not to resuscitate a patient in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest;

25. Any person working as a health assistant under the direction of a licensed medical or osteopathic doctor within the Department of Corrections, the Department of Juvenile Justice or local correctional facilities;

26. Any employee of a school board, authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of insulin and glucagon, when, upon the authorization of a prescriber and the written request of the parents as defined in § 22.1-1, assisting with the administration of insulin or administrating glucagon to a student diagnosed as having diabetes and who requires insulin injections during the school day or for whom glucagon has been prescribed for the emergency treatment of hypoglycemia;

27. Any practitioner of the healing arts or other profession regulated by the Board from rendering free health care to an underserved population of Virginia who (i) does not regularly practice his profession in Virginia, (ii) holds a current valid license or certificate to practice his profession in another state, territory, district or possession of the United States, (iii) volunteers to provide free health care to an underserved area of the Commonwealth under the auspices of a publicly supported all volunteer, nonprofit organization that sponsors the provision of health care to populations of underserved people, (iv) files a copy of the license or certification issued in such other jurisdiction with the Board, (v) notifies the Board at least five business days prior to the voluntary provision of services of the dates and location of such service, and (vi) acknowledges, in writing, that such licensure exemption shall only be valid, in compliance with the Board's regulations, during the limited period that such free health care is made available through the volunteer, nonprofit organization on the dates and at the location filed with the Board. The Board may deny the right to practice in Virginia to any practitioner of the healing arts whose license or certificate has been previously suspended or revoked, who has been convicted of a felony or who is otherwise found to be in violation of applicable laws or regulations. However, the Board shall allow a practitioner of the healing arts who meets the above criteria to provide volunteer services without prior notice for a period of up to three days, provided the nonprofit organization verifies that the practitioner has a valid, unrestricted license in another state;

28. Any registered nurse, acting as an agent of the Department of Health, from obtaining specimens of sputum or other bodily fluid from persons in whom the diagnosis of active tuberculosis disease, as defined in § 32.1-49.1, is suspected and submitting orders for testing of such specimens to the Division of Consolidated Laboratories or other public health laboratories, designated by the State Health Commissioner, for the purpose of determining the presence or absence of tubercle bacilli as defined in § 32.1-49.1;

29. Any physician of medicine or osteopathy or advanced practice registered nurse from delegating to a registered nurse under his supervision the screening and testing of children for elevated blood-lead levels when such testing is conducted (i) in accordance with a written protocol between the physician or advanced practice registered nurse and the registered nurse and (ii) in compliance with the Board of Health's regulations promulgated pursuant to §§ 32.1-46.1 and 32.1-46.2. Any follow-up testing or treatment shall be conducted at the direction of a physician or an advanced practice registered nurse;

30. Any practitioner of one of the professions regulated by the Board of Medicine who is in good standing with the applicable regulatory agency in another state or Canada from engaging in the practice of that profession when the practitioner is in Virginia temporarily with an out-of-state athletic team or athlete for the duration of the athletic tournament, game, or event in which the team or athlete is competing;

31. Any person from performing state or federally funded health care tasks directed by the consumer, which are typically self-performed, for an individual who lives in a private residence and who, by reason of disability, is unable to perform such tasks but who is capable of directing the appropriate performance of such tasks;

32. Any practitioner of one of the professions regulated by the Board of Medicine who is in good standing with the applicable regulatory agency in another state from engaging in the practice of that profession in Virginia with a patient who is being transported to or from a Virginia hospital for care;

33. Any doctor of medicine or osteopathy, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse who would otherwise be subject to licensure by the Board who holds an active, unrestricted license in another state, the District of Columbia, or a United States territory or possession and who is in good standing with the applicable regulatory agency in that state, the District of Columbia, or that United States territory or possession who provides behavioral health services, as defined in § 37.2-100, from engaging in the practice of his profession and providing behavioral health services to a patient located in the Commonwealth in accordance with the standard of care when (i) such practice is for the purpose of providing continuity of care through the use of telemedicine services as defined in § 38.2-3418.16 and (ii) the practitioner has previously established a practitioner-patient relationship with the patient and has performed an in-person evaluation of the patient within the previous year. A practitioner who provides behavioral health services to a patient located in the Commonwealth through use of telemedicine services pursuant to this subdivision may provide such services for a period of no more than one year from the date on which the practitioner began providing such services to such patient;

34. Any employee of a program licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services who is certified in cardiopulmonary resuscitation from acting in compliance with a program participant's valid written order not to resuscitate issued in accordance with § 54.1-2987.1 if such valid written order not to resuscitate is included in the program participant's individualized service plan; or

35. Any doctor of medicine or osteopathy, physician assistant, respiratory therapist, occupational therapist, or nurse practitioner who would otherwise be subject to licensure by the Board who holds an active, unrestricted license in another state or the District of Columbia and who is in good standing with the applicable regulatory agency in that state or the District of Columbia from engaging in the practice of that profession in the Commonwealth with a patient located in the Commonwealth when (i) such practice is for the purpose of providing continuity of care through the use of telemedicine services as defined in § 38.2-3418.16 and (ii) the patient is a current patient of the practitioner with whom the practitioner has previously established a practitioner-patient relationship and the practitioner has performed an in-person examination of the patient within the previous 12 months.

For purposes of this subdivision, if such practitioner with whom the patient has previously established a practitioner-patient relationship is unavailable at the time in which the patient seeks continuity of care, another practitioner of the same subspecialty at the same group practice with access to the patient's treatment history may provide continuity of care using telemedicine services until the practitioner with whom the patient has a previously established relationship becomes available. For the purposes of this subdivision, "practitioner of the same subspecialty" means a practitioner who utilizes the same subspecialty taxonomy code designation for claims processing.

For the purposes of this subdivision, if a patient is (a) an enrollee of a health maintenance organization that contracts with a multispecialty group of practitioners, each of whom is licensed by the Board of Medicine, and (b) a current patient of at least one practitioner who is a member of the multispecialty group with whom such practitioner has previously established a practitioner-patient relationship and of whom such practitioner has performed an in-person examination within the previous 12 months, the patient shall be deemed to be a current patient of each practitioner in the multispecialty group with whom each such practitioner has established a practitioner-patient relationship.

B. Notwithstanding any provision of law or regulation to the contrary, military medical personnel, as defined in § 2.2-2001.4, while participating in a program established by the Department of Veterans Services pursuant to § 2.2-2001.4, may practice under the supervision of a licensed physician or podiatrist or the chief medical officer of an organization participating in such program, or his designee who is a licensee of the Board and supervising within his scope of practice.

Code 1950, §§ 54-273, 54-274, 54-276 through 54-276.6; 1950, pp. 98, 110; 1954, c. 556; 1958, c. 161; 1960, c. 268; 1962, cc. 127, 394; 164, c. 317; 1966, c. 657; 1970, c. 69; 1973, cc. 105, 514, 529; 1975, cc. 508, 512; 1976, c. 15; 1977, c. 127; 1980, c. 157; 1981, c. 300; 1982, c. 220; 1985, cc. 303, 347, 372; 1986, cc. 377, 439; 1987, cc. 522, 543; 1988, c. 765; 1992, cc. 412, 414; 1994, c. 787; 1995, cc. 509, 777; 1996, cc. 775, 779, 937, 980; 1998, cc. 630, 803, 854; 1999, cc. 570, 814; 2000, cc. 688, 814; 2001, cc. 235, 237, 533; 2002, c. 740; 2003, cc. 514, 519, 641; 2005, cc. 113, 926; 2006, c. 750; 2008, c. 674; 2010, c. 245; 2011, cc. 632, 811; 2012, c. 213; 2014, c. 8; 2016, cc. 74, 212, 418, 494, 495; 2018, cc. 69, 338, 776; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 157; 2022, cc. 275, 709, 720, 753; 2023, cc. 150, 151, 183.

It is unlawful for any person to practice medicine, osteopathic medicine, chiropractic, or podiatry or as a physician assistant in the Commonwealth without a valid unrevoked license issued by the Board.

Code 1950, § 54-274; 1950, p. 98; 1958, c. 161; 1962, c. 127; 1966, c. 657; 1970, c. 69; 1973, cc. 105, 514, 529; 1975, c. 508; 1976, c. 15; 1980, c. 157; 1982, c. 220; 1985, cc. 303, 347; 1986, c. 377; 1988, c. 765; 1996, cc. 937, 980; 2000, c. 688; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 210.

A. Any person shall be regarded as practicing the healing arts who actually engages in such practice as defined in this chapter, or who opens an office for such purpose, or who advertises or announces to the public in any manner a readiness to practice or who uses in connection with his name the words or letters "Doctor," "Dr.," "M.D.," "D.O.," "D.P.M.," "D.C.," "Healer," "N.P.," or any other title, word, letter or designation intending to designate or imply that he is a practitioner of the healing arts or that he is able to heal, cure or relieve those suffering from any injury, deformity or disease.

Signing a birth or death certificate, or signing any statement certifying that the person so signing has rendered professional service to the sick or injured, or signing or issuing a prescription for drugs or other remedial agents, shall be prima facie evidence that the person signing or issuing such writing is practicing the healing arts within the meaning of this chapter except where persons other than physicians are required to sign birth certificates.

B. No person regulated under this chapter shall use the title "Doctor" or the abbreviation "Dr." in writing or in advertising in connection with his practice unless he simultaneously uses words, initials, an abbreviation or designation, or other language that identifies the type of practice for which he is licensed. No person regulated under this chapter shall include in any advertisement a reference to marijuana, as defined in § 18.2-247, unless such advertisement is for the treatment of addiction or substance abuse. However, nothing in this subsection shall prevent a person from including in any advertisement that such person is registered with the Board of Pharmacy to issue written certifications for the use of cannabis products, as defined in § 54.1-3408.3.

Code 1950, § 54-275; 1958, c. 161; 1966, c. 657; 1973, c. 529; 1975, c. 508; 1988, c. 765; 1991, c. 102; 1996, cc. 937, 980; 2000, c. 688; 2018, c. 776; 2019, c. 656; 2021 Sp. Sess. I, cc. 227, 228.

A. Any person shall be regarded as practicing the healing arts who actually engages in such practice as defined in this chapter, or who opens an office for such purpose, or who advertises or announces to the public in any manner a readiness to practice or who uses in connection with his name the words or letters "Doctor," "Dr.," "M.D.," "D.O.," "D.P.M.," "D.C.," "Healer," "N.P.," or any other title, word, letter or designation intending to designate or imply that he is a practitioner of the healing arts or that he is able to heal, cure or relieve those suffering from any injury, deformity or disease.

Signing a birth or death certificate, or signing any statement certifying that the person so signing has rendered professional service to the sick or injured, or signing or issuing a prescription for drugs or other remedial agents, shall be prima facie evidence that the person signing or issuing such writing is practicing the healing arts within the meaning of this chapter except where persons other than physicians are required to sign birth certificates.

B. No person regulated under this chapter shall use the title "Doctor" or the abbreviation "Dr." in writing or in advertising in connection with his practice unless he simultaneously uses words, initials, an abbreviation or designation, or other language that identifies the type of practice for which he is licensed. No person regulated under this chapter shall include in any advertisement a reference to marijuana, as defined in § 18.2-247, unless such advertisement is for the treatment of addiction or substance abuse. However, nothing in this subsection shall prevent a person from including in any advertisement that such person is registered with the Board of Directors of the Virginia Cannabis Control Authority to issue written certifications for the use of cannabis products, as defined in § 4.1-1600.

Code 1950, § 54-275; 1958, c. 161; 1966, c. 657; 1973, c. 529; 1975, c. 508; 1988, c. 765; 1991, c. 102; 1996, cc. 937, 980; 2000, c. 688; 2018, c. 776; 2019, c. 656; 2021 Sp. Sess. I, cc. 227, 228; 2023, cc. 740, 773.

A. Every license granted under the provisions of this chapter shall be renewed biennially as prescribed by the Board. The Board shall send by mail or electronically notice for renewal of a license to every licensee. Failure to receive such notice shall not excuse any licensee from the requirements of renewal. The person receiving such notice shall furnish the information requested and submit the prescribed renewal fee to the Board. Copies of licenses may be obtained as provided in the Board's regulations.

B. Any licensee who allows his license to lapse by failing to renew the license or failing to meet professional activity requirements stipulated in the regulations may be reinstated by the Board upon submission of evidence satisfactory to the Board that he is prepared to resume practice in a competent manner and upon payment of the prescribed fee.

C. Any person practicing during the time his license has lapsed shall be considered an illegal practitioner and shall be subject to the penalties for violation of this chapter.

D. When the Board of Health has issued an emergency order pursuant to § 32.1-13, the Board may waive (i) the requirement for submission of a fee for renewal or reinstatement of a license to practice medicine or osteopathic medicine or as a physician assistant or an advanced practice registered nurse and (ii) the requirement for submission of evidence satisfactory to the Board that a practitioner whose license was allowed to lapse for failure to meet professional activity requirements has satisfied such requirements and is prepared to resume practice in a competent manner for any person who held a valid, unrestricted, active license to practice such profession within the four-year period immediately prior to the application for renewal or reinstatement of such license.

Code 1950, § 54-315.1; 1958, c. 161; 1962, c. 128; 1966, c. 657; 1968, c. 674; 1970, c. 69; 1975, c. 508; 1980, c. 157; 1982, c. 606; 1985, c. 303; 1988, c. 765; 1996, cc. 937, 980; 2000, c. 688; 2013, c. 144; 2018, c. 101; 2022, cc. 720, 753; 2023, c. 183.

Repealed by Acts 2013, c. 144, cl. 2.

Repealed by Acts 2004, c. 64.

A. The president of the Medical Society of Virginia, the Osteopathic Medical Association, the Virginia Chiropractors Association, Inc., and the Virginia Podiatric Medical Association shall report within 30 days to the Board of Medicine any disciplinary action taken by his organization against any member of his organization licensed under this chapter if such disciplinary action is a result of conduct involving intentional or negligent conduct that causes or is likely to cause injury to a patient or patients, professional ethics, professional incompetence, moral turpitude, drug addiction or alcohol abuse.

B. The president of any association, society, academy or organization shall report within 30 days to the Board of Medicine any disciplinary action taken against any of its members licensed under this chapter if such disciplinary action is a result of conduct involving intentional or negligent conduct that causes or is likely to cause injury to a patient or patients, professional ethics, professional incompetence, moral turpitude, drug addiction or alcohol abuse.

C. Any report required by this section shall be in writing directed to the Board of Medicine, shall give the name and address of the person who is the subject of the report and shall fully describe the circumstances surrounding the facts required to be reported. The report shall include the names and contact information of individuals with knowledge about the facts required to be reported and the names and contact information of all individuals from whom the association, society, academy, or organization sought information to substantiate the facts required to be reported. All relevant medical records maintained by the reporting entity shall be attached to the report if patient care or the health professional's health status is at issue. The reporting association, society, academy or organization shall also provide notice to the Board that it has submitted any required report to the National Practitioner Data Bank under the Health Care Quality Improvement Act, 42 U.S.C. § 11101 et seq.

The reporting association, society, academy or organization shall give the health professional who is the subject of the report an opportunity to review the report. The health professional may submit a separate report if he disagrees with the substance of the report.

D. No person or entity shall be obligated to report any matter to the Board if the person or entity has actual notice that the matter has already been reported to the Board.

E. Any person making a report required by this section, providing information pursuant to an investigation or testifying in a judicial or administrative proceeding as a result of such report shall be immune from any civil liability resulting therefrom unless such person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

F. In the event that any organization enumerated in subsection A or any component thereof receives a complaint against one of its members, such organization may, in lieu of considering disciplinary action against such member, request that the Board investigate the matter pursuant to this chapter, in which event any person participating in the decision to make such a request or testifying in a judicial or administrative proceeding as a result of such request shall be immune from any civil liability alleged to have resulted therefrom unless such person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

G. Any person who fails to make a report to the Board as required by this section shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed $5,000. Any person assessed a civil penalty pursuant to this section shall not receive a license, registration or certification or renewal of such from any health regulatory board unless such penalty has been paid.

1977, c. 639, § 54-317.4; 1978, c. 541; 1983, c. 40; 1986, c. 434; 1988, c. 765; 1996, cc. 937, 980; 2000, c. 688; 2003, cc. 753, 762.

A. The following matters shall be reported within 30 days of their occurrence to the Board:

1. Any disciplinary action taken against a person licensed under this chapter in another state or in a federal health institution or voluntary surrender of a license in another state while under investigation;

2. Any malpractice judgment against a person licensed under this chapter;

3. Any settlement of a malpractice claim against a person licensed under this chapter; and

4. Any evidence that indicates a reasonable belief that a person licensed under this chapter is or may be professionally incompetent; has or may have engaged in intentional or negligent conduct that causes or is likely to cause injury to a patient or patients; has or may have engaged in unprofessional conduct; or may be mentally or physically unable to engage safely in the practice of his profession.

B. The following persons and entities are subject to the reporting requirements set forth in this section:

1. Any person licensed under this chapter who is the subject of a disciplinary action, a settlement, a judgment, or evidence for which reporting is required pursuant to this section;

2. Any other person licensed under this chapter, except as provided by a contract agreement with the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program;

3. All health care institutions licensed by the Commonwealth;

4. The malpractice insurance carrier of any person who is the subject of a judgment or settlement; and

5. Any health maintenance organization licensed by the Commonwealth.

C. No person or entity shall be obligated to report any matter to the Board if the person or entity has actual notice that the matter has already been reported to the Board. The reporting requirements set forth in this section shall be met if these matters are reported to the National Practitioner Data Bank under the Health Care Quality Improvement Act, 42 U.S.C. § 11101 et seq., and notice that such report has been submitted is provided to the Board.

D. No person or entity shall be obligated to report information regarding a health care provider licensed or registered by the Board who is a participant in a professional program, pursuant to subsection B of § 8.01-581.16, to address issues related to career fatigue and wellness that is organized or contracted for by a statewide association exempt under 26 U.S.C. § 501(c)(6) of the Internal Revenue Code and that primarily represents health care professionals licensed to practice medicine or osteopathic medicine in multiple specialties to the Board unless the person or entity has determined that there is reasonable probability that the participant is not competent to continue in practice or is a danger to himself or to the health and welfare of his patients or the public.

E. Any report required by this section shall be in writing directed to the Board, shall give the name and address of the person who is the subject of the report, and shall describe the circumstances surrounding the matter required to be reported. Under no circumstances shall compliance with this section be construed to waive or limit the privilege provided in § 8.01-581.17.

F. Any person making a report required by this section, providing information pursuant to an investigation, or testifying in a judicial or administrative proceeding as a result of such report shall be immune from any civil liability or criminal prosecution resulting therefrom unless such person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

G. The clerk of any circuit court or any district court in the Commonwealth shall report to the Board the conviction of any person known by such clerk to be licensed under this chapter of any (i) misdemeanor involving a controlled substance, marijuana, or substance abuse or involving an act of moral turpitude or (ii) felony.

H. Any person who fails to make a report to the Board as required by this section shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed $5,000. The Director shall report the assessment of such civil penalty to the Commissioner of the Department of Health or the Commissioner of Insurance at the State Corporation Commission. Any person assessed a civil penalty pursuant to this section shall not receive a license, registration, or certification or renewal of such unless such penalty has been paid.

I. Disciplinary action against any person licensed, registered, or certified under this chapter shall be based upon the underlying conduct of the person and not upon the report of a settlement or judgment submitted under this section.

1986, c. 434, § 54-317.4:1; 1988, c. 765; 1998, c. 744; 2003, cc. 753, 762; 2020, cc. 45, 198, 230, 1093; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 5, 243.

Repealed by Acts 1997, c. 698.

Upon request by a patient, doctors of medicine, osteopathy, and podiatry shall inform the patient about the following:

1. Procedures to access information on the doctor compiled by the Board of Medicine pursuant to § 54.1-2910.1;

2. If the patient is not covered by a health insurance plan that the doctor accepts or a managed care health insurance plan in which the doctor participates, the patient may be subject to the doctor's full charge which may be greater than the health plan's allowable charge; and

3. For purposes of § 38.2-3463, licensees of the Board of Medicine or their designee shall provide a description of the elective procedure or test, or the applicable standard procedural terminology or medical codes used by the American Medical Association, sufficient to allow a patient to compare care options if the patient is being referred for an elective procedure or test.

2005, c. 468; 2019, cc. 666, 684.

A. The Board of Medicine shall require all doctors of medicine, osteopathy and podiatry to report and shall make available the following information:

1. The names of the schools of medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry and the years of graduation;

2. Any graduate medical, osteopathic, or podiatric education at any institution approved by the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education, the American Osteopathic Association or the Council on Podiatric Medical Education;

3. Any specialty board certification as approved by the American Board of Medical Specialties, the Bureau of Osteopathic Specialists of the American Osteopathic Association, the American Board of Multiple Specialties in Podiatry, or the Council on Podiatric Medical Education of the American Podiatric Medical Association;

4. The number of years in active, clinical practice as specified by regulations of the Board;

5. Any hospital affiliations;

6. Any appointments, within the most recent 10-year period, of the doctor to the faculty of a school of medicine, osteopathy or podiatry and any publications in peer-reviewed literature within the most recent five-year period and as specified by regulations of the Board;

7. The location and telephone number of any primary and secondary practice settings and the approximate percentage of the doctor's time spent practicing in each setting. For the sole purpose of expedited dissemination of information about a public health emergency, the doctor shall also provide to the Board any e-mail address or facsimile number; however, such e-mail address or facsimile number shall not be published on the profile database and shall not be released or made available for any other purpose;

8. The access to any translating service provided to the primary and secondary practice settings of the doctor;

9. The status of the doctor's participation in the Virginia Medicaid Program;

10. Any final disciplinary or other action required to be reported to the Board by health care institutions, other practitioners, insurance companies, health maintenance organizations, and professional organizations pursuant to §§ 54.1-2400.6, 54.1-2908, and 54.1-2909 that results in a suspension or revocation of privileges or the termination of employment or a final order of the Board relating to disciplinary action;

11. Conviction of any felony; and

12. Other information related to the competency of doctors of medicine, osteopathy, and podiatry, as specified in the regulations of the Board.

B. In addition, the Board shall provide for voluntary reporting of insurance plans accepted and managed care plans in which the doctor participates.

C. The Board shall promulgate regulations to implement the provisions of this section, including, but not limited to, the release, upon request from a consumer, of such information relating to a specific doctor. The Board's regulations shall provide for reports to include all medical malpractice judgments and medical malpractice settlements of more than $10,000 within the most recent 10-year period in categories indicating the level of significance of each award or settlement; however, the specific numeric values of reported paid claims shall not be released in any individually identifiable manner under any circumstances. Notwithstanding this subsection, a licensee shall report a medical malpractice judgment or medical malpractice settlement of less than $10,000 if any other medical malpractice judgment or medical malpractice settlement has been paid by or for the licensee within the preceding 12 months.

D. This section shall not apply to any person licensed pursuant to §§ 54.1-2928.1, 54.1-2933.1, 54.1-2936, and 54.1-2937 or to any person holding an inactive license to practice medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry.

1998, c. 744; 1999, c. 573; 2000, c. 199; 2001, c. 199; 2001, Sp. Sess. I, c. 5; 2002, c. 38; 2004, cc. 64, 703; 2007, c. 861; 2008, c. 479.

The Board shall post on any department website available to the public all final orders, together with any associated notices, which imposed disciplinary action against licensees of the Board. The Board shall not post notices that have not been adjudicated. Notices and orders entered prior to July 1, 2007, that did not result in disciplinary action by the Board may be removed upon written request of the licensee. Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit the inspection and copying of records of disciplinary actions to the extent permitted under the Virginia Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq.) and § 54.1-2400.2.

2007, c. 861.

No provider licensed pursuant to this chapter shall be required to participate in any public or private third-party reimbursement program as a condition of licensure.

2011, c. 490.

A. No provider licensed pursuant to this chapter, regardless of whether the provider participates in the state plan for medical assistance, shall request or require a patient who is a recipient of medical assistance services pursuant to the state plan for medical assistance and who is a recipient of health care services involving (i) the prescription of an opioid for the management of pain or (ii) the prescription of buprenorphine-containing products, methadone, or other opioid replacements approved for the treatment of opioid addiction by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for medication-assisted treatment of opioid addiction to pay costs associated with the provision of such service out-of-pocket. The prohibition on payment of costs shall not apply to a recipient's cost-sharing amounts required by the state plan for medical assistance.

B. Every provider who does not accept payment from the Department of Medical Assistance Services for health care services who intends to provide health care services described in subsection A to a patient who is a recipient of medical assistance services pursuant to the state plan for medical assistance shall, prior to providing such health care services, provide written notice to such patient that (i) the Commonwealth's program of medical assistance services covers the health care services described in subsection A and the Department of Medical Assistance Services will pay for such health care services if such health care services are determined to meet the Department of Medical Assistance Service's medical necessity criteria and (ii) the provider does not participate in the Commonwealth's program of medical assistance and will not accept payment from the Department of Medical Assistance Services for such health care services. Such notice and the patient's acknowledgment of such notice shall be documented in the patient's medical record and does not exempt the provider from the requirements of subsection A.

2019, cc. 223, 444; 2022, c. 214.

Practitioners licensed under this chapter shall maintain health records, as defined in § 32.1-127.1:03, for a minimum of six years following the last patient encounter. However, such practitioners are not required to maintain health records for longer than 12 years from the date of creation except for (i) health records of a minor child, including immunizations, which shall be maintained until the child reaches the age of 18 or becomes emancipated, with a minimum time for record retention of six years from the last patient encounter regardless of the age of the child or (ii) health records that are required by contractual obligation or federal law to be maintained for a longer period of time. Health records that have previously been transferred to another practitioner or health care provider or provided to the patient or his personal representative are not required to be maintained beyond such transfer or provision.

2018, c. 718.

Any health care practitioner licensed by the Board to practice medicine or osteopathy or as a physician assistant, or jointly licensed by the Board and the Board of Nursing as an advanced practice registered nurse, who wishes to provide sexual assault survivor treatment services or sexual assault survivor transfer services, as defined in § 32.1-162.15:2, to pediatric survivors of sexual assault, as defined in § 32.1-162.15:2, shall comply with the provisions of Article 8 (§ 32.1-162.15:2 et seq.) of Chapter 5 of Title 32.1 applicable to pediatric medical care facilities.

2020, c. 725; 2023, c. 183.

Article 2. Board of Medicine.

The Board of Medicine shall consist of one medical physician from each congressional district, one osteopathic physician, one podiatrist, one chiropractor, and four citizen members. No two citizen members shall reside in the same congressional district. Citizen members shall have all voting and participation rights of other members. The term of office of the members of the Board shall be four years. If any medical physician member of the Board ceases to reside in the district from which he was appointed, except by reason of redistricting, his office shall be deemed vacant.

The officers of the Board shall be a president, vice-president and a secretary, who shall also act as treasurer, who shall be members of and selected by the Board.

Regular meetings of the Board shall be held at such times and places as prescribed by the Board. Special meetings may be held upon the call of the president and any 11 members. Twelve members of the Board shall constitute a quorum.

The Board may establish an executive committee composed of the president, vice-president, the secretary and five other members of the Board appointed by the president. The executive committee shall include at least two citizen members. In the absence of the Board, the executive committee shall have full powers to take any action and conduct any business authorized by this chapter. Five members of the executive committee shall constitute a quorum. Any actions or business conducted by the executive committee shall be acted upon by the full Board as soon as practicable.

There shall be an executive director for the Board of Medicine who shall be licensed or eligible for licensure in the Commonwealth as a physician.

Code 1950, §§ 54-282, 54-283, 54-287, 54-289, 54-290; 1950, p. 111; 1966, cc. 166, 657; 1970, c. 69; 1973, c. 401; 1973, c. 529, § 54-290.1; 1975, c. 508; 1986, c. 434, § 54-290.2; 1986, c. 464; 1988, cc. 42, 765; 2001, cc. 186, 198; 2003, cc. 753, 762.

Nominations may be made for the medical physicians from a list of three names submitted to the Governor by the Medical Society of Virginia and the osteopathic physician, podiatrist and chiropractor members, respectively, from a list of at least three names submitted by June 1 of each year by their respective state societies. In no case shall the Governor be bound to make any appointment from among the nominees of the respective societies. The Governor may notify the society, which may make nominations, of any professional vacancy other than by expiration among the members of the Board representing the particular profession and like nominations may be made for the filling of the vacancy.

Code 1950, § 54-284; 1950, p. 111; 1966, c. 657; 1970, c. 69; 1975, c. 508; 1986, c. 434; 1988, c. 765; 2005, c. 163.

A. The Board shall prescribe by regulation such requirements as may be necessary to ensure continued practitioner competence which may include continuing education, testing, and/or any other requirement.

B. In promulgating such regulations, the Board shall consider (i) the need to promote ethical practice, (ii) an appropriate standard of care, (iii) patient safety, (iv) application of new medical technology, (v) appropriate communication with patients, and (vi) knowledge of the changing health care system.

C. The Board may approve persons who provide or accredit such programs in order to accomplish the purposes of this section.

D. Pursuant to § 54.1-2400 and its authority to establish the qualifications for registration, certification or licensure that are necessary to ensure competence and integrity to engage in the regulated practice, the Board of Medicine shall promulgate regulations governing the practice of medicine related to the administration of anesthesia in physicians' offices.

1997, c. 227; 2002, c. 324.

In the furtherance of its responsibility to ensure continued practitioner competency, the Board of Medicine may endorse the Medical Society of Virginia's Guidelines for the Use of Opioids in the Management of Chronic, Non-Cancer Pain, developed and adopted in 1997.

For the purpose of this section, "endorse" means to publicize and distribute such guidelines as providing an appropriate standard of care; however, the Board's endorsement shall not be construed to mean that the guidelines must be followed or are regulations or are in any way intended to be enforceable law.

1998, c. 496.

The Board shall require an assessment of the competency of any person holding an active license under this chapter on whose behalf three separate medical malpractice judgments or medical malpractice settlements of more than $75,000 each are paid within the most recent 10-year period. The assessment shall be accomplished in 18 months or less by a program acceptable to the Board. The licensee shall bear all costs of the assessment. The results of the assessment shall be reviewed by the Board and the Board shall determine a plan of corrective action or appropriate resolution pursuant to the assessment. The assessment, related documents and the processes shall be governed by the confidentiality provisions of § 54.1-2400.2 and shall not be admissible into evidence in any medical malpractice action involving the licensee. The Board shall annually post the number of competency assessments undertaken on its website.

2005, cc. 649, 692; 2007, c. 861; 2011, c. 808.

The Board of Medicine shall post information about autism spectrum disorder developed by the Board together with the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services and other stakeholders, including information about diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder in adults and children, the role of health care providers in identifying and diagnosing autism spectrum disorder in adults and children, services available to adults and children with autism spectrum disorder in the Commonwealth, processes and procedures for linking adults and children with autism spectrum disorder with state and local services for individuals with autism, and other sources of information on topics related to the identification, diagnosis, and treatment of autism spectrum disorder in adults and children on a website maintained by the Board, and shall notify licensees regarding the availability of such information.

2015, c. 363.

The Board shall annually issue a communication to every practitioner licensed by the Board who provides primary, maternity, obstetrical, or gynecological health care services reiterating the standard of care pertaining to prenatal or postnatal depression or other depression. Such communication shall encourage practitioners to screen every patient who is pregnant or who has been pregnant within the previous five years for prenatal or postnatal depression or other depression, as clinically appropriate and shall provide information to practitioners regarding the factors that may increase susceptibility of certain patients to prenatal or postnatal depression or other depression, including racial and economic disparities, and encourage providers to remain cognizant of the increased risk of depression for such patients.

2020, c. 709.

Repealed by Acts 2013, c. 144, cl. 2.

The Board shall promulgate regulations governing examinations for each branch of the healing arts. In lieu of any or all parts of the examinations prescribed by the Board for a license to practice medicine, osteopathy, podiatry or chiropractic, the Board may:

1. Accept a certificate issued by either the National Board for the appropriate branch of the healing arts or a state board prior to 1970 attesting the satisfactory completion of an examination given by that board if, in the opinion of the Board, the substituted examination material is substantially equivalent to the material for which it is substituted, and the passing grades are in each instance the equivalent of the grades required to be made on the corresponding examinations administered by the Board.

2. Accept a certificate issued by a state board during or after 1970 attesting to the applicant's satisfactory completion of all requirements to practice medicine, osteopathy, podiatry or chiropractic in that state, if the applicant has a current and unrestricted license to practice in another state and a current specialty certificate acceptable to the Board.

1989, c. 45; 2013, c. 144.

A. A practitioner of the healing arts shall not engage in selling controlled substances unless he is licensed to do so by the Board of Pharmacy. However, this prohibition shall not apply to a doctor of medicine, osteopathy or podiatry who administers controlled substances to his patients or provides controlled substances to his patient in a bona fide medical emergency or when pharmaceutical services are not available. Practitioners who sell or dispense controlled substances shall be subject to inspection by the Department of Health Professions to ensure compliance with Chapters 33 (§ 54.1-3300 et seq.) and 34 (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) of this title and the Board of Pharmacy's regulations. This subsection shall not apply to physicians acting on behalf of the Virginia Department of Health or local health departments.

B. A practitioner of the healing arts who may lawfully sell medical appliances or devices shall not sell such appliances or devices to persons who are not his own patients and shall not sell such articles to his own patients either for his own convenience or for the purpose of supplementing his income. This subsection shall not apply to physicians acting on behalf of the Virginia Department of Health or local health departments.

C. A practitioner of the healing arts may, from within the practitioner's office, engage in selling or promoting the sale of eyeglasses and may dispense contact lenses. Only those practitioners of the healing arts who engage in the examination of eyes and prescribing of eyeglasses may engage in the sale or promotion of eyeglasses. Practitioners shall not employ any unlicensed person to fill prescriptions for eyeglasses within the practitioner's office except as provided in subdivision A 6 of § 54.1-2901. A practitioner may also own, in whole or in part, an optical dispensary located adjacent to or at a distance from his office.

D. Any practitioner of the healing arts engaging in the examination of eyes and prescribing of eyeglasses shall give the patient a copy of any prescription for eyeglasses and inform the patient of his right to have the prescription filled at the establishment of his choice. No practitioner who owns, in whole or in part, an establishment dispensing eyeglasses shall make any statement or take any action, directly or indirectly, that infringes on the patient's right to have a prescription filled at an establishment other than the one in which the practitioner has an ownership interest.

Disclosure of ownership interest by a practitioner as required by § 54.1-2964 or participation by the practitioner in contractual arrangements with third-party payors or purchasers of vision care services shall not constitute a violation of this subsection.

Code 1950, § 54-317; 1954, c. 627; 1958, c. 161; 1966, cc. 166, 657; 1968, c. 582; 1970, c. 69; 1973, c. 529; 1975, c. 508; 1978, c. 622; 1979, c. 727; 1980, c. 157; 1985, c. 96; 1986, c. 86; 1988, cc. 765, 904; 1989, c. 510; 1994, c. 70; 1998, c. 580; 2001, cc. 268, 858; 2005, c. 163; 2016, c. 495.

A. The Board may refuse to issue a certificate or license to any applicant; reprimand any person; place any person on probation for such time as it may designate; impose a monetary penalty or terms as it may designate on any person; suspend any license for a stated period of time or indefinitely; or revoke any license for any of the following acts of unprofessional conduct:

1. False statements or representations or fraud or deceit in obtaining admission to the practice, or fraud or deceit in the practice of any branch of the healing arts;

2. Substance abuse rendering him unfit for the performance of his professional obligations and duties;

3. Intentional or negligent conduct in the practice of any branch of the healing arts that causes or is likely to cause injury to a patient or patients;

4. Mental or physical incapacity or incompetence to practice his profession with safety to his patients and the public;

5. Restriction of a license to practice a branch of the healing arts in another state, the District of Columbia, a United States possession or territory, or a foreign jurisdiction, or for an entity of the federal government;

6. Undertaking in any manner or by any means whatsoever to procure or perform or aid or abet in procuring or performing a criminal abortion;

7. Engaging in the practice of any of the healing arts under a false or assumed name, or impersonating another practitioner of a like, similar, or different name;

8. Prescribing or dispensing any controlled substance with intent or knowledge that it will be used otherwise than medicinally, or for accepted therapeutic purposes, or with intent to evade any law with respect to the sale, use, or disposition of such drug;

9. Violating provisions of this chapter on division of fees or practicing any branch of the healing arts in violation of the provisions of this chapter;

10. Knowingly and willfully committing an act that is a felony under the laws of the Commonwealth or the United States, or any act that is a misdemeanor under such laws and involves moral turpitude;

11. Aiding or abetting, having professional connection with, or lending his name to any person known to him to be practicing illegally any of the healing arts;

12. Conducting his practice in a manner contrary to the standards of ethics of his branch of the healing arts;

13. Conducting his practice in such a manner as to be a danger to the health and welfare of his patients or to the public;

14. Inability to practice with reasonable skill or safety because of illness or substance abuse;

15. Publishing in any manner an advertisement relating to his professional practice that contains a claim of superiority or violates Board regulations governing advertising;

16. Performing any act likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

17. Violating any provision of statute or regulation, state or federal, relating to the manufacture, distribution, dispensing, or administration of drugs;

18. Violating or cooperating with others in violating any of the provisions of Chapters 1 (§ 54.1-100 et seq.), 24 (§ 54.1-2400 et seq.) and this chapter or regulations of the Board;

19. Engaging in sexual contact with a patient concurrent with and by virtue of the practitioner and patient relationship or otherwise engaging at any time during the course of the practitioner and patient relationship in conduct of a sexual nature that a reasonable patient would consider lewd and offensive;

20. Conviction in any state, territory, or country of any felony or of any crime involving moral turpitude;

21. Adjudication of legal incompetence or incapacity in any state if such adjudication is in effect and the person has not been declared restored to competence or capacity;

22. Performing the services of a medical examiner as defined in 49 C.F.R. § 390.5 if, at the time such services are performed, the person performing such services is not listed on the National Registry of Certified Medical Examiners as provided in 49 C.F.R. § 390.109 or fails to meet the requirements for continuing to be listed on the National Registry of Certified Medical Examiners as provided in 49 C.F.R. § 390.111;

23. Failing or refusing to complete and file electronically using the Electronic Death Registration System any medical certification in accordance with the requirements of subsection C of § 32.1-263. However, failure to complete and file a medical certification electronically using the Electronic Death Registration System in accordance with the requirements of subsection C of § 32.1-263 shall not constitute unprofessional conduct if such failure was the result of a temporary technological or electrical failure or other temporary extenuating circumstance that prevented the electronic completion and filing of the medical certification using the Electronic Death Registration System; or

24. Engaging in a pattern of violations of § 38.2-3445.01.

B. The commission or conviction of an offense in another state, territory, or country, which if committed in Virginia would be a felony, shall be treated as a felony conviction or commission under this section regardless of its designation in the other state, territory, or country.

C. The Board shall refuse to issue a certificate or license to any applicant if the candidate or applicant has had his certificate or license to practice a branch of the healing arts revoked or suspended, and has not had his certificate or license to so practice reinstated, in another state, the District of Columbia, a United States possession or territory, or a foreign jurisdiction.

Code 1950, §§ 54-316, 54-317; 1954, c. 627; 1958, cc. 161, 461; 1966, cc. 166, 657; 1968, c. 582; 1970, c. 69; 1973, c. 529; 1975, c. 508; 1978, c. 622; 1979, c. 727; 1980, c. 157; 1985, c. 96; 1986, cc. 86, 434; 1988, c. 765; 1993, c. 991; 1997, c. 801; 2003, cc. 753, 762; 2004, c. 64; 2005, c. 163; 2013, c. 144; 2017, c. 171; 2019, cc. 213, 224; 2020, cc. 1080, 1081.

Repealed by Acts 2005, c. 163, cl. 2.

Repealed by Acts 2013, c. 144, cl. 2.

Whenever the Board of Health has suspended or revoked any license granted under the provisions of Article 1 (§ 32.1-123 et seq.) of Chapter 5 of Title 32.1 and such suspension or revocation resulted from a violation of any provision of this chapter, or because of illegal practice, or conduct or practices detrimental to the welfare of any patient or resident in such hospital, a report of such action shall be made by the Board of Health to the Board of Medicine.

If it appears from the report, or from other evidence produced before the Board of Medicine, that the legally responsible head of such hospital is a practitioner of any branch of the healing arts, the Board may suspend or revoke the certificate or license of such person, or prosecute such person if unlicensed. The Board may suspend or revoke the certificate or license of or prosecute for unlicensed practice any person subject to this chapter who is practicing in or employed by such hospital if such practitioner or employee is guilty of, responsible for, or implicated in illegal practices for which the hospital license has been suspended or revoked.

Code 1950, § 54-321.1; 1975, c. 508; 1979, c. 720; 1988, c. 765.

Repealed by Acts 2004, c. 64.

Except as provided in § 54.1-2408.1, the Board shall take no action to revoke or suspend the license of any of its licensees except after reasonable notice and an opportunity to be heard in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.). Such action may be in addition to any penalty imposed by law for the violation. For the purposes of this section, reasonable notice means written notice mailed at least thirty days prior to the scheduled hearing.

Any practitioner whose license is suspended or revoked by the Board shall not engage in the practice of any of the healing arts in the Commonwealth pending his appeal.

Whenever any license suspension or revocation becomes final, the practitioner shall forthwith give notice of that action, by certified mail, to all patients to whom he is currently providing services. Such practitioner shall cooperate with other practitioners to ensure continuation of treatment in conformity with the wishes of the patient. Such practitioner shall also notify any hospitals or other facilities where he is currently granted privileges, and any health insurance companies, health insurance administrators or health maintenance organizations currently reimbursing him for any of the healing arts.

1973, c. 529, § 54-318.3; 1984, c. 81; 1985, c. 403; 1986, c. 434; 1988, c. 765; 1996, c. 530; 1997, c. 556.

Repealed by Acts 2003, cc. 753 and 762.

Repealed by Acts 2004, cc. 40 and 68.

Repealed by Acts 2020, cc. 198 and 1093, cl. 2, effective March 8, 2020.

Repealed by Acts 2013, c. 144, cl. 2.

Expired.

In any disciplinary proceeding conducted pursuant to this chapter, the executive director may contract with an expert or a panel of experts in the various specialties to provide assistance in investigating and evaluating practitioners who may be subject to punitive action. The executive director may select experts for this purpose from lists of specialists to be provided and regularly updated by the appropriate professional societies. Any contract between the executive director and any consulting expert shall provide that the consulting expert shall: (i) be available to work with an investigator from the beginning of the investigation; (ii) receive appropriate compensation for his services; (iii) review and evaluate a completed investigation report in accordance with guidelines established by the Board and the Office of the Attorney General and return it to the Board for action within a specified period of time; and (iv) be available to testify for the Board in any administrative or court proceeding arising from the investigations in which he has participated.

Any expert assisting in any investigation voluntarily or under the contract arrangements described in this section shall be immune from any civil liability or criminal prosecution resulting therefrom unless he acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

1986, c. 434, § 54-318.4; 1988, c. 765; 1996, c. 519.

The Board of Medicine shall have, with respect to practitioners of medicine, homeopathy, osteopathy, or podiatry, the same powers conferred upon the Board of Pharmacy with respect to pharmacists, to revoke or suspend the license to dispense drugs issued under § 54.1-3304 or § 54.1-3304.1 or to prescribe the medicines to be possessed or dispensed by such practitioner. The Board of Medicine shall promptly report any such action taken to the Board of Pharmacy, and the revoked license shall not be reissued nor shall the person be licensed anew, except upon recommendation of the Board of Medicine.

1972, c. 798, § 54-318.2; 1978, c. 465; 1988, c. 765; 1996, cc. 468, 496.

A. The Board, in its discretion, may issue certificates or licenses to applicants upon endorsement by boards or other appropriate authorities of other states or territories or the District of Columbia with which reciprocal relations have not been established if the credentials of such applicants are satisfactory and the examinations and passing grades required by such other boards are fully equal to those required by the Virginia Board.

The Board may issue certificates or licenses to applicants holding certificates from the national boards of their respective branches of the healing arts if their credentials, schools of graduation and national board examinations and results are acceptable to the Board. The Board shall promulgate regulations in order to carry out the provisions of this section.

The Board of Medicine shall prioritize applicants for licensure as a doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine, a physician assistant, or an advanced practice registered nurse from such states that are contiguous with the Commonwealth in processing their applications for licensure by endorsement through a streamlined process, with a final determination regarding qualification to be made within 20 days of the receipt of a completed application.

B. The Board may issue authorization to practice valid for a period not to exceed three months to a practitioner of the healing arts licensed or certified and in good standing with the applicable regulatory agency in the state, District of Columbia, or Canada where the practitioner resides when the practitioner is in Virginia temporarily to practice the healing arts (i) in a summer camp or in conjunction with patients who are participating in recreational activities, (ii) in continuing education programs, or (iii) by rendering at any site any health care services within the limits of his license or certificate, voluntarily and without compensation, to any patient of any clinic that is organized in whole or in part for the delivery of health care services without charge as provided in § 54.1-106. A fee not to exceed $25 may be charged by the Board for the issuance of authorization to practice pursuant to the provisions of this subsection.

Code 1950, §§ 54-276.5, 54-310; 1954, c. 626; 1958, c. 161; 1960, cc. 333, 334; 1970, c. 69; 1972, c. 15; 1973, c. 529; 1975, c. 508; 1981, c. 300; 1985, c. 303; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 414; 1993, c. 784; 2016, c. 494; 2020, cc. 236, 368; 2023, c. 183.

Repealed by Acts 2013, c. 144, cl. 2.

A. The Board may issue a restricted volunteer license to a practitioner of the healing arts who:

1. Held an unrestricted license issued by the Virginia Board of Medicine or by a board in another state as a licensee in good standing at the time the license expired or became inactive;

2. Is practicing within the limits of his license in accordance with provisions of § 54.1-106; and

3. Attests to knowledge of the laws and regulations governing his branch of the healing arts in Virginia.

B. A person holding a restricted volunteer license under this section shall not be required to complete continuing education for the first renewal of such a license. Subsequent renewals will require continuing education as specified by Board regulation.

C. If a practitioner with a restricted volunteer license issued under this section has not held an active, unrestricted license and been engaged in active practice within the past four years, he shall only practice his profession if a doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine with an active, unrestricted Virginia license reviews the quality of care rendered by the practitioner with the restricted volunteer license at least every 90 days.

D. Such license may be renewed every two years in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Board.

E. A practitioner holding a restricted volunteer license issued pursuant to this section is subject to the provisions of this chapter, the regulations promulgated under this chapter, and the disciplinary regulations which apply to all such practitioners in Virginia.

F. The application fee and the biennial renewal fee for restricted volunteer license under this section shall be no more than one-half the renewal fee for an inactive license in the same branch of the healing arts.

2006, c. 881.

The Board shall adopt regulations for the prescribing of opioids and products containing buprenorphine. Such regulations shall include guidelines for:

1. The treatment of acute pain, which shall include (i) requirements for an appropriate patient history and evaluation, (ii) limitations on dosages or day supply of drugs prescribed, (iii) requirements for appropriate documentation in the patient's health record, and (iv) a requirement that the prescriber request and review information contained in the Prescription Monitoring Program in accordance with § 54.1-2522.1;

2. The treatment of chronic pain, which shall include, in addition to the requirements for treatment of acute pain set forth in subdivision 1, requirements for (i) development of a treatment plan for the patient, (ii) an agreement for treatment signed by the provider and the patient that includes permission to obtain urine drug screens, and (iii) periodic review of the treatment provided at specific intervals to determine the continued appropriateness of such treatment; and

3. The use of buprenorphine in the treatment of addiction, including a requirement for referral to or consultation with a provider of substance abuse counseling in conjunction with treatment of opioid dependency with products containing buprenorphine.

2017, cc. 291, 682.

Of the hours of continuing education required for biennial renewal of licensure, any licensee of the Board of Medicine may be required by the Board to complete up to two hours of Type 1 continuing learning activities or courses in a specific subject area. If the Board designates a subject area for continuing learning activities or courses, it shall publish such requirement no later than January 1 of the first year of the term of the license for which the specific learning activity or course is required.

2023, cc. 418, 419.

Article 3. Licensure of Physicians of Medicine and Osteopathic Medicine, Chiropractors, and Podiatrists.

No person shall practice or hold himself out as qualified to practice medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic, or podiatry without obtaining a license from the Board of Medicine as provided in this chapter.

Code 1950, § 54-281; 1966, c. 657, § 54-281.3; 1970, c. 69; 1988, c. 765; 1996, cc. 937, 980.

The Board may issue a license to practice medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic, and podiatric medicine to any candidate who has submitted satisfactory evidence verified by affidavits that he:

1. Is 18 years of age or more;

2. Is of good moral character;

3. Has successfully completed all or such part as may be prescribed by the Board, of an educational course of study of that branch of the healing arts in which he desires a license to practice, which course of study and the educational institution providing that course of study are acceptable to the Board; and

4. Has completed at least 12 months of satisfactory postgraduate training in one program or institution approved by an accrediting agency recognized by the Board for internships or residency training. At the discretion of the Board, the postgraduate training may be waived if an applicant for licensure in podiatry has been in active practice for four continuous years while serving in the military and is a diplomate of the American Board of Podiatric Surgery. Applicants for licensure in chiropractic need not fulfill this requirement.

In determining whether such course of study and institution are acceptable to it, the Board may consider the reputation of the institution and whether it is approved or accredited by regional or national educational or professional associations, including such organizations as the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education, Liaison Committee on Medical Education, Council on Postgraduate Training of the American Osteopathic Association, Commission on Osteopathic College Accreditation, College of Family Physicians of Canada, Committee for the Accreditation of Canadian Medical Schools, Education Commission on Foreign Medical Graduates, Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada, or their appropriate subsidiary agencies; by any appropriate agency of the United States government; or by any other organization approved by the Board.

Code 1950, § 54-305; 1952, c. 211; 1954, c. 626; 1972, c. 824; 1975, c. 508; 1982, c. 605; 1985, c. 605; 1988, cc. 89, 132, 765; 2013, c. 144; 2015, c. 525; 2017, cc. 59, 117.

A. The examinations of candidates for licensure to practice medicine and osteopathy shall be those of the National Board of Medical Examiners, the Federation of State Medical Boards, the National Board of Osteopathic Medical Examiners, or such other examinations as determined by the Board. The minimum passing score shall be determined by the Board prior to administration of the examination.

B. The examination of candidates for licensure to practice chiropractic shall include the National Board of Chiropractic Examiners Examinations and such other examinations as determined by the Board. The minimum passing score shall be determined by the Board prior to administration of the examination.

C. The examination of candidates for licensure to practice podiatry shall be the National Board of Podiatric Medical Examiners examinations and such other examinations as determined by the Board. The minimum passing score shall be determined by the Board prior to administration of the examination.

Code 1950, § 54-297; 1958, c. 161; 1966, c. 657; 1970, c. 69; 1973, c. 529; 1978, c. 466; 1982, c. 605; 1985, c. 291; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 818; 2013, c. 144.

Upon completion of an application satisfactory to the Board, applicants shall be granted licenses to practice medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic, or podiatry and each license shall show plainly on its face the school or branch of the healing arts in which the holder thereof is permitted to practice. All licenses shall be attested by the signature of the president and secretary of the Board, respectively.

Code 1950, § 54-309; 1958, cc. 161, 461; 1968, c. 766; 1970, c. 69; 1980, c. 157; 1985, c. 96; 1988, c. 765; 2013, c. 144.

Repealed by Acts 2015, c. 525, cl. 2.

The Board may issue, to a physician licensed in a foreign country, a nonrenewable license valid for a period not to exceed two years to practice medicine while such physician is attending advanced training in an institute for postgraduate health science operated collaboratively by a health care system having hospitals and health care facilities with residency and training program(s) approved by an accrediting agency recognized by the Board and a public institution of higher education. This temporary license shall only authorize the holder to practice medicine in the hospitals and outpatient clinics of the collaborating health care system while he is receiving training in the institute for postgraduate health science. The Board may promulgate regulations for such license.

1995, c. 230; 2000, c. 788.

Every candidate who is a graduate of a school of a country other than the United States and Canada must, in addition to meeting the other requirements of this article, exhibit to the Board a diploma, license or certificate conferring the full right to practice in that country, or satisfactory evidence showing that the candidate has completed the course of study and passed examinations equivalent to those required for a diploma or license conferring such full right to practice.

1954, c. 626, § 54-306.2; 1988, c. 765.

Repealed by Acts 2017, cc. 59 and 117, cl. 2.

A. After receiving a recommendation from the dean of an accredited medical school which was reached after consultation with the chairmen of the departments in the school or college and having become satisfied that the applicant is a person of professorial rank whose knowledge and special training will benefit the medical school or educational programs sponsored by the medical school in affiliated hospitals, the Board may issue a limited license to practice medicine in the hospitals and outpatient clinics of the school or college or in a hospital formally affiliated with the medical school for purposes of undergraduate or postgraduate medical education to a graduate of a foreign medical school as long as he serves as a full-time or adjunct faculty member. This limited license shall be valid for a period of not more than one year, but may be renewed annually by the Board upon recommendation of the dean of the medical school and continued service as a full-time or adjunct faculty member.

B. After receiving a recommendation from the dean of an accredited medical school which was reached after consultation with the chairmen of the departments in the school or college and having become satisfied that the applicant is a person whose attendance will benefit the medical school, the Board may issue a limited license to practice medicine as a fellow if such fellowship is ranked between the residency level and that of associate professor. This limited license shall only authorize the holder to practice medicine in the hospitals and outpatient clinics of the school while he is a full-time fellow. The license shall be valid for a period of not more than one year, but may be renewed upon recommendation of the dean of the medical school and continuation of the fellowship. A limited license to a foreign graduate engaged in a fellowship shall not be renewed more than twice.

1964, c. 285, § 54-311.1; 1970, c. 69; 1975, c. 508; 1977, c. 586, § 54-311.2; 1988, c. 765; 2003, c. 473.

Upon recommendation by the chief of an approved internship or residency program as defined in this chapter, the Board may issue a temporary annual license to practice medicine, osteopathic medicine, or podiatry to interns and residents in such programs. No such license shall be issued to an intern or resident who has not completed successfully the preliminary academic education required for admission to examinations given by the Board in his particular field of practice. Such license shall expire upon the holder's withdrawal or termination from the internship or residency program. The Board may prescribe such regulations not in conflict with existing law and require such reports from hospitals or other organizations operating an approved graduate medical education program in the Commonwealth as may be necessary to carry out the provisions of this section.

1986, c. 307, § 54-311.3; 1987, c. 44; 1988, c. 765; 2015, c. 525.

A. The Board may issue a retiree license to any doctor of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, or chiropractic who holds an unrestricted, active license to practice in the Commonwealth upon receipt of a request and submission of the fee required by the Board. A person to whom a retiree license has been issued shall not be required to meet continuing competency requirements for the first biennial renewal of such license.

B. A person to whom a retiree license has been issued shall only engage in the practice of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, or chiropractic for the purpose of providing (i) charity care, as defined in § 32.1-102.1, and (ii) health care services to patients in their residence for whom travel is a barrier to receiving medical care.

2019, c. 379.

Repealed by Acts 1991, c. 102.

Podiatrists shall not perform surgery on patients under a general anesthetic except in a hospital or an ambulatory surgery center accredited by a national accrediting organization granted authority by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services to assure compliance with Medicare conditions of participation pursuant to § 1865 of Title XVIII of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. § 1395bb).

1977, c. 127, § 54-275.2; 1988, c. 765; 1999, c. 651; 2013, c. 144.

Repealed by Acts 2001, cc. 186 and 198.

This chapter shall not be construed to prohibit, forbid or prevent (i) any approved school of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry or chiropractic from contracting with any licensed practitioner to teach or participate in a preceptorship program in such college on such terms of compensation as may be mutually satisfactory, which contract may prescribe the extent, if any, to which the practitioner may engage in private practice, or (ii) any institution, hospital, treatment center, sanatorium or other similar agency under the management and control of an agency of the Commonwealth from employing or contracting with any licensed practitioner to furnish professional services in the work of the agency, or to persons entitled to receive such care from the agency.

1958, c. 275, § 54-275.1; 1984, c. 710; 1988, c. 765.

Article 4. Licensure and Certification of Other Practitioners of the Healing Arts.

Repealed by Acts 2000, c. 688, cl. 2.

It shall be unlawful for a person to practice or to hold himself out as practicing as a physician assistant or to use in connection with his name the words or letters "Physician Assistant" or "PA" unless he holds a license as such issued by the Board.

1988, c. 765; 2013, c. 144; 2016, c. 450.

The Board shall establish a testing program to determine the training and educational achievements of the physician assistant or the Board may accept other evidence, such as experience or completion of an approved training program, in lieu of testing and shall establish this as a prerequisite for approval of the licensee's application.

Pending the outcome of the next examination administered by the National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants, the Board may grant provisional licensure to graduates of physician assistants curricula that are approved by the Accreditation Review Commission on Education for the Physician Assistant. Such provisional licensure shall be granted at the discretion of the Board.

1973, c. 529, § 54-281.7; 1984, c. 46; 1988, c. 765; 1997, c. 806; 2013, c. 144; 2016, c. 450.

The Advisory Board on Physician Assistants shall consist of five members to be appointed by the Governor as follows: three members shall be licensed physician assistants who have practiced their professions in Virginia for not less than three years prior to their appointments; one shall be a physician who collaborates with at least one physician assistant; and one shall be a citizen member appointed from the Commonwealth at large. Appointments shall be for four-year terms. Vacancies occurring other than by expiration of term shall be filled for the unexpired term. No person shall be eligible to serve on the Advisory Board for more than two successive terms.

1998, c. 319; 2002, c. 698; 2011, cc. 691, 714; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 210.

Repealed by Acts 1998, c. 319.

A. The Board shall promulgate regulations establishing requirements for licensure as a physician assistant that shall include the following:

1. Successful completion of a physician assistant program or surgical physician assistant program accredited by the Accreditation Review Commission on Education for the Physician Assistant;

2. Passage of the certifying examination administered by the National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants; and

3. Documentation that the applicant for licensure has not had his license or certification as a physician assistant suspended or revoked and is not the subject of any disciplinary proceedings in another jurisdiction.

B. The Board may issue a license by endorsement to an applicant for licensure as a physician assistant if the applicant (i) is the spouse of an active duty member of the Armed Forces of the United States or the Commonwealth, (ii) holds current certification from the National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants, and (iii) holds a license as a physician assistant that is in good standing, or that is eligible for reinstatement if lapsed, under the laws of another state.

C. Every physician assistant shall practice as part of a patient care team and shall provide care in accordance with a written or electronic practice agreement with one or more patient care team physicians or patient care team podiatrists.

A practice agreement shall include acts pursuant to § 54.1-2952, provisions for the periodic review of patient charts or electronic health records, guidelines for collaboration and consultation among the parties to the agreement and the patient, periodic joint evaluation of the services delivered, and provisions for appropriate physician input in complex clinical cases, in patient emergencies, and for referrals.

A practice agreement may include provisions for periodic site visits by a patient care team physician or patient care team podiatrist who is part of the patient care team at a location other than where the licensee regularly practices. Such visits shall be in the manner and at the frequency as determined by the patient care team physician or patient care team podiatrist who is part of the patient care team.

D. Evidence of a practice agreement shall be maintained by the physician assistant and provided to the Board upon request. The practice agreement may be maintained in writing or electronically and may be a part of credentialing documents, practice protocols, or procedures.

1998, c. 319; 2011, c. 390; 2013, c. 144; 2016, c. 450; 2019, cc. 92, 137, 338; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 210.

The Board shall issue a license to the physician assistant to practice in accordance with § 54.1-2951.1.

1998, c. 319; 2019, cc. 92, 137; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 210.

A. The Board may issue a restricted volunteer license to a physician assistant who meets the qualifications for licensure for physician assistants. The Board may refuse issuance of licensure pursuant to § 54.1-2915.

B. A person holding a restricted volunteer license under this section shall:

1. Only practice in public health or community free clinics approved by the Board;

2. Only treat patients who have no insurance or who are not eligible for financial assistance for medical care; and

3. Not receive remuneration directly or indirectly for practicing as a physician assistant.

C. A physician assistant with a restricted volunteer license issued under this section shall only practice as a physician assistant and perform certain acts which constitute the practice of medicine to the extent and in the manner authorized by the Board if:

1. A patient care team physician or patient care team podiatrist is available at all times to collaborate and consult with the physician assistant; or

2. A patient care team physician or patient care team podiatrist periodically reviews the relevant patient records.

D. A restricted volunteer license granted pursuant to this section shall be issued to the physician assistant without charge, shall expire twelve months from the date of issuance, and may be renewed annually in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Board.

E. A physician assistant holding a restricted volunteer license issued pursuant to this section is subject to the provisions of this chapter and the regulations promulgated under this chapter unless otherwise provided for in this section.

1998, c. 319; 2005, c. 163; 2019, cc. 92, 137.

The provisions of § 54.1-2902 shall not be construed as prohibiting a physician assistant student who is enrolled in a physician assistant education program accredited by the Accreditation Review Commission on Education for the Physician Assistant or its successor agency from engaging in acts that constitute practice as a physician assistant.

2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 210.

A. A patient care team physician or patient care team podiatrist licensed under this chapter may serve on a patient care team with physician assistants and shall provide collaboration and consultation to such physician assistants. No patient care team physician or patient care team podiatrist shall be allowed to collaborate or consult with more than six physician assistants on a patient care team at any one time.

Service as part of a patient care team by a patient care team physician or patient care team podiatrist shall not, by the existence of such service alone, establish or create vicarious liability for the actions or inactions of other team members.

B. Physician assistants may practice medicine to the extent and in the manner authorized by the Board. A patient care team physician or patient care team podiatrist shall be available at all times to collaborate and consult with physician assistants. Each patient care team shall identify the relevant physician assistant's scope of practice and an evaluation process for the physician assistant's performance.

C. Physician assistants appointed as medical examiners pursuant to § 32.1-282 may practice without a written or electronic practice agreement.

D. Any professional corporation or partnership of any licensee, any hospital and any commercial enterprise having medical facilities for its employees that are supervised by one or more physicians or podiatrists may employ one or more physician assistants in accordance with the provisions of this section.

Activities shall be performed in a manner consistent with sound medical practice and the protection of the health and safety of the patient. Such activities shall be set forth in a practice agreement and may include health care services that are educational, diagnostic, therapeutic, or preventive, including establishing a diagnosis, providing treatment, and performing procedures. Prescribing or dispensing of drugs may be permitted as provided in § 54.1-2952.1. In addition, a physician assistant may perform initial and ongoing evaluation and treatment of any patient in a hospital, including its emergency department, in accordance with the practice agreement, including tasks performed, relating to the provision of medical care in an emergency department.

A patient care team physician or the on-duty emergency department physician shall be available at all times for collaboration and consultation with both the physician assistant and the emergency department physician. No person shall have responsibility for any physician assistant who is not employed by the person or the person's business entity.

E. No physician assistant shall perform any acts beyond those set forth in the practice agreement or authorized as part of the patient care team. No physician assistant practicing in a hospital shall render care to a patient unless the physician responsible for that patient is available for collaboration or consultation, pursuant to regulations of the Board.

F. Notwithstanding the provisions of § 54.1-2956.8:1, a licensed physician assistant who (i) is working in the field of radiology or orthopedics as part of a patient care team, (ii) has been trained in the proper use of equipment for the purpose of performing radiologic technology procedures consistent with Board regulations, and (iii) has successfully completed the exam administered by the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists for physician assistants for the purpose of performing radiologic technology procedures may use fluoroscopy for guidance of diagnostic and therapeutic procedures.

1973, c. 529, §§ 54-281.4, 54-281.5; 1975, cc. 508, 565; 1985, c. 316; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 793; 1996, c. 779; 2000, cc. 467, 497; 2002, c. 387; 2005, c. 662; 2008, c. 281; 2012, c. 81; 2014, c. 89; 2015, c. 107; 2016, c. 450; 2019, cc. 92, 137; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 210; 2022, c. 151.

A. In accordance with the provisions of this section and pursuant to the requirements of Chapter 33 (§ 54.1-3300 et seq.), a licensed physician assistant shall have the authority to prescribe controlled substances and devices as set forth in Chapter 34 (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) and as provided in a practice agreement. Such practice agreements shall include a statement of the controlled substances the physician assistant is or is not authorized to prescribe and may restrict such prescriptive authority as deemed appropriate by the patient care team physician or patient care team podiatrist.

B. It shall be unlawful for the physician assistant to prescribe controlled substances or devices pursuant to this section unless such prescription is authorized by the practice agreement and the requirements in this section.

C. The Board of Medicine, in consultation with the Board of Pharmacy, shall promulgate such regulations governing the prescriptive authority of physician assistants as are deemed reasonable and necessary to ensure an appropriate standard of care for patients.

The regulations promulgated pursuant to this section shall include, at a minimum, (i) such requirements as may be necessary to ensure continued physician assistant competency, which may include continuing education, testing, and any other requirement and shall address the need to promote ethical practice, an appropriate standard of care, patient safety, the use of new pharmaceuticals, and appropriate communication with patients, and (ii) a requirement that the physician assistant disclose to his patients his name, address, and telephone number and that he is a physician assistant. If a patient or his representative requests to speak with the patient care team physician or patient care team podiatrist, the physician assistant shall arrange for communication between the parties or provide the necessary information.

D. This section shall not prohibit a licensed physician assistant from administering controlled substances in compliance with the definition of "administer" in § 54.1-3401 or from receiving and dispensing manufacturers' professional samples of controlled substances in compliance with the provisions of this section.

1992, c. 793; 1997, c. 806; 1999, c. 745; 2001, c. 465; 2003, c. 510; 2007, c. 16; 2016, c. 450; 2019, cc. 92, 137; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 210.

Whenever any law or regulation requires a signature, certification, stamp, verification, affidavit, or endorsement by a physician, it shall be deemed to include a signature, certification, stamp, verification, affidavit, or endorsement by a physician assistant.

2011, c. 468.

The Board may revoke, suspend, or refuse to renew a license to practice as a physician assistant for any of the following:

1. Any action by a physician assistant constituting unprofessional conduct pursuant to § 54.1-2915;

2. Practice by a physician assistant other than as part of a patient care team, including practice without entering into a practice agreement with one or more patient care team physicians or patient care team podiatrists;

3. Failure of the physician assistant to practice in accordance with the requirements of his practice agreement;

4. Negligence or incompetence on the part of the physician assistant or other member of the patient care team;

5. Violation of or cooperation in the violation of any provision of this chapter or the regulations of the Board; or

6. Failure to comply with any regulation of the Board required for licensure of a physician assistant.

1973, c. 529, §§ 54-281.8, 54-281.9; 1985, c. 316; 1988, c. 765; 2013, c. 144; 2016, c. 450; 2019, cc. 92, 137; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 210.

"Respiratory therapist" means a person who has passed the examination for the entry level practice of respiratory care administered by the National Board for Respiratory Care, Inc., or other examination approved by the Board, who has complied with the regulations pertaining to licensure prescribed by the Board, and who has been issued a license by the Board.

1985, c. 347, § 54-281.10; 1988, c. 765; 1998, c. 557; 2015, c. 302.

The Board shall take such actions as may be necessary to ensure the competence and integrity of any person who claims to be a respiratory therapist or who holds himself out to the public as a respiratory therapist or who engages in the practice of respiratory care and to that end the Board shall license persons as respiratory therapists. The Board shall consider and may accept relevant practical experience and didactic and clinical components of education and training completed by an applicant for licensure as a respiratory therapist during his service as a member of any branch of the armed forces of the United States as evidence of the satisfaction of the educational requirements for licensure as a respiratory therapist. The provisions hereof shall not prevent or prohibit other persons licensed pursuant to this chapter from continuing to practice respiratory care when such practice is in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Board.

The Board shall establish requirements for the supervised, structured education of respiratory therapists, including preclinical, didactic and laboratory, and clinical activities, and an examination to evaluate competency. All such training programs shall be approved by the Board.

1990, c. 920; 1998, c. 557; 2011, c. 390; 2015, c. 302.

A. It is unlawful for any person not holding a current and valid license from the Board to practice as a respiratory therapist or to assume the title "Respiratory Therapist" or to use, in conjunction with his name, the letters "RT."

B. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection A, a person who has graduated from an accredited respiratory therapy education program may practice with the title "Respiratory Therapist, License Applicant" or "RT-Applicant" until he has received a failing score on any examination required by the Board for licensure or six months from the date of graduation, whichever occurs sooner. Any person practicing pursuant to this subsection as shall be identified with the title "Respiratory Therapist, License Applicant" or "RT-Applicant" on any identification issued by an employer and in conjunction with any signature in the course of his practice.

1985, c. 347, § 54-281.11; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 920; 1998, c. 557; 2015, c. 302; 2022, c. 764.

A. The Advisory Board on Respiratory Care shall assist the Board in carrying out the provisions of this chapter regarding the qualifications, examination, and regulation of licensed respiratory therapists.

The Advisory Board shall consist of five members appointed by the Governor as follows: three members shall be at the time of appointment respiratory therapists who have practiced for not less than three years, one member shall be a physician licensed to practice medicine in the Commonwealth, and one member shall be appointed by the Governor from the Commonwealth at large. Beginning July 1, 2011, the Governor's appointments shall be staggered as follows: two members for a term of one year, one member for a term of two years, and two members for a term of three years. Thereafter, appointments shall be for four-year terms.

Vacancies occurring other than by expiration of term shall be filled for the unexpired term. No person shall be eligible to serve on the Advisory Board for more than two consecutive terms.

B. The Advisory Board shall, under the authority of the Board, recommend to the Board for its enactment into regulation the criteria for licensure as a respiratory therapist and the standards of professional conduct for holders of licenses.

The Advisory Board shall also assist in such other matters dealing with respiratory care as the Board may in its discretion direct.

1985, c. 347, §§ 54-281.12, 54-281.13; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 920; 1998, c. 557; 2011, cc. 691, 714; 2015, c. 302.

The licensure requirements for respiratory therapists provided in this chapter shall not prohibit the practice of respiratory care as an integral part of a program of study by students enrolled in an accredited respiratory care education program approved by the Board. Any student enrolled in accredited respiratory care education programs shall be identified as "Student RT" and shall only deliver respiratory care under the direct supervision of an appropriate clinical instructor recognized by the education program.

1998, c. 557; 2015, c. 302.

The Board shall take such actions as may be necessary to ensure the competence and integrity of any person who practices occupational therapy or claims to be an occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant or who holds himself out to the public as an occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant or who engages in the practice of occupational therapy, and to that end it may license practitioners as occupational therapists or occupational therapy assistants who have met the qualifications established in regulation by the Board.

The Board shall consider and may accept relevant practical experience and didactic and clinical components of education and training completed by an applicant for licensure as an occupational therapist during his service as a member of any branch of the armed forces of the United States as evidence of the satisfaction of the educational requirements for licensure as an occupational therapist.

1989, c. 306; 1998, c. 593; 2000, c. 782; 2004, c. 61; 2008, cc. 64, 89; 2011, c. 390.

The Advisory Board of Occupational Therapy, referred to hereinafter as "Advisory Board," shall assist the Board in the manner set forth in this chapter.

1989, c. 306.

The Advisory Board shall be comprised of five members appointed by the Governor for four-year terms. Three members shall be, at the time of appointment, licensed occupational therapists who have practiced for not less than three years, one member shall be a physician licensed to practice medicine in the Commonwealth, and one member shall be appointed by the Governor from the Commonwealth at large. Any vacancy occurring during a member's term shall be filled for the unexpired balance of that term.

1989, c. 306; 2004, c. 61.

The Advisory Board shall, under the authority of the Board:

1. Recommend to the Board, for its promulgation into regulation, the criteria for licensure as an occupational therapist or an occupational therapy assistant and the standards of professional conduct for holders of licenses.

2. Assess the qualifications of applicants for licensure and recommend licensure when applicants meet the required criteria. The recommendations of the Advisory Board on licensure of applicants shall be presented to the Board, which shall then issue or deny licenses. Any applicant who is aggrieved by a denial of recommendation on licensure of the Advisory Board may appeal to the Board.

3. Receive investigative reports of professional misconduct and unlawful acts and recommend sanctions when appropriate. Any recommendation of sanctions shall be presented to the Board, which may then impose sanctions or take such other action as may be warranted by law.

4. Assist in such other matters dealing with occupational therapy as the Board may in its discretion direct.

1989, c. 306; 1998, c. 593; 2004, c. 61; 2008, cc. 64, 89.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person not holding a current and valid license from the Board to practice occupational therapy or to claim to be an occupational therapist or to assume the title "Occupational Therapist," "Occupational Therapist, Licensed," "Licensed Occupational Therapist," or any similar term, or to use the designations "O.T." or "O.T.L." or any variation thereof. However, a person who has graduated from a duly accredited educational program in occupational therapy may practice with the title "Occupational Therapist, License Applicant" or "O.T.L.-Applicant" until he has received a failing score on any examination required by the Board or until six months from the date of graduation, whichever occurs sooner.

B. It shall be unlawful for any person to practice as an occupational therapy assistant as defined in § 54.1-2900 or to hold himself out to be or advertise that he is an occupational therapy assistant or use the designation "O.T.A." or any variation thereof unless such person holds a current and valid license from the Board to practice as an occupational therapy assistant. However, a person who has graduated from a duly accredited occupational therapy assistant education program may practice with the title "Occupational Therapy Assistant, License Applicant" or "O.T.A.-Applicant" until he has received a failing score on any examination required by the Board or until six months from the date of graduation, whichever occurs sooner.

1989, c. 306; 1998, c. 593; 2000, c. 782; 2004, c. 61; 2008, cc. 64, 89; 2014, c. 252.

Repealed by Acts 1994, c. 803, effective January 1, 1997.

The General Assembly hereby enacts, and the Commonwealth of Virginia hereby enters into, the Occupational Therapy Interjurisdictional Licensure Compact with any and all states legally joining therein according to its terms, in the form substantially as follows:

OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY INTERJURISDICTIONAL LICENSURE COMPACT.

Article I.

Purpose.

The purpose of this Compact is to facilitate interstate practice of occupational therapy with the goal of improving public access to occupational therapy services. The practice of occupational therapy occurs in the state where the patient/client is located at the time of the patient/client encounter. The Compact preserves the regulatory authority of states to protect public health and safety through the current system of state licensure.

This Compact is designed to achieve the following objectives:

1. Increase public access to occupational therapy services by providing for the mutual recognition of other member state licenses;

2. Enhance the states' ability to protect the public's health and safety;

3. Encourage the cooperation of member states in regulating multi-state occupational therapy practice;

4. Support spouses of relocating military members;

5. Enhance the exchange of licensure, investigative, and disciplinary information between member states;

6. Allow a remote state to hold a provider of services with a compact privilege in that state accountable to that state's practice standards; and

7. Facilitate the use of telehealth technology in order to increase access to occupational therapy services.

Article II.

Definitions.

As used in this Compact, and except as otherwise provided, the following definitions shall apply:

"Active duty military" means full-time duty status in the active uniformed service of the United States, including members of the National Guard and Reserve on active duty orders pursuant to 10 U.S.C. Chapter 1209 and Section 1211.

"Adverse action" means any administrative, civil, equitable, or criminal action permitted by a state's laws which is imposed by a licensing board or other authority against an occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant, including actions against an individual's license or compact privilege such as censure, revocation, suspension, probation, monitoring of the licensee, or restriction on the licensee's practice.

"Alternative program" means a non-disciplinary monitoring process approved by an occupational therapy licensing board.

"Compact" means the Occupational Therapy Interjurisdictional Licensure Compact.

"Compact privilege" means the authorization, which is equivalent to a license, granted by a remote state to allow a licensee from another member state to practice as an occupational therapist or practice as an occupational therapy assistant in the remote state under its laws and rules. The practice of occupational therapy occurs in the member state where the patient/client is located at the time of the patient/client encounter.

"Continuing competence/education" means a requirement, as a condition of license renewal, to provide evidence of participation in, and/or completion of, educational and professional activities relevant to practice or area of work.

"Current significant investigative information" means investigative information that a licensing board, after an inquiry or investigation that includes notification and an opportunity for the occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant to respond, if required by state law, has reason to believe is not groundless and, if proved true, would indicate more than a minor infraction.

"Data system" means a repository of information about licensees, including but not limited to license status, investigative information, compact privileges, and adverse actions.

"Encumbered license" means a license in which an adverse action restricts the practice of occupational therapy by the licensee or said adverse action has been reported to the National Practitioners Data Bank (NPDB).

"Executive committee" means a group of directors elected or appointed to act on behalf of, and within the powers granted to them by, the Commission.

"Home state" means the member state that is the licensee's primary state of residence.

"Impaired practitioner" means individuals whose professional practice is adversely affected by substance abuse, addiction, or other health-related conditions.

"Investigative information" means information, records, and/or documents received or generated by an occupational therapy licensing board pursuant to an investigation.

"Jurisprudence requirement" means the assessment of an individual's knowledge of the laws and rules governing the practice of occupational therapy in a state.

"Licensee" means an individual who currently holds an authorization from the state to practice as an occupational therapist or as an occupational therapy assistant.

"Member state" means a state that has enacted the Compact.

"Occupational therapist" means an individual who is licensed by a state to practice occupational therapy.

"Occupational therapy assistant" means an individual who is licensed by a state to assist in the practice of occupational therapy.

"Occupational therapy," "occupational therapy practice," and the "practice of occupational therapy" mean the care and services provided by an occupational therapist or an occupational therapy assistant as set forth in the member state's statutes and regulations.

"Occupational Therapy Compact Commission" or "Commission" means the national administrative body whose membership consists of all states that have enacted the Compact.

"Occupational therapy licensing board" or "licensing board" means the agency of a state that is authorized to license and regulate occupational therapists and occupational therapy assistants.

"Primary state of residence" means the state (also known as the home state) in which an occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant who is not active duty military declares a primary residence for legal purposes as verified by: driver's license, federal income tax return, lease, deed, mortgage or voter registration or other verifying documentation as further defined by Commission rules.

"Remote state" means a member state other than the home state, where a licensee is exercising or seeking to exercise the compact privilege.

"Rule" means a regulation promulgated by the Commission that has the force of law.

"State" means any state, commonwealth, district, or territory of the United States of America that regulates the practice of occupational therapy.

"Single-state license" means an occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant license issued by a member state that authorizes practice only within the issuing state and does not include a compact privilege in any other member state.

"Telehealth" means the application of telecommunication technology to deliver occupational therapy services for assessment, intervention, and/or consultation.

Article III.

State Participation in the Compact.

A. To participate in the Compact, a member state shall:

1. License occupational therapists and occupational therapy assistants;

2. Participate fully in the Commission's data system, including but not limited to using the Commission's unique identifier as defined in rules of the Commission;

3. Have a mechanism in place for receiving and investigating complaints about licensees;

4. Notify the Commission, in compliance with the terms of the Compact and rules, of any adverse action or the availability of investigative information regarding a licensee;

5. Implement or utilize procedures for considering the criminal history records of applicants for an initial compact privilege. These procedures shall include the submission of fingerprints or other biometric-based information by applicants for the purpose of obtaining an applicant's criminal history record information from the Federal Bureau of Investigation and the agency responsible for retaining that state's criminal records;

a. A member state shall, within a time frame established by the Commission, require a criminal background check for a licensee seeking/applying for a compact privilege whose primary state of residence is that member state, by receiving the results of the Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal record search, and shall use the results in making licensure decisions.

b. Communication between a member state, the Commission and among member states regarding the verification of eligibility for licensure through the Compact shall not include any information received from the Federal Bureau of Investigation relating to a federal criminal records check performed by a member state under P.L. 92-544.

6. Comply with the rules of the Commission;

7. Utilize only a recognized national examination as a requirement for licensure pursuant to the rules of the Commission; and

8. Have continuing competence/education requirements as a condition for license renewal.

B. A member state shall grant the compact privilege to a licensee holding a valid unencumbered license in another member state in accordance with the terms of the Compact and rules.

C. Member states may charge a fee for granting a compact privilege.

D. A member state shall provide for the state's delegate to attend all Occupational Therapy Compact Commission meetings.

E. Individuals not residing in a member state shall continue to be able to apply for a member state's single-state license as provided under the laws of each member state. However, the single-state license granted to these individuals shall not be recognized as granting the compact privilege in any other member state.

F. Nothing in this Compact shall affect the requirements established by a member state for the issuance of a single-state license.

Article IV.

Compact Privilege.

A. To exercise the compact privilege under the terms and provisions of the Compact, the licensee shall:

1. Hold a license in the home state;

2. Have a valid United States social security number or national practitioner identification number;

3. Have no encumbrance on any state license;

4. Be eligible for a compact privilege in any member state in accordance with subsections D, F, G, and H;

5. Have paid all fines and completed all requirements resulting from any adverse action against any license or compact privilege, and two years have elapsed from the date of such completion;

6. Notify the Commission that the licensee is seeking the compact privilege within a remote state(s);

7. Pay any applicable fees, including any state fee, for the compact privilege;

8. Complete a criminal background check in accordance with subdivision A 5 of Article III. The licensee shall be responsible for the payment of any fee associated with the completion of a criminal background check;

9. Meet any jurisprudence requirements established by the remote state(s) in which the licensee is seeking a compact privilege; and

10. Report to the Commission adverse action taken by any non-member state within 30 days from the date the adverse action is taken.

B. The compact privilege is valid until the expiration date of the home state license. The licensee must comply with the requirements of subsection A to maintain the compact privilege in the remote state.

C. a licensee providing occupational therapy in a remote state under the compact privilege shall function within the laws and regulations of the remote state.

D. Occupational therapy assistants practicing in a remote state shall be supervised by an occupational therapist licensed or holding a compact privilege in that remote state.

E. A licensee providing occupational therapy in a remote state is subject to that state's regulatory authority. A remote state may, in accordance with due process and that state's laws, remove a licensee's compact privilege in the remote state for a specific period of time, impose fines, and/or take any other necessary actions to protect the health and safety of its citizens. The licensee may be ineligible for a compact privilege in any state until the specific time for removal has passed and all fines are paid.

F. If a home state license is encumbered, the licensee shall lose the compact privilege in any remote state until the following occur:

1. The home state license is no longer encumbered; and

2. Two years have elapsed from the date on which the home state license is no longer encumbered in accordance with subdivision 1.

G. Once an encumbered license in the home state is restored to good standing, the licensee must meet the requirements of subsection A to obtain a compact privilege in any remote state.

H. If a licensee's compact privilege in any remote state is removed, the individual may lose the compact privilege in any other remote state until the following occur:

1. The specific period of time for which the compact privilege was removed has ended;

2. All fines have been paid and all conditions have been met;

3. Two years have elapsed from the date of completing requirements for subdivisions 1 and 2; and

4. The compact privileges are reinstated by the Commission, and the compact data system is updated to reflect reinstatement.

I. If a licensee's compact privilege in any remote state is removed due to an erroneous charge, privileges shall be restored through the compact data system.

J. Once the requirements of subsection H have been met, the license must meet the requirements in subsection A to obtain a compact privilege in a remote state.

Article V.

Obtaining a New Home State License by Virtue of Compact Privilege.

A. An occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant may hold a home state license, which allows for compact privileges in member states, in only one member state at a time.

B. If an occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant changes primary state of residence by moving between two member states:

1. The occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant shall file an application for obtaining a new home state license by virtue of a compact privilege, pay all applicable fees, and notify the current and new home state in accordance with applicable rules adopted by the Commission.

2. Upon receipt of an application for obtaining a new home state license by virtue of compact privilege, the new home state shall verify that the occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant meets the pertinent criteria outlined in Article IV via the data system, without need for primary source verification except for:

a. An FBI fingerprint based criminal background check if not previously performed or updated pursuant to applicable rules adopted by the Commission in accordance with P.L. 92-544;

b. Other criminal background check as required by the new home state; and

c. Submission of any requisite jurisprudence requirements of the new home state.

3. The former home state shall convert the former home state license into a compact privilege once the new home state has activated the new home state license in accordance with applicable rules adopted by the Commission.

4. Notwithstanding any other provision of this Compact, if the occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant cannot meet the criteria in Article IV, the new home state shall apply its requirements for issuing a new single-state license.

5. The occupational therapist or the occupational therapy assistant shall pay all applicable fees to the new home state in order to be issued a new home state license.

C. If an occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant changes primary state of residence by moving from a member state to a non-member state, or from a non-member state to a member state, the state criteria shall apply for issuance of a single-state license in the new state.

D. Nothing in this compact shall interfere with a licensee's ability to hold a single-state license in multiple states; however, for the purposes of this compact, a licensee shall have only one home state license.

E. Nothing in this Compact shall affect the requirements established by a member state for the issuance of a single-state license.

Article VI.

Active Duty Military Personnel or their Spouses.

Active duty military personnel, or their spouses, shall designate a home state where the individual has a current license in good standing. The individual may retain the home state designation during the period the service member is on active duty. Subsequent to designating a home state, the individual shall only change their home state through application for licensure in the new state or through the process described in Article V.

Article VII.

Adverse Actions.

A. A home state shall have exclusive power to impose adverse action against an occupational therapist's or occupational therapy assistant's license issued by the home state.

B. In addition to the other powers conferred by state law, a remote state shall have the authority, in accordance with existing state due process law, to:

1. Take adverse action against an occupational therapist's or occupational therapy assistant's compact privilege within that member state.

2. Issue subpoenas for both hearings and investigations that require the attendance and testimony of witnesses as well as the production of evidence. Subpoenas issued by a licensing board in a member state for the attendance and testimony of witnesses or the production of evidence from another member state shall be enforced in the latter state by any court of competent jurisdiction, according to the practice and procedure of that court applicable to subpoenas issued in proceedings pending before it. The issuing authority shall pay any witness fees, travel expenses, mileage and other fees required by the service statutes of the state in which the witnesses or evidence are located.

C. For purposes of taking adverse action, the home state shall give the same priority and effect to reported conduct received from a member state as it would if the conduct had occurred within the home state. In so doing, the home state shall apply its own state laws to determine appropriate action.

D. The home state shall complete any pending investigations of an occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant who changes primary state of residence during the course of the investigations. The home state, where the investigations were initiated, shall also have the authority to take appropriate action(s) and shall promptly report the conclusions of the investigations to the OT Compact Commission data system. The occupational therapy compact commission data system administrator shall promptly notify the new home state of any adverse actions.

E. A member state, if otherwise permitted by state law, may recover from the affected occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant the costs of investigations and disposition of cases resulting from any adverse action taken against that occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant.

F. A member state may take adverse action based on the factual findings of the remote state, provided that the member state follows its own procedures for taking the adverse action.

G. Joint investigations.

1. In addition to the authority granted to a member state by its respective state occupational therapy laws and regulations or other applicable state law, any member state may participate with other member states in joint investigations of licensees.

2. Member states shall share any investigative, litigation, or compliance materials in furtherance of any joint or individual investigation initiated under the Compact.

H. If an adverse action is taken by the home state against an occupational therapist's or occupational therapy assistant's license, the occupational therapist's or occupational therapy assistant's compact privilege in all other member states shall be deactivated until all encumbrances have been removed from the state license. All home state disciplinary orders that impose adverse action against an occupational therapist's or occupational therapy assistant's license shall include a statement that the occupational therapist's or occupational therapy assistant's compact privilege is deactivated in all member states during the pendency of the order.

I. If a member state takes adverse action, it shall promptly notify the administrator of the data system. The administrator of the data system shall promptly notify the home state of any adverse actions by remote states.

J. Nothing in this Compact shall override a member state's decision that participation in an alternative program may be used in lieu of adverse action.

Article VIII.

Establishment of the Occupational Therapy Compact Commission.

A. The Compact member states hereby create and establish a joint public agency known as the Occupational Therapy Compact Commission:

1. The Commission is an instrumentality of the compact states.

2. Venue is proper and judicial proceedings by or against the Commission shall be brought solely and exclusively in a court of competent jurisdiction where the principal office of the Commission is located. The Commission may waive venue and jurisdictional defenses to the extent it adopts or consents to participate in alternative dispute resolution proceedings.

3. Nothing in this Compact shall be construed to be a waiver of sovereign immunity.

B. Membership, voting, and meetings.

1. Each member state shall have and be limited to one delegate selected by that member state's licensing board.

2. The delegate shall be either:

a. A current member of the licensing board, who is an occupational therapist, occupational therapy assistant, or public member; or

b. An administrator of the licensing board.

3. Any delegate may be removed or suspended from office as provided by the law of the state from which the delegate is appointed.

4. The member state board shall fill any vacancy occurring in the Commission within 90 days.

5. Each delegate shall be entitled to one vote with regard to the promulgation of rules and creation of bylaws and shall otherwise have an opportunity to participate in the business and affairs of the Commission. A delegate shall vote in person or by such other means as provided in the bylaws. The bylaws may provide for delegates' participation in meetings by telephone or other means of communication.

6. The Commission shall meet at least once during each calendar year. Additional meetings shall be held as set forth in the bylaws.

7. The Commission shall establish by rule a term of office for delegates.

C. The Commission shall have the following powers and duties:

1. Establish a code of ethics for the Commission;

2. Establish the fiscal year of the Commission;

3. Establish bylaws;

4. Maintain its financial records in accordance with the bylaws;

5. Meet and take such actions as are consistent with the provisions of this Compact and the bylaws;

6. Promulgate uniform rules to facilitate and coordinate implementation and administration of this Compact. The rules shall have the force and effect of law and shall be binding in all member states;

7. Bring and prosecute legal proceedings or actions in the name of the Commission, provided that the standing of any state occupational therapy licensing board to sue or be sued under applicable law shall not be affected;

8. Purchase and maintain insurance and bonds;

9. Borrow, accept, or contract for services of personnel, including, but not limited to, employees of a member state;

10. Hire employees, elect or appoint officers, fix compensation, define duties, grant such individuals appropriate authority to carry out the purposes of the Compact, and establish the Commission's personnel policies and programs relating to conflicts of interest, qualifications of personnel, and other related personnel matters;

11. Accept any and all appropriate donations and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials and services, and receive, utilize and dispose of the same; provided that at all times the Commission shall avoid any appearance of impropriety and/or conflict of interest;

12. Lease, purchase, accept appropriate gifts or donations of, or otherwise own, hold, improve or use, any property, real, personal or mixed; provided that at all times the Commission shall avoid any appearance of impropriety;

13. Sell, convey, mortgage, pledge, lease, exchange, abandon, or otherwise dispose of any property real, personal, or mixed;

14. Establish a budget and make expenditures;

15. Borrow money;

16. Appoint committees, including standing committees composed of members, state regulators, state legislators or their representatives, and consumer representatives, and such other interested persons as may be designated in this Compact and the bylaws;

17. Provide and receive information from, and cooperate with, law enforcement agencies;

18. Establish and elect an executive committee; and

19. Perform such other functions as may be necessary or appropriate to achieve the purposes of this Compact consistent with the state regulation of occupational therapy licensure and practice.

D. The executive committee.

The executive committee shall have the power to act on behalf of the Commission according to the terms of this Compact.

1. The executive committee shall be composed of nine members:

a. Seven voting members who are elected by the Commission from the current membership of the Commission;

b. One ex-officio, nonvoting member from a recognized national occupational therapy professional association; and

c. One ex officio, nonvoting member from a recognized national occupational therapy certification organization.

2. The ex officio members will be selected by their respective organizations.

3. The Commission may remove any member of the executive committee as provided in bylaws.

4. The executive committee shall meet at least annually.

5. The executive committee shall have the following duties and responsibilities:

a. Recommend to the entire Commission changes to the rules or bylaws, changes to this Compact legislation, fees paid by compact member states such as annual dues, and any commission compact fee charged to licensees for the compact privilege;

b. Ensure Compact administration services are appropriately provided, contractual or otherwise;

c. Prepare and recommend the budget;

d. Maintain financial records on behalf of the Commission;

e. Monitor Compact compliance of member states and provide compliance reports to the Commission;

f. Establish additional committees as necessary; and

g. Perform other duties as provided in rules or bylaws.

E. Meetings of the Commission.

1. All meetings shall be open to the public, and public notice of meetings shall be given in the same manner as required under the rulemaking provisions in Article X.

2. The Commission or the executive committee or other committees of the Commission may convene in a closed, non-public meeting if the Commission or executive committee or other committees of the Commission must discuss:

a. Non-compliance of a member state with its obligations under the Compact;

b. The employment, compensation, discipline or other matters, practices or procedures related to specific employees or other matters related to the Commission's internal personnel practices and procedures;

c. Current, threatened, or reasonably anticipated litigation;

d. Negotiation of contracts for the purchase, lease, or sale of goods, services, or real estate;

e. Accusing any person of a crime or formally censuring any person;

f. Disclosure of trade secrets or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential;

g. Disclosure of information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;

h. Disclosure of investigative records compiled for law enforcement purposes;

i. Disclosure of information related to any investigative reports prepared by or on behalf of or for use of the Commission or other committee charged with responsibility of investigation or determination of compliance issues pursuant to the Compact; or

j. Matters specifically exempted from disclosure by federal or member state statute.

3. If a meeting, or portion of a meeting, is closed pursuant to this provision, the Commission's legal counsel or designee shall certify that the meeting may be closed and shall reference each relevant exempting provision.

4. The Commission shall keep minutes that fully and clearly describe all matters discussed in a meeting and shall provide a full and accurate summary of actions taken, and the reasons therefore, including a description of the views expressed. All documents considered in connection with an action shall be identified in such minutes. All minutes and documents of a closed meeting shall remain under seal, subject to release by a majority vote of the Commission or order of a court of competent jurisdiction.

F. Financing of the Commission.

1. The Commission shall pay, or provide for the payment of, the reasonable expenses of its establishment, organization, and ongoing activities.

2. The Commission may accept any and all appropriate revenue sources, donations, and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials, and services.

3. The Commission may levy on and collect an annual assessment from each member state or impose fees on other parties to cover the cost of the operations and activities of the Commission and its staff, which must be in a total amount sufficient to cover its annual budget as approved by the Commission each year for which revenue is not provided by other sources. The aggregate annual assessment amount shall be allocated based upon a formula to be determined by the Commission, which shall promulgate a rule binding upon all member states.

4. The Commission shall not incur obligations of any kind prior to securing the funds adequate to meet the same; nor shall the Commission pledge the credit of any of the member states, except by and with the authority of the member state.

5. The Commission shall keep accurate accounts of all receipts and disbursements. The receipts and disbursements of the Commission shall be subject to the audit and accounting procedures established under its bylaws. However, all receipts and disbursements of funds handled by the Commission shall be audited yearly by a certified or licensed public accountant, and the report of the audit shall be included in and become part of the annual report of the Commission.

G. Qualified immunity, defense, and indemnification.

1. The members, officers, executive director, employees and representatives of the Commission shall be immune from suit and liability, either personally or in their official capacity, for any claim for damage to or loss of property or personal injury or other civil liability caused by or arising out of any actual or alleged act, error or omission that occurred, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties or responsibilities; provided that nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to protect any such person from suit and/or liability for any damage, loss, injury, or liability caused by the grossly negligent, intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person.

2. The Commission shall defend any member, officer, executive director, employee, or representative of the Commission in any civil action seeking to impose liability arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, provided that nothing herein shall be construed to prohibit that person from retaining his or her own counsel, and provided further, that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from that person's intentional or willful or wanton misconduct.

3. The Commission shall indemnify and hold harmless any member, officer, executive director, employee, or representative of the Commission for the amount of any settlement or judgment obtained against that person arising out of any actual or alleged act, error or omission that occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that such person had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, provided that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person.

Article IX.

Data System.

A. The Commission shall provide for the development, maintenance, and utilization of a coordinated database and reporting system containing licensure, adverse action, and investigative information on all licensed individuals in member states.

B. A member state shall submit a uniform data set to the data system on all individuals to whom this Compact is applicable (utilizing a unique identifier) as required by the rules of the Commission, including:

1. Identifying information;

2. Licensure data;

3. Adverse actions against a license or compact privilege;

4. Non-confidential information related to alternative program participation;

5. Any denial of application for licensure, and the reason(s) for such denial;

6. Other information that may facilitate the administration of this Compact, as determined by the rules of the Commission; and

7. Current significant investigative information.

C. Current significant investigative information and other investigative information pertaining to a Licensee in any member state will only be available to other member states.

D. The Commission shall promptly notify all member states of any adverse action taken against a licensee or an individual applying for a license. Adverse action information pertaining to a licensee in any member state will be available to any other member state.

E. Member states contributing information to the data system may designate information that may not be shared with the public without the express permission of the contributing state.

F. Any information submitted to the data system that is subsequently required to be expunged by the laws of the member state contributing the information shall be removed from the data system.

Article X.

Rulemaking.

A. The Commission shall exercise its rulemaking powers pursuant to the criteria set forth in this article and the rules adopted thereunder. Rules and amendments shall become binding as of the date specified in each rule or amendment.

B. The Commission shall promulgate reasonable rules in order to effectively and efficiently achieve the purposes of the Compact. Notwithstanding the foregoing, in the event the Commission exercises its rulemaking authority in a manner that is beyond the scope of the purposes of the Compact, or the powers granted hereunder, then such an action by the Commission shall be invalid and have no force and effect.

C. If a majority of the legislatures of the member states rejects a rule, by enactment of a statute or resolution in the same manner used to adopt the Compact within four years of the date of adoption of the rule, then such rule shall have no further force and effect in any member state.

D. Rules or amendments to the rules shall be adopted at a regular or special meeting of the Commission.

E. Prior to promulgation and adoption of a final rule or rules by the Commission, and at least 30 days in advance of the meeting at which the rule will be considered and voted upon, the Commission shall file a notice of proposed rulemaking:

1. On the website of the Commission or other publicly accessible platform; and

2. On the website of each member state occupational therapy licensing board or other publicly accessible platform or the publication in which each state would otherwise publish proposed rules.

F. The notice of proposed rulemaking shall include:

1. The proposed time, date, and location of the meeting in which the rule will be considered and voted upon;

2. The text of the proposed rule or amendment and the reason for the proposed rule;

3. A request for comments on the proposed rule from any interested person; and

4. The manner in which interested persons may submit notice to the Commission of their intention to attend the public hearing and any written comments.

G. Prior to adoption of a proposed rule, the Commission shall allow persons to submit written data, facts, opinions, and arguments, which shall be made available to the public.

H. The Commission shall grant an opportunity for a public hearing before it adopts a rule or amendment if a hearing is requested by:

1. At least 25 persons;

2. A state or federal governmental subdivision or agency; or

3. An association or organization having at least 25 members.

I. If a hearing is held on the proposed rule or amendment, the Commission shall publish the place, time, and date of the scheduled public hearing. If the hearing is held via electronic means, the Commission shall publish the mechanism for access to the electronic hearing.

1. All persons wishing to be heard at the hearing shall notify the executive director of the Commission or other designated member in writing of their desire to appear and testify at the hearing not less than five business days before the scheduled date of the hearing.

2. Hearings shall be conducted in a manner providing each person who wishes to comment a fair and reasonable opportunity to comment orally or in writing.

3. All hearings will be recorded. A copy of the recording will be made available on request.

4. Nothing in this article shall be construed as requiring a separate hearing on each rule. Rules may be grouped for the convenience of the Commission at hearings required by this article.

J. Following the scheduled hearing date, or by the close of business on the scheduled hearing date if the hearing was not held, the Commission shall consider all written and oral comments received.

K. If no written notice of intent to attend the public hearing by interested parties is received, the Commission may proceed with promulgation of the proposed rule without a public hearing.

L. The Commission shall, by majority vote of all members, take final action on the proposed rule and shall determine the effective date of the rule, if any, based on the rulemaking record and the full text of the rule.

M. Upon determination that an emergency exists, the Commission may consider and adopt an emergency rule without prior notice, opportunity for comment, or hearing, provided that the usual rulemaking procedures provided in the Compact and in this article shall be retroactively applied to the rule as soon as reasonably possible, in no event later than 90 days after the effective date of the rule. For the purposes of this provision, an emergency rule is one that must be adopted immediately in order to:

1. Meet an imminent threat to public health, safety, or welfare;

2. Prevent a loss of Commission or member state funds;

3. Meet a deadline for the promulgation of an administrative rule that is established by federal law or rule; or

4. Protect public health and safety.

N. The Commission or an authorized committee of the Commission may direct revisions to a previously adopted rule or amendment for purposes of correcting typographical errors, errors in format, errors in consistency, or grammatical errors. Public notice of any revisions shall be posted on the website of the Commission. The revision shall be subject to challenge by any person for a period of 30 days after posting. The revision may be challenged only on grounds that the revision results in a material change to a rule. A challenge shall be made in writing and delivered to the chair of the Commission prior to the end of the notice period. If no challenge is made, the revision will take effect without further action. If the revision is challenged, the revision may not take effect without the approval of the Commission.

Article XI.

Oversight, Dispute Resolution, and Enforcement.

A. Oversight.

1. The executive, legislative, and judicial branches of state government in each member state shall enforce this Compact and take all actions necessary and appropriate to effectuate the Compact's purposes and intent. The provisions of this Compact and the rules promulgated hereunder shall have standing as statutory law.

2. All courts shall take judicial notice of the Compact and the rules in any judicial or administrative proceeding in a member state pertaining to the subject matter of this Compact which may affect the powers, responsibilities, or actions of the Commission.

3. The Commission shall be entitled to receive service of process in any such proceeding, and shall have standing to intervene in such a proceeding for all purposes. Failure to provide service of process to the Commission shall render a judgment or order void as to the Commission, this Compact, or promulgated rules.

B. Default, technical assistance, and termination.

1. If the Commission determines that a member state has defaulted in the performance of its obligations or responsibilities under this Compact or the promulgated rules, the Commission shall:

a. Provide written notice to the defaulting state and other member states of the nature of the default, the proposed means of curing the default and/or any other action to be taken by the Commission; and

b. Provide remedial training and specific technical assistance regarding the default.

2. If a state in default fails to cure the default, the defaulting state may be terminated from the Compact upon an affirmative vote of a majority of the member states, and all rights, privileges and benefits conferred by this Compact may be terminated on the effective date of termination. A cure of the default does not relieve the offending state of obligations or liabilities incurred during the period of default.

3. Termination of membership in the Compact shall be imposed only after all other means of securing compliance have been exhausted. Notice of intent to suspend or terminate shall be given by the Commission to the governor, the majority and minority leaders of the defaulting state's legislature, and each of the member states.

4. A state that has been terminated is responsible for all assessments, obligations, and liabilities incurred through the effective date of termination, including obligations that extend beyond the effective date of termination.

5. The Commission shall not bear any costs related to a state that is found to be in default or that has been terminated from the Compact, unless agreed upon in writing between the Commission and the defaulting state.

6. The defaulting state may appeal the action of the Commission by petitioning the U.S. District Court for the District of Columbia or the federal district where the Commission has its principal offices. The prevailing member shall be awarded all costs of such litigation, including reasonable attorney fees.

C. Dispute resolution.

1. Upon request by a member state, the Commission shall attempt to resolve disputes related to the Compact that arise among member states and between member and non-member states.

2. The Commission shall promulgate a rule providing for both mediation and binding dispute resolution for disputes as appropriate.

D. Enforcement.

The Commission, in the reasonable exercise of its discretion, shall enforce the provisions and rules of this Compact.

By majority vote, the Commission may initiate legal action in the United States District Court for the District of Columbia or the federal district where the Commission has its principal offices against a member state in default to enforce compliance with the provisions of the Compact and its promulgated rules and bylaws. The relief sought may include both injunctive relief and damages. In the event judicial enforcement is necessary, the prevailing member shall be awarded all costs of such litigation, including reasonable attorney fees.

The remedies herein shall not be the exclusive remedies of the Commission. The Commission may pursue any other remedies available under federal or state law.

Article XII.

Date of Implementation of the Interstate Commission for Occupational Therapy Practice and Associated Rules, Withdrawal, and Amendment.

A. The Compact shall come into effect on the date on which the Compact statute is enacted into law in the tenth member state. The provisions, which become effective at that time, shall be limited to the powers granted to the Commission relating to assembly and the promulgation of rules. Thereafter, the Commission shall meet and exercise rulemaking powers necessary to the implementation and administration of the Compact.

B. Any state that joins the Compact subsequent to the Commission's initial adoption of the rules shall be subject to the rules as they exist on the date on which the Compact becomes law in that state. Any rule that has been previously adopted by the Commission shall have the full force and effect of law on the day the Compact becomes law in that state.

C. Any member state may withdraw from this Compact by enacting a statute repealing the same.

1. A member state's withdrawal shall not take effect until six months after enactment of the repealing statute.

2. Withdrawal shall not affect the continuing requirement of the withdrawing state's occupational therapy licensing board to comply with the investigative and adverse action reporting requirements of this act prior to the effective date of withdrawal.

D. Nothing contained in this Compact shall be construed to invalidate or prevent any occupational therapy licensure agreement or other cooperative arrangement between a member state and a non-member state that does not conflict with the provisions of this Compact.

E. This Compact may be amended by the member states. No amendment to this Compact shall become effective and binding upon any member state until it is enacted into the laws of all member states.

Article XIII.

Construction and Severability.

This Compact shall be liberally construed so as to effectuate the purposes thereof. The provisions of this Compact shall be severable and if any phrase, clause, sentence or provision of this Compact is declared to be contrary to the constitution of any member state or of the United States or the applicability thereof to any government, agency, person, or circumstance is held invalid, the validity of the remainder of this Compact and the applicability thereof to any government, agency, person, or circumstance shall not be affected thereby. If this Compact shall be held contrary to the constitution of any member state, the Compact shall remain in full force and effect as to the remaining member states and in full force and effect as to the member state affected as to all severable matters.

Article XIV.

Binding Effect of Compact and Other Laws.

A. A licensee providing occupational therapy in a remote state under the compact privilege shall function within the laws and regulations of the remote state.

B. Nothing herein prevents the enforcement of any other law of a member state that is not inconsistent with the Compact.

C. Any laws in a member state in conflict with the Compact are superseded to the extent of the conflict.

D. Any lawful actions of the Commission, including all rules and bylaws promulgated by the Commission, are binding upon the member states.

E. All agreements between the Commission and the member states are binding in accordance with their terms.

F. In the event any provision of the Compact exceeds the constitutional limits imposed on the legislature of any member state, the provision shall be ineffective to the extent of the conflict with the constitutional provision in question in that member state.

2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 242.

The Advisory Board on Radiological Technology shall assist the Board in carrying out the provisions of this chapter regarding the qualifications, examination, registration and regulation of certified radiological technology practitioners.

The Advisory Board shall consist of five members to be appointed by the Governor as follows: three members shall be licensed radiological technology practitioners who have been practicing in the Commonwealth for not less than three years prior to their appointments, one member shall be a board-certified radiologist licensed in the Commonwealth, and one member shall be a citizen member appointed from the Commonwealth at large. Beginning July 1, 2011, the Governor's appointments shall be staggered as follows: two members for a term of one year, one member for a term of two years, and two members for a term of three years. Thereafter, appointments shall be for four-year terms.

Vacancies occurring other than by expiration of term shall be filled for the unexpired term. No person shall be eligible to serve on the Advisory Board for more than two consecutive terms.

1990, c. 966; 2002, c. 698; 2011, cc. 691, 714.

Except as set forth herein, it shall be unlawful for a person to practice or hold himself out as practicing as a radiologist assistant, radiologic technologist, or radiologic technologist, limited, unless he holds a license as such issued by the Board.

In addition, it shall be unlawful for any person who is not licensed under this chapter whose licensure has been suspended or revoked, or whose licensure has lapsed and has not been renewed to use in conjunction with his name the words "licensed radiologist assistant," "licensed radiologic technologist" or "licensed radiologic technologist, limited" or to otherwise by letters, words, representations, or insignias assert or imply that he is licensed to practice radiologic technology.

The Board shall prescribe by regulation the qualifications governing the licensure of radiologist assistants, radiologic technologists, and radiologic technologists, limited. The regulations may include requirements for approved education programs, experience, examinations, and periodic review for continued competency.

The provisions of this section shall not apply to any employee of a hospital licensed pursuant to Article 1 (§ 32.1-123 et seq.) of Chapter 5 of Title 32.1 acting within the scope of his employment or engagement as a radiologic technologist.

1994, c. 803; 2009, cc. 83, 507.

The Board shall establish a testing program to determine the training and educational achievements of radiologist assistants, radiologic technologists, or radiologic technologists, limited. The Board may accept other evidence such as successful completion of a national certification examination, experience, or completion of an approved training program in lieu of testing and shall establish this as a prerequisite for approval of the licensee's application. The Board shall consider and may accept relevant practical experience and didactic and clinical components of education and training completed by an applicant for licensure as a radiologist assistant, radiologic technologist, or radiologic technologist, limited, during his service as a member of any branch of the armed forces of the United States as evidence of the satisfaction of the educational requirements for licensure.

1994, c. 803; 2009, cc. 83, 507; 2011, c. 390.

It shall be unlawful for a person to practice or to hold himself out as practicing as an acupuncturist unless he holds a license as such issued by the Board. A person licensed to practice acupuncture, when using the title "acupuncturist," shall include therewith the designation Lic.Ac. or L.Ac.

In addition, it shall be unlawful for any person who is not licensed under this chapter, whose licensure has been suspended or revoked, or whose licensure has lapsed and has not been renewed to use in conjunction with his name the words "licensed acupuncturist" or to otherwise by letters, words, representations, or insignias assert or imply that he is licensed to practice acupuncture.

The Board of Medicine shall prescribe by regulation the qualifications governing the licensure of acupuncturists. Such regulations shall not restrict the practice of this profession to practitioners regulated by the Board on June 30, 1992, to practice the healing arts. The regulations shall at a minimum require that, prior to performing acupuncture, any acupuncturist who is not licensed to practice medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic or podiatry shall either (i) obtain written documentation that the patient had received a diagnostic examination from a licensed practitioner of medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic or podiatry with regard to the ailment or condition to be treated or (ii) provide to the patient a written recommendation for such a diagnostic examination. The regulations may include requirements for approved education programs, experience, and examinations. The regulations shall exempt from the requirement for Test of Spoken English (TSE) or the Test of English as a Foreign Language (TOEFL) any foreign speaking acupuncturist who speaks the language of the majority of his clients.

1991, c. 643; 1993, c. 753; 1996, c. 470; 1999, c. 779; 2000, c. 814.

The Board shall establish a testing program to determine the training and educational achievements of acupuncturists, or the Board may accept other evidence such as successful completion of a national certification examination, experience, or completion of an approved training program in lieu of testing and shall establish this as a prerequisite for approval of the licensee's application.

1991, c. 643; 1993, c. 753.

The Advisory Board on Acupuncture, hereinafter referred to as the "Advisory Board," shall assist the Board of Medicine in carrying out the provisions of this chapter regarding the qualifications, examination, licensure, and regulation of acupuncturists. Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to authorize the Advisory Board to advise the Board of Medicine in matters pertaining to the regulations of doctors of medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic, or podiatry who are qualified by such regulations to practice acupuncture.

The Advisory Board shall consist of five members to be appointed by the Governor as follows: three members shall be licensed acupuncturists who have been practicing in Virginia for not less than three years; one member shall be a doctor of medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic or podiatry who is qualified to practice acupuncture in Virginia; and one member shall be a citizen member appointed from the Commonwealth at large. Beginning July 1, 2011, the Governor's appointments shall be staggered as follows: two members for a term of one year, two members for a term of two years, and one member for a term of three years. Thereafter, appointments shall be for four-year terms. Any vacancy occurring during a member's term shall be filled for the unexpired balance of that term. No person shall be eligible to serve on the Advisory Board for more than two successive terms.

1991, c. 643; 1993, c. 753; 2000, c. 814; 2002, c. 698; 2003, c. 512; 2011, cc. 691, 714.

A. No person shall hold himself out to be a surgical technologist or use or assume the title of "surgical technologist" or "certified surgical technologist," or use the designation "S.T." or any variation thereof, unless such person is certified by the Board. No person shall use the designation "C.S.T." or any variation thereof unless such person (i) is certified by the Board and (ii) has successfully completed an accredited surgical technologist training program and holds a current credential as a certified surgical technologist from the National Board of Surgical Technology and Surgical Assisting or its successor.

B. The Board shall certify as a surgical technologist any applicant who presents satisfactory evidence that he (i) has successfully completed an accredited surgical technologist training program and holds a current credential as a certified surgical technologist from the National Board of Surgical Technology and Surgical Assisting or its successor, (ii) has successfully completed a training program for surgical technology during the person's service as a member of any branch of the armed forces of the United States, (iii) has successfully completed a surgical technologist apprenticeship program registered with the U.S. Department of Labor, (iv) has successfully completed a hospital-based surgical technologist training program approved by the Board, (v) has successfully completed a surgical technologist training program through an institution or program accredited by a nationally recognized accreditation organization and holds a current credential as a surgical technologist from an entity approved by the Board, or (vi) has practiced as a surgical technologist or attended a surgical technologist training program at any time prior to October 1, 2022, provided he registers with the Board by December 31, 2023.

2014, c. 531; 2016, c. 99; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 230; 2022, c. 71; 2023, c. 792.

A. No person shall engage in the practice of surgical assisting or use or assume the title "surgical assistant" unless such person holds a license as a surgical assistant issued by the Board. Nothing in this section shall be construed as prohibiting any professional licensed, certified, or registered by a health regulatory board from acting within the scope of his practice.

B. The Board shall establish criteria for licensure as a surgical assistant, which shall include evidence that the applicant:

1. Holds a current credential as a surgical assistant or surgical first assistant issued by the National Board of Surgical Technology and Surgical Assisting, or the National Commission for Certification of Surgical Assistants or their successors;

2. Has successfully completed a surgical assistant training program during the person's service as a member of any branch of the armed forces of the United States; or

3. Has practiced as a surgical assistant in the Commonwealth at any time in the six months immediately prior to July 1, 2020.

C. For renewal of a license, a surgical assistant who was licensed based on a credential as a surgical assistant or surgical first assistant issued by the National Board of Surgical Technology and Surgical Assisting, or the National Commission for the Certification of Surgical Assistants or their successors shall attest that the credential is current at the time of renewal.

D. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection A, a person who has graduated from a surgical assistant training program and is required to take a national certification examination given by any entity listed in subdivision B 1 may practice with the title "surgical assistant, license applicant" until he has received a failing score on the national certification examination or six months from the date of graduation, whichever occurs sooner. Any person practicing pursuant to this subsection shall be identified with the title "surgical assistant, license applicant" on any identification issued by an employer and in conjunction with any signature in the course of his practice.

2014, c. 531; 2016, c. 99; 2018, c. 374; 2020, c. 1222; 2023, c. 792.

A. The Advisory Board on Surgical Assisting (Advisory Board) shall assist the Board in carrying out the provisions of this chapter regarding the qualifications and regulation of licensed surgical assistants.

B. The Advisory Board shall consist of five members appointed by the Governor for four-year terms. Three members of the Board shall be, at the time of appointment, surgical assistants who have practiced in the Commonwealth for not less than three years; one member shall be a doctor of medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry whose practice shall include surgery; and one member shall be a citizen member appointed from the Commonwealth at large. Vacancies occurring other than by expiration of a term shall be filled for the unexpired term. No person shall be eligible to serve on the Advisory Board for more than two consecutive terms.

C. The Advisory Board shall, under the authority of the Board, recommend to the Board for its enactment into regulations (i) standards for continued licensure of surgical assistants, including continuing education requirements, and (ii) standards relating to the professional conduct, termination and reinstatement and renewal of licenses of surgical assistants.

2020, c. 1222.

A. As used in this section, "clinical experience" means the postgraduate delivery of health care directly to patients pursuant to a practice agreement with a patient care team physician.

B. The Board of Medicine and the Board of Nursing shall jointly prescribe the regulations governing the licensure of advanced practice registered nurses. It is unlawful for a person to practice as an advanced practice registered nurse in the Commonwealth unless he holds such a joint license.

C. Every nurse practitioner who meets the requirements of subsection I shall maintain appropriate collaboration and consultation, as evidenced in a written or electronic practice agreement, with at least one patient care team physician. A nurse practitioner who meets the requirements of subsection I may practice without a written or electronic practice agreement. A certified nurse midwife shall practice pursuant to subsection H. A clinical nurse specialist shall practice pursuant to subsection J. A certified registered nurse anesthetist shall practice under the supervision of a licensed doctor of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, or dentistry. An advanced practice registered nurse who is appointed as a medical examiner pursuant to § 32.1-282 shall practice in collaboration with a licensed doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine who has been appointed to serve as a medical examiner pursuant to § 32.1-282. Collaboration and consultation among advanced practice registered nurses and patient care team physicians may be provided through telemedicine as described in § 38.2-3418.16.

Physicians on patient care teams may require that an advanced practice registered nurse be covered by a professional liability insurance policy with limits equal to the current limitation on damages set forth in § 8.01-581.15.

Service on a patient care team by a patient care team member shall not, by the existence of such service alone, establish or create liability for the actions or inactions of other team members.

D. The Boards of Medicine and Nursing shall jointly promulgate regulations specifying collaboration and consultation among physicians and advanced practice registered nurses working as part of patient care teams that shall include the development of, and periodic review and revision of, a written or electronic practice agreement; guidelines for availability and ongoing communications that define consultation among the collaborating parties and the patient; and periodic joint evaluation of the services delivered. Practice agreements shall include provisions for (i) periodic review of health records, which may include visits to the site where health care is delivered, in the manner and at the frequency determined by the advanced practice registered nurse and the patient care team physician and (ii) input from appropriate health care providers in complex clinical cases and patient emergencies and for referrals. Evidence of a practice agreement shall be maintained by an advanced practice registered nurse and provided to the Boards upon request. For advanced practice registered nurses providing care to patients within a hospital or health care system, the practice agreement may be included as part of documents delineating the advanced practice registered nurse's clinical privileges or the electronic or written delineation of duties and responsibilities in collaboration and consultation with a patient care team physician.

E. The Boards of Medicine and Nursing may issue a license by endorsement to an applicant to practice as an advanced practice registered nurse if the applicant has been licensed as an advanced practice registered nurse under the laws of another state and, pursuant to regulations of the Boards, the applicant meets the qualifications for licensure required of advanced practice registered nurses in the Commonwealth. An advanced practice registered nurse to whom a license is issued by endorsement may practice without a practice agreement with a patient care team physician pursuant to subsection I if such application provides an attestation to the Boards that the applicant has completed the equivalent of at least five years of full-time clinical experience, as determined by the Boards, in accordance with the laws of the state in which the nurse practitioner was licensed.

F. Pending the outcome of the next National Specialty Examination, the Boards may jointly grant temporary licensure to advanced practice registered nurses.

G. In the event a physician who is serving as a patient care team physician dies, becomes disabled, retires from active practice, surrenders his license or has it suspended or revoked by the Board, or relocates his practice such that he is no longer able to serve, and an advanced practice registered nurse is unable to enter into a new practice agreement with another patient care team physician, the advanced practice registered nurse may continue to practice upon notification to the designee or his alternate of the Boards and receipt of such notification. Such advanced practice registered nurse may continue to treat patients without a patient care team physician for an initial period not to exceed 60 days, provided that the advanced practice registered nurse continues to prescribe only those drugs previously authorized by the practice agreement with such physician and to have access to appropriate input from appropriate health care providers in complex clinical cases and patient emergencies and for referrals. The designee or his alternate of the Boards shall grant permission for the advanced practice registered nurse to continue practice under this subsection for another 60 days, provided that the advanced practice registered nurse provides evidence of efforts made to secure another patient care team physician and of access to physician input.

H. Every certified nurse midwife shall practice in accordance with regulations adopted by the Boards and consistent with the Standards for the Practice of Midwifery set by the American College of Nurse-Midwives governing such practice. A certified nurse midwife who has practiced fewer than 1,000 hours shall practice in consultation with a certified nurse midwife who has practiced for at least two years prior to entering into the practice agreement or a licensed physician, in accordance with a practice agreement. Such practice agreement shall address the availability of the certified nurse midwife who has practiced for at least two years prior to entering into the practice agreement or the licensed physician for routine and urgent consultation on patient care. Evidence of the practice agreement shall be maintained by the certified nurse midwife and provided to the Boards upon request. A certified nurse midwife who has completed 1,000 hours of practice as a certified nurse midwife may practice without a practice agreement upon receipt by the certified nurse midwife of an attestation from the certified nurse midwife who has practiced for at least two years prior to entering into the practice agreement or the licensed physician with whom the certified nurse midwife has entered into a practice agreement stating (i) that such certified nurse midwife or licensed physician has provided consultation to the certified nurse midwife pursuant to a practice agreement meeting the requirements of this section and (ii) the period of time for which such certified nurse midwife or licensed physician practiced in collaboration and consultation with the certified nurse midwife pursuant to the practice agreement. A certified nurse midwife authorized to practice without a practice agreement shall consult and collaborate with and refer patients to such other health care providers as may be appropriate for the care of the patient.

I. A nurse practitioner who has completed the equivalent of at least five years of full-time clinical experience, as determined by the Boards, may practice in the practice category in which he is certified and licensed without a written or electronic practice agreement upon receipt by the nurse practitioner of an attestation from the patient care team physician stating (i) that the patient care team physician has served as a patient care team physician on a patient care team with the nurse practitioner pursuant to a practice agreement meeting the requirements of this section and § 54.1-2957.01; (ii) that while a party to such practice agreement, the patient care team physician routinely practiced with a patient population and in a practice area included within the category for which the nurse practitioner was certified and licensed; and (iii) the period of time for which the patient care team physician practiced with the nurse practitioner under such a practice agreement. A copy of such attestation shall be submitted to the Boards together with a fee established by the Boards. Upon receipt of such attestation and verification that a nurse practitioner satisfies the requirements of this subsection, the Boards shall issue to the nurse practitioner a new license that includes a designation indicating that the nurse practitioner is authorized to practice without a practice agreement. In the event that a nurse practitioner is unable to obtain the attestation required by this subsection, the Boards may accept other evidence demonstrating that the applicant has met the requirements of this subsection in accordance with regulations adopted by the Boards.

A nurse practitioner authorized to practice without a practice agreement pursuant to this subsection shall (a) only practice within the scope of his clinical and professional training and limits of his knowledge and experience and consistent with the applicable standards of care, (b) consult and collaborate with other health care providers based on the clinical conditions of the patient to whom health care is provided, and (c) establish a plan for referral of complex medical cases and emergencies to physicians or other appropriate health care providers.

J. A clinical nurse specialist licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing who does not prescribe controlled substances or devices may practice in the practice category in which he is certified and licensed without a written or electronic practice agreement. Such clinical nurse specialist shall (i) only practice within the scope of his clinical and professional training and limits of his knowledge and experience and consistent with the applicable standards of care, (ii) consult and collaborate with other health care providers based on the clinical condition of the patient to whom health care is provided, and (iii) establish a plan for referral of complex medical cases and emergencies to physicians or other appropriate health care providers.

A clinical nurse specialist licensed by the Boards who prescribes controlled substances or devices shall practice in consultation with a licensed physician in accordance with a practice agreement between the clinical nurse specialist and the licensed physician. Such practice agreement shall address the availability of the physician for routine and urgent consultation on patient care. Evidence of a practice agreement shall be maintained by a clinical nurse specialist and provided to the Boards upon request. The practice of clinical nurse specialists shall be consistent with the standards of care for the profession and with applicable laws and regulations.

Code 1950, § 54-274; 1950, p. 98; 1958, c. 161; 1962, c. 127; 1966, c. 657; 1970, c. 69; 1973, cc. 105, 514, 529; 1975, c. 508; 1976, c. 15; 1980, c. 157; 1982, c. 220; 1985, cc. 303, 347; 1986, c. 377; 1988, c. 765; 2006, c. 750; 2012, c. 213; 2015, c. 107; 2016, cc. 308, 409, 495; 2018, c. 776; 2019, cc. 92, 137; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 1, 157, 396; 2022, cc. 197, 563; 2023, c. 183.

A. The Board of Medicine and the Board of Nursing may jointly issue a restricted volunteer license to an advanced practice registered nurse who (i) within the past five years held an unrestricted license as an advanced practice registered nurse in the Commonwealth or another state that was in good standing at the time the license expired or became inactive and (ii) holds an active license or a volunteer restricted license as a registered nurse or a multistate licensure privilege. Advanced practice registered nurses holding a restricted volunteer license issued pursuant to this section shall only practice in public health or community free clinics that provide services to underserved populations.

B. An applicant for a restricted volunteer license shall submit an application on a form provided by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing and attest that he will not receive remuneration directly or indirectly for providing nursing services.

C. An advanced practice registered nurse holding a restricted volunteer license pursuant to this section may obtain prescriptive authority in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-2957.01.

D. An advanced practice registered nurse holding a restricted volunteer license pursuant to this section shall not be required to complete continuing competency requirements for the first renewal of such license. For subsequent renewals, an advanced practice registered nurse holding a restricted volunteer license shall be required to complete the continuing competency requirements required for renewal of an active license.

E. A restricted volunteer license issued pursuant to this section may be renewed biennially in accordance with the renewal schedule established in regulations jointly promulgated by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing.

F. The application and biennial renewal fee for restricted volunteer licenses pursuant to this section shall be one-half of the fee for an active license.

G. An advanced practice registered nurse holding a restricted volunteer license issued pursuant to this section shall be subject to the provisions of this chapter and all regulations applicable to advanced practice registered nurses practicing in the Commonwealth.

2015, c. 522; 2023, c. 183.

A. In accordance with the provisions of this section and pursuant to the requirements of Chapter 33 (§ 54.1-3300 et seq.), a licensed advanced practice registered nurse shall have the authority to prescribe Schedule II through Schedule VI controlled substances and devices as set forth in Chapter 34 (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.).

B. An advanced practice registered nurse who does not meet the requirements for practice without a written or electronic practice agreement set forth in subsection I of § 54.1-2957 shall prescribe controlled substances or devices only if such prescribing is authorized by a written or electronic practice agreement entered into by the advanced practice registered nurse and a patient care team physician or, if the advanced practice registered nurse is licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing in the category of clinical nurse specialist, the advanced practice registered nurse and a licensed physician. Such advanced practice registered nurse shall provide to the Boards of Medicine and Nursing such evidence as the Boards may jointly require that the advanced practice registered nurse has entered into and is, at the time of writing a prescription, a party to a written or electronic practice agreement with a patient care team physician, or, if the advanced practice registered nurse is licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing in the category of clinical nurse specialist, a licensed physician, that clearly states the prescriptive practices of the advanced practice registered nurse. Such written or electronic practice agreements shall include the controlled substances the advanced practice registered nurse is or is not authorized to prescribe and may restrict such prescriptive authority as described in the practice agreement. Evidence of a practice agreement shall be maintained by an advanced practice registered nurse pursuant to § 54.1-2957. Practice agreements authorizing an advanced practice registered nurse to prescribe controlled substances or devices pursuant to this section either shall be signed by the patient care team physician, or, if the advanced practice registered nurse is licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing in the category of clinical nurse specialist, a licensed physician, or shall clearly state the name of the patient care team physician, or, if the advanced practice registered nurse is licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing in the category of clinical nurse specialist, the name of the licensed physician, who has entered into the practice agreement with the advanced practice registered nurse.

It shall be unlawful for an advanced practice registered nurse to prescribe controlled substances or devices pursuant to this section unless (i) such prescription is authorized by the written or electronic practice agreement or (ii) the advanced practice registered nurse is authorized to practice without a written or electronic practice agreement pursuant to subsection I of § 54.1-2957.

C. The Boards of Medicine and Nursing shall promulgate regulations governing the prescriptive authority of advanced practice registered nurses as are deemed reasonable and necessary to ensure an appropriate standard of care for patients. Such regulations shall include requirements as may be necessary to ensure continued advanced practice registered nurse competency, which may include continuing education, testing, or any other requirement, and shall address the need to promote ethical practice, an appropriate standard of care, patient safety, the use of new pharmaceuticals, and appropriate communication with patients.

D. This section shall not limit the functions and procedures of certified registered nurse anesthetists or of any advanced practice registered nurses which are otherwise authorized by law or regulation.

E. The following restrictions shall apply to any advanced practice registered nurse authorized to prescribe drugs and devices pursuant to this section:

1. The advanced practice registered nurse shall disclose to the patient at the initial encounter that he is a licensed advanced practice registered nurse. Any party to a practice agreement shall disclose, upon request of a patient or his legal representative, the name of the patient care team physician, or, if the advanced practice registered nurse is licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing in the category of clinical nurse specialist, the name of the licensed physician, and information regarding how to contact the patient care team physician or licensed physician.

2. Physicians shall not serve as a patient care team physician on a patient care team or enter into a practice agreement with more than six advanced practice registered nurses at any one time, except that a physician may serve as a patient care team physician on a patient care team with up to 10 advanced practice registered nurses licensed in the category of psychiatric-mental health advanced practice registered nurse.

F. This section shall not prohibit a licensed advanced practice registered nurse from administering controlled substances in compliance with the definition of "administer" in § 54.1-3401 or from receiving and dispensing manufacturers' professional samples of controlled substances in compliance with the provisions of this section.

G. Notwithstanding any provision of law or regulation to the contrary, a certified nurse midwife licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing as such and holding a license for prescriptive authority may prescribe Schedules II through VI controlled substances. However, if the certified nurse midwife licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing in the category of certified nurse midwife is required, pursuant to subsection H of § 54.1-2957, to practice pursuant to a practice agreement, such prescribing shall also be in accordance with any prescriptive authority included in such practice agreement.

H. Notwithstanding any provision of law or regulation to the contrary, a certified registered nurse anesthetist licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing as such shall have the authority to prescribe Schedule II through Schedule VI controlled substances and devices in accordance with the requirements for practice set forth in subsection C of § 54.1-2957 to a patient requiring anesthesia, as part of the periprocedural care of such patient. As used in this subsection, "periprocedural" means the period beginning prior to a procedure and ending at the time the patient is discharged.

1991, cc. 519, 524; 1992, c. 409; 1995, c. 506; 1999, c. 745; 2000, c. 924; 2005, c. 926; 2006, c. 494; 2012, c. 213; 2016, c. 495; 2018, c. 776; 2020, cc. 100, 161; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 157, 396; 2022, cc. 197, 667; 2023, c. 183.

Repealed by Acts 1996, cc. 152 and 158.

Whenever any law or regulation requires a signature, certification, stamp, verification, affidavit or endorsement by a physician, it shall be deemed to include a signature, certification, stamp, verification, affidavit or endorsement by an advanced practice registered nurse.

2004, c. 855; 2023, c. 183.

A. As used in this section, "birthing center" means a facility outside a hospital that provides maternity services.

B. A certified nurse midwife who provides health care services to a patient outside of a hospital or birthing center shall disclose to that patient, when appropriate, information on health risks associated with births outside of a hospital or birthing center, including but not limited to risks associated with vaginal births after a prior cesarean section, breech births, births by women experiencing high-risk pregnancies, and births involving multiple gestation.

C. A certified nurse midwife who provides health care to a patient shall be liable for the midwife's negligent, grossly negligent, or willful and wanton acts or omissions. Except as otherwise provided by law, any (i) doctor of medicine or osteopathy who did not collaborate or consult with the midwife regarding the patient and who has not previously treated the patient for this pregnancy, (ii) physician assistant, (iii) advanced practice registered nurse, (iv) prehospital emergency medical personnel, or (v) hospital as defined in § 32.1-123, or any employee of, person providing services pursuant to a contract with, or agent of such hospital, that provides screening and stabilization health care services to a patient as a result of a certified nurse midwife's negligent, grossly negligent, or willful and wanton acts or omissions, shall be immune from liability for acts or omissions constituting ordinary negligence.

2006, c. 750; 2009, c. 646; 2016, c. 495; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 396; 2023, c. 183.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person to practice or to hold himself out as practicing as a licensed certified midwife or use in connection with his name the words "Licensed Certified Midwife" unless he holds a license as such issued jointly by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing.

B. The Boards of Medicine and Nursing shall jointly adopt regulations for the licensure of licensed certified midwives, which shall include criteria for licensure and renewal of a license as a certified midwife that shall include a requirement that the applicant provide evidence satisfactory to the Boards of current certification as a certified midwife by the American Midwifery Certification Board and that shall be consistent with the requirements for certification as a certified midwife established by the American Midwifery Certification Board.

C. The Boards of Medicine and Nursing may issue a license by endorsement to an applicant to practice as a licensed certified midwife if the applicant has been licensed as a certified midwife under the laws of another state and, pursuant to regulations of the Boards, the applicant meets the qualifications for licensure as a licensed certified midwife in the Commonwealth.

D. Licensed certified midwives shall practice in consultation with a licensed physician in accordance with a practice agreement between the licensed certified midwife and the licensed physician. Such practice agreement shall address the availability of the physician for routine and urgent consultation on patient care. Evidence of a practice agreement shall be maintained by the licensed certified midwife and provided to the Board upon request. The Board shall adopt regulations for the practice of licensed certified midwives, which shall be in accordance with regulations jointly adopted by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing, which shall be consistent with the Standards for the Practice of Midwifery set by the American College of Nurse-Midwives governing the practice of midwifery.

E. Notwithstanding any provision of law or regulation to the contrary, a licensed certified midwife may prescribe Schedules II through VI controlled substances in accordance with regulations of the Boards of Medicine and Nursing.

F. A licensed certified midwife who provides health care services to a patient outside of a hospital or birthing center shall disclose to that patient, when appropriate, information on health risks associated with births outside of a hospital or birthing center, including but not limited to risks associated with vaginal births after a prior cesarean section, breech births, births by women experiencing high-risk pregnancies, and births involving multiple gestation. As used in this subsection, "birthing center" shall have the same meaning as in § 54.1-2957.03.

G. A licensed certified midwife who provides health care to a patient shall be liable for the midwife's negligent, grossly negligent, or willful and wanton acts or omissions. Except as otherwise provided by law, any (i) doctor of medicine or osteopathy who did not collaborate or consult with the midwife regarding the patient and who has not previously treated the patient for this pregnancy, (ii) physician assistant, (iii) advanced practice registered nurse, (iv) prehospital emergency medical personnel, or (v) hospital as defined in § 32.1-123, or any employee of, person providing services pursuant to a contract with, or agent of such hospital, that provides screening and stabilization health care services to a patient as a result of a licensed certified midwife's negligent, grossly negligent, or willful and wanton acts or omissions shall be immune from liability for acts or omissions constituting ordinary negligence.

2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 200, 201; 2023, c. 183.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person to practice or to hold himself out as practicing as an athletic trainer unless he holds a license as an athletic trainer issued by the Board. The Board shall issue licenses to practice athletic training to applicants for such licensure who meet the requirements of this chapter and the Board's regulations.

B. The Board shall establish criteria for the licensure of athletic trainers to ensure the appropriate training and educational credentials for the practice of athletic training. Such criteria may include experiential requirements and shall include one of the following: (i) a Virginia testing program to determine the quality of the training and educational credentials for and competence of athletic trainers, (ii) successful completion of a training program and passage of the certifying examination administered by the National Athletic Training Association Board of Certification resulting in certification as an athletic trainer by such national association, or (iii) completion of another Board-approved training program and examination.

C. At its discretion, the Board may grant provisional licensure to persons who have successfully completed an approved training program or who have met requisite experience criteria established by the Board. Such provisional licensure shall expire as provided for in the regulations of the Board.

D. The Board shall promulgate such regulations as may be necessary for the licensure of athletic trainers and the issuance of licenses to athletic trainers to practice in the Commonwealth. The Board's regulations shall assure the competence and integrity of any person claiming to be an athletic trainer or who engages in the practice of athletic training.

1999, cc. 639, 682, 747; 2004, c. 669; 2013, c. 144.

A. The Advisory Board on Athletic Training shall assist the Board in formulating its requirements for the licensure of athletic trainers. In the exercise of this responsibility, the Advisory Board shall recommend to the Board the criteria for licensure of athletic trainers and the standards of professional conduct for licensees. The Advisory Board shall also assist in such other matters relating to the practice of athletic training as the Board may require.

B. The Advisory Board shall consist of five members appointed by the Governor for four-year terms. The first appointments shall provide for staggered terms with two members being appointed for a two-year term, two members being appointed for a three-year term and one member being appointed for a four-year term. Three members shall be at the time of appointment athletic trainers who are currently licensed by the Board and who have practiced in Virginia for not less than three years, including one athletic trainer employed at a secondary school, one employed at an institution of higher education, and one employed in the public or private sector; one member shall be a physician licensed to practice medicine in the Commonwealth; and one member shall be a citizen appointed by the Governor from the Commonwealth at large.

Vacancies occurring other than by expiration of term shall be filled for the unexpired term. No person shall be eligible to serve on the Advisory Board for more than two full consecutive terms.

1999, cc. 639, 682, 747; 2001, c. 61; 2004, c. 669; 2011, cc. 691, 714; 2020, c. 926.

A. The provisions of this section shall not be construed to prohibit any individual from providing first aid, nor any coach, physical education instructor or other person from (i) conducting or assisting with exercise or conditioning programs or classes within the scope of their duties as employees or volunteers or (ii) applying protective taping to an uninjured body part.

B. The requirements for licensure of athletic trainers shall not prevent student athletic trainers from practicing athletic training under the supervision and control of a licensed athletic trainer pursuant to regulations promulgated by the Board.

C. Notwithstanding the provisions of §§ 54.1-2957.4 and 54.1-2957.5, any person who, prior to June 30, 2004, is employed in Virginia as an athletic trainer, or in the performance of his employment duties engages in the practice of athletic training and is certified pursuant to this section and §§ 54.1-2957.4 and 54.1-2957.5 as such statutes were in effect on June 30, 2004, shall not be required to obtain a license from the Board to continue to be so employed until July 1, 2005.

1999, cc. 639, 682, 747; 2001, c. 61; 2003, c. 529; 2004, c. 669.

"Midwife" means any person who provides primary maternity care by affirmative act or conduct prior to, during, and subsequent to childbirth, and who is not licensed as a doctor of medicine or osteopathy or certified nurse midwife.

"Practicing midwifery" means providing primary maternity care that is consistent with a midwife's training, education, and experience to women and their newborns throughout the childbearing cycle, and identifying and referring women or their newborns who require medical care to an appropriate practitioner.

2005, cc. 719, 917.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person to practice midwifery in the Commonwealth or use the title of licensed midwife unless he holds a license issued by the Board. The Board may license an applicant as a midwife after such applicant has submitted evidence satisfactory to the Board that he has obtained the Certified Professional Midwife (CPM) credential pursuant to regulations adopted by the Board and in accordance with the provisions of §§ 54.1-2915.

B. Persons seeking licensure as a midwife shall submit such information as required in the form and manner determined by the Board.

C. Persons seeking licensure shall pay the required license fee as determined by the Board.

2005, cc. 719, 917.

The Board shall adopt regulations governing the practice of midwifery, upon consultation with the Advisory Board on Midwifery. The regulations shall (i) address the requirements for licensure to practice midwifery, including the establishment of standards of care, (ii) be consistent with the North American Registry of Midwives' current job description for the profession and the National Association of Certified Professional Midwives' standards of practice, except that prescriptive authority shall be prohibited, (iii) ensure independent practice, (iv) require midwives to disclose to their patients, when appropriate, options for consultation and referral to a physician and evidence-based information on health risks associated with birth of a child outside of a hospital or birthing center, as defined in § 54.1-2957.03, including risks associated with vaginal births after a prior cesarean section, breech births, births by women experiencing high-risk pregnancies, and births involving multiple gestation, (v) provide for an appropriate license fee, and (vi) include requirements for licensure renewal and continuing education. Such regulations shall not (a) require any agreement, written or otherwise, with another health care professional or (b) require the assessment of a woman who is seeking midwifery services by another health care professional. A licensed midwife may obtain, possess, and administer drugs and devices that are used within the licensed midwife's scope of practice as determined by the North American Registry of Midwives Job Analysis. The Board of Medicine shall develop and publish best practice and standards of care guidance for all such drugs. The formulary shall not include any drug, as defined in § 54.1-3401, in Schedule I through V of the Drug Control Act. A licensed midwife may obtain medications and devices to treat conditions within the licensed midwife's scope of practice from entities including a pharmacy, as defined in § 54.1-3300, or a manufacturer, medical equipment supplier, outsourcing facility, warehouser, or wholesale distributor, as these terms are defined in § 54.1-3401. An entity that provides a medication to a licensed midwife in accordance with this section, and who relies in good faith upon the license information provided by the licensed midwife, is not subject to liability for providing the medication.

Completing all Alliance for Innovation on Maternal Health patient safety bundles advanced by the Virginia Neonatal Perinatal Collaborative shall be required of any licensed midwife who obtains, possesses, and administers drugs and devices within the scope of his practice.

License renewal shall be contingent upon maintaining a Certified Professional Midwife certification.

2005, cc. 719, 917; 2009, c. 646; 2016, c. 495; 2023, cc. 673, 674.

A. The Advisory Board on Midwifery is established as an advisory board in the executive branch of state government. The purpose of the Advisory Board is to assist the Board of Medicine in formulating regulations pertaining to the practice of midwifery. The Advisory Board shall also assist in such other matters relating to the practice of midwifery as the Board may require.

B. The Advisory Board shall consist of five nonlegislative citizen members to be appointed by the Governor, subject to confirmation by the General Assembly, including three Certified Professional Midwives, one doctor of medicine or osteopathy or certified nurse midwife who is licensed to practice in the Commonwealth and who has experience in out-of-hospital birth settings, and one citizen who has used out-of-hospital midwifery services. Nonlegislative citizen members of the Advisory Board shall be citizens of the Commonwealth of Virginia.

The initial appointments shall provide for staggered terms with two members being appointed for two-year terms, two members being appointed for three-year terms, and one member being appointed for a four-year term. Thereafter, nonlegislative citizen members shall be appointed for a term of four years. Appointments to fill vacancies, other than by expiration of a term, shall be for the unexpired terms. All members may be reappointed. However, no nonlegislative citizen member shall serve more than two consecutive four-year terms. The remainder of any term to which a member is appointed to fill a vacancy shall not constitute a term in determining the member's eligibility for reappointment. Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointments.

C. The Advisory Board shall elect a chairman and vice-chairman from among its membership. A majority of the members shall constitute a quorum. The meetings of the Advisory Board shall be held at the call of the chairman or whenever the majority of the members so request.

D. Members shall receive such compensation for the discharge of their duties as provided in § 2.2-2813. All members shall be reimbursed for reasonable and necessary expenses incurred in the discharge of their duties as provided in §§ 2.2-2813 and 2.2-2825. Funding for the costs of compensation and expenses of the members shall be provided by the Board of Medicine.

E. The Department of Health Professions shall provide staff support to the Advisory Board. All agencies of the Commonwealth shall provide assistance to the Advisory Board, upon request.

2005, cc. 719, 917; 2008, c. 36.

Any person practicing as a licensed midwife shall provide disclosure of specific information in writing to any client to whom midwifery care is provided. Such disclosure shall include (i) a description of the midwife's qualifications, experience, and training; (ii) a written protocol for medical emergencies, including hospital transport, particular to each client; (iii) a description of the midwives' model of care; (iv) a copy of the regulations governing the practice of midwifery; (v) a statement concerning the licensed midwife's malpractice or liability insurance coverage; (vi) a description of the right to file a complaint with the Board of Medicine and the procedures for filing such complaint; and (vii) such other information as the Board of Medicine determines is appropriate to allow the client to make an informed choice to select midwifery care.

2005, cc. 719, 917.

No person other than the licensed midwife who provided care to the patient shall be liable for the midwife's negligent, grossly negligent or willful and wanton acts or omissions. Except as otherwise provided by law, no other licensed midwife, doctor of medicine or osteopathy, nurse, prehospital emergency medical personnel, or hospital as defined in § 32.1-123, or agents thereof, shall be exempt from liability (i) for their own subsequent and independent negligent, grossly negligent or willful and wanton acts or omissions or (ii) if such person has a business relationship with the licensed midwife who provided care to the patient. A doctor of medicine or osteopathy, nurse, prehospital emergency medical person, or hospital as defined in § 32.1-123, or agents thereof, shall not be deemed to have established a business relationship or relationship of agency, employment, partnership, or joint venture with the licensed midwife solely by providing consultation to or accepting referral from the midwife.

2005, cc. 719, 917.

The provisions of §§ 54.1-2957.7 through 54.1-2957.12 shall not prevent or prohibit:

1. Any licensed midwife from delegating to an apprentice or personnel in his personal employ and supervised by him such activities or functions that are nondiscretionary and that do not require the exercise of professional judgment for their performance, if such activities or functions are authorized by and performed for the licensed midwife and responsibility for such activities or functions is assumed by the licensed midwife; or

2. Any person from performing tasks related to the practice of midwifery under the direct and immediate supervision of a licensed doctor of medicine or osteopathy, a certified nurse midwife, or a licensed midwife during completion of the North American Registry of Midwives' Portfolio Evaluation Process Program within a time period specified in regulations adopted by the Board or while enrolled in an accredited midwifery education program.

2005, cc. 719, 917.

A. The Advisory Board on Polysomnographic Technology shall assist the Board in carrying out the provisions of this chapter regarding the qualifications, examination, and regulation of licensed polysomnographic technologists.

The Advisory Board shall consist of five members appointed by the Governor for four-year terms. Three members shall be at the time of appointment polysomnographic technologists who have practiced for not less than three years, one member shall be a physician who specializes in the practice of sleep medicine and is licensed to practice medicine in the Commonwealth, and one member shall be appointed by the Governor from the Commonwealth at large.

Vacancies occurring other than by expiration of term shall be filled for the unexpired term. No person shall be eligible to serve on the Advisory Board for more than two consecutive terms.

B. The Advisory Board shall, under the authority of the Board, recommend to the Board for its enactment into regulation the criteria for licensure as a polysomnographic technologist and the standards of professional conduct for holders of polysomnographic licenses.

The Advisory Board shall also assist in such other matters dealing with polysomnographic technology as the Board may in its discretion direct.

2010, c. 838.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person not holding a current and valid license from the Board of Medicine to practice as a polysomnographic technologist or to assume the title "licensed polysomnographic technologist," "polysomnographic technologist," or "licensed sleep tech."

B. Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit a health care provider licensed pursuant to this title from engaging in the full scope of practice for which he is licensed, including, but not limited to, respiratory care professionals.

C. Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit a student enrolled in an educational program in polysomnographic technology or a person engaged in a traineeship from the practice of polysomnographic technology, provided that such student or trainee is under the direct supervision of a licensed polysomnographic technologist or a licensed doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine. Any such student or trainee shall be identified to patients as a student or trainee in polysomnographic technology. However, any such student or trainee shall be required to have a license to practice after 18 months from the start of the educational program or traineeship or six months from the conclusion of such program or traineeship, whichever is earlier.

D. For the purposes of this chapter, unless the context requires otherwise:

"Polysomnographic technology" means the process of analyzing, scoring, attended monitoring, and recording of physiologic data during sleep and wakefulness to assist in the clinical assessment and diagnosis of sleep/wake disorders and other disorders, syndromes, and dysfunctions that either are sleep related, manifest during sleep, or disrupt normal sleep/wake cycles and activities.

"Practice of polysomnographic technology" means the professional services practiced in any setting under the direction and supervision of a licensed physician involving the monitoring, testing, and treatment of individuals suffering from any sleep disorder. Other procedures include but are not limited to:

a. Application of electrodes and apparatus necessary to monitor and evaluate sleep disturbances, including application of devices that allow a physician to diagnose and treat sleep disorders, which disorders include but shall not be limited to insomnia, sleep-related breathing disorders, movement disorders, disorders of excessive somnolence, and parasomnias;

b. Under the direction of a physician, institution and evaluation of the effectiveness of therapeutic modalities and procedures including the therapeutic use of oxygen and positive airway pressure (PAP) devices, such as continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) and bi-level positive airway pressure of non-ventilated patients;

c. Initiation of cardiopulmonary resuscitation, maintenance of patient's airway (which does not include endotracheal intubation);

d. Transcription and implementation of physician orders pertaining to the practice of polysomnographic technology;

e. Initiation of treatment changes and testing techniques required for the implementation of polysomnographic protocols under the direction and supervision of a licensed physician; and

f. Education of patients and their families on the procedures and treatments used during polysomnographic technology or any equipment or procedure used for the treatment of any sleep disorder.

2010, c. 838; 2018, c. 98.

A. It is unlawful for any person to practice or to hold himself out as practicing as a behavior analyst or to use the title "Licensed Behavior Analyst" unless he holds a license as a behavior analyst issued by the Board. It is unlawful for any person to practice or to hold himself out as practicing as an assistant behavior analyst or to use the title "Licensed Assistant Behavior Analyst" unless he holds a license as an assistant behavior analyst issued by the Board. The Board shall issue licenses to practice as a behavior analyst or an assistant behavior analyst to applicants for licensure who meet the requirements of this chapter and the Board's regulations.

B. The Board shall establish criteria for licensure as a behavior analyst, which shall include, but not be limited to, the following:

1. Documentation that the applicant is currently certified as a Board Certified Behavior Analyst by the Behavior Analyst Certification Board or its successor;

2. Documentation that the applicant conducts his professional practice in accordance with the Behavior Analyst Certification Board ethics code for behavior analysts and any other accepted professional and ethical standards the Board deems necessary; and

3. Documentation that the applicant for licensure has not had his license or certification as a behavior analyst or as an assistant behavior analyst suspended or revoked and is not the subject of any disciplinary proceedings by the certifying board or in another jurisdiction.

C. The Board shall establish criteria for licensure as an assistant behavior analyst, which shall include, but not be limited to, the following:

1. Documentation that the applicant is currently certified as a Board Certified Assistant Behavior Analyst by the Behavior Analyst Certification Board or its successor;

2. Documentation that the applicant conducts his professional practice in accordance with the Behavior Analyst Certification Board ethics code for behavior analysts and any other accepted professional and ethical standards the Board deems necessary;

3. Documentation that the applicant for licensure has not had his license or certification as an assistant behavior analyst suspended or revoked and is not the subject of any disciplinary proceedings by the certifying board or in another jurisdiction; and

4. Documentation that the applicant's work is supervised by a licensed behavior analyst in accordance with the supervision requirements and procedures established by the Board.

D. The Board shall promulgate such regulations as may be necessary to implement the provisions of this chapter related to (i) application for and issuance of licenses to behavior analysts or assistant behavior analysts, (ii) requirements for licensure as a behavior analyst or an assistant behavior analyst, (iii) standards of practice for licensed behavior analysts or licensed assistant behavior analysts, (iv) requirements and procedures for the supervision of a licensed assistant behavior analyst by a licensed behavior analyst, and (v) requirements and procedures for supervision by licensed behavior analysts and licensed assistant behavior analysts of unlicensed individuals who assist in the provision of applied behavior analysis services.

E. The Board shall establish a fee, determined in accordance with methods used to establish fees for other health professionals licensed by the Board of Medicine, to be paid by all applicants for licensure as a behavior analyst or assistant behavior analyst.

2012, c. 3; 2023, cc. 693, 694.

A. The provisions of § 54.1-2957.16 shall not be construed as prohibiting any professional licensed, certified, or registered by a health regulatory board from acting within the scope of his practice.

B. The provisions of § 54.1-2957.16 shall not be construed as prohibiting or restricting the applied behavior analysis activities of a student participating in a defined course, internship, practicum, or program of study at an institution of higher education, provided such activities are supervised by a member of the faculty of the institution or by a licensed behavior analyst and such student does not hold himself out as a licensed behavior analyst and is identified as a "behavior analyst student," "behavior analyst intern," or "behavior analyst trainee."

C. The provisions of § 54.1-2957.16 shall not be construed as prohibiting or restricting the activities of unlicensed individuals pursuing supervised experiential training to meet eligibility requirements for certification by the Behavior Analyst Certification Board or for state licensure, provided such activities are supervised by a licensed behavior analyst who has been approved by the Behavior Analyst Certification Board to provide supervision, the individual does not hold himself out as a licensed behavior analyst, and no more than five years have elapsed from the date on which the supervised experiential training began.

D. The provisions of § 54.1-2957.16 shall not be construed as prohibiting or restricting the activities of an individual employed by a school board or by a school for students with disabilities licensed by the Board of Education from providing behavior analysis when such behavior analysis is performed as part of the regular duties of his office or position and he receives no compensation in excess of the compensation he regularly receives for the performance of the duties of his office or position. No person exempted from licensure pursuant to this subsection shall hold himself out as a licensed behavior analyst or a licensed assistant behavior analyst unless he holds a license as such issued by the Board.

2012, c. 3; 2014, c. 584.

A. The Advisory Board on Behavior Analysis (Advisory Board) shall assist the Board in carrying out the provisions of this chapter regarding the qualifications, examination, and regulation of licensed behavior analysts and licensed assistant behavior analysts.

B. The Advisory Board shall consist of five members appointed by the Governor for four-year terms as follows: two members shall be, at the time of appointment, licensed behavior analysts who have practiced for at least three years; one member shall be, at the time of appointment, a licensed assistant behavior analyst who has practiced for not less than three years; one member shall be a physician licensed by the Board who is familiar with the principles of behavior analysis; and one member shall be a consumer of applied behavior analysis who does not hold a license as a behavior analyst or assistant behavior analyst who is appointed by the Governor from the Commonwealth at large. Vacancies occurring other than by expiration of terms shall be filled for the unexpired term.

C. The Advisory Board shall, under the authority of the Board, recommend to the Board for its enactment into regulation the criteria for licensure as a behavior analyst or an assistant behavior analyst and the standards of professional conduct for holders of such licenses.

The Advisory Board shall also assist in such other matters relating to behavior analysis as the Board in its discretion may direct.

2014, c. 584.

A. The Board shall adopt regulations governing the practice of genetic counseling, upon consultation with the Advisory Board on Genetic Counseling. The regulations shall (i) set forth the requirements for licensure to practice genetic counseling, (ii) provide for appropriate application and renewal fees, (iii) include requirements for licensure renewal and continuing education, (iv) be consistent with the American Board of Genetic Counseling's current job description for the profession and the standards of practice of the National Society of Genetic Counselors, and (v) allow for independent practice.

B. It shall be unlawful for a person to practice or hold himself out as practicing genetic counseling in the Commonwealth without a valid, unrevoked license issued by the Board. No unlicensed person may use in connection with his name or place of business the title "genetic counselor," "licensed genetic counselor," "gene counselor," "genetic consultant," or "genetic associate" or any words, letters, abbreviations, or insignia indicating or implying a person holds a genetic counseling license.

C. An applicant for licensure as a genetic counselor shall submit evidence satisfactory to the Board that the applicant (i) has earned a master's degree from a genetic counseling training program that is accredited by the Accreditation Council of Genetic Counseling and (ii) holds a current, valid certificate issued by the American Board of Genetic Counseling or American Board of Medical Genetics to practice genetic counseling.

D. The Board shall waive the requirements of a master's degree and American Board of Genetic Counseling or American Board of Medical Genetics certification for license applicants who (i) apply for licensure before December 31, 2018, or within 90 days of the effective date of the regulations promulgated by the Board pursuant to subsection A, whichever is later; (ii) comply with the Board's regulations relating to the National Society of Genetic Counselors Code of Ethics; (iii) have at least 20 years of documented work experience practicing genetic counseling; (iv) submit two letters of recommendation, one from a genetic counselor and another from a physician; and (v) have completed, within the last five years, 25 hours of continuing education approved by the National Society of Genetic Counselors or the American Board of Genetic Counseling.

E. The Board may grant a temporary license to an applicant who has been granted Active Candidate Status by the American Board of Genetic Counseling and has paid the temporary license fee. Temporary licenses shall be valid for a period of up to one year. An applicant shall not be eligible for temporary license renewal upon expiration of Active Candidate Status as defined by the American Board of Genetic Counseling. A person practicing genetic counseling under a temporary license shall be supervised by a licensed genetic counselor or physician.

2014, cc. 10, 266; 2017, c. 422.

The provisions of this chapter shall not prohibit:

1. A licensed and qualified health care provider from practicing within his scope of practice, provided he does not use the title "genetic counselor" or any other title tending to indicate he is a genetic counselor unless licensed in the Commonwealth;

2. A student from performing genetic counseling as part of an approved academic program in genetic counseling, provided he is supervised by a licensed genetic counselor and designated by a title clearly indicating his status as a student or trainee; or

3. A person who holds a current, valid certificate issued by the American Board of Genetic Counseling or American Board of Medical Genetics to practice genetic counseling, who is employed by a rare disease organization located in another jurisdiction, and who complies with the licensure requirements of that jurisdiction from providing genetic counseling in the Commonwealth fewer than 10 days per year.

2014, cc. 10, 266.

Repealed by Acts 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 240, cl. 1, effective July 1, 2021.

A. The Advisory Board on Genetic Counseling (Advisory Board) is established as an advisory board in the executive branch of state government. The Advisory Board shall assist the Board of Medicine in formulating regulations related to the practice of genetic counseling. The Advisory Board shall also assist in such other matters relating to the practice of genetic counseling as the Board may require.

B. The Advisory Board shall consist of five nonlegislative citizen members to be appointed by the Governor, subject to confirmation by the General Assembly, and shall include three licensed genetic counselors, one doctor of medicine or osteopathy who has experience with genetic counseling services, and one nonlegislative citizen member who has used genetic counseling services. Members of the Advisory Board shall be citizens of the Commonwealth.

After the initial staggering of terms, members shall be appointed for a term of four years. Appointments to fill vacancies, other than by expiration of a term, shall be for the unexpired terms. All members may be reappointed. However, no member shall serve more than two consecutive four-year terms. The remainder of any term to which a member is appointed to fill a vacancy shall not constitute a term in determining the member's eligibility for reappointment. Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointments.

2014, cc. 10, 266.

Article 5. Approval of Educational Programs.

The Board may promulgate regulations and guidelines for determining the acceptability of courses of study and educational institutions in foreign countries. These regulations and guidelines shall include time limitations within which approval shall be granted or denied and for reapplication in cases of denial of approval, as well as notice of deficiencies in need of remediation, and a procedure for applying for renewal of approval.

The proceedings for approval shall be conducted pursuant to the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.). The Board shall assess any institution electing formal proceedings under § 2.2-4020 the cost of such proceedings. These costs shall be limited to (i) the actual cost of recording the proceedings, including the preparation of a transcript, and (ii) the costs of the site visit committee, if deemed necessary by the Board, and preparation of the committee's testimony.

1985, c. 337, § 54-306.1:2; 1988, c. 765.

A. Students enrolled in schools of medicine may (i) participate in preceptorship programs that are a part of the training program of the medical school or (ii) practice in clinics, hospitals, educational institutions, private medical offices, or other health facilities, in a program approved by the school, under the direct tutorial supervision of a licensed physician who holds an appointment on the faculty of a school of medicine approved by the Board.

B. Students enrolled in chiropractic schools may (i) participate in preceptorship programs that are a part of the training program of the chiropractic school or (ii) practice in clinics, hospitals, educational institutions, private medical offices, or other health facilities, in a program approved by the school, under the direct tutorial supervision of a licensed chiropractor who holds an appointment on the faculty of a chiropractic school approved by the Board.

C. Students participating in a course of professional instruction or clinical training program shall not perform a pelvic examination on an anesthetized or unconscious female patient unless the patient or her authorized agent gives informed consent to such examination, the performance of such examination is within the scope of care ordered for the patient, or in the case of a patient incapable of giving informed consent, the examination is necessary for diagnosis or treatment of such patient.

1984, c. 710, § 54-276.7:2; 1988, c. 765; 2007, c. 678; 2015, c. 122.

Subject to such restrictions as the Board, in consultation with the deans of the medical schools of this Commonwealth, may prescribe by regulation, third and fourth year medical students engaged in a course of study approved by the Board may be employed by legally established and licensed hospitals to prepare medical history information and perform physical examinations where such practice is confined strictly to persons who are bona fide patients within the hospital or who receive treatment and advice in an outpatient department of the hospital. Such students shall be responsible and accountable at all times to a licensed physician member of the hospital staff. This section shall not have the effect of removing the responsibility of the attending physician to assure that a licensed physician shall do a history and physical examination on each hospitalized patient.

1977, c. 568, § 54-276.7:1; 1988, c. 765.

A. Interns and residents holding temporary licenses may be employed in a legally established and licensed hospital, medical school or other organization operating an approved graduate medical education program when their practice is confined to persons who are bona fide patients within the hospital or other organization or who receive treatment and advice in an outpatient department of the hospital or an institution affiliated with the graduate medical education program.

B. Such intern or resident shall be responsible and accountable at all times to a licensed member of the staff. The training of interns and residents shall be consistent with the requirements of the agencies cited in subsection D and the policies and procedures of the hospital, medical school or other organization operating a graduate medical education program. No intern or resident holding a temporary license may be employed by any hospital or other organization operating an approved graduate medical education program unless he has completed successfully the preliminary academic education required for admission to examinations given by the Board in his particular field of practice.

C. No intern or resident holding a temporary license shall serve in any hospital or other organization operating an approved graduate medical education program in this Commonwealth for longer than the time prescribed by the graduate medical education program. The Board may prescribe regulations not in conflict with existing law and require such reports from hospitals or other organizations in the Commonwealth as may be necessary to carry out the provisions of this section.

D. Such employment shall be a part of an internship or residency training program approved by the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education or American Osteopathic Association or American Podiatric Medical Association or Council on Chiropractic Education. No unlicensed intern or resident may be employed as an intern or resident by any hospital or other organization operating an approved graduate medical education program. The Board may determine the extent and scope of the duties and professional services which may be rendered by interns and residents.

E. The Board of Medicine shall adopt guidelines concerning the ethical practice of physicians practicing in emergency rooms, surgeons, and interns and residents practicing in hospitals, particularly hospital emergency rooms, or other organizations operating graduate medical education programs. These guidelines shall not be construed to be or to establish standards of care or to be regulations and shall be exempt from the requirements of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.). The Medical College of Virginia of Virginia Commonwealth University, the University of Virginia School of Medicine, the Eastern Virginia Medical School, the Medical Society of Virginia, and the Virginia Hospital and Health Care Association shall cooperate with the Board in the development of these guidelines.

The guidelines shall include, but need not be limited to (i) the obtaining of informed consent from all patients or from the next of kin or legally authorized representative, to the extent practical under the circumstances in which medical care is being rendered, when the patient is incapable of making an informed decision, after such patients or other persons have been informed as to which physicians, residents, or interns will perform the surgery or other invasive procedure; (ii) except in emergencies and other unavoidable situations, the need, consistent with the informed consent, for an attending physician to be present during the surgery or other invasive procedure; (iii) policies to avoid situations, unless the circumstances fall within an exception in the Board's guidelines or the policies of the relevant hospital, medical school or other organization operating the graduate medical education program, in which a surgeon, intern or resident represents that he will perform a surgery or other invasive procedure that he then fails to perform; and (iv) policies addressing informed consent and the ethics of appropriate care of patients in emergency rooms. Such policies shall take into consideration the nonbinding ban developed by the American Medical Association in 2000 on using newly dead patients as training subjects without the consent of the next of kin or other legal representative to extent practical under the circumstances in which medical care is being rendered.

F. The Board shall publish and distribute the guidelines required by subsection E to its licensees.

Code 1950, § 54-276.7; 1952, c. 690; 1958, c. 294; 1964, c. 284; 1975, c. 508; 1978, c. 408; 1986, c. 307; 1987, c. 44; 1988, c. 765; 1998, c. 614; 2002, cc. 87, 478; 2003, c. 482.

A. Interns and residents holding temporary licenses may be employed in a legally established and licensed hospital, medical school or other organization operating an approved graduate medical education program when their practice is confined to persons who are bona fide patients within the hospital or other organization or who receive treatment and advice in an outpatient department of the hospital or an institution affiliated with the graduate medical education program.

B. Such intern or resident shall be responsible and accountable at all times to a licensed member of the staff. The training of interns and residents shall be consistent with the requirements of the agencies cited in subsection D and the policies and procedures of the hospital, medical school or other organization operating a graduate medical education program. No intern or resident holding a temporary license may be employed by any hospital or other organization operating an approved graduate medical education program unless he has completed successfully the preliminary academic education required for admission to examinations given by the Board in his particular field of practice.

C. No intern or resident holding a temporary license shall serve in any hospital or other organization operating an approved graduate medical education program in this Commonwealth for longer than the time prescribed by the graduate medical education program. The Board may prescribe regulations not in conflict with existing law and require such reports from hospitals or other organizations in the Commonwealth as may be necessary to carry out the provisions of this section.

D. Such employment shall be a part of an internship or residency training program approved by the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education or American Osteopathic Association or American Podiatric Medical Association or Council on Chiropractic Education. No unlicensed intern or resident may be employed as an intern or resident by any hospital or other organization operating an approved graduate medical education program. The Board may determine the extent and scope of the duties and professional services which may be rendered by interns and residents.

E. The Board of Medicine shall adopt guidelines concerning the ethical practice of physicians practicing in emergency rooms, surgeons, and interns and residents practicing in hospitals, particularly hospital emergency rooms, or other organizations operating graduate medical education programs. These guidelines shall not be construed to be or to establish standards of care or to be regulations and shall be exempt from the requirements of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.). The Medical College of Virginia of Virginia Commonwealth University, the University of Virginia School of Medicine, the Eastern Virginia Health Sciences Center at Old Dominion University, the Medical Society of Virginia, and the Virginia Hospital and Health Care Association shall cooperate with the Board in the development of these guidelines.

The guidelines shall include, but need not be limited to (i) the obtaining of informed consent from all patients or from the next of kin or legally authorized representative, to the extent practical under the circumstances in which medical care is being rendered, when the patient is incapable of making an informed decision, after such patients or other persons have been informed as to which physicians, residents, or interns will perform the surgery or other invasive procedure; (ii) except in emergencies and other unavoidable situations, the need, consistent with the informed consent, for an attending physician to be present during the surgery or other invasive procedure; (iii) policies to avoid situations, unless the circumstances fall within an exception in the Board's guidelines or the policies of the relevant hospital, medical school or other organization operating the graduate medical education program, in which a surgeon, intern or resident represents that he will perform a surgery or other invasive procedure that he then fails to perform; and (iv) policies addressing informed consent and the ethics of appropriate care of patients in emergency rooms. Such policies shall take into consideration the nonbinding ban developed by the American Medical Association in 2000 on using newly dead patients as training subjects without the consent of the next of kin or other legal representative to extent practical under the circumstances in which medical care is being rendered.

F. The Board shall publish and distribute the guidelines required by subsection E to its licensees.

Code 1950, § 54-276.7; 1952, c. 690; 1958, c. 294; 1964, c. 284; 1975, c. 508; 1978, c. 408; 1986, c. 307; 1987, c. 44; 1988, c. 765; 1998, c. 614; 2002, cc. 87, 478; 2003, c. 482; 2023, cc. 756, 778.

Article 6. General Standards of Practice.

A. No physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy in the Commonwealth shall:

1. Knowingly and willfully, directly or indirectly, share any professional fee received for the provision of health services, as defined in § 54.1-2410, to a patient with another physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy in the Commonwealth in return for such other physician's making a referral, as defined in § 54.1-2410, of such patient to the physician providing such health services; or

2. Accept any portion of a professional fee paid to another physician licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy in the Commonwealth for the provision of health services, as defined in § 54.1-2410, to a patient in return for making a referral, as defined in § 54.1-2410, of such patient to the physician providing such health services.

B. This chapter shall not be construed as prohibiting (i) the members of any regularly organized partnership or group practice, as defined in § 54.1-2410, of physicians licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy in the Commonwealth from making any division of their total fees among themselves as they may determine or using their joint fees to defray their joint operating costs; (ii) arrangements permitted under the Practitioner Self-Referral Act (§ 54.1-2410 et seq.); or (iii) payments, business arrangements, or payment practices that would be permitted in accordance with 42 U.S.C. § 1320a-7b(b)(3) if such payments, business arrangements, or payment practices involved an underlying payment source that was a federal health care program, as defined in 42 U.S.C. § 1320a-7b(f), regardless of whether the underlying payment source actually is a federal health care program or other bona fide payment source.

C. Any person violating the provisions of this section is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

Code 1950, § 54-278; 1956, c. 389; 1988, c. 765; 2016, cc. 76, 104.

A. No practitioner licensed in accordance with the provisions of this chapter shall charge a fee for anatomic pathology services that is greater than the amount billed to the practitioner for the actual performance of such anatomic pathology services when such services are (i) performed by a person other than the practitioner or (ii) performed by a person not under the supervision of the practitioner.

B. A practitioner may charge a fee for specimen collection and transportation, provided the fee conforms to the current procedural terminology codes for procedures and services of the American Medical Association and the patient is made aware of the fee in writing prior to collection. For the purposes of this section, "anatomic pathology services" include the gross or microscopic examination and histological processing of human organ tissue; the examination of human cells from fluids, aspirates, washings, brushings, or smears; or other subcellular or molecular pathology services.

2014, c. 81.

No practitioner of the healing arts shall knowingly and willfully solicit or receive any remuneration directly or indirectly, in cash or in kind, in return for referring an individual or individuals to a facility or institution as defined in § 37.2-100 or a hospital as defined in § 32.1-123. The Board shall adopt regulations as necessary to carry out the provisions of this section. Such regulations shall exclude from the definition of "remuneration" any payments, business arrangements, or payment practices not prohibited by Title 42, Section 1320a-7b (b) of the United States Code, as amended, or any regulations promulgated pursuant thereto.

1990, c. 379.

A. Any physician-patient relationship that may be created by virtue of an on-call physician or his agent evaluating or treating a patient in the emergency department of a corporation, facility or institution licensed or owned or operated by the Commonwealth to provide health care shall be deemed terminated without further notice upon the discharge of the patient from the emergency department or if the patient is admitted to the corporation, facility or institution, his discharge therefrom, and after completion of follow-up as prescribed by the physician, unless the physician and the patient affirmatively elect to continue the physician-patient relationship.

B. Nothing in this section shall relieve a physician of his post-discharge duties required to satisfy the standard of care pursuant to § 8.01-581.20.

2004, c. 878.

The Board shall have authority to promulgate regulations regulating the sale of vitamins or food supplements by any practitioner of the healing arts from the office in which he practices.

1984, c. 325, § 54-278.2; 1988, c. 765.

Any physician shall have the authority to disclose fully all medical treatment options to patients whether or not such treatment options are (i) experimental or covered services, (ii) services that the health insurer will not authorize, or (iii) the costs of the treatment will be borne by the health insurer or the patient to facilitate an informed decision by the patient, if the physician determines that such an option is in the best interest of the patient. Any physician who discloses information concerning other medical treatment options to a person with whom he has established a physician-patient relationship shall not be liable to any health insurer, in an action instituted solely on behalf of the health insurer, for any civil damages resulting from the disclosure of such information. This section shall not affect any cause of action a patient may have against a physician.

For the purposes of this section, "medical treatment options" means any alternative or experimental therapeutic, psychiatric, medical treatment or procedure, health care service, drug, or remedy.

2004, c. 675.

A. Any practitioner of the healing arts shall, prior to referral of a patient to any facility or entity engaged in the provision of health-related services, appliances or devices, including but not limited to physical therapy, hearing testing, or sale or fitting of hearing aids or eyeglasses provide the patient with a notice in bold print that discloses any known material financial interest of or ownership by the practitioner in such facility or entity and states that the services, appliances or devices may be available from other suppliers in the community. In making any such referral, the practitioner of the healing arts may render such recommendations as he considers appropriate, but shall advise the patient of his freedom of choice in the selection of such facility or entity. This section shall not be construed to permit any of the practices prohibited in § 54.1-2914 or Chapter 24.1 (§ 54.1-2410 et seq.) of this title.

In addition, any practitioner of the healing arts shall, prior to ordering any medical test from an independent clinical laboratory for a patient, provide the patient with notice in bold print that discloses any known material financial interest or ownership by the practitioner in such laboratory unless the independent clinical laboratory is operated by a publicly held corporation. The practitioner shall inform the patient about the accreditation status and credentials of the laboratory.

B. The Attorney General, an attorney of the Commonwealth, the attorney for a city, county or town, or any aggrieved patient may cause an action to be brought in the appropriate circuit court in the name of the Commonwealth, of the county, city or town, or of any aggrieved patient, to enjoin any violation of this section. The circuit court having jurisdiction may enjoin such violations, notwithstanding the existence of an adequate remedy at law. When an injunction is issued, the circuit court may impose a civil fine to be paid to the Literary Fund not to exceed $1,000. In any action under this section, it shall not be necessary that damages be proven.

1986, c. 348, § 54-278.3; 1988, cc. 765, 874; 1989, c. 282; 1993, c. 869.

Repealed by Acts 1991, c. 643.

A. Any physician who, in good faith, reports the existence, or probable existence, of a mental or physical disability or infirmity in any person licensed or certificated to operate any type of aircraft, or any applicant for a license or certificate to operate any type of aircraft, to a governmental agency which is responsible for issuing, renewing, revoking or suspending such licenses or certificates, or which is responsible for air safety, which the physician believes will or reasonably could affect such person's ability to safely operate the aircraft he is licensed or certificated, or is seeking to be licensed or certificated, to operate shall not be liable for any civil damages resulting from such reporting, regardless of whether such person is, or has been, a patient of such physician, except when such reporting was done with malice.

B. Notwithstanding any provision of § 8.01-399, any physician may testify in any administrative hearing or other proceeding regarding the issuance, renewal, revocation or suspension of any license or certificate to pilot an aircraft of any person, regardless of whether such person is, or has been, a patient of such physician, giving evidence of the existence or probable existence, of a mental or physical disability or infirmity.

1978, c. 561, § 54-276.9:1; 1988, c. 765.

Repealed by Acts 2017, cc. 712 and 720, cl. 2.

Any physician or other person who renders any medical aid or treatment to any person for any wound which such physician or other person knows or has reason to believe is a wound inflicted by a weapon specified in § 18.2-308 and which wound such physician or other person believes or has reason to believe was not self-inflicted shall as soon as practicable report such fact, including the wounded person's name and address, if known, to the sheriff or chief of police of the county or city in which treatment is rendered. If such medical aid or treatment is rendered in a hospital or similar institution, such physician or other person rendering such medical aid or treatment shall immediately notify the person in charge of such hospital or similar institution, who shall make such report forthwith.

Any physician or other person failing to comply with this section shall be guilty of a Class 3 misdemeanor. Any person participating in the making of a report pursuant to this section or participating in a judicial proceeding resulting therefrom shall be immune from any civil liability in connection therewith, unless it is proved that such person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

1970, c. 531, § 54-276.10; 1972, c. 194; 1975, c. 508; 1976, c. 331; 1979, c. 715; 1988, c. 765.

This chapter shall not be construed to prohibit any duly licensed physician from communicating the identity of any person under age 22 who has a physical or mental disability to appropriate agencies of the Commonwealth or any of its political subdivisions and other information regarding such person or condition which may be helpful to the agency in the planning or conduct of services for individuals with disabilities.

1972, c. 431, § 54-276.11; 1988, c. 765; 2023, cc. 148, 149.

A. Whenever any minor who has been separated from the custody of his parent or guardian is in need of surgical or medical treatment, authority commensurate with that of a parent in like cases is conferred, for the purpose of giving consent to such surgical or medical treatment, as follows:

1. Upon judges with respect to minors whose custody is within the control of their respective courts.

2. Upon local directors of social services or their designees with respect to (i) minors who are committed to the care and custody of the local board by courts of competent jurisdiction, (ii) minors who are taken into custody pursuant to § 63.2-1517, and (iii) minors who are entrusted to the local board by the parent, parents or guardian, when the consent of the parent or guardian cannot be obtained immediately and, in the absence of such consent, a court order for such treatment cannot be obtained immediately.

3. Upon the Director of the Department of Corrections or the Director of the Department of Juvenile Justice or his designees with respect to any minor who is sentenced or committed to his custody.

4. Upon the principal executive officers of state institutions with respect to the wards of such institutions.

5. Upon the principal executive officer of any other institution or agency legally qualified to receive minors for care and maintenance separated from their parents or guardians, with respect to any minor whose custody is within the control of such institution or agency.

6. Upon any person standing in loco parentis, or upon a conservator or custodian for his ward or other charge under disability.

B. Whenever the consent of the parent or guardian of any minor who is in need of surgical or medical treatment is unobtainable because such parent or guardian is not a resident of the Commonwealth or his whereabouts is unknown or he cannot be consulted with promptness reasonable under the circumstances, authority commensurate with that of a parent in like cases is conferred, for the purpose of giving consent to such surgical or medical treatment, upon judges of juvenile and domestic relations district courts.

C. Whenever delay in providing medical or surgical treatment to a minor may adversely affect such minor's recovery and no person authorized in this section to consent to such treatment for such minor is available within a reasonable time under the circumstances, no liability shall be imposed upon qualified emergency medical services personnel as defined in § 32.1-111.1 at the scene of an accident, fire or other emergency, a licensed health professional, or a licensed hospital by reason of lack of consent to such medical or surgical treatment. However, in the case of a minor 14 years of age or older who is physically capable of giving consent, such consent shall be obtained first.

D. Whenever delay in providing transportation to a minor from the scene of an accident, fire or other emergency prior to hospital admission may adversely affect such minor's recovery and no person authorized in this section to consent to such transportation for such minor is available within a reasonable time under the circumstances, no liability shall be imposed upon emergency medical services personnel as defined in § 32.1-111.1, by reason of lack of consent to such transportation. However, in the case of a minor 14 years of age or older who is physically capable of giving consent, such consent shall be obtained first.

E. A minor shall be deemed an adult for the purpose of consenting to:

1. Medical or health services needed to determine the presence of or to treat venereal disease or any infectious or contagious disease that the State Board of Health requires to be reported;

2. Medical or health services required in case of birth control, pregnancy or family planning except for the purposes of sexual sterilization;

3. Medical or health services needed in the case of outpatient care, treatment or rehabilitation for substance abuse as defined in § 37.2-100; or

4. Medical or health services needed in the case of outpatient care, treatment or rehabilitation for mental illness or emotional disturbance.

A minor shall also be deemed an adult for the purpose of accessing or authorizing the disclosure of medical records related to subdivisions 1 through 4.

F. Except for the purposes of sexual sterilization, any minor who is or has been married shall be deemed an adult for the purpose of giving consent to surgical and medical treatment.

G. A pregnant minor shall be deemed an adult for the sole purpose of giving consent for herself and her child to surgical and medical treatment relating to the delivery of her child when such surgical or medical treatment is provided during the delivery of the child or the duration of the hospital admission for such delivery; thereafter, the minor mother of such child shall also be deemed an adult for the purpose of giving consent to surgical and medical treatment for her child.

H. Any minor 16 years of age or older may, with the consent of a parent or legal guardian, consent to donate blood and may donate blood if such minor meets donor eligibility requirements. However, parental consent to donate blood by any minor 17 years of age shall not be required if such minor receives no consideration for his blood donation and the procurer of the blood is a nonprofit, voluntary organization.

I. Any judge, local director of social services, Director of the Department of Corrections, Director of the Department of Juvenile Justice, or principal executive officer of any state or other institution or agency who consents to surgical or medical treatment of a minor in accordance with this section shall make a reasonable effort to notify the minor's parent or guardian of such action as soon as practicable.

J. Nothing in subsection G shall be construed to permit a minor to consent to an abortion without complying with § 16.1-241.

K. Nothing in subsection E shall prevent a parent, legal guardian or person standing in loco parentis from obtaining (i) the results of a minor's nondiagnostic drug test when the minor is not receiving care, treatment or rehabilitation for substance abuse as defined in § 37.2-100 or (ii) a minor's other health records, except when the minor's treating physician, clinical psychologist, clinical social worker, or licensed professional counselor has determined, in the exercise of his professional judgment, that the disclosure of health records to the parent, legal guardian, or person standing in loco parentis would be reasonably likely to cause substantial harm to the minor or another person pursuant to subsection B of § 20-124.6.

Code 1950, § 32-137; 1968, c. 71; 1970, c. 232, § 54-325.2; 1971, Ex. Sess., c. 183; 1972, cc. 323, 823; 1973, c. 337; 1974, cc. 44, 45, 639; 1977, cc. 523, 525; 1978, cc. 10, 401; 1979, c. 720; 1981, cc. 22, 454, 573; 1984, c. 72; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 733; 1999, c. 1001; 2000, c. 798; 2002, cc. 315, 747; 2005, cc. 181, 227; 2008, c. 330; 2020, c. 945; 2022, c. 509.

When a delay in treatment might adversely affect recovery, a licensed health professional or licensed hospital shall not be subject to liability arising out of a claim based on lack of informed consent or be prohibited from providing surgical, medical or dental treatment to an individual who is receiving service in a facility operated by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services or who is receiving case management services from a community services board or behavioral health authority and who is incapable of giving informed consent to the treatment by reason of mental illness or intellectual disability under the following conditions:

1. No legally authorized guardian or committee was available to give consent;

2. A reasonable effort is made to advise a parent or other next of kin of the need for the surgical, medical or dental treatment;

3. No reasonable objection is raised by or on behalf of the alleged incapacitated person; and

4. Two physicians, or in the case of dental treatment, two dentists or one dentist and one physician, state in writing that they have made a good faith effort to explain the necessary treatment to the individual, and they have probable cause to believe that the individual is incapacitated and unable to consent to the treatment by reason of mental illness or intellectual disability and that delay in treatment might adversely affect recovery.

The provisions of this section shall apply only to the treatment of physical injury or illness and not to any treatment for a mental, emotional or psychological condition.

Treatment pursuant to this section of an individual's mental, emotional or psychological condition when the individual is unable to make an informed decision and when no legally authorized guardian or committee is available to provide consent shall be governed by regulations adopted by the State Board of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services under § 37.2-400.

Code 1950, § 32-137.01; 1979, c. 212, § 54-325.2:1; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 591; 1997, c. 801; 2002, c. 80; 2009, cc. 813, 840; 2012, cc. 476, 507.

A. A licensed physician, a physician assistant, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a registered nurse may perform a physical evidence recovery kit examination for a person who is believed to be the victim of a sexual assault and who is incapable of making an informed decision regarding consent to such examination when:

1. There is a need to conduct the examination before the victim is likely to be able to make an informed decision in order to preserve physical evidence of the alleged sexual assault from degradation;

2. No legally authorized representative or other person authorized to consent to medical treatment on the individual's behalf is reasonably available to provide consent within the time necessary to preserve physical evidence of the alleged sexual assault; and

3. A capacity reviewer, as defined in § 54.1-2982, provides written certification that, based upon a personal examination of the individual, the individual is incapable of making an informed decision regarding the physical evidence recovery kit examination and that, given the totality of the circumstances, the examination should be performed. The capacity reviewer who provides such written certification shall not be otherwise currently involved in the treatment of the person assessed, unless an independent capacity reviewer is not reasonably available.

A1. For purposes of this section, if a parent or guardian of a minor refuses to consent to a physical evidence recovery kit examination of the minor, the minor may consent.

B. Any physical evidence recovery kit examination performed pursuant to this section shall be performed in accordance with the requirements of §§ 19.2-11.2 and 19.2-165.1 and shall protect the alleged victim's identity.

C. A licensed physician, a physician assistant, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a registered nurse who exercises due care under the provisions of this act shall not be liable for any act or omission related to performance of an examination in accordance with this section.

2013, cc. 441, 532; 2016, c. 251; 2023, c. 183.

Repealed by Acts 2008, cc. 35 and 77.

A. Consistent with § 54.1-3408.1, a physician may prescribe a dosage of a pain-relieving agent in excess of the recommended dosage upon certifying the medical necessity for the excess dosage in the patient's medical record. Any practitioner who prescribes, dispenses or administers an excess dosage in accordance with this section and § 54.1-3408.1 shall not be in violation of the provisions of this title because of such excess dosage, if such excess dosage is prescribed, dispensed or administered in good faith for recognized medicinal or therapeutic purposes.

B. The Board of Medicine shall advise physicians of the provisions of this section and § 54.1-3408.1.

1995, c. 277.

Before a physician commences treatment of a patient by in vitro fertilization, gamete intrafallopian tube transfer, or zygote intrafallopian tube transfer, including the administration of drugs for the stimulation or suppression of ovulation prefatory thereto, a disclosure form shall have been executed by the patient which includes, but need not be limited to, the rates of success for the particular procedure at the clinic or hospital where the procedure is to be performed. The information disclosed to the patient shall include the testing protocol used to ensure that gamete donors are free from known infection with human immunodeficiency viruses, the total number of live births, the number of live births as a percentage of completed retrieval cycles, and the rates for clinical pregnancy and delivery per completed retrieval cycle bracketed by age groups consisting of women under thirty years of age, women aged thirty through thirty-four years, women aged thirty-five through thirty-nine years, and women aged forty years and older.

1991, c. 492; 1995, c. 519.

A. As used in this section, "autonomous nurse practitioner" means a nurse practitioner who is authorized to practice without a practice agreement pursuant to subsection I of § 54.1-2957.

B. A person shall be medically and legally dead if:

1. In the opinion of a physician duly authorized to practice medicine in the Commonwealth or autonomous nurse practitioner, based on the ordinary standards of medical practice, there is the absence of spontaneous respiratory and spontaneous cardiac functions and, because of the disease or condition that directly or indirectly caused these functions to cease, or because of the passage of time since these functions ceased, attempts at resuscitation would not, in the opinion of such physician or autonomous nurse practitioner, be successful in restoring spontaneous life-sustaining functions, and, in such event, death shall be deemed to have occurred at the time these functions ceased; or

2. In the opinion of a physician, who shall be duly licensed to practice medicine in the Commonwealth and board-eligible or board-certified in the field of neurology, neurosurgery, or critical care medicine, when based on the ordinary standards of medical practice, there is irreversible cessation of all functions of the entire brain, including the brain stem, and, in the opinion of such physician, based on the ordinary standards of medical practice and considering the irreversible cessation of all functions of the entire brain, including the brain stem, and the patient's medical record, further attempts at resuscitation or continued supportive maintenance would not be successful in restoring such functions, and, in such event, death shall be deemed to have occurred at the time when all such functions have ceased.

C. A registered nurse, a physician assistant, or an advanced practice registered nurse who is not an autonomous nurse practitioner may pronounce death if the following criteria are satisfied: (i) the nurse is employed by or the physician assistant or advanced practice registered nurse who is not an autonomous nurse practitioner works at (a) a home care organization as defined in § 32.1-162.7, (b) a hospice as defined in § 32.1-162.1, (c) a hospital or nursing home as defined in § 32.1-123, including state-operated hospitals for the purposes of this section, (d) the Department of Corrections, or (e) a continuing care retirement community registered with the State Corporation Commission pursuant to Chapter 49 (§ 38.2-4900 et seq.) of Title 38.2; (ii) the nurse, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse who is not an autonomous nurse practitioner is directly involved in the care of the patient; (iii) the patient's death has occurred; (iv) the patient is under the care of a physician or autonomous nurse practitioner when his death occurs; (v) the patient's death has been anticipated; and (vi) the physician or autonomous nurse practitioner is unable to be present within a reasonable period of time to determine death. A licensed practical nurse may pronounce death for a patient in hospice pursuant to a valid Do Not Resuscitate Order issued in accordance with § 54.1-2987.1. The nurse, licensed practical nurse, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse who is not an autonomous nurse practitioner shall inform the patient's attending and consulting physician or autonomous nurse practitioner of the patient's death as soon as practicable.

The nurse, licensed practical nurse, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse who is not an autonomous nurse practitioner shall have the authority to pronounce death in accordance with such procedural regulations, if any, as may be promulgated by the Board of Medicine; however, if the circumstances of the death are not anticipated or the death requires an investigation by the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner, such nurse, licensed practical nurse, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse shall notify the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner of the death and the body shall not be released to the funeral director.

This subsection shall not authorize a nurse, licensed practical nurse, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse who is not an autonomous nurse practitioner to determine the cause of death. Determination of cause of death shall continue to be the responsibility of the attending physician or autonomous nurse practitioner, except as provided in § 32.1-263. Further, this subsection shall not be construed to impose any obligation to carry out the functions of this subsection.

This subsection shall not relieve any registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, physician assistant, or nurse practitioner who is not an autonomous nurse practitioner from any civil or criminal liability that might otherwise be incurred for failure to follow statutes or Board of Nursing or Board of Medicine regulations.

D. The alternative definitions of death provided in subdivisions B 1 and 2 may be utilized for all purposes in the Commonwealth, including the trial of civil and criminal cases.

Code 1950, § 32-364.3:1; 1973, c. 252; 1979, c. 720, § 54-325.7; 1986, c. 237; 1988, c. 765; 1996, c. 1028; 1997, cc. 107, 453; 2002, c. 92; 2004, c. 92; 2010, c. 46; 2011, c. 613; 2012, c. 136; 2014, cc. 73, 583; 2016, c. 97; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 210; 2022, cc. 184, 198; 2023, c. 183.

Any of the following persons, in order of priority stated, may authorize and consent to a postmortem examination and autopsy on a decedent's body for the purpose of determining the cause of death of the decedent, for the advancement of medical or dental education and research, or for the general advancement of medical or dental science, if: (i) no person in a higher class exists or no person in a higher class is available at the time authorization or consent is given, (ii) there is no actual notice of contrary indications by the decedent, and (iii) there is no actual notice of opposition by a member of the same or a prior class.

The order of priority shall be as follows: (1) any person designated to make arrangements for the disposition of the decedent's remains upon his death pursuant to § 54.1-2825; (2) the spouse; (3) an adult son or daughter; (4) either parent; (5) an adult brother or sister; (6) a guardian of the person of the decedent at the time of his death; or (7) any other person authorized or under legal obligation to dispose of the body.

If the physician or surgeon has actual notice of contrary indications by the decedent or of opposition to an autopsy by a member of the same or a prior class, the autopsy shall not be performed. The persons authorized herein may authorize or consent to the autopsy after death or before death.

In cases of death where official inquiry is authorized or required by law, the provisions of Article 1 (§ 32.1-277 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 32.1 shall apply. If at the time of death, a postmortem examination is authorized or required by law, any prior authorization or consent pursuant to this section shall not be valid unless the body is released by the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner.

A surgeon or physician acting in accordance with the terms of this section shall not have any liability, civil or criminal, for the performance of the autopsy.

Code 1950, § 32-364.4:1; 1973, c. 357; 1979, c. 720, § 54-325.8; 1986, c. 237; 1988, c. 765; 1998, c. 718; 2014, c. 583.

The practice of laser hair removal shall be performed by a properly trained person licensed to practice medicine or osteopathic medicine or a physician assistant as authorized pursuant to § 54.1-2952 or an advanced practice registered nurse as authorized pursuant to § 54.1-2957 or by a properly trained person under the direction and supervision of a licensed doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine or a physician assistant as authorized pursuant to § 54.1-2952 or an advanced practice registered nurse as authorized pursuant to § 54.1-2957 who may delegate such practice in accordance with subdivision A 6 of § 54.1-2901.

2017, c. 390; 2023, c. 183.

Article 7. Sexual Sterilization.

It shall be lawful for any physician licensed by the Board of Medicine to perform a vasectomy, salpingectomy, or other surgical sexual sterilization procedure on any person 18 years of age or older who has the capacity to give informed consent, when so requested in writing by such person. Prior to or at the time of such request, a full, reasonable, and comprehensible medical explanation as to the meaning and consequences of such an operation and as to alternative methods of contraception shall be given by the physician to the person requesting the operation.

1981, c. 454, § 54-325.9; 1988, c. 765; 2013, c. 671.

It shall be lawful for any physician licensed by the Board of Medicine to perform a vasectomy, salpingectomy, or other surgical sexual sterilization procedure on a person fourteen years of age or older and less than eighteen years of age when:

1. A petition has been filed in the circuit court of the county or city wherein the child resides by the parent or parents having custody of the child or by the child's guardian, spouse, or next friend requesting that the operation be performed;

2. The court has made the child a party defendant, served the child, the child's guardian, if any, the child's spouse, if any, and the child's parent who has custody of the child with notice of the proceedings and appointed for the child an attorney-at-law to represent and protect the child's interests;

3. The court has determined that a full, reasonable, and comprehensible medical explanation as to the meaning, consequences, and risks of the sterilization operation to be performed and as to alternative methods of contraception has been given by the physician to the child upon whom the operation is to be performed, to the child's guardian, if any, to the child's spouse, if any, and, if there is no spouse, to the parent who has custody of the child;

4. The court has determined by clear and convincing evidence that the child's mental abilities are so impaired that the child is incapable of making his or her own decision about sterilization and is unlikely to develop mentally to a sufficient degree to make an informed judgment about sterilization in the foreseeable future;

5. The court, to the greatest extent possible, has elicited and taken into account the views of the child concerning the sterilization, giving the views of the child such weight in its decision as the court deems appropriate;

6. The court has complied with the requirements of § 54.1-2977; and

7. The court has entered an order authorizing a qualified physician to perform the operation not earlier than thirty days after the date of the entry of the order, and thirty days have elapsed. The court order shall state the date on and after which the sterilization operation may be performed.

1981, c. 454, § 54-325.10; 1988, c. 765.

It shall be lawful for any physician licensed by the Board of Medicine to perform a vasectomy, salpingectomy, or other surgical sexual sterilization procedure on a person eighteen years of age or older, who does not have the capacity to give informed consent to such an operation, when:

1. A petition has been filed in the circuit court of the county or city wherein the person resides by the person's parent or parents, guardian, spouse, or next friend requesting that the operation be performed;

2. The court has made the person a party defendant, served the person, the person's guardian, if any, the person's spouse, if any, and if there is no spouse, the person's parent with notice of the proceedings and appointed for the person an attorney-at-law to represent and protect the person's interests;

3. The court has determined that a full, reasonable, and comprehensible medical explanation as to the meaning, consequences, and risks of the sterilization operation to be performed and as to alternative methods of contraception has been given by the physician to the person upon whom the operation is to be performed, to the person's guardian, if any, to the person's spouse, if any, and, if there is no spouse, to the parent;

4. The court has determined (i) that the person has been legally adjudged to be incapacitated in accordance with Chapter 20 (§ 64.2-2000 et seq.) of Title 64.2 and (ii) that the person is unlikely to develop mentally to a sufficient degree to make an informed judgment about sterilization in the foreseeable future;

5. The court, to the greatest extent possible, has elicited and taken into account the views of the person concerning the sterilization, giving the views of the person such weight in its decision as the court deems appropriate;

6. The court has complied with the requirements of § 54.1-2977; and

7. The court has entered an order authorizing a qualified physician to perform the operation not earlier than thirty days after the date of the entry of the order, and thirty days have elapsed. The court order shall state the date on and after which the sterilization operation may be performed.

1981, c. 454, § 54-325.11; 1988, c. 765; 1997, c. 921.

A. In order for the circuit court to authorize the sterilization of a person in accordance with § 54.1-2975 or § 54.1-2976, it must be proven by clear and convincing evidence that:

1. There is a need for contraception. The court shall find that the person is engaging in sexual activity at the present time or is likely to engage in sexual activity in the near future and that pregnancy would not usually be intended by such person if such person were competent and engaging in sexual activity under similar circumstances;

2. There is no reasonable alternative method of contraception to sterilization;

3. The proposed method of sterilization conforms with standard medical practice, and the treatment can be carried out without unreasonable risk to the life and health of the person; and

4. The nature and extent of the person's mental disability renders the person permanently incapable of caring for and raising a child. The court shall base this finding on empirical evidence and not solely on standardized tests.

B. The criteria set out in subsection A of this section shall be established for the court by independent evidence based on a medical, social, and psychological evaluation of the person upon whom the sterilization operation is to be performed.

1981, c. 454, § 54-325.12; 1988, c. 765.

The court shall report to the State Registrar of Vital Records the authorization of all sterilizations made in accordance with this article.

1981, c. 454, § 54-325.13; 1988, c. 765.

Subject to the rules of law applicable generally to negligence, no physician licensed by the Board of Medicine shall be either civilly or criminally liable by reason of having performed a vasectomy, salpingectomy, or other surgical sexual sterilization procedure upon any person in this Commonwealth as authorized by this article.

1981, c. 454, § 54-325.14; 1988, c. 765.

No provision in this article shall apply to or be construed so as to prevent, control, or regulate the medical or surgical treatment for sound therapeutic reasons of any person in this Commonwealth by a physician licensed by the Board of Medicine, which treatment may require sexual sterilization or may involve the nullification or destruction of the reproductive functions. For the purposes of this section the sterilization of a person whose health would be endangered by a pregnancy shall be deemed a medical or surgical treatment for sound therapeutic reasons.

1981, c. 454, § 54-325.15; 1988, c. 765.

Article 8. Health Care Decisions Act.

The provisions of this article shall be known and may be cited as the "Health Care Decisions Act."

1983, c. 532, § 54-325.8:1; 1988, c. 765; 1992, cc. 748, 772.

As used in this article:

"Advance directive" means (i) a witnessed written document, voluntarily executed by the declarant in accordance with the requirements of § 54.1-2983 or (ii) a witnessed oral statement, made by the declarant subsequent to the time he is diagnosed as suffering from a terminal condition and in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-2983.

"Agent" means an adult appointed by the declarant under an advance directive, executed or made in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-2983, to make health care decisions for him. The declarant may also appoint an adult to make, after the declarant's death, an anatomical gift of all or any part of his body pursuant to Article 2 (§ 32.1-291.1 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 32.1.

"Attending physician" means the primary physician who has responsibility for the health care of the patient.

"Capacity reviewer" means a licensed physician or clinical psychologist who is qualified by training or experience to assess whether a person is capable or incapable of making an informed decision.

"Declarant" means an adult who makes an advance directive, as defined in this article, while capable of making and communicating an informed decision.

"Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order" means a written physician's order issued pursuant to § 54.1-2987.1 to withhold cardiopulmonary resuscitation from a particular patient in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest. For purposes of this article, cardiopulmonary resuscitation shall include cardiac compression, endotracheal intubation and other advanced airway management, artificial ventilation, and defibrillation and related procedures. As the terms "advance directive" and "Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order" are used in this article, a Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order is not and shall not be construed as an advance directive.

"Health care" means the furnishing of services to any individual for the purpose of preventing, alleviating, curing, or healing human illness, injury or physical disability, including but not limited to, medications; surgery; blood transfusions; chemotherapy; radiation therapy; admission to a hospital, nursing home, assisted living facility, or other health care facility; psychiatric or other mental health treatment; and life-prolonging procedures and palliative care.

"Health care provider" shall have the same meaning as provided in § 8.01-581.1.

"Incapable of making an informed decision" means the inability of an adult patient, because of mental illness, intellectual disability, or any other mental or physical disorder that precludes communication or impairs judgment, to make an informed decision about providing, continuing, withholding or withdrawing a specific health care treatment or course of treatment because he is unable to understand the nature, extent or probable consequences of the proposed health care decision, or to make a rational evaluation of the risks and benefits of alternatives to that decision. For purposes of this article, persons who are deaf, dysphasic or have other communication disorders, who are otherwise mentally competent and able to communicate by means other than speech, shall not be considered incapable of making an informed decision.

"Life-prolonging procedure" means any medical procedure, treatment or intervention which (i) utilizes mechanical or other artificial means to sustain, restore or supplant a spontaneous vital function, or is otherwise of such a nature as to afford a patient no reasonable expectation of recovery from a terminal condition and (ii) when applied to a patient in a terminal condition, would serve only to prolong the dying process. The term includes artificially administered hydration and nutrition. However, nothing in this act shall prohibit the administration of medication or the performance of any medical procedure deemed necessary to provide comfort care or to alleviate pain, including the administration of pain relieving medications in excess of recommended dosages in accordance with §§ 54.1-2971.01 and 54.1-3408.1. For purposes of §§ 54.1-2988, 54.1-2989, and 54.1-2991, the term also shall include cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

"Patient care consulting committee" means a committee duly organized by a facility licensed to provide health care under Title 32.1 or Title 37.2, or a hospital or nursing home as defined in § 32.1-123 owned or operated by an agency of the Commonwealth that is exempt from licensure pursuant to § 32.1-124, to consult on health care issues only as authorized in this article. Each patient care consulting committee shall consist of five individuals, including at least one physician, one person licensed or holding a multistate licensure privilege under Chapter 30 (§ 54.1-3000 et seq.) to practice professional nursing, and one individual responsible for the provision of social services to patients of the facility. At least one committee member shall have experience in clinical ethics and at least two committee members shall have no employment or contractual relationship with the facility or any involvement in the management, operations, or governance of the facility, other than serving on the patient care consulting committee. A patient care consulting committee may be organized as a subcommittee of a standing ethics or other committee established by the facility or may be a separate and distinct committee. Four members of the patient care consulting committee shall constitute a quorum of the patient care consulting committee.

"Persistent vegetative state" means a condition caused by injury, disease or illness in which a patient has suffered a loss of consciousness, with no behavioral evidence of self-awareness or awareness of surroundings in a learned manner, other than reflex activity of muscles and nerves for low level conditioned response, and from which, to a reasonable degree of medical probability, there can be no recovery.

"Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine in the Commonwealth of Virginia or in the jurisdiction where the health care is to be rendered or withheld.

"Qualified advance directive facilitator" means a person who has successfully completed a training program approved by the Department of Health for providing assistance in completing and executing a written advance directive, including successful demonstration of competence in assisting a person in completing and executing a valid advance directive and successful passage of a written examination.

"Terminal condition" means a condition caused by injury, disease or illness from which, to a reasonable degree of medical probability a patient cannot recover and (i) the patient's death is imminent or (ii) the patient is in a persistent vegetative state.

"Witness" means any person over the age of 18, including a spouse or blood relative of the declarant. Employees of health care facilities and physician's offices, who act in good faith, shall be permitted to serve as witnesses for purposes of this article.

1983, c. 532, § 54-325.8:2; 1984, c. 79; 1988, c. 765; 1991, c. 583; 1992, cc. 412, 748, 772; 1994, c. 956; 1997, c. 609; 1998, cc. 630, 803, 854; 1999, c. 814; 2000, c. 1034; 2005, c. 186; 2007, cc. 92, 907; 2009, cc. 211, 268; 2010, c. 792; 2012, cc. 476, 507; 2017, cc. 747, 752; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 465.

Any adult capable of making an informed decision may, at any time, make a written advance directive to address any or all forms of health care in the event the declarant is later determined to be incapable of making an informed decision. A written advance directive shall be signed by the declarant in the presence of two subscribing witnesses and may (i) specify the health care the declarant does or does not authorize; (ii) appoint an agent to make health care decisions for the declarant; and (iii) specify an anatomical gift, after the declarant's death, of all of the declarant's body or an organ, tissue or eye donation pursuant to Article 2 (§ 32.1-291.1 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 32.1. A written advance directive may be submitted to the Advance Health Care Directive Registry, pursuant to Article 9 (§ 54.1-2994 et seq.).

Further, any adult capable of making an informed decision who has been diagnosed by his attending physician as being in a terminal condition may make an oral advance directive (i) directing the specific health care the declarant does or does not authorize in the event the declarant is incapable of making an informed decision, and (ii) appointing an agent to make health care decisions for the declarant under the circumstances stated in the advance directive if the declarant should be determined to be incapable of making an informed decision. An oral advance directive shall be made in the presence of the attending physician and two witnesses.

An advance directive may authorize an agent to take any lawful actions necessary to carry out the declarant's decisions, including, but not limited to, granting releases of liability to medical providers, releasing medical records, and making decisions regarding who may visit the patient.

It shall be the responsibility of the declarant to provide for notification to his attending physician that an advance directive has been made. If an advance directive has been submitted to the Advance Health Care Directive Registry pursuant to Article 9 (§ 54.1-2994 et seq.), it shall be the responsibility of the declarant to provide his attending physician, legal representative, or other person with the information necessary to access the advance directive. In the event the declarant is comatose, incapacitated or otherwise mentally or physically incapable of communication, any other person may notify the physician of the existence of an advance directive and, if applicable, the fact that it has been submitted to the Advance Health Care Directive Registry. An attending physician who is so notified shall promptly make the advance directive or a copy of the advance directive, if written, or the fact of the advance directive, if oral, a part of the declarant's medical records.

In the event that any portion of an advance directive is invalid or illegal, such invalidity or illegality shall not affect the remaining provisions of the advance directive.

1983, c. 532, § 54-325.8:3; 1988, c. 765; 1992, cc. 748, 772; 1997, c. 801; 2008, cc. 301, 696; 2009, cc. 211, 268; 2010, c. 16; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 465.

An advance directive may authorize an agent to approve participation by the declarant in any health care study approved by an institutional review board pursuant to applicable federal regulations, or by a research review committee pursuant to Chapter 5.1 (§ 32.1-162.16 et seq.) of Title 32.1 that offers the prospect of direct therapeutic benefit to the declarant. An advance directive may also authorize an agent to approve participation by the declarant in any health care study approved by an institutional review board pursuant to applicable federal regulations, or by a research review committee pursuant to Chapter 5.1 (§ 32.1-162.16 et seq.) of Title 32.1 that aims to increase scientific understanding of any condition that the declarant may have or otherwise to promote human well-being, even though it offers no prospect of direct benefit to the patient.

2009, cc. 211, 268.

A. Every adult shall be presumed to be capable of making an informed decision unless he is determined to be incapable of making an informed decision in accordance with this article. A determination that a patient is incapable of making an informed decision may apply to a particular health care decision, to a specified set of health care decisions, or to all health care decisions. No person shall be deemed incapable of making an informed decision based solely on a particular clinical diagnosis.

B. Except as provided in subsection C, prior to providing, continuing, withholding, or withdrawing health care pursuant to an authorization that has been obtained or will be sought pursuant to this article and prior to, or as soon as reasonably practicable after initiating health care for which authorization has been obtained or will be sought pursuant to this article, and no less frequently than every 180 days while the need for health care continues, the attending physician shall certify in writing upon personal examination of the patient that the patient is incapable of making an informed decision regarding health care and shall obtain written certification from a capacity reviewer that, based upon a personal examination of the patient, the patient is incapable of making an informed decision. However, certification by a capacity reviewer shall not be required if the patient is unconscious or experiencing a profound impairment of consciousness due to trauma, stroke, or other acute physiological condition. The capacity reviewer providing written certification that a patient is incapable of making an informed decision, if required, shall not be otherwise currently involved in the treatment of the person assessed, unless an independent capacity reviewer is not reasonably available. The cost of the assessment shall be considered for all purposes a cost of the patient's health care.

C. If a person has executed an advance directive granting an agent the authority to consent to the person's admission to a facility as defined in § 37.2-100 for mental health treatment and if the advance directive so authorizes, the person's agent may exercise such authority after a determination that the person is incapable of making an informed decision regarding such admission has been made by (i) the attending physician, (ii) a psychiatrist or licensed clinical psychologist, (iii) a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, (iv) a licensed physician assistant, (v) a licensed clinical social worker, or (vi) a designee of the local community services board as defined in § 37.2-809. Such determination shall be made in writing following an in-person examination of the person and certified by the physician, psychiatrist, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed advanced practice registered nurse, licensed physician assistant, licensed clinical social worker, or designee of the local community services board who performed the examination prior to admission or as soon as reasonably practicable thereafter. Admission of a person to a facility as defined in § 37.2-100 for mental health treatment upon the authorization of the person's agent shall be subject to the requirements of § 37.2-805.1. When a person has been admitted to a facility for mental health treatment upon the authorization of an agent following such a determination, such agent may authorize specific health care for the person, consistent with the provisions of the person's advance directive, only upon a determination that the person is incapable of making an informed decision regarding such health care in accordance with subsection B.

D. If, at any time, a patient is determined to be incapable of making an informed decision, the patient shall be notified, as soon as practical and to the extent he is capable of receiving such notice, that such determination has been made before providing, continuing, withholding, or withdrawing health care as authorized by this article. Such notice shall also be provided, as soon as practical, to the patient's agent or person authorized by § 54.1-2986 to make health care decisions on his behalf.

E. A single physician may, at any time, upon personal evaluation, determine that a patient who has previously been determined to be incapable of making an informed decision is now capable of making an informed decision, provided such determination is set forth in writing.

2009, cc. 211, 268; 2010, c. 792; 2017, cc. 456, 474; 2020, cc. 40, 231; 2023, c. 183.

A. The absence of an advance directive by an adult patient shall not give rise to any presumption as to his intent to consent to or refuse any particular health care.

B. The provisions of this article shall not apply to authorization of nontherapeutic sterilization, abortion, or psychosurgery.

C. If any provision of a patient's advance directive conflicts with the authority conferred by any emergency custody, temporary detention, involuntary admission, and mandatory outpatient treatment order set forth in Chapter 8 (§ 37.2-800 et seq.) of Title 37.2 or by any other provision of law, the provisions of the patient's advance directive that create the conflict shall have no effect. However, a patient's advance directive shall otherwise be given full effect.

D. The provisions of this article, if otherwise applicable, may be used to authorize admission of a patient to a facility, as defined in § 37.2-100, only if the admission is otherwise authorized under Chapter 8 (§ 37.2-800 et seq.) of Title 37.2.

2009, cc. 211, 268; 2010, c. 792.

An advance directive executed pursuant to this article may, but need not, be in the following form:

ADVANCE MEDICAL DIRECTIVE

I, __________, willingly and voluntarily make known my wishes in the event that I am incapable of making an informed decision, as follows:

I understand that my advance directive may include the selection of an agent as well as set forth my choices regarding health care. The term "health care" means the furnishing of services to any individual for the purpose of preventing, alleviating, curing, or healing human illness, injury or physical disability, including but not limited to, medications; surgery; blood transfusions; chemotherapy; radiation therapy; admission to a hospital, nursing home, assisted living facility, or other health care facility; psychiatric or other mental health treatment; and life-prolonging procedures and palliative care.

The phrase "incapable of making an informed decision" means unable to understand the nature, extent and probable consequences of a proposed health care decision or unable to make a rational evaluation of the risks and benefits of a proposed health care decision as compared with the risks and benefits of alternatives to that decision, or unable to communicate such understanding in any way.

The determination that I am incapable of making an informed decision shall be made by my attending physician and a capacity reviewer, if certification by a capacity reviewer is required by law, after a personal examination of me and shall be certified in writing. Such certification shall be required before health care is provided, continued, withheld or withdrawn, before any named agent shall be granted authority to make health care decisions on my behalf, and before, or as soon as reasonably practicable after, health care is provided, continued, withheld or withdrawn and every 180 days thereafter while the need for health care continues.

If, at any time, I am determined to be incapable of making an informed decision, I shall be notified, to the extent I am capable of receiving such notice, that such determination has been made before health care is provided, continued, withheld, or withdrawn. Such notice shall also be provided, as soon as practical, to my named agent or person authorized by § 54.1-2986 to make health care decisions on my behalf. If I am later determined to be capable of making an informed decision by a physician, in writing, upon personal examination, any further health care decisions will require my informed consent.

(SELECT ANY OR ALL OF THE OPTIONS BELOW.)

OPTION I: APPOINTMENT OF AGENT (CROSS THROUGH OPTIONS I AND II BELOW IF YOU DO NOT WANT TO APPOINT AN AGENT TO MAKE HEALTH CARE DECISIONS FOR YOU.)

I hereby appoint __________ (primary agent), of __________ (address and telephone number), as my agent to make health care decisions on my behalf as authorized in this document. If __________ (primary agent) is not reasonably available or is unable or unwilling to act as my agent, then I appoint __________ (successor agent), of __________ (address and telephone number), to serve in that capacity.

I hereby grant to my agent, named above, full power and authority to make health care decisions on my behalf as described below whenever I have been determined to be incapable of making an informed decision. My agent's authority hereunder is effective as long as I am incapable of making an informed decision.

In exercising the power to make health care decisions on my behalf, my agent shall follow my desires and preferences as stated in this document or as otherwise known to my agent. My agent shall be guided by my medical diagnosis and prognosis and any information provided by my physicians as to the intrusiveness, pain, risks, and side effects associated with treatment or nontreatment. My agent shall not make any decision regarding my health care which he knows, or upon reasonable inquiry ought to know, is contrary to my religious beliefs or my basic values, whether expressed orally or in writing. If my agent cannot determine what health care choice I would have made on my own behalf, then my agent shall make a choice for me based upon what he believes to be in my best interests.

OPTION II: POWERS OF MY AGENT (CROSS THROUGH ANY LANGUAGE YOU DO NOT WANT AND ADD ANY LANGUAGE YOU DO WANT.)

The powers of my agent shall include the following:

A. To consent to or refuse or withdraw consent to any type of health care, treatment, surgical procedure, diagnostic procedure, medication and the use of mechanical or other procedures that affect any bodily function, including, but not limited to, artificial respiration, artificially administered nutrition and hydration, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. This authorization specifically includes the power to consent to the administration of dosages of pain-relieving medication in excess of recommended dosages in an amount sufficient to relieve pain, even if such medication carries the risk of addiction or of inadvertently hastening my death;

B. To request, receive, and review any information, verbal or written, regarding my physical or mental health, including but not limited to, medical and hospital records, and to consent to the disclosure of this information;

C. To employ and discharge my health care providers;

D. To authorize my admission to or discharge (including transfer to another facility) from any hospital, hospice, nursing home, assisted living facility or other medical care facility. If I have authorized admission to a health care facility for treatment of mental illness, that authority is stated elsewhere in this advance directive;

E. To authorize my admission to a health care facility for the treatment of mental illness for no more than 10 calendar days provided I do not protest the admission and a physician on the staff of or designated by the proposed admitting facility examines me and states in writing that I have a mental illness and I am incapable of making an informed decision about my admission, and that I need treatment in the facility; and to authorize my discharge (including transfer to another facility) from the facility;

F. To authorize my admission to a health care facility for the treatment of mental illness for no more than 10 calendar days, even over my protest, if a physician on the staff of or designated by the proposed admitting facility examines me and states in writing that I have a mental illness and I am incapable of making an informed decision about my admission, and that I need treatment in the facility; and to authorize my discharge (including transfer to another facility) from the facility. [My physician or licensed clinical psychologist hereby attests that I am capable of making an informed decision and that I understand the consequences of this provision of my advance directive: ____________________];

G. To authorize the specific types of health care identified in this advance directive [specify cross-reference to other sections of directive] even over my protest. [My physician or licensed clinical psychologist hereby attests that I am capable of making an informed decision and that I understand the consequences of this provision of my advance directive: ____________________];

H. To continue to serve as my agent even in the event that I protest the agent's authority after I have been determined to be incapable of making an informed decision;

I. To authorize my participation in any health care study approved by an institutional review board or research review committee according to applicable federal or state law that offers the prospect of direct therapeutic benefit to me;

J. To authorize my participation in any health care study approved by an institutional review board or research review committee pursuant to applicable federal or state law that aims to increase scientific understanding of any condition that I may have or otherwise to promote human well-being, even though it offers no prospect of direct benefit to me;

K. To make decisions regarding visitation during any time that I am admitted to any health care facility, consistent with the following directions: __________; and

L. To take any lawful actions that may be necessary to carry out these decisions, including the granting of releases of liability to medical providers. Further, my agent shall not be liable for the costs of health care pursuant to his authorization, based solely on that authorization.

OPTION III: HEALTH CARE INSTRUCTIONS

(CROSS THROUGH PARAGRAPHS A AND/OR B IF YOU DO NOT WANT TO GIVE ADDITIONAL SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS ABOUT YOUR HEALTH CARE.)

A. I specifically direct that I receive the following health care if it is medically appropriate under the circumstances as determined by my attending physician: __________.

B. I specifically direct that the following health care not be provided to me under the following circumstances (you may specify that certain health care not be provided under any circumstances): __________.

OPTION IV: END OF LIFE INSTRUCTIONS

(CROSS THROUGH THIS OPTION IF YOU DO NOT WANT TO GIVE INSTRUCTIONS ABOUT YOUR HEALTH CARE IF YOU HAVE A TERMINAL CONDITION.)

If at any time my attending physician should determine that I have a terminal condition where the application of life-prolonging procedures — including artificial respiration, cardiopulmonary resuscitation, artificially administered nutrition, and artificially administered hydration — would serve only to artificially prolong the dying process, I direct that such procedures be withheld or withdrawn, and that I be permitted to die naturally with only the administration of medication or the performance of any medical procedure deemed necessary to provide me with comfort care or to alleviate pain.

OPTION: LIFE-PROLONGING PROCEDURES DURING PREGNANCY. (If you wish to provide additional instructions or modifications to instructions you have already given regarding life-prolonging procedures that will apply if you are pregnant at the time your attending physician determines that you have a terminal condition, you may do so here.)

If I am pregnant when my attending physician determines that I have a terminal condition, my decision concerning life-prolonging procedures shall be modified as follows:

____________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________:

OPTION: OTHER DIRECTIONS ABOUT LIFE-PROLONGING PROCEDURES. (If you wish to provide your own directions, or if you wish to add to the directions you have given above, you may do so here. If you wish to give specific instructions regarding certain life-prolonging procedures, such as artificial respiration, cardiopulmonary resuscitation, artificially administered nutrition, and artificially administered hydration, this is where you should write them.) I direct that:

____________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________;

OPTION: My other instructions regarding my care if I have a terminal condition are as follows:

____________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________;

In the absence of my ability to give directions regarding the use of such life-prolonging procedures, it is my intention that this advance directive shall be honored by my family and physician as the final expression of my legal right to refuse health care and acceptance of the consequences of such refusal.

OPTION V: APPOINTMENT OF AN AGENT TO MAKE AN ANATOMICAL GIFT OR ORGAN, TISSUE OR EYE DONATION (CROSS THROUGH IF YOU DO NOT WANT TO APPOINT AN AGENT TO MAKE AN ANATOMICAL GIFT OR ANY ORGAN, TISSUE OR EYE DONATION FOR YOU.)

Upon my death, I direct that an anatomical gift of all of my body or certain organ, tissue or eye donations may be made pursuant to Article 2 (§ 32.1-291.1 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 32.1 and in accordance with my directions, if any. I hereby appoint __________ as my agent, of __________ (address and telephone number), to make any such anatomical gift or organ, tissue or eye donation following my death. I further direct that: __________ (declarant's directions concerning anatomical gift or organ, tissue or eye donation).

This advance directive shall not terminate in the event of my disability.

AFFIRMATION AND RIGHT TO REVOKE: By signing below, I indicate that I am emotionally and mentally capable of making this advance directive and that I understand the purpose and effect of this document. I understand I may revoke all or any part of this document at any time (i) with a signed, dated writing; (ii) by physical cancellation or destruction of this advance directive by myself or by directing someone else to destroy it in my presence; or (iii) by my oral expression of intent to revoke.

________ ____________________

(Date) (Signature of Declarant)

The declarant signed the foregoing advance directive in my presence.

(Witness) _________________________

(Witness) _________________________

1983, c. 532, § 54-325.8:4; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 592; 1991, c. 583; 1992, cc. 748, 772; 1997, c. 609; 1999, c. 814; 2000, c. 810; 2005, c. 186; 2007, cc. 92, 907; 2009, cc. 211, 268; 2010, c. 792; 2015, c. 109.

A. An advance directive may be revoked at any time by the declarant who is capable of understanding the nature and consequences of his actions (i) by a signed, dated writing; (ii) by physical cancellation or destruction of the advance directive by the declarant or another in his presence and at his direction; or (iii) by oral expression of intent to revoke. A declarant may make a partial revocation of his advance directive, in which case any remaining and nonconflicting provisions of the advance directive shall remain in effect. In the event of the revocation of the designation of an agent, subsequent decisions about health care shall be made consistent with the provisions of this article. Any such revocation shall be effective when communicated to the attending physician. No civil or criminal liability shall be imposed upon any person for a failure to act upon a revocation unless that person has actual knowledge of such revocation.

B. If an advance directive has been submitted to the Advance Health Care Directive Registry pursuant to Article 9 (§ 54.1-2994 et seq.) of this chapter, any revocation of such directive shall also be notarized before being submitted to the Department of Health for removal from the registry. However, failure to notify the Department of Health of the revocation of a document filed with the registry shall not affect the validity of the revocation, as long as it meets the requirements of subsection A.

1983, c. 532, § 54-325.8:5; 1988, c. 765; 1992, cc. 748, 772; 2008, cc. 301, 696; 2009, cc. 211, 268.

A. On petition of any person to the circuit court of the county or city in which any patient resides or is located for whom health care will be or is currently being provided, continued, withheld, or withdrawn pursuant to this article, the court may enjoin such action upon finding by a preponderance of the evidence that the action is not lawfully authorized by this article or by other state or federal law.

B. Nothing in this article shall limit the ability of any person to petition and obtain a court order for health care, including mental health treatment authorized by Chapter 8 (§ 37.2-800 et seq.) of Title 37.2, of any patient pursuant to any other existing law in the Commonwealth.

2009, cc. 211, 268.

A. Whenever a patient is determined to be incapable of making an informed decision and (i) has not made an advance directive in accordance with this article or (ii) has made an advance directive in accordance with this article that does not indicate his wishes with respect to the health care at issue and does not appoint an agent, the attending physician may, upon compliance with the provisions of this section, provide, continue, withhold or withdraw health care upon the authorization of any of the following persons, in the specified order of priority, if the physician is not aware of any available, willing and capable person in a higher class:

1. A guardian for the patient. This subdivision shall not be construed to require such appointment in order that a health care decision can be made under this section; or

2. The patient's spouse except where a divorce action has been filed and the divorce is not final; or

3. An adult child of the patient; or

4. A parent of the patient; or

5. An adult brother or sister of the patient; or

6. Any other relative of the patient in the descending order of blood relationship; or

7. Except in cases in which the proposed treatment recommendation involves the withholding or withdrawing of a life-prolonging procedure, any adult, except any director, employee, or agent of a health care provider currently involved in the care of the patient, who (i) has exhibited special care and concern for the patient and (ii) is familiar with the patient's religious beliefs and basic values and any preferences previously expressed by the patient regarding health care, to the extent that they are known. A quorum of a patient care consulting committee as defined in § 54.1-2982 of the facility where the patient is receiving health care or, if such patient care consulting committee does not exist or if a quorum of such patient care consulting committee is not reasonably available, two physicians who (a) are not currently involved in the care of the patient, (b) are not employed by the facility where the patient is receiving health care, and (c) do not practice medicine in the same professional business entity as the attending physician shall determine whether a person meets these criteria and shall document the information relied upon in making such determination.

If two or more of the persons listed in the same class in subdivisions A 3 through A 7 with equal decision-making priority inform the attending physician that they disagree as to a particular health care decision, the attending physician may rely on the authorization of a majority of the reasonably available members of that class.

B. Regardless of the absence of an advance directive, if the patient has expressed his intent to be an organ donor in any written document, no person noted in this section shall revoke, or in any way hinder, such organ donation.

1983, c. 532, § 54-325.8:6; 1988, c. 765; 1992, cc. 748, 772; 1999, c. 814; 2000, c. 810; 2005, c. 716; 2009, cc. 211, 268; 2010, c. 792.

A. If the declarant appoints an agent in an advance directive, that agent shall have (i) the authority to make health care decisions for the declarant as specified in the advance directive if the declarant is determined to be incapable of making an informed decision and (ii) decision-making priority over any person identified in § 54.1-2986. In no case shall the agent refuse or fail to honor the declarant's wishes in relation to anatomical gifts or organ, tissue or eye donation. Decisions to restrict visitation of the patient may be made by an agent only if the declarant has expressly included provisions for visitation in his advance directive; such visitation decisions shall be subject to physician orders and policies of the institution to which the declarant is admitted. No person authorized to make decisions for a patient under § 54.1-2986 shall have authority to restrict visitation of the patient, unless such visitation was restricted by a guardian pursuant to the procedures prescribed by § 64.2-2019.1.

B. Any agent or person authorized to make health care decisions pursuant to this article shall (i) undertake a good faith effort to ascertain the risks and benefits of, and alternatives to any proposed health care, (ii) make a good faith effort to ascertain the religious values, basic values, and previously expressed preferences of the patient, and (iii) to the extent possible, base his decisions on the beliefs, values, and preferences of the patient, or if they are unknown, on the patient's best interests.

2009, cc. 211, 268; 2023, c. 460.

A. Except as provided in subsection B or C, the provisions of this article shall not authorize providing, continuing, withholding or withdrawing health care if the patient's attending physician knows that such action is protested by the patient.

B. A patient's agent may make a health care decision over the protest of a patient who is incapable of making an informed decision if:

1. The patient's advance directive explicitly authorizes the patient's agent to make the health care decision at issue, even over the patient's later protest, and an attending licensed physician, a licensed clinical psychologist, a licensed physician assistant, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, a licensed professional counselor, or a licensed clinical social worker who is familiar with the patient attested in writing at the time the advance directive was made that the patient was capable of making an informed decision and understood the consequences of the provision;

2. The decision does not involve withholding or withdrawing life-prolonging procedures; and

3. The health care that is to be provided, continued, withheld or withdrawn is determined and documented by the patient's attending physician to be medically appropriate and is otherwise permitted by law.

C. In cases in which a patient has not explicitly authorized his agent to make the health care decision at issue over the patient's later protest, a patient's agent or person authorized to make decisions pursuant to § 54.1-2986 may make a decision over the protest of a patient who is incapable of making an informed decision if:

1. The decision does not involve withholding or withdrawing life-prolonging procedures;

2. The decision does not involve (i) admission to a facility as defined in § 37.2-100 or (ii) treatment or care that is subject to regulations adopted pursuant to § 37.2-400;

3. The health care decision is based, to the extent known, on the patient's religious beliefs and basic values and on any preferences previously expressed by the patient in an advance directive or otherwise regarding such health care or, if they are unknown, is in the patient's best interests;

4. The health care that is to be provided, continued, withheld, or withdrawn has been determined and documented by the patient's attending physician to be medically appropriate and is otherwise permitted by law; and

5. The health care that is to be provided, continued, withheld, or withdrawn has been affirmed and documented as being ethically acceptable by the health care facility's patient care consulting committee, if one exists, or otherwise by two physicians not currently involved in the patient's care or in the determination of the patient's capacity to make health care decisions.

D. A patient's protest shall not revoke the patient's advance directive unless it meets the requirements of § 54.1-2985.

E. If a patient protests the authority of a named agent or any person authorized to make health care decisions by § 54.1-2986, except for the patient's guardian, the protested individual shall have no authority under this article to make health care decisions on his behalf unless the patient's advance directive explicitly confers continuing authority on his agent, even over his later protest. If the protested individual is denied authority under this subsection, authority to make health care decisions shall be determined by any other provisions of the patient's advance directive, or in accordance with § 54.1-2986 or in accordance with any other provision of law.

2009, cc. 211, 268; 2010, c. 792; 2017, cc. 456, 474; 2023, c. 183.

An attending physician who refuses to comply with (i) a patient's advance directive or (ii) the health care decision of a patient's agent or (iii) the health care decision of an authorized person pursuant to § 54.1-2986 shall make a reasonable effort to transfer the patient to another physician and shall comply with § 54.1-2990.

This section shall apply even if the attending physician determines the health care requested to be medically or ethically inappropriate.

1983, c. 532, § 54-325.8:7; 1988, c. 765; 1992, cc. 748, 772; 2000, cc. 590, 598; 2009, cc. 211, 268.

A. As used in this section:

"Health care provider" includes, but is not limited to, qualified emergency medical services personnel.

"Person authorized to consent on the patient's behalf" means any person authorized by law to consent on behalf of the patient incapable of making an informed decision or, in the case of a minor child, the parent or parents having custody of the child or the child's legal guardian or as otherwise provided by law.

B. A Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order may be issued by a physician for his patient with whom he has a bona fide physician/patient relationship as defined in the guidelines of the Board of Medicine, and only with the consent of the patient or, if the patient is a minor or is otherwise incapable of making an informed decision regarding consent for such an order, upon the request of and with the consent of the person authorized to consent on the patient's behalf.

C. A Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order or other order regarding life-prolonging procedures executed in accordance with the laws of another state in which such order was executed shall be deemed to be valid for purposes of this article and shall be given effect as provided in this article.

D. If a patient is able to, and does, express to a health care provider or practitioner the desire to be resuscitated in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest, such expression shall revoke the provider's or practitioner's authority to follow a Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order. In no case shall any person other than the patient have authority to revoke a Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order executed upon the request of and with the consent of the patient himself.

If the patient is a minor or is otherwise incapable of making an informed decision and the Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order was issued upon the request of and with the consent of the person authorized to consent on the patient's behalf, then the expression by said authorized person to a health care provider or practitioner of the desire that the patient be resuscitated shall so revoke the provider's or practitioner's authority to follow a Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order.

When a Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order has been revoked as provided in this section, a new Order may be issued upon consent of the patient or the person authorized to consent on the patient's behalf.

E. Durable Do Not Resuscitate Orders issued in accordance with this section or deemed valid in accordance with subsection C shall remain valid and in effect until revoked as provided in subsection D or until rescinded, in accordance with accepted medical practice, by the provider who issued the Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order. In accordance with this section and regulations promulgated by the Board of Health, (i) qualified emergency medical services personnel as defined in § 32.1-111.1; (ii) licensed health care practitioners in any facility, program or organization operated or licensed by the Board of Health, the Department of Social Services, or the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services or operated, licensed or owned by another state agency; and (iii) licensed health care practitioners at any continuing care retirement community registered with the State Corporation Commission pursuant to Chapter 49 (§ 38.2-4900 et seq.) of Title 38.2 are authorized to follow Durable Do Not Resuscitate Orders that are available to them in a form approved by the Board of Health or deemed valid in accordance with subsection C.

F. The provisions of this section shall not authorize any qualified emergency medical services personnel or licensed health care provider or practitioner who is attending the patient at the time of cardiac or respiratory arrest to provide, continue, withhold or withdraw health care if such provider or practitioner knows that taking such action is protested by the patient incapable of making an informed decision. No person shall authorize providing, continuing, withholding or withdrawing health care pursuant to this section that such person knows, or upon reasonable inquiry ought to know, is contrary to the religious beliefs or basic values of a patient incapable of making an informed decision or the wishes of such patient fairly expressed when the patient was capable of making an informed decision. Further, this section shall not authorize the withholding of other medical interventions, such as intravenous fluids, oxygen or other therapies deemed necessary to provide comfort care or to alleviate pain.

G. This section shall not prevent, prohibit or limit a physician from issuing a written order, other than a Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order, not to resuscitate a patient in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest in accordance with accepted medical practice.

H. Valid Do Not Resuscitate Orders or Emergency Medical Services Do Not Resuscitate Orders issued before July 1, 1999, pursuant to the then-current law, shall remain valid and shall be given effect as provided in this article.

1992, c. 412; 1994, c. 956; 1998, cc. 564, 628, 630, 803, 854; 1999, c. 814; 2009, cc. 211, 268, 549, 813, 840; 2010, c. 792; 2017, c. 179.

A health care facility, physician or other person acting under the direction of a physician shall not be subject to criminal prosecution or civil liability or be deemed to have engaged in unprofessional conduct as a result of issuing a Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order or the providing, continuing, withholding or the withdrawal of health care under authorization or consent obtained in accordance with this article or as the result of the provision, withholding or withdrawal of ongoing health care in accordance with § 54.1-2990. No person or facility providing, continuing, withholding or withdrawing health care or physician issuing a Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order under authorization or consent obtained pursuant to this article or otherwise in accordance with § 54.1-2990 shall incur liability arising out of a claim to the extent the claim is based on lack of authorization or consent for such action.

Any agent or person identified in § 54.1-2986 who authorizes or consents to the providing, continuing, withholding or withdrawal of health care in accordance with this article shall not be subject, solely on the basis of that authorization or consent, to (i) criminal prosecution or civil liability for such action or (ii) liability for the cost of health care.

No individual serving on a facility's patient care consulting committee as defined in this article and no physician rendering a determination or affirmation in cases in which no patient care consulting committee exists shall be subject to criminal prosecution or civil liability for any act or omission done or made in good faith in the performance of such functions.

The provisions of this section shall apply unless it is shown by a preponderance of the evidence that the person authorizing or effectuating the providing, continuing, withholding or withdrawal of health care, or issuing, consenting to, making or following a Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order in accordance with § 54.1-2987.1 did not, in good faith, comply with the provisions of this article.

An advance directive or Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order made, consented to or issued in accordance with this article shall be presumed to have been made, consented to, or issued voluntarily and in good faith by an adult who is capable of making an informed decision, physician or person authorized to consent on the patient's behalf.

1983, c. 532, § 54-325.8:8; 1988, c. 765; 1992, cc. 412, 748, 772; 1998, cc. 803, 854; 1999, c. 814; 2000, cc. 590, 598; 2009, cc. 211, 268; 2010, c. 792; 2017, cc. 747, 752.

A. The distribution of written advance directives in a form meeting the requirements of § 54.1-2984 and the provision of technical advice, consultation, and assistance to persons with regard to the completion and execution of such forms by (i) health care providers, including their authorized agents or employees, or (ii) qualified advance directive facilitators shall not constitute the unauthorized practice of law pursuant to Chapter 39 (§ 54.1-3900 et seq.).

B. The provision of ministerial assistance to a person with regard to the completion or execution of a written advance directive in a form meeting the requirements of § 54.1-2984 shall not constitute the unauthorized practice of law pursuant to Chapter 39 (§ 54.1-3900 et seq.). For the purpose of this subsection, "ministerial assistance" includes reading the form of an advance directive meeting the requirements of § 54.1-2984 to a person, discussing the person's preferences with regard to items included in the form, recording the person's answers on the form, and helping the person sign the form and obtain any other necessary signatures on the form. "Ministerial assistance" does not include the expressing of an opinion regarding the legal effects of any item contained in the form of an advance directive meeting the requirements of § 54.1-2984 or the offering of legal advice to a person completing or executing such form.

2017, cc. 747, 752.

A. Any person who willfully (i) conceals, cancels, defaces, obliterates, or damages the advance directive or Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order of another without the declarant's or patient's consent or the consent of the person authorized to consent for the patient; (ii) falsifies or forges the advance directive or Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order of another; or (iii) falsifies or forges a revocation of the advance directive or Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order of another shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor. If such action causes life-prolonging procedures to be utilized in contravention of the previously expressed intent of the patient or a Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order, the person committing such action shall be guilty of a Class 6 felony.

B. Any person who willfully (i) conceals, cancels, defaces, obliterates, or damages the advance directive or Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order of another without the declarant's or patient's consent or the consent of the person authorized to consent for the patient, (ii) falsifies or forges the advance directive or Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order of another, (iii) falsifies or forges a revocation of the advance directive or Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order of another, or (iv) conceals or withholds personal knowledge of the revocation of an advance directive or Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order, with the intent to cause a withholding or withdrawal of life-prolonging procedures, contrary to the wishes of the declarant or a patient, and thereby, because of such act, directly causes life-prolonging procedures to be withheld or withdrawn and death to be hastened, shall be guilty of a Class 2 felony.

1983, c. 532, § 54-325.8:9; 1988, c. 765; 1992, cc. 412, 748, 772; 1998, cc. 803, 854; 1999, c. 814; 2009, cc. 211, 268.

An agent in possession of an advance medical directive vesting any power or authority in him shall, when the instrument is otherwise valid, be deemed to possess the powers and authority granted by such instrument notwithstanding any failure by the declarant to deliver the instrument to him, and persons dealing with such agent shall have no obligation to inquire into the manner or circumstances by which such possession was acquired; provided, however, that nothing herein shall preclude the court from considering such manner or circumstances as relevant factors in a proceeding brought to remove the agent or revoke the directive.

2003, c. 269.

A. As used in this section:

"Health care provider" has the same meaning as in § 8.01-581.1.

"Life-sustaining treatment" means any ongoing health care that utilizes mechanical or other artificial means to sustain, restore, or supplant a spontaneous vital function, including hydration, nutrition, maintenance medication, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

B. Nothing in this article shall be construed to require a physician to prescribe or render health care to a patient that the physician determines to be medically or ethically inappropriate. A determination of the medical or ethical inappropriateness of proposed health care shall be based solely on the patient's medical condition and not on the patient's age or other demographic status, disability, or diagnosis of persistent vegetative state.

In cases in which a physician's determination that proposed health care, including life-sustaining treatment, is medically or ethically inappropriate is contrary to the request of the patient, the terms of a patient's advance directive, the decision of an agent or person authorized to make decisions pursuant to § 54.1-2986, or a Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order, the physician or his designee shall document the physician's determination in the patient's medical record, make a reasonable effort to inform the patient or the patient's agent or person with decision-making authority pursuant to § 54.1-2986 of such determination and the reasons therefor in writing, and provide a copy of the hospital's written policies regarding review of decisions regarding the medical or ethical appropriateness of proposed health care established pursuant to subdivision B 21 of § 32.1-127.

If the conflict remains unresolved, the physician shall make a reasonable effort to transfer the patient to another physician or facility that is willing to comply with the request of the patient, the terms of the advance directive, the decision of an agent or person authorized to make decisions pursuant to § 54.1-2986, or a Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order and shall cooperate in transferring the patient to the physician or facility identified. The physician shall provide the patient or his agent or person with decision-making authority pursuant to § 54.1-2986 a reasonable time of not less than 14 days after the date on which the decision regarding the medical or ethical inappropriateness of the proposed treatment is documented in the patient's medical record in accordance with the hospital's written policy developed pursuant to subdivision B 21 of § 32.1-127 to effect such transfer. During this period, (i) the physician shall continue to provide any life-sustaining treatment to the patient that is reasonably available to such physician, as requested by the patient or his agent or person with decision-making authority pursuant to § 54.1-2986, and (ii) the hospital in which the patient is receiving life-sustaining treatment shall facilitate prompt access to the patient's medical record pursuant to § 32.1-127.1:03.

If, at the end of the 14-day period, the conflict remains unresolved despite compliance with the hospital's written policy established pursuant to subdivision B 21 of § 32.1-127 and the physician has been unable to identify another physician or facility willing to provide the care requested by the patient, the terms of the advance directive, or the decision of the agent or person authorized to make decisions pursuant to § 54.1-2986 to which to transfer the patient despite reasonable efforts, the physician may cease to provide the treatment that the physician has determined to be medically or ethically inappropriate subject to the right of court review by any party. However, artificial nutrition and hydration may be withdrawn or withheld only if, on the basis of physician's reasonable medical judgment, providing such artificial nutrition and hydration would (a) hasten the patient's death, (b) be medically ineffective in prolonging life, or (c) be contrary to the clearly documented wishes of the patient, the terms of the patient's advance directive, or the decision of an agent or person authorized to make decisions pursuant to § 54.1-2986 regarding the withholding of artificial nutrition or hydration. In all cases, care directed toward the patient's pain and comfort shall be provided.

C. Nothing in this section shall require the provision of health care that the physician is physically or legally unable to provide or health care that the physician is physically or legally unable to provide without thereby denying the same health care to another patient.

D. Nothing in this article shall be construed to condone, authorize, or approve mercy killing or euthanasia or to permit any affirmative or deliberate act or omission to end life other than to permit the natural process of dying.

E. Compliance with the requirements of this section shall not be admissible to prove a violation of or compliance with the standard of care as set forth in § 8.01-581.20.

1983, c. 532, § 54-325.8:10; 1988, c. 765; 1992, cc. 748, 772; 1999, c. 814; 2000, cc. 590, 598; 2009, cc. 211, 268; 2018, cc. 368, 565.

The withholding or withdrawal of life-prolonging procedures in accordance with the provisions of this article shall not, for any purpose, constitute a suicide. Nor shall the making of an advance directive pursuant to this article affect the sale, procurement or issuance of any policy of life insurance, nor shall the making of an advance directive or the issuance of a Durable Do Not Resuscitate Order pursuant to this article be deemed to modify the terms of an existing policy of life insurance. No policy of life insurance shall be legally impaired or invalidated by the withholding or withdrawal of life-prolonging procedures from an insured patient in accordance with this article, notwithstanding any term of the policy to the contrary. A person shall not be required to make an advance directive or consent to a Durable Do Not Resuscitate order as a condition for being insured for, or receiving, health care services.

The declaration of any patient made prior to July 1, 1983, an advance directive made prior to July 1, 1992, or the issuance, in accordance with the then current law, of a Do Not Resuscitate Order or an Emergency Medical Services Do Not Resuscitate Order prior to July 1, 1999, shall be given effect as provided in this article.

1983, c. 532, § 54-325.8:11; 1988, c. 765; 1992, cc. 412, 748, 772; 1999, c. 814; 2009, cc. 211, 268.

The provisions of this article are cumulative with existing law and shall not be construed to modify an individual's right to consent or refuse to consent to medical treatment if he is capable of making an informed decision, or to alter or limit the authority that otherwise exists under the common law, statutes or regulations of the Commonwealth (i) of a health care provider to provide health care; or (ii) of a person's agent, guardian or other legally authorized representative to make decisions on behalf of a person who is incapable of making an informed decision. The provisions of this article shall not impair any existing rights or responsibilities which a health care provider, a patient, including a minor or incapacitated patient, or a patient's family may have in regard to the providing, continuing, withholding or withdrawal of life-prolonging medical procedures under the common law or statutes of the Commonwealth; however, this section shall not be construed to authorize violations of § 54.1-2990.

1983, c. 532, § 54-325.8:12; 1988, c. 765; 1992, cc. 748, 772; 1997, c. 801; 2000, cc. 590, 598; 2009, cc. 211, 268.

An advance directive executed in another state shall be deemed to be validly executed for the purposes of this article if executed in compliance with the laws of the Commonwealth of Virginia or the laws of the state where executed. Such advance directives shall be construed in accordance with the laws of the Commonwealth of Virginia.

1992, cc. 748, 772.

The Department of Health shall approve a program for the training of qualified advance directive facilitators that includes (i) instruction on the meaning of provisions of a form meeting the requirements of § 54.1-2984, including designating a health care agent and giving instructions relating to one or more specific types of health care, and (ii) requirements for demonstrating competence in assisting persons with completing and executing advance directives, including a written examination on information provided during the training program.

In determining whether a training program meets the criteria set forth in this section, the Department of Health may consult with the Department for Aging and Rehabilitative Services, the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, and the Virginia State Bar.

2017, cc. 747, 752.

Article 9. Advance Health Care Directive Registry.

The Department of Health shall make available a secure online central registry for advance health care directives.

2008, cc. 301, 696.

A. A person may submit any of the following documents and the revocations of these documents to the Department of Health for filing in the Advance Health Care Directive Registry established pursuant to this article:

1. A health care power of attorney.

2. An advance directive created pursuant to Article 8 (§ 54.1-2981 et seq.) or a subsequent act of the General Assembly.

3. A declaration of an anatomical gift made pursuant to the Revised Uniform Anatomical Gift Act (§ 32.1-291.1 et seq.).

B. The document may be submitted for filing only by the person who executed the document or his legal representative or designee and shall be accompanied by any fee required by the Department of Health.

C. All data and information contained in the registry shall remain confidential and shall be exempt from the provisions of the Virginia Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq.).

D. The Board of Health shall promulgate regulations to carry out the provisions of this article, which shall include, but not be limited to (i) a determination of who may access the registry, including physicians, other licensed health care providers, the declarant, and his legal representative or designee; (ii) a means of annually reminding registry users of which documents they have registered; and (iii) fees for filing a document with the registry. Such fees shall not exceed the direct costs associated with development and maintenance of the registry and with the education of the public about the availability of the registry, and shall be exempt from statewide indirect costs charged and collected by the Department of Accounts. No fee shall be charged for the filing of a document revoking any document previously filed with the registry.

2008, cc. 301, 696; 2010, c. 16; 2014, c. 715.

Failure to register a document with the registry maintained by the Department of Health pursuant to this article shall not affect the document's validity. Failure to notify the Department of Health of the revocation of a document filed with the registry shall not affect the validity of a revocation that meets the statutory requirements for the revocation to be valid.

2008, cc. 301, 696.

Article 10. Direct Primary Care Agreements.

A. A direct agreement between a patient, the patient's legal representative, or the patient's employer and a health care provider for ongoing primary care services in exchange for the payment of a monthly periodic fee, referred to in this article as a direct primary care agreement, is not health insurance or a health maintenance organization, provided that the health care provider does not require patients to pay monthly periodic fees prior to initiation of the direct agreement coverage period. A health care provider who participates in a direct primary care practice may participate in a health insurance carrier network so long as the provider is willing and able to meet the terms and conditions of network membership set by the health insurance carrier.

B. The provisions of this article shall not apply to contracts entered into prior to March 1, 2017.

2017, cc. 830, 831.

A. Every direct primary care agreement shall include the following disclaimer: "This agreement does not provide comprehensive health insurance coverage. It provides only the provision of primary care as specifically described in this agreement."

B. A direct primary care practice and any employer with a direct primary care agreement for its employees shall make the following written information available to prospective direct primary care patients or employees by prominently disclosing in marketing materials and retainer medical agreements that:

1. The direct primary care agreement is not insurance;

2. The direct primary care practice provides only the limited scope of primary care specified in the direct primary care agreement, which marketing materials and retainer medical agreements shall include a clear listing of the services provided under the direct primary care agreement;

3. A patient is required to pay for all services provided by the direct primary care practice that are not specified in the direct primary care agreement; and

4. The agreement standing alone does not satisfy the health benefit requirements as established in the federal Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (P.L. 111-148), as amended.

C. A direct primary care agreement shall be signed by the individual direct patient who is a party to the direct primary care agreement. Nothing in this subsection prohibits the presentation of marketing materials to groups of potential direct primary care patients.

D. A comprehensive disclosure statement shall be distributed to all direct primary care patients with their participation forms. Such disclosure shall (i) inform the direct primary care patients of their financial rights and responsibilities to the direct primary care practice as provided for in this article, (ii) encourage direct primary care patients to obtain and maintain insurance for services not provided by the direct primary care practice, and (iii) state that the direct primary care practice will not bill a health carrier for services covered under the direct primary care agreement.

2017, cc. 830, 831.

Chapter 30. Nursing.

Article 1. Board of Nursing.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Advanced practice registered nurse" means a certified nurse midwife, certified registered nurse anesthetist, clinical nurse specialist, or nurse practitioner who is jointly licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing pursuant to § 54.1-2957, has completed an advanced graduate-level education program in a specialty category of nursing, and has passed a national certifying examination for that specialty.

"Board" means the Board of Nursing.

"Certified nurse aide" means a person who meets the qualifications specified in this article and who is currently certified by the Board.

"Massage therapist" means a person who meets the qualifications specified in this chapter and who is currently licensed by the Board.

"Massage therapy" means the treatment of soft tissues for therapeutic purposes by the application of massage and bodywork techniques based on the manipulation or application of pressure to the muscular structure or soft tissues of the human body. The term "massage therapy" does not include the diagnosis or treatment of illness or disease or any service or procedure for which a license to practice medicine, nursing, midwifery, chiropractic, physical therapy, occupational therapy, acupuncture, athletic training, or podiatry is required by law or any service described in subdivision A 18 of § 54.1-3001.

"Massage therapy" shall not include manipulation of the spine or joints.

"Nurse practitioner" means an advanced practice registered nurse who is jointly licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing pursuant to § 54.1-2957.

"Practical nurse" or "licensed practical nurse" means a person who is licensed or holds a multistate licensure privilege under the provisions of this chapter to practice practical nursing as defined in this section. Such a licensee shall be empowered to provide nursing services without compensation. The abbreviation "L.P.N." shall stand for such terms.

"Practical nursing" or "licensed practical nursing" means the performance for compensation of selected nursing acts in the care of individuals or groups who are ill, injured, or experiencing changes in normal health processes; in the maintenance of health; in the prevention of illness or disease; or, subject to such regulations as the Board may promulgate, in the teaching of those who are or will be nurse aides. Practical nursing or licensed practical nursing requires knowledge, judgment and skill in nursing procedures gained through prescribed education. Practical nursing or licensed practical nursing is performed under the direction or supervision of a licensed medical practitioner, a professional nurse, registered nurse or registered professional nurse or other licensed health professional authorized by regulations of the Board.

"Practice of a nurse aide" or "nurse aide practice" means the performance of services requiring the education, training, and skills specified in this chapter for certification as a nurse aide. Such services are performed under the supervision of a dentist, physician, podiatrist, professional nurse, licensed practical nurse, or other licensed health care professional acting within the scope of the requirements of his profession.

"Professional nurse," "registered nurse" or "registered professional nurse" means a person who is licensed or holds a multistate licensure privilege under the provisions of this chapter to practice professional nursing as defined in this section. Such a licensee shall be empowered to provide professional services without compensation, to promote health and to teach health to individuals and groups. The abbreviation "R.N." shall stand for such terms.

"Professional nursing," "registered nursing" or "registered professional nursing" means the performance for compensation of any nursing acts in the observation, care and counsel of individuals or groups who are ill, injured or experiencing changes in normal health processes or the maintenance of health; in the prevention of illness or disease; in the supervision and teaching of those who are or will be involved in nursing care; in the delegation of selected nursing tasks and procedures to appropriately trained unlicensed persons as determined by the Board; or in the administration of medications and treatments as prescribed by any person authorized by law to prescribe such medications and treatment. Professional nursing, registered nursing and registered professional nursing require specialized education, judgment, and skill based upon knowledge and application of principles from the biological, physical, social, behavioral and nursing sciences.

Code 1950, § 54-326; 1970, c. 116, § 54-367.2; 1988, cc. 580, 765; 1989, cc. 7, 278; 1990, c. 104; 1996, c. 166; 1998, c. 458; 2004, c. 49; 2012, c. 213; 2016, cc. 83, 93, 324; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 157; 2023, c. 183.

A. This chapter shall not apply to the following:

1. The furnishing of nursing assistance in an emergency;

2. The practice of nursing, which is prescribed as part of a study program, by nursing students enrolled in nursing education programs approved by the Board or by graduates of approved nursing education programs for a period not to exceed ninety days following successful completion of the nursing education program pending the results of the licensing examination, provided proper application and fee for licensure have been submitted to the Board and unless the graduate fails the licensing examination within the 90-day period;

3. The practice of any legally qualified nurse of another state who is employed by the United States government while in the discharge of his official duties;

4. The practice of nursing by a nurse who holds a current unrestricted license in another state, the District of Columbia, a United States possession or territory, or who holds a current unrestricted license in Canada and whose training was obtained in a nursing school in Canada where English was the primary language, for a period of 30 days pending licensure in Virginia, if the nurse, upon employment, has furnished the employer satisfactory evidence of current licensure and submits proper application and fees to the Board for licensure before, or within 10 days after, employment. At the discretion of the Board, additional time may be allowed for nurses currently licensed in another state, the District of Columbia, a United States possession or territory, or Canada who are in the process of attaining the qualification for licensure in this Commonwealth;

5. The practice of nursing by any registered nurse who holds a current unrestricted license in another state, the District of Columbia, or a United States possession or territory, or a nurse who holds an equivalent credential in a foreign country, while enrolled in an advanced professional nursing program requiring clinical practice. This exemption extends only to clinical practice required by the curriculum;

6. The practice of nursing by any nurse who holds a current unrestricted license in another state, the District of Columbia, or a United States possession or territory and is employed to provide care to any private individual while such private individual is traveling through or temporarily staying, as defined in the Board's regulations, in the Commonwealth;

7. General care of the sick by nursing assistants, companions or domestic servants that does not constitute the practice of nursing as defined in this chapter;

8. The care of the sick when done solely in connection with the practice of religious beliefs by the adherents and which is not held out to the public to be licensed practical or professional nursing;

9. Any employee of a school board, authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of insulin and glucagon, when, upon the authorization of a prescriber and the written request of the parents as defined in § 22.1-1, assisting with the administration of insulin or administrating glucagon to a student diagnosed as having diabetes and who requires insulin injections during the school day or for whom glucagon has been prescribed for the emergency treatment of hypoglycemia;

10. The practice of nursing by any nurse who is a graduate of a foreign nursing school and has met the credential, language, and academic testing requirements of the Commission on Graduates of Foreign Nursing Schools for a period not to exceed ninety days from the date of approval of an application submitted to the Board when such nurse is working as a nonsupervisory staff nurse in a licensed nursing home or certified nursing facility. During such ninety-day period, such nurse shall take and pass the licensing examination to remain eligible to practice nursing in Virginia; no exemption granted under this subdivision shall be extended;

11. The practice of nursing by any nurse rendering free health care to an underserved population in Virginia who (i) does not regularly practice nursing in Virginia, (ii) holds a current valid license or certification to practice nursing in another state, territory, district or possession of the United States, (iii) volunteers to provide free health care to an underserved area of this Commonwealth under the auspices of a publicly supported all volunteer, nonprofit organization that sponsors the provision of health care to populations of underserved people, (iv) files a copy of the license or certification issued in such other jurisdiction with the Board, (v) notifies the Board at least five business days prior to the voluntary provision of services of the dates and location of such service, and (vi) acknowledges, in writing, that such licensure exemption shall only be valid, in compliance with the Board's regulations, during the limited period that such free health care is made available through the volunteer, nonprofit organization on the dates and at the location filed with the Board. The Board may deny the right to practice in Virginia to any nurse whose license or certificate has been previously suspended or revoked, who has been convicted of a felony or who is otherwise found to be in violation of applicable laws or regulations. However, the Board shall allow a nurse who meets the above criteria to provide volunteer services without prior notice for a period of up to three days, provided the nonprofit organization verifies that the practitioner has a valid, unrestricted license in another state;

12. Any person performing state or federally funded health care tasks directed by the consumer, which are typically self-performed, for an individual who lives in a private residence and who, by reason of disability, is unable to perform such tasks but who is capable of directing the appropriate performance of such tasks;

13. The practice of nursing by any nurse who holds a current unrestricted license from another state, the District of Columbia or a United States possession or territory, while such nurse is in the Commonwealth temporarily and is practicing nursing in a summer camp or in conjunction with clients who are participating in specified recreational or educational activities;

14. The practice of massage therapy that is an integral part of a program of study by a student enrolled in a massage therapy educational program under the direction of a licensed massage therapist. Any student enrolled in a massage therapy educational program shall be identified as a "Student Massage Therapist" and shall deliver massage therapy under the supervision of an appropriate clinical instructor recognized by the educational program;

15. The practice of massage therapy by a massage therapist licensed or certified in good standing in another state, the District of Columbia, or another country, while such massage therapist is volunteering at a sporting or recreational event or activity, is responding to a disaster or emergency declared by the appropriate authority, is travelling with an out-of-state athletic team or an athlete for the duration of the athletic tournament, game, or event in which the team or athlete is competing, or is engaged in educational seminars;

16. Any person providing services related to the domestic care of any family member or household member so long as that person does not offer, hold out, or claim to be a massage therapist;

17. Any health care professional licensed or certified under this title for which massage therapy is a component of his practice; or

18. Any individual who provides stroking of the hands, feet, or ears or the use of touch, words, and directed movement, including healing touch, therapeutic touch, mind-body centering, orthobionomy, traeger therapy, reflexology, polarity therapy, reiki, qigong, muscle activation techniques, or practices with the primary purpose of affecting energy systems of the human body.

B. Notwithstanding any provision of law or regulation to the contrary, military medical personnel, as defined in § 2.2-2001.4, while participating in a program established by the Department of Veterans Services pursuant to § 2.2-2001.4, may practice under the supervision of a licensed physician or podiatrist or the chief medical officer of an organization participating in such program. The chief medical officer of an organization participating in a program established pursuant to § 2.2-2001.4 may, in consultation with the chief nursing officer of such organization, designate a registered nurse licensed by the Board or practicing with a multistate licensure privilege to supervise military personnel participating in a program established pursuant to § 2.2-2001.4 in the practice of nursing.

Code 1950, § 54-362; 1970, c. 116; 1982, c. 598, § 54-367.36; 1988, c. 765; 1994, cc. 58, 103; 1996, c. 388; 1999, c. 570; 2001, cc. 244, 251; 2002, cc. 713, 740; 2008, c. 674; 2010, c. 245; 2012, cc. 117, 178; 2016, c. 324; 2018, cc. 69, 338.

The Board of Nursing shall consist of 14 members as follows: eight registered nurses, at least two of whom are licensed advanced practice registered nurses; two licensed practical nurses; three citizen members; and one member who shall be a registered nurse or a licensed practical nurse. The terms of office of the Board shall be four years.

The Board shall meet at least annually and shall elect officers from its membership. It may hold such other meetings as may be necessary to perform its duties. A majority of the Board including one of its officers shall constitute a quorum for the conduct of business at any meeting. Special meetings of the Board shall be called by the administrative officer upon written request of two members.

The Board shall have an administrative officer who shall be a registered nurse.

Code 1950, §§ 54-327, 54-328, 54-336, 54-341, 54-342; 1960, c. 61; 1968, c. 337, § 54-367.12; 1970, c. 116, § 54-367.10; 1975, c. 106, §§ 54-367.3, 54-367.4; 1979, c. 5; 1980, c. 728; 1982, c. 598; 1986, c. 464; 1988, c. 765; 1993, c. 404; 2008, c. 34; 2016, c. 105; 2019, c. 169; 2023, c. 183.

A. Each professional nurse appointed to the Board shall:

1. Be a citizen of the United States of America;

2. Be a resident of this Commonwealth;

3. Have been graduated from an educational program approved by a state board of nursing;

4. Be licensed in this Commonwealth as a registered nurse;

5. Have had at least five years' experience in nursing, nursing administration or teaching in a nursing education program; and

6. Have been actively engaged in professional nursing in this Commonwealth for at least three years preceding appointment or reappointment.

B. Each licensed practical nurse appointed to the Board shall:

1. Be a citizen of the United States of America;

2. Be a resident of this Commonwealth;

3. Have been graduated from a high school or the equivalent;

4. Have been graduated from a practical nursing program approved by a state board of nursing;

5. Be licensed in this Commonwealth as a practical nurse;

6. Have had at least five years' experience in nursing; and

7. Have been actively engaged in practical nursing in this Commonwealth for at least three years preceding appointment or reappointment.

Code 1950, § 54-333; 1970, c. 116; 1985, c. 305, § 54-367.9; 1988, c. 765.

Nominations may be made for each professional vacancy from lists of three names, submitted to the Governor by incorporated nurses associations. The Governor may notify such organizations of any professional vacancy other than by expiration. In no case shall the Governor be bound to make any appointment from among the nominees.

1986, c. 464, § 54-367.4:1; 1988, c. 765.

In addition to the general powers and duties conferred in this title, the Board shall have the following specific powers and duties:

1. To prescribe minimum standards and approve curricula for educational programs preparing persons for licensure, certification, or registration under this chapter;

2. To approve programs that meet the requirements of this chapter and of the Board;

3. To provide consultation service for educational programs as requested;

4. To provide for periodic surveys of educational or training programs;

5. To deny or withdraw approval from educational or training programs for failure to meet prescribed standards;

6. To provide consultation regarding nursing practice for institutions and agencies as requested and investigate illegal nursing practices;

7. To keep a record of all its proceedings;

8. To certify and maintain a registry of all certified nurse aides and to promulgate regulations consistent with federal law and regulation. The Board shall require all schools to demonstrate their compliance with § 54.1-3006.2 upon application for approval or reapproval, during an on-site visit, or in response to a complaint or a report of noncompliance. The Board may impose a fee pursuant to § 54.1-2401 for any violation thereof. Such regulations may include standards for the authority of licensed practical nurses to teach nurse aides;

9. To maintain a registry of clinical nurse specialists and to promulgate regulations governing clinical nurse specialists;

10. To license and maintain a registry of all licensed massage therapists and to promulgate regulations governing the criteria for licensure as a massage therapist and the standards of professional conduct for licensed massage therapists;

11. To promulgate regulations for the delegation of certain nursing tasks and procedures not involving assessment, evaluation or nursing judgment to an appropriately trained unlicensed person by and under the supervision of a registered nurse, who retains responsibility and accountability for such delegation;

12. To develop and revise as may be necessary, in coordination with the Boards of Medicine and Education, guidelines for the training of employees of a school board in the administration of insulin and glucagon for the purpose of assisting with routine insulin injections and providing emergency treatment for life-threatening hypoglycemia. The first set of such guidelines shall be finalized by September 1, 1999, and shall be made available to local school boards for a fee not to exceed the costs of publication;

13. To enter into the Nurse Licensure Compact as set forth in this chapter and to promulgate regulations for its implementation;

14. To collect, store and make available nursing workforce information regarding the various categories of nurses certified, licensed or registered pursuant to § 54.1-3012.1;

15. To expedite application processing, to the extent possible, pursuant to § 54.1-119 for an applicant for licensure or certification by the Board upon submission of evidence that the applicant, who is licensed or certified in another state, is relocating to the Commonwealth pursuant to a spouse's official military orders;

16. To register medication aides and promulgate regulations governing the criteria for such registration and standards of conduct for medication aides;

17. To approve training programs for medication aides to include requirements for instructional personnel, curriculum, continuing education, and a competency evaluation;

18. To set guidelines for the collection of data by all approved nursing education programs and to compile this data in an annual report. The data shall include but not be limited to enrollment, graduation rate, attrition rate, and number of qualified applicants who are denied admission;

19. To develop, in consultation with the Board of Pharmacy, guidelines for the training of employees of child day programs as defined in § 22.1-289.02 and regulated by the Board of Education in the administration of prescription drugs as defined in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.). Such training programs shall be taught by a registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine, or pharmacist;

20. In order to protect the privacy and security of health professionals licensed, registered or certified under this chapter, to promulgate regulations permitting use on identification badges of first name and first letter only of last name and appropriate title when practicing in hospital emergency departments, in psychiatric and mental health units and programs, or in health care facility units offering treatment for patients in custody of state or local law-enforcement agencies;

21. To revise, as may be necessary, guidelines for seizure management, in coordination with the Board of Medicine, including the list of rescue medications for students with epilepsy and other seizure disorders in the public schools. The revised guidelines shall be finalized and made available to the Board of Education by August 1, 2010. The guidelines shall then be posted on the Department of Education's website; and

22. To promulgate, together with the Board of Medicine, regulations governing the licensure of advanced practice registered nurses pursuant to § 54.1-2957 and the licensure of licensed certified midwives pursuant to § 54.1-2957.04.

Code 1950, §§ 54-339, 54-343; 1970, c. 116; 1979, c. 5, § 54-367.11; 1982, c. 598; 1984, c. 734; 1988, c. 765; 1989, cc. 7, 278; 1990, c. 104; 1994, c. 778; 1996, c. 166; 1998, c. 458; 1999, cc. 570, 637; 2000, cc. 587, 701; 2004, c. 49; 2005, cc. 54, 610, 924; 2006, cc. 190, 686; 2009, c. 687; 2010, c. 188; 2012, cc. 213, 803, 835; 2016, cc. 83, 324; 2017, c. 105; 2019, c. 287; 2020, cc. 860, 861; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 200, 201; 2022, c. 677; 2023, c. 183.

The Board shall require each applicant for licensure as a practical nurse, registered nurse, or licensed massage therapist to submit fingerprints and provide personal descriptive information to be forwarded along with his fingerprints through the Central Criminal Records Exchange to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the purpose of obtaining criminal history record information regarding the applicant. The cost of fingerprinting and the criminal history record search shall be paid by the applicant.

The Central Criminal Records Exchange shall forward the results of the state and federal criminal history record search to the Board, which shall be a governmental entity. If an applicant is denied licensure because of information appearing on his criminal history record and the applicant disputes the information upon which the denial was based, the Central Criminal Records Exchange shall, upon written request, furnish to the applicant the procedures for obtaining a copy of the criminal history record from the Federal Bureau of Investigation and the Central Criminal Records Exchange. The information shall not be disseminated except as provided in this section.

2015, c. 307; 2016, c. 324.

The Board may appoint advisory committees consisting of three persons or more who are knowledgeable in the area of practice or education under consideration. Members of advisory committees shall not receive compensation, but shall receive reimbursement for travel and other actual and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties.

Code 1950, §§ 54-339, 54-343; 1970, c. 116; 1979, c. 5, § 54-367.11; 1982, c. 598; 1984, c. 734; 1988, c. 765.

The Board of Education and the Board of Nursing, or their representatives, shall, at least annually, develop and revise as necessary an interagency agreement relating to the regulation of public school nursing education programs. This memorandum of understanding shall establish a framework for cooperation in order to achieve consistency in the regulation of such programs. The duties and responsibilities of the Department of Education and the Board of Nursing for public school practical nursing and nurse aide education programs shall be set forth in the agreement. The agreement shall include, but need not be limited to, core curricula for the programs; administrative and clerical activities such as exchange of mailing labels, participation in site visits, reporting requirements, and information for newsletters; review and revision of the curricula materials; participation in inservice activities and state conferences; opportunity to participate in and comment on revisions of any relevant regulations; and communication procedures between the two state agencies and with the local school divisions. The Director shall rely on the Board of Nursing for advice on and implementation of the agreement.

1991, c. 629.

All approved nurse aide education programs shall provide each student applying to or enrolled in such program with a copy of applicable Virginia law regarding criminal history records checks for employment in certain health care facilities, and a list of crimes which pose a barrier to such employment.

1999, c. 637.

The Board may refuse to admit a candidate to any examination, refuse to issue a license, certificate, or registration to any applicant and may suspend any license, certificate, registration, or multistate licensure privilege for a stated period or indefinitely, or revoke any license, certificate, registration, or multistate licensure privilege, or censure or reprimand any licensee, certificate holder, registrant, or multistate licensure privilege holder, or place him on probation for such time as it may designate for any of the following causes:

1. Fraud or deceit in procuring or attempting to procure a license, certificate, or registration;

2. Unprofessional conduct;

3. Willful or repeated violation of any of the provisions of this chapter;

4. Conviction of any felony or any misdemeanor involving moral turpitude;

5. Practicing in a manner contrary to the standards of ethics or in such a manner as to make his practice a danger to the health and welfare of patients or to the public;

6. Use of alcohol or drugs to the extent that such use renders him unsafe to practice, or any mental or physical illness rendering him unsafe to practice;

7. The denial, revocation, suspension or restriction of a license, certificate, registration, or multistate licensure privilege to practice in another state, the District of Columbia or a United States possession or territory; or

8. Abuse, negligent practice, or misappropriation of a patient's or resident's property.

Code 1950, § 54-353; 1970, c. 116; 1979, c. 5, § 54-367.32; 1982, c. 598; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 278; 2003, c. 249; 2005, cc. 610, 924.

A. It shall be a Class 1 misdemeanor for any person to:

1. Practice nursing under the authority of a license or record illegally or fraudulently obtained or signed or issued unlawfully or under fraudulent representation;

2. Practice nursing unless licensed to do so under the provisions of this chapter;

3. Knowingly employ an unlicensed person as a professional or practical nurse or knowingly permit an unlicensed person to represent himself as a professional or practical nurse;

4. Use in connection with his name any designation tending to imply that he is a professional nurse or a practical nurse unless duly licensed to practice under the provisions of this chapter;

5. Practice professional nursing or practical nursing during the time his license is suspended or revoked;

6. Conduct a nursing education program for the preparation of professional or practical nurses unless the program has been approved by the Board; or

7. Engage in the practice of massage therapy or hold himself out as practicing massage therapy unless he holds a license as a massage therapist issued by the Board.

B. The provisions of this section shall apply, mutatis mutandis, to persons holding a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing.

Code 1950, § 54-359; 1970, c. 116; 1982, c. 598, § 54-367.35; 1988, c. 765; 1996, c. 166; 2004, c. 49; 2016, c. 324.

Repealed by Acts 2004, c. 64.

A. Every license issued under the provisions of this chapter shall be renewed biennially by such time as the Board may prescribe by regulation. The Board shall mail or send electronically a notice for renewal to every licensee, but the failure to receive such notice shall not excuse any licensee from the requirements for renewal. The person receiving such notice shall furnish the requested information and return the form to the Board with the renewal fee.

B. Any licensee who allows his license to lapse by failing to renew the license may be reinstated by the Board upon submission of satisfactory evidence that he is prepared to resume practice in a competent manner and upon payment of the fee.

C. Any person practicing nursing during the time his license has lapsed shall be considered an illegal practitioner and shall be subject to the penalties provided for violations of this chapter.

D. When the Board of Health has issued an emergency order pursuant to § 32.1-13, the Board may waive (i) the requirement for submission of a fee for renewal of a license or (ii) the requirement for submission of evidence satisfactory to the Board that a licensee whose license was allowed to lapse by failing to renew his license is prepared to resume practice in a competent manner for any person who held a valid, unrestricted, active license to practice nursing within the four-year period immediately prior to the application for renewal of such license.

Code 1950, § 54-352; 1956, c. 48; 1970, c. 116, § 54-367.25; 1974, c. 194; 1979, c. 5; 1982, c. 598; 1988, c. 765; 2018, c. 101; 2022, cc. 720, 753.

A. The Board may issue a restricted volunteer license to a registered or practical nurse who, within the past five years, held an unrestricted active license as a registered or practical nurse issued by the Board or another state, which was in good standing at the time the license expired or became inactive. Nurses holding a restricted volunteer license issued pursuant to this section shall only practice in public health or community free clinics that provide services to underserved populations.

B. An applicant for a restricted volunteer license shall submit an application on a form provided by the Board and attest that he will not receive remuneration directly or indirectly for providing nursing services.

C. A person holding a restricted volunteer license pursuant to this section shall not be required to complete continuing competency requirements for the first renewal of such license. For subsequent renewals, a nurse holding a restricted volunteer license shall be required to complete the continuing competency requirements required for renewal of an active license.

D. A restricted volunteer license issued pursuant to this section may be renewed biennially in accordance with the renewal schedule established in regulations promulgated by the Board.

E. The application and biennial renewal fee for restricted volunteer licenses pursuant to this section shall be one-half of the fee for an active license.

F. A nurse holding a restricted volunteer license issued pursuant to this section shall be subject to the provisions of this chapter and all regulations applicable to nurses practicing in the Commonwealth.

G. A restricted volunteer license shall only be valid in the Commonwealth and shall not confer any multistate licensure privilege.

2015, c. 522.

In addition to the fees authorized for licensure and renewal by § 54.1-2400, the Board is authorized to charge a fee not to exceed one dollar for the licensure of every practical nurse and registered nurse to be deposited in the Nursing Scholarship and Loan Repayment Fund established pursuant to § 54.1-3011.2. Such fees shall be used to fund scholarships established pursuant to subsection A of § 32.1-122.6:01.

1991, c. 669; 2000, cc. 240, 254.

A. There is hereby established the Nursing Scholarship and Loan Repayment Fund for the purpose of financing scholarships for (i) part-time and full-time students enrolled in or accepted for enrollment by nursing programs which will prepare such students, upon completion, for examination to be licensed by the Board as practical nurses or registered nurses and (ii) those registered nurses, licensed practical nurses, and certified nurse aides who agree to perform a period of nursing service in a Commonwealth long-term care facility pursuant to regulations promulgated by the Board of Health in cooperation with the Board.

B. The Fund shall be administered by the Board, in cooperation with the Director of the Department, and the scholarships shall be administered and awarded by the Board of Health pursuant to § 32.1-122.6:01. The Fund shall be maintained and administered separately from any other program or funds of the Board and the Department of Health Professions. No portion of the Fund shall be used for a purpose other than that described in this section and § 32.1-122.6:01. Any money remaining in the Fund at the end of a biennium, including amounts repaid by award recipients, and any interest thereon, shall not revert to the general fund or the funds of the Department of Health Professions, but shall remain in the Fund to be used only for the purposes of this section. In addition to any licensure fees that may be collected pursuant to § 54.1-3011.1, the Fund shall also include:

1. Any funds appropriated by the General Assembly for the purposes of the Fund; and

2. Any gifts, grants, or bequests received from any private person or organization.

Upon receiving the names of the scholarship and loan repayment program recipients from the Board of Health, the Board of Nursing shall be responsible for transmitting the funds to the appropriate institution to be credited to the account of the recipient.

1991, c. 669; 2000, cc. 240, 254; 2001, c. 188; 2002, c. 290.

In addition to other powers enumerated in this title, the Board may take those steps necessary to obtain recognition by the United States Secretary of Education as a reliable authority concerning the quality of education offered by educational institutions or programs in the area of practical nursing.

1986, c. 13, § 54-367.11:1; 1988, c. 765.

A. With such funds as are appropriated for this purpose, and consistent with the provisions of § 54.1-2506.1, the Board shall collect, store, and make available nursing workforce information regarding the various categories of nurses certified, licensed or registered under the provisions of this chapter. In addition to appropriated funds, the Board may also accept donations or grants from private sources in addition to any licensure or certification fee to any certified, licensed or registered nurse to carry out the provisions of this section. The information to be collected on nurses shall include, but not be limited to: (i) demographic data; (ii) level of education; (iii) employment status; (iv) employment setting such as in a hospital, physician's office, or nursing home; (v) geographic location of employment; (vi) type of nursing position or area of specialty; and (vii) number of hours worked per week. Such information shall be collected and updated biennially, and shall be published, in aggregate form and in a format accessible to the public, on the Department of Health Professions website. However, the Board may release information that identifies specific individuals for the purpose of determining shortage designations and to qualified personnel if pertinent to an investigation, research, or study, provided a written agreement between such qualified personnel and the Department, which ensures that any person to whom such identities are divulged shall preserve the confidentiality of such identities, is executed.

B. The Board shall promulgate regulations to implement the provisions of this section. Such regulations shall include: (i) the specific number and types of nursing workforce data elements to be collected; (ii) the process by which the information is collected, stored, and made available to interested parties; (iii) provisions to ensure the confidentiality of the data to be collected and to protect the identity of all individuals submitting information; and (iv) other provisions as determined by the Board.

2000, cc. 587, 701; 2002, c. 333; 2008, c. 373; 2009, c. 382.

An institution desiring to conduct a nursing education program to prepare professional or practical nurses shall apply to the Board and submit evidence that:

1. It is prepared to meet the minimum standards prescribed by the Board for either a professional nursing curriculum or a practical nursing curriculum; and

2. It is prepared to meet such other standards as may be established by law or by the Board.

A survey of the institution and its entire nursing education program shall be made by the administrative officer or other authorized employee of the Board, who shall submit a written report of the survey to the Board. If, in the opinion of the Board, the requirements necessary for approval are met, it shall be approved as a nursing education program for professional or practical nurses.

New nursing education programs shall not be established or conducted unless approved by the Board.

Code 1950, §§ 54-355, 54-357; 1970, c. 116, §§ 54-367.27, 54-367.29; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 7; 2016, c. 83.

In the exercise of its authority to establish minimum standards for professional nursing curricula and practical nursing curricula, the Board of Nursing, on and after July 1, 2007, shall require that approved nursing education programs provide instruction in child abuse recognition and intervention.

2006, c. 528.

A. The Board shall, through its administrative officer or other authorized representative, survey all nursing education programs in the Commonwealth as necessary. Written reports of such surveys shall be submitted to the Board. If the Board determines that any approved nursing education program is not maintaining the required standards, notice in writing specifying the deficiencies shall be immediately given to the institution conducting the program.

B. Following an informal fact-finding proceeding held pursuant to § 2.2-4019, at which the Board places a program on conditional approval with terms and conditions that include a restriction on enrollment in a nursing education program:

1. The Board shall state in its order or decision letter the specific violations of law or regulation and the factual basis for each violation with sufficient specificity to inform the program of the basis for the decision so that the nursing education program may take corrective steps to address any identified violations.

2. A program subject to any term or condition set forth in an order or decision letter entered by the Board that constitutes a restriction on enrollment for a nursing education program shall have 30 days from the entry of the Board's order or decision letter to request a formal hearing pursuant to § 2.2-4020, and any term or condition restricting enrollment shall be stayed upon receipt of such request within 30 days from the Board's entry of its order or the decision letter. If a nursing education program does not request a formal hearing as provided in this section within 30 days of the entry of the Board's order or decision letter, the term or condition that constitutes a restriction on enrollment in a nursing education program shall be effective immediately.

3. Following a formal hearing held pursuant to § 2.2-4020, the order or decision letter of the Board shall identify the factual basis of any finding that the nursing education program's information presented at the formal hearing was insufficient to demonstrate compliance with the law or regulations of the Board.

4. If an order of the Board entered following a formal hearing held pursuant to § 2.2-4020 provides that the program is to continue on conditional approval with terms or conditions involving a restriction on enrollment, the program shall be advised of the right to appeal the order or decision letter to the appropriate circuit court in accordance with § 2.2-4026 and Part 2A of the Rules of the Supreme Court of Virginia.

5. Any restriction on enrollment shall be limited to one year.

Following the expiration of the restriction on enrollment, if the Board determines that the specific violations that led to the restriction on enrollment have not been remedied, it shall provide the nursing education program with written notice pursuant to § 2.2-4019 to appear for an informal fact-finding proceeding with an opportunity to present evidence of compliance before the Board.

C. A program that fails to correct these deficiencies to the satisfaction of the Board within a reasonable time shall be discontinued after a hearing in which such facts are established.

D. The Board shall provide to a nursing education program any written complaint or written summary of a verbal complaint related to the program when any administrative request for information is initiated or subpoena issued.

E. In addition to the program director, a nursing education program may designate one or more persons with whom the Board shall communicate for purposes of providing official notices, obtaining information, and responding to requests for information regarding the nursing education program; such persons need not be licensed nurses and need not maintain their primary place of business at the same address as the nursing education program.

Code 1950, § 54-358; 1970, c. 116, § 54-367.28; 1988, c. 765; 2012, c. 644.

Any person licensed as a certified tuberculosis nurse to perform duties as prescribed by the State Board of Examiners of Nurses, now known as the Board of Nursing, on July 1, 1970, shall continue to be so licensed unless his license is suspended or revoked in accordance with the provisions of this chapter.

1970, c. 116, § 54-367.30; 1982, c. 598; 1988, c. 765.

Article 2. Licensure of Registered Nurses.

Any person who holds a license or a multistate licensure privilege to practice professional nursing in Virginia shall have the right to use the title "registered nurse" and the abbreviation "R.N." No other person shall assume such title or use such abbreviation or any other words, letters, signs or devices to indicate that the person using the same is a registered nurse.

1970, c. 116, § 54-367.17; 1988, c. 765; 2004, c. 49.

Licensed practical nurses, registered nurses, and advanced practice registered nurses may practice as correctional health assistants pursuant to § 54.1-2901.

1997, c. 720; 2023, c. 183.

A. An applicant for a license to practice professional nursing shall submit evidence satisfactory to the Board that such applicant:

1. Has completed an approved four-year high school course of study or the equivalent as determined by the appropriate educational agency;

2. Has received a diploma or degree from an approved professional nursing education program;

3. Has passed a written examination as required by the Board; and

4. Has committed no acts which are grounds for disciplinary action as set forth in this chapter.

B. The Board shall consider and may accept relevant practical experience and didactic and clinical components of education and training completed by an applicant for licensure as a registered nurse during his service as a member of any branch of the armed forces of the United States as evidence of the satisfaction of the educational requirements for licensure.

C. An applicant who graduated from a nursing education program in a foreign country shall be required to:

1. Have (i) graduated or be eligible to graduate from a licensing board-approved RN or LPN/VN prelicensure education program or (ii) graduated from a foreign RN or LPN/VN prelicensure education program that has been approved by the authorized accrediting body in the applicable country and has been verified by an independent credentials review agency recognized by the Board to be comparable to a U.S. licensing board-approved RN or LPN/VN prelicensure education program; and

2. Have, if a graduate of a foreign RN or LPN/VN prelicensure education program not taught in English or if English is not the individual's native language, successfully passed an English proficiency examination that includes reading, speaking, writing, and listening components.

The Board shall identify multiple approved entities to provide language examinations and multiple approved entities to evaluate and verify credentials earned from a nursing education program in a foreign country. The Board shall make the list of approved entities publicly available on its website.

Code 1950, § 54-346; 1970, c. 116; 1979, c. 5, § 54-367.13; 1982, c. 598; 1988, c. 765; 2011, c. 390; 2023, c. 579.

The Board may issue a provisional license to an applicant for licensure as a registered nurse who has met the educational and examination requirements for licensure, in order to allow the applicant to obtain clinical experience, as specified by the Board in regulation. A person practicing under a provisional license shall only practice under the supervision of a licensed registered nurse, in accordance with regulations established by the Board.

2011, c. 712.

A. The Board may issue a license by endorsement to an applicant to practice professional nursing if the applicant has been licensed as a professional or registered nurse under the laws of another state, the District of Columbia, or a United States possession or territory, and, in the opinion of the Board, the applicant meets the qualifications required of registered nurses in this Commonwealth.

B. The Board shall also endorse for licensure nurses who hold an unrestricted license in Canada and whose training was obtained in a nursing school in Canada where English was the primary language and who have passed the Canadian Registered Nurses Examination (CRNE).

Code 1950, § 54-350; 1970, c. 116; 1982, c. 598, § 54-367.14; 1988, c. 765; 2002, c. 713.

Repealed by Acts 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 157, cl. 2, effective July 1, 2021.

Any person licensed by the Board as a registered nurse who wishes to provide sexual assault survivor treatment services or sexual assault survivor transfer services, as defined in § 32.1-162.15:2, to pediatric survivors of sexual assault, as defined in § 32.1-162.15:2, shall comply with the provisions of Article 8 (§ 32.1-162.15:2 et seq.) of Chapter 5 of Title 32.1 applicable to pediatric medical care facilities.

2020, c. 725.

Article 3. Licensure of Practical Nurses.

Any person who holds a license or a multistate licensure privilege to practice as a licensed practical nurse in Virginia shall have the right to use the title "Licensed practical nurse" and the abbreviation "L.P.N." No other person shall assume such title or use such abbreviation or any other words, letters, signs or devices to indicate that the person using the same is a licensed practical nurse.

1970, c. 116, § 54-367.23; 1988, c. 765; 2004, c. 49.

A. An applicant for a license to practice as a practical nurse shall furnish evidence satisfactory to the Board that the applicant:

1. Has completed two years of high school or its equivalent;

2. Has received a diploma from an approved practical nursing program;

3. Has passed a written examination as required by the Board; and

4. Has committed no acts which are grounds for disciplinary action as set forth in this chapter.

B. The Board shall consider and may accept relevant practical experience and didactic and clinical components of education and training completed by an applicant for licensure as a practical nurse during his service as a member of any branch of the armed forces of the United States as evidence of the satisfaction of the educational requirements for licensure.

Code 1950, § 54-348; 1970, c. 116; 1979, c. 5, § 54-367.19; 1982, c. 598; 1988, c. 765; 2011, c. 390.

The Board may issue a license by endorsement to any applicant to practice as a licensed practical nurse if the applicant has been licensed as a practical nurse or a person entitled to perform similar services under laws of another state, the District of Columbia or a United States possession or territory and, in the opinion of the Board, the applicant meets the requirements for licensed practical nurses in this Commonwealth.

Code 1950, § 54-351; 1970, c. 116; 1982, c. 598, § 54-367.20; 1988, c. 765.

Article 4. Certification of Nurse Aides.

No person shall use or assume the title "Certified Nurse Aide" or abbreviation "C.N.A." or any words, letters, signs, or devices to indicate that person is a certified nurse aide unless certified by the Board.

1989, c. 278.

A. Every applicant for certification by competency evaluation shall pay the required application fee and shall submit written evidence that the applicant:

1. Has not committed any act or omission that would be grounds for discipline or denial of certification under this article; and

2. Has successfully completed an education or training program approved by the Board.

B. The Board shall consider and may accept relevant practical experience and didactic and clinical components of education and training completed by an applicant for certification as a nurse aide during his service as a member of any branch of the armed forces of the United States as evidence of the satisfaction of the educational requirements for certification.

1989, c. 278; 2011, c. 390.

Every applicant for certification by endorsement shall pay the required application fee, shall submit the information required by the Board in the manner and form specified by the Board, and shall submit written evidence that the applicant:

1. Is certified to practice as a nurse aide by another state or territory of the United States (with requirements that are essentially similar to the requirements for certification set out in this article) and that such certification is in good standing;

2. Has not committed any act or omission that would be grounds for discipline or denial of certification under this article;

3. Has no record of abuse, negligent practice, or misappropriation of a patient's or resident's property or any disciplinary action taken or pending in any other state or territory against such certification.

1989, c. 278.

All applicants except those certified by endorsement shall be required to pass a clinical competency evaluation. Such evaluation shall be in written or oral form and shall include the following areas:

1. Basic nursing skills;

2. Personal care skills;

3. Recognition of mental health and social services needs;

4. Basic restorative services; and

5. Resident or patient rights.

1989, c. 278.

A. The Board shall develop and promulgate regulations to establish a career advancement certification that will indicate enhanced competence in patient care tasks and enable certified nurse aides to expand the scope of the responsibilities and duties delegated to them. An advanced certificate shall be awarded upon successful completion of the required educational and training standards set by the Board. Each institution that desires to conduct programs to provide training for such advanced certificates shall be approved by the Board pursuant to § 54.1-3005.

B. An advanced certificate issued to a certified nurse aide shall be renewed biennially upon payment of any specified fee. The certified nurse aide shall submit proof of compliance with any requirements of law and regulation concerning competence as established by the Board.

2001, c. 448.

Each certificate issued to practice as a nurse aide shall be renewed annually upon payment of any specified fee. The nurse aide shall submit proof of compliance with any requirements of law and regulation concerning continued employment or competence as a condition of such renewal. The Board shall establish requirements for the renewal of certifications consistent with federal law.

1989, c. 278; 2016, c. 87.

This article shall not be construed to affect or apply to:

1. The gratuitous care of friends or family members;

2. A person for hire who does not represent himself as or hold himself out to the public as a certified nurse aide. However, a person for hire who is not a certified nurse aide in accordance with this article shall not hold himself out as a certified nurse aide or be employed as a certified nurse aide.

1989, c. 278.

The Board shall add to its registry of certified nurse aides any individual determined by the Board of Nursing as being qualified to be a nurse aide by reason of training in accordance with federal law prior to October 1, 1989. Such individuals shall meet any continuing requirements of the Board to retain certification.

1989, c. 278.

Nurse aide education programs designed to prepare nurse aides for certification shall be a minimum of 120 clock hours in length. The curriculum of such programs shall include communication and interpersonal skills, safety and emergency procedures, personal care skills, observational and reporting techniques, appropriate clinical care of the aged and disabled, skills for basic restorative services, clients' rights, legal aspects of practice as a certified nurse aide, occupational health and safety measures, culturally sensitive care, and appropriate management of conflict. The Board shall promulgate regulations to implement the provisions of this section.

1999, c. 783; 2016, cc. 109, 582.

Article 5. Licensure of Massage therapists.

A. In order to be licensed as a massage therapist, the applicant shall furnish evidence satisfactory to the Board that the applicant:

1. Is at least 18 years old;

2. Has successfully completed a massage therapy educational program that required a minimum of 500 hours of training. The massage therapy educational program shall be certified or approved by the State Council of Higher Education for Virginia or an agency in another state, the District of Columbia, or a United States territory that approves educational programs, notwithstanding the provisions of § 23.1-226;

3. Has passed the Licensing Examination of the Federation of State Massage Therapy Boards or an examination deemed acceptable to the Board of Nursing; and

4. Has not committed any acts or omissions that would be grounds for disciplinary action or denial of licensure as set forth in this chapter.

B. The Board may issue a provisional license to an applicant prior to passing the Licensing Examination of the Federation of State Massage Therapy Boards for such time and in such manner as prescribed by the Board. No more than one provisional license shall be issued to any applicant.

C. The Board may license without examination any applicant who is licensed as a massage therapist in another state, the District of Columbia, a United States possession or territory, or another country, and, in the opinion of the Board, meets the requirements for licensed massage therapists in the Commonwealth.

D. An applicant who completed a massage therapy educational program in a foreign country may apply for licensure as a massage therapist upon submission of evidence, satisfactory to the Board, that the applicant:

1. Is at least 18 years old;

2. Has successfully completed a massage therapy educational program in a foreign country that is comparable to a massage therapy educational program required for licensure by the Board as demonstrated by submission of evidence of comparability and equivalency provided by an agency that evaluates credentials for persons who have studied outside the United States;

3. Has passed a Board-approved English language proficiency examination; and

4. Has not committed any acts or omissions that would be grounds for disciplinary action or denial of licensure as set forth in this chapter.

The Board shall issue a license to an applicant who meets the requirements in this subsection upon submission by the applicant of evidence satisfactory to the Board that the applicant has completed an English version of the Licensing Examination of the Federation of State Massage Therapy Boards or a comparable examination deemed acceptable to the Board.

1996, c. 166; 1997, c. 599; 2004, c. 991; 2012, c. 764; 2016, c. 324; 2020, c. 727.

The Advisory Board on Massage Therapy shall assist the Board in carrying out the provisions of this chapter regarding the qualifications, examination, registration, regulation, and standards of professional conduct of massage therapists as described in § 54.1-3029. The Advisory Board shall also assist in such other matters relating to the practice of massage therapy as the Board may require.

The Advisory Board on Massage Therapy shall consist of five members to be appointed by the Governor for four-year terms as follows: three members shall be licensed massage therapists who have practiced in the Commonwealth for not less than three years prior to their appointment, one shall be an administrator or faculty member of a nationally accredited school of massage therapy, and one shall be a citizen member appointed from the Commonwealth at large.

The Advisory Board shall elect a chairman and vice-chairman from among its membership. The Advisory Board shall meet at least once a year and may hold additional meetings as necessary to perform its duties. A majority of the Board shall constitute a quorum for the conduct of business.

Vacancies occurring other than by expiration of term shall be filled for the unexpired term. No person shall be eligible to serve on the Advisory Board for more than two successive terms.

2009, c. 534; 2016, c. 324.

Article 6. Nurse Licensure Compact [Repealed].

Repealed by Acts 2016, c. 108, cl. 3, effective July 20, 2017.

Article 6.1. Nurse Licensure Compact.

A. The party states find that:

1. The health and safety of the public are affected by the degree of compliance with and the effectiveness of enforcement activities related to state nurse licensure laws;

2. Violations of nurse licensure and other laws regulating the practice of nursing may result in injury or harm to the public;

3. The expanded mobility of nurses and the use of advanced communication technologies as part of our nation's health care delivery system require greater coordination and cooperation among states in the areas of nurse licensure and regulation;

4. New practice modalities and technology make compliance with individual state nurse licensure laws difficult and complex;

5. The current system of duplicative licensure for nurses practicing in multiple states is cumbersome and redundant for both nurses and states; and

6. Uniformity of nurse licensure requirements throughout the states promotes public safety and public health benefits.

B. The general purposes of this Compact are to:

1. Facilitate the states' responsibility to protect the public's health and safety;

2. Ensure and encourage the cooperation of party states in the areas of nurse licensure and regulation;

3. Facilitate the exchange of information between party states in the areas of nurse regulation, investigation, and adverse actions;

4. Promote compliance with the laws governing the practice of nursing in each jurisdiction;

5. Invest all party states with the authority to hold a nurse accountable for meeting all state practice laws in the state in which the patient is located at the time care is rendered through the mutual recognition of party state licenses;

6. Decrease redundancies in the consideration and issuance of nurse licenses; and

7. Provide opportunities for interstate practice by nurses who meet uniform licensure requirements.

2016, c. 108.

As used in the Nurse Licensure Compact, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Adverse action" means any administrative, civil, equitable or criminal action permitted by a state's laws which is imposed by a licensing board or other authority against a nurse, including actions against an individual's license or multistate licensure privilege such as revocation, suspension, probation, monitoring of the licensee, limitation on the licensee's practice, or any other encumbrance on licensure affecting a nurse's authorization to practice, including issuance of a cease and desist action.

"Alternative program" means a nondisciplinary monitoring program approved by a licensing board.

"Coordinated licensure information system" means an integrated process for collecting, storing, and sharing information on nurse licensure and enforcement activities related to nurse licensure laws that is administered by a nonprofit organization composed of and controlled by licensing boards.

"Current significant investigative information" means:

1. Investigative information that a licensing board, after a preliminary inquiry that includes notification and an opportunity for the nurse to respond, if required by state law, has reason to believe is not groundless and, if proved true, would indicate more than a minor infraction; or

2. Investigative information that indicates that the nurse represents an immediate threat to public health and safety regardless of whether the nurse has been notified and had an opportunity to respond.

"Encumbrance" means a revocation or suspension of, or any limitation on, the full and unrestricted practice of nursing imposed by a licensing board.

"Home state" means the party state which is the nurse's primary state of residence.

"Licensing board" means a party state's regulatory body responsible for issuing nurse licenses.

"Multistate license" means a license to practice as a registered or a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/VN) issued by a home state licensing board that authorizes the licensed nurse to practice in all party states under a multistate licensure privilege.

"Multistate licensure privilege" means a legal authorization associated with a multistate license permitting the practice of nursing as either a registered nurse (RN) or LPN/VN in a remote state.

"Nurse" means RN or LPN/VN, as those terms are defined by each party state's practice laws.

"Party state" means any state that has adopted this Compact.

"Remote state" means a party state, other than the home state.

"Single-state license" means a nurse license issued by a party state that authorizes practice only within the issuing state and does not include a multistate licensure privilege to practice in any other party state.

"State" means a state, territory, or possession of the United States and the District of Columbia.

"State practice laws" means a party state's laws, rules, and regulations that govern the practice of nursing, define the scope of nursing practice, and create the methods and grounds for imposing discipline. "State practice laws" does not include requirements necessary to obtain and retain a license, except for qualifications or requirements of the home state.

2016, c. 108.

A. A multistate license to practice registered or licensed practical/vocational nursing issued by a home state to a resident in that state will be recognized by each party state as authorizing a nurse to practice as a registered nurse (RN) or as a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/VN), under a multistate licensure privilege, in each party state.

B. A state must implement procedures for considering the criminal history records of applicants for initial multistate license or licensure by endorsement. Such procedures shall include the submission of fingerprints or other biometric-based information by applicants for the purpose of obtaining an applicant's criminal history record information from the Federal Bureau of Investigation and the agency responsible for retaining that state's criminal records.

C. Each party state shall require the following for an applicant to obtain or retain a multistate license in the home state:

1. Meets the home state's qualifications for licensure or renewal of licensure, as well as all other applicable state laws;

2. Has (a) graduated or is eligible to graduate from a licensing board-approved RN or LPN/VN prelicensure education program or (b) graduated from a foreign RN or LPN/VN prelicensure education program that has been approved by the authorized accrediting body in the applicable country and has been verified by an independent credentials review agency to be comparable to a licensing board-approved prelicensure education program;

3. Has, if a graduate of a foreign prelicensure education program not taught in English or if English is not the individual's native language, successfully passed an English proficiency examination that includes the components of reading, speaking, writing, and listening;

4. Has successfully passed an NCLEX-RN® or NCLEX-PN® Examination or recognized predecessor, as applicable;

5. Is eligible for or holds an active, unencumbered license;

6. Has submitted, in connection with an application for initial licensure or licensure by endorsement, fingerprints or other biometric data for the purpose of obtaining criminal history record information from the Federal Bureau of Investigation and the agency responsible for retaining that state's criminal records;

7. Has not been convicted or found guilty, or has entered into an agreed disposition, of a felony offense under applicable state or federal criminal law;

8. Has not been convicted or found guilty, or has entered into an agreed disposition, of a misdemeanor offense related to the practice of nursing as determined on a case-by-case basis;

9. Is not currently enrolled in an alternative program;

10. Is subject to self-disclosure requirements regarding current participation in an alternative program; and

11. Has a valid United States social security number.

D. All party states shall be authorized, in accordance with existing state due process law, to take adverse action against a nurse's multistate licensure privilege, such as revocation, suspension, probation, or any other action that affects a nurse's authorization to practice under a multistate licensure privilege, including cease and desist actions. If a party state takes such action, it shall promptly notify the administrator of the coordinated licensure information system. The administrator of the coordinated licensure information system shall promptly notify the home state of any such actions by remote states.

E. A nurse practicing in a party state must comply with the state practice laws of the state in which the client is located at the time service is provided. The practice of nursing is not limited to patient care, but shall include all nursing practice as defined by the state practice laws of the party state in which the client is located. The practice of nursing in a party state under a multistate licensure privilege will subject a nurse to the jurisdiction of the licensing board, the courts, and the laws of the party state in which the client is located at the time service is provided.

F. Individuals not residing in a party state shall continue to be able to apply for a party state's single-state license as provided under the laws of each party state. However, the single-state license granted to these individuals will not be recognized as granting the privilege to practice nursing in any other party state. Nothing in this Compact shall affect the requirements established by a party state for the issuance of a single-state license.

G. Any nurse holding a home state multistate license, on the effective date of this Compact, may retain and renew the multistate license issued by the nurse's then-current home state, provided that:

1. A nurse who changes primary state of residence after this Compact's effective date must meet all applicable requirements of subsection C to obtain a multistate license from a new home state.

2. A nurse who fails to satisfy the multistate licensure requirements in subsection C due to a disqualifying event occurring after this Compact's effective date shall be ineligible to retain or renew a multistate license, and the nurse's multistate license shall be revoked or deactivated in accordance with applicable rules adopted by the Interstate Commission of Nurse Licensure Compact Administrators (Commission).

2016, c. 108.

A. Upon application for a multistate license, the licensing board in the issuing party state shall ascertain, through the coordinated licensure information system, whether the applicant has ever held, or is the holder of, a license issued by any other state, whether there are any encumbrances on any license or multistate licensure privilege held by the applicant, whether any adverse action has been taken against any license or multistate licensure privilege held by the applicant, and whether the applicant is currently participating in an alternative program.

B. A nurse may hold a multistate license issued by the home state in only one party state at a time.

C. If a nurse changes primary state of residence by moving between two party states, the nurse must apply for licensure in the new home state, and the multistate license issued by the prior home state will be deactivated in accordance with applicable rules adopted by the Commission.

1. The nurse may apply for licensure in advance of a change in primary state of residence.

2. A multistate license shall not be issued by the new home state until the nurse provides satisfactory evidence of a change in primary state of residence to the new home state and satisfies all applicable requirements to obtain a multistate license from the new home state.

D. If a nurse changes primary state of residence by moving from a party state to a non-party state, the multistate license issued by the prior home state will convert to a single-state license, valid only in the former home state.

2016, c. 108.

A. In addition to the other powers conferred by state law, a licensing board shall have the authority to:

1. Take adverse action against a nurse's multistate licensure privilege to practice within that party state.

a. Only the home state shall have the power to take adverse action against a nurse's license issued by the home state.

b. For purposes of taking adverse action, the home state licensing board shall give the same priority and effect to reported conduct received from a remote state as it would if such conduct had occurred within the home state. In so doing, the home state shall apply its own state laws to determine appropriate action.

2. Issue cease and desist orders or impose an encumbrance on a nurse's authority to practice within that party state.

3. Complete any pending investigations of a nurse who changes primary state of residence during the course of such investigations. The licensing board shall also have the authority to take appropriate action(s) and shall promptly report the conclusions of such investigations to the administrator of the coordinated licensure information system. The administrator of the coordinated licensure information system shall promptly notify the new home state of any such actions.

4. Issue subpoenas for both hearings and investigations that require the attendance and testimony of witnesses, as well as the production of evidence. Subpoenas issued by a licensing board in a party state for the attendance and testimony of witnesses or the production of evidence from another party state shall be enforced in the latter state by any court of competent jurisdiction, according to the practice and procedure of that court applicable to subpoenas issued in proceedings pending before it. The issuing authority shall pay any witness fees, travel expenses, mileage, and other fees required by the service statutes of the state in which the witnesses or evidence are located.

5. Obtain and submit, for each nurse licensure applicant, fingerprint or other biometric-based information to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for criminal background checks, receive the results of the Federal Bureau of Investigation record search on criminal background checks, and use the results in making licensure decisions.

6. If otherwise permitted by state law, recover from the affected nurse the costs of investigations and disposition of cases resulting from any adverse action taken against that nurse.

7. Take adverse action based on the factual findings of the remote state, provided that the licensing board follows its own procedures for taking such adverse action.

B. If adverse action is taken by the home state against a nurse's multistate license, the nurse's multistate licensure privilege to practice in all other party states shall be deactivated until all encumbrances have been removed from the multistate license. All home state disciplinary orders that impose adverse action against a nurse's multistate license shall include a statement that the nurse's multistate licensure privilege is deactivated in all party states during the pendency of the order.

C. Nothing in this Compact shall override a party state's decision that participation in an alternative program may be used in lieu of adverse action. The home state licensing board shall deactivate the multistate licensure privilege under the multistate license of any nurse for the duration of the nurse's participation in an alternative program.

2016, c. 108.

A. All party states shall participate in a coordinated licensure information system of all licensed registered nurses (RNs) and licensed practical/vocational nurses (LPNs/VNs). This system will include information on the licensure and disciplinary history of each nurse, as submitted by party states, to assist in the coordination of nurse licensure and enforcement efforts.

B. The Commission, in consultation with the administrator of the coordinated licensure information system, shall formulate necessary and proper procedures for the identification, collection, and exchange of information under this Compact.

C. All licensing boards shall promptly report to the coordinated licensure information system any adverse action, any current significant investigative information, denials of applications (with the reasons for such denials), and nurse participation in alternative programs known to the licensing board regardless of whether such participation is deemed nonpublic or confidential under state law.

D. Current significant investigative information and participation in nonpublic or confidential alternative programs shall be transmitted through the coordinated licensure information system only to party state licensing boards.

E. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, all party state licensing boards contributing information to the coordinated licensure information system may designate information that may not be shared with non-party states or disclosed to other entities or individuals without the express permission of the contributing state.

F. Any personally identifiable information obtained from the coordinated licensure information system by a party state licensing board shall not be shared with non-party states or disclosed to other entities or individuals except to the extent permitted by the laws of the party state contributing the information.

G. Any information contributed to the coordinated licensure information system that is subsequently required to be expunged by the laws of the party state contributing that information shall also be expunged from the coordinated licensure information system.

H. The Compact administrator of each party state shall furnish a uniform data set to the Compact administrator of each other party state, which shall include, at a minimum:

1. Identifying information;

2. Licensure data;

3. Information related to alternative program participation; and

4. Other information that may facilitate the administration of this Compact, as determined by Commission rules.

I. The Compact administrator of a party state shall provide all investigative documents and information requested by another party state.

2016, c. 108.

A. The party states hereby create and establish a joint public entity known as the Interstate Commission of Nurse Licensure Compact Administrators (Commission).

1. The Commission is an instrumentality of the party states.

2. Venue is proper, and judicial proceedings by or against the Commission shall be brought solely and exclusively, in a court of competent jurisdiction where the principal office of the Commission is located. The Commission may waive venue and jurisdictional defenses to the extent it adopts or consents to participate in alternative dispute resolution proceedings.

3. Nothing in this Compact shall be construed to be a waiver of sovereign immunity.

B. Membership, voting, and meetings.

1. Each party state shall have and be limited to one administrator. The head of the state licensing board or designee shall be the administrator of this Compact for each party state. Any administrator may be removed or suspended from office as provided by the law of the state from which the Administrator is appointed. Any vacancy occurring in the Commission shall be filled in accordance with the laws of the party state in which the vacancy exists.

2. Each administrator shall be entitled to one (1) vote with regard to the promulgation of rules and creation of bylaws and shall otherwise have an opportunity to participate in the business and affairs of the Commission. An administrator shall vote in person or by such other means as provided in the bylaws. The bylaws may provide for an administrator's participation in meetings by telephone or other means of communication.

3. The Commission shall meet at least once during each calendar year. Additional meetings shall be held as set forth in the bylaws or rules of the commission.

4. All meetings shall be open to the public, and public notice of meetings shall be given in the same manner as required under the rulemaking provisions in § 54.1-3040.8.

5. The Commission may convene in a closed, nonpublic meeting if the Commission must discuss:

a. Noncompliance of a party state with its obligations under this Compact;

b. The employment, compensation, discipline, or other personnel matters, practices, or procedures related to specific employees or other matters related to the Commission's internal personnel practices and procedures;

c. Current, threatened, or reasonably anticipated litigation;

d. Negotiation of contracts for the purchase or sale of goods, services, or real estate;

e. Accusing any person of a crime or formally censuring any person;

f. Disclosure of trade secrets or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential;

g. Disclosure of information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;

h. Disclosure of investigatory records compiled for law-enforcement purposes;

i. Disclosure of information related to any reports prepared by or on behalf of the Commission for the purpose of investigation of compliance with this Compact; or

j. Matters specifically exempted from disclosure by federal or state statute.

6. If a meeting, or portion of a meeting, is closed pursuant to this provision, the Commission's legal counsel or designee shall certify that the meeting may be closed and shall reference each relevant exempting provision. The Commission shall keep minutes that fully and clearly describe all matters discussed in a meeting and shall provide a full and accurate summary of actions taken, and the reasons therefor, including a description of the views expressed. All documents considered in connection with an action shall be identified in such minutes. All minutes and documents of a closed meeting shall remain under seal, subject to release by a majority vote of the Commission or order of a court of competent jurisdiction.

C. The Commission shall, by a majority vote of the administrators, prescribe bylaws or rules to govern its conduct as may be necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes and exercise the powers of this Compact, including but not limited to:

1. Establishing the fiscal year of the Commission;

2. Providing reasonable standards and procedures:

a. For the establishment and meetings of other committees; and

b. Governing any general or specific delegation of any authority or function of the Commission;

3. Providing reasonable procedures for calling and conducting meetings of the Commission, ensuring reasonable advance notice of all meetings, and providing an opportunity for attendance of such meetings by interested parties, with enumerated exceptions designed to protect the public's interest, the privacy of individuals, and proprietary information, including trade secrets. The Commission may meet in closed session only after a majority of the administrators vote to close a meeting in whole or in part. As soon as practicable, the Commission must make public a copy of the vote to close the meeting revealing the vote of each administrator, with no proxy votes allowed;

4. Establishing the titles, duties, and authority and reasonable procedures for the election of the officers of the Commission;

5. Providing reasonable standards and procedures for the establishment of the personnel policies and programs of the Commission. Notwithstanding any civil service or other similar laws of any party state, the bylaws shall exclusively govern the personnel policies and programs of the Commission; and

6. Providing a mechanism for winding up the operations of the Commission and the equitable disposition of any surplus funds that may exist after the termination of this Compact after the payment or reserving of all of its debts and obligations.

D. The Commission shall publish its bylaws and rules, and any amendments thereto, in a convenient form on the website of the Commission.

E. The Commission shall maintain its financial records in accordance with the bylaws.

F. The Commission shall meet and take such actions as are consistent with the provisions of this Compact and the bylaws.

G. The Commission shall have the following powers:

1. To promulgate uniform rules to facilitate and coordinate implementation and administration of this Compact. The rules shall have the force and effect of law and shall be binding in all party states;

2. To bring and prosecute legal proceedings or actions in the name of the Commission, provided that the standing of any licensing board to sue or be sued under applicable law shall not be affected;

3. To purchase and maintain insurance and bonds;

4. To borrow, accept, or contract for services of personnel, including, but not limited to, employees of a party state or nonprofit organizations;

5. To cooperate with other organizations that administer state compacts related to the regulation of nursing, including but not limited to sharing administrative or staff expenses, office space, or other resources;

6. To hire employees, elect or appoint officers, fix compensation, define duties, grant such individuals appropriate authority to carry out the purposes of this Compact and to establish the Commission's personnel policies and programs relating to conflicts of interest, qualifications of personnel, and other related personnel matters;

7. To accept any and all appropriate donations, grants, and gifts of money, equipment, supplies, materials, and services and to receive, utilize, and dispose of the same, provided that at all times the Commission shall avoid any appearance of impropriety or conflict of interest;

8. To lease, purchase, accept appropriate gifts or donations of, or otherwise to own, hold, improve, or use, any property, whether real, personal or mixed, provided that at all times the Commission shall avoid any appearance of impropriety;

9. To sell, convey, mortgage, pledge, lease, exchange, abandon, or otherwise dispose of any property, whether real, personal, or mixed;

10. To establish a budget and make expenditures;

11. To borrow money;

12. To appoint committees, including advisory committees comprised of administrators, state nursing regulators, state legislators or their representatives, and consumer representatives and other such interested persons;

13. To provide and receive information from, and to cooperate with, law-enforcement agencies;

14. To adopt and use an official seal; and

15. To perform such other functions as may be necessary or appropriate to achieve the purposes of this Compact consistent with the state regulation of nurse licensure and practice.

H. Financing of the Commission.

1. The Commission shall pay, or provide for the payment of, the reasonable expenses of its establishment, organization, and ongoing activities.

2. The Commission may also levy on and collect an annual assessment from each party state to cover the cost of its operations, activities, and staff in its annual budget as approved each year. The aggregate annual assessment amount, if any, shall be allocated based upon a formula to be determined by the Commission, which shall promulgate a rule that is binding upon all party states.

3. The Commission shall not incur obligations of any kind prior to securing the funds adequate to meet the same, nor shall the Commission pledge the credit of any of the party states, except by, and with the authority of, such party state.

4. The Commission shall keep accurate accounts of all receipts and disbursements. The receipts and disbursements of the Commission shall be subject to the audit and accounting procedures established under its bylaws. However, all receipts and disbursements of funds handled by the Commission shall be audited yearly by a certified or licensed public accountant, and the report of the audit shall be included in and become part of the annual report of the Commission.

I. Qualified immunity, defense, and indemnification.

1. The administrators, officers, executive director, employees, and representatives of the Commission shall be immune from suit and liability, either personally or in their official capacity, for any claim for damage to or loss of property or personal injury or other civil liability caused by or arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred, within the scope of Commission employment, duties or responsibilities, provided that nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to protect any such person from suit or liability for any damage, loss, injury, or liability caused by the intentional, willful, or wanton misconduct of that person.

2. The Commission shall defend any administrator, officer, executive director, employee, or representative of the Commission in any civil action seeking to impose liability arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, provided that nothing herein shall be construed to prohibit that person from retaining his or her own counsel and provided further that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from that person's intentional, willful, or wanton misconduct.

3. The Commission shall indemnify and hold harmless any administrator, officer, executive director, employee, or representative of the Commission for the amount of any settlement or judgment obtained against that person arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or that such person had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, provided that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from the intentional, willful, or wanton misconduct of that person.

2016, c. 108.

A. The Commission shall exercise its rulemaking powers pursuant to the criteria set forth in this Article and the rules adopted thereunder. Rules and amendments shall become binding as of the date specified in each rule or amendment and shall have the same force and effect as provisions of this Compact.

B. Rules or amendments to the rules shall be adopted at a regular or special meeting of the Commission.

C. Prior to promulgation and adoption of a final rule or rules by the Commission, and at least sixty (60) days in advance of the meeting at which the rule will be considered and voted upon, the Commission shall file a notice of proposed rulemaking:

1. On the website of the Commission; and

2. On the website of each licensing board or the publication in which each state would otherwise publish proposed rules.

D. The notice of proposed rulemaking shall include:

1. The proposed time, date, and location of the meeting in which the rule will be considered and voted upon;

2. The text of the proposed rule or amendment and the reason for the proposed rule;

3. A request for comments on the proposed rule from any interested person; and

4. The manner in which interested persons may submit notice to the Commission of their intention to attend the public hearing and submit any written comments.

E. Prior to adoption of a proposed rule, the Commission shall allow persons to submit written data, facts, opinions, and arguments, which shall be made available to the public.

F. The Commission shall grant an opportunity for a public hearing before it adopts a rule or amendment.

G. The Commission shall publish the place, time, and date of the scheduled public hearing.

1. Hearings shall be conducted in a manner providing each person who wishes to comment a fair and reasonable opportunity to comment orally or in writing. All hearings will be recorded, and a copy will be made available upon request.

2. Nothing in this section shall be construed as requiring a separate hearing on each rule. Rules may be grouped for the convenience of the Commission at hearings required by this section.

H. If no one appears at the public hearing, the Commission may proceed with promulgation of the proposed rule.

I. Following the scheduled hearing date, or by the close of business on the scheduled hearing date if the hearing was not held, the Commission shall consider all written and oral comments received.

J. The Commission shall, by majority vote of all administrators, take final action on the proposed rule and shall determine the effective date of the rule, if any, based on the rulemaking record and the full text of the rule.

K. Upon determination that an emergency exists, the Commission may consider and adopt an emergency rule without prior notice, opportunity for comment, or hearing, provided that the usual rulemaking procedures provided in this Compact and in this section shall be retroactively applied to the rule as soon as reasonably possible, in no event later than ninety (90) days after the effective date of the rule. For the purposes of this provision, an emergency rule is one that must be adopted immediately in order to:

1. Meet an imminent threat to public health, safety, or welfare;

2. Prevent a loss of Commission or party state funds; or

3. Meet a deadline for the promulgation of an administrative rule that is required by federal law or rule.

L. The Commission may direct revisions to a previously adopted rule or amendment for purposes of correcting typographical errors, errors in format, errors in consistency, or grammatical errors. Public notice of any revisions shall be posted on the website of the Commission. The revision shall be subject to challenge by any person for a period of thirty (30) days after posting. The revision may be challenged only on grounds that the revision results in a material change to a rule. A challenge shall be made in writing, and delivered to the Commission, prior to the end of the notice period. If no challenge is made, the revision will take effect without further action. If the revision is challenged, the revision may not take effect without the approval of the Commission.

2016, c. 108.

A. Oversight.

1. Each party state shall enforce this Compact and take all actions necessary and appropriate to effectuate this Compact's purposes and intent.

2. The Commission shall be entitled to receive service of process in any proceeding that may affect the powers, responsibilities, or actions of the Commission and shall have standing to intervene in such a proceeding for all purposes. Failure to provide service of process in such proceeding to the Commission shall render a judgment or order void as to the Commission, this Compact, or promulgated rules.

B. Default, technical assistance and termination.

1. If the Commission determines that a party state has defaulted in the performance of its obligations or responsibilities under this Compact or the promulgated rules, the Commission shall:

a. Provide written notice to the defaulting state and other party states of the nature of the default, the proposed means of curing the default, or any other action to be taken by the Commission; and

b. Provide remedial training and specific technical assistance regarding the default.

2. If a state in default fails to cure the default, the defaulting state's membership in this Compact may be terminated upon an affirmative vote of a majority of the administrators, and all rights, privileges, and benefits conferred by this Compact may be terminated on the effective date of termination. A cure of the default does not relieve the offending state of obligations or liabilities incurred during the period of default.

3. Termination of membership in this Compact shall be imposed only after all other means of securing compliance have been exhausted. Notice of intent to suspend or terminate shall be given by the Commission to the governor of the defaulting state and to the executive officer of the defaulting state's licensing board and to each of the party states.

4. A state whose membership in this Compact has been terminated is responsible for all assessments, obligations, and liabilities incurred through the effective date of termination, including obligations that extend beyond the effective date of termination.

5. The Commission shall not bear any costs related to a state that is found to be in default or whose membership in this Compact has been terminated unless agreed upon in writing between the Commission and the defaulting state.

6. The defaulting state may appeal the action of the Commission by petitioning the U.S. District Court for the District of Columbia or the federal district in which the Commission has its principal offices. The prevailing party shall be awarded all costs of such litigation, including reasonable attorney fees.

C. Dispute resolution.

1. Upon request by a party state, the Commission shall attempt to resolve disputes related to the Compact that arise among party states and between party and non-party states.

2. The Commission shall promulgate a rule providing for both mediation and binding dispute resolution for disputes, as appropriate.

3. In the event the Commission cannot resolve disputes among party states arising under this Compact:

a. The party states may submit the issues in dispute to an arbitration panel, which will be comprised of individuals appointed by the Compact administrator in each of the affected party states and an individual mutually agreed upon by the Compact administrators of all the party states involved in the dispute.

b. The decision of a majority of the arbitrators shall be final and binding.

D. Enforcement.

1. The Commission, in the reasonable exercise of its discretion, shall enforce the provisions and rules of this Compact.

2. By majority vote, the Commission may initiate legal action in the U.S. District Court for the District of Columbia or the federal district in which the Commission has its principal offices against a party state that is in default to enforce compliance with the provisions of this Compact and its promulgated rules and bylaws. The relief sought may include both injunctive relief and damages. In the event judicial enforcement is necessary, the prevailing party shall be awarded all costs of such litigation, including reasonable attorney fees.

3. The remedies herein shall not be the exclusive remedies of the Commission. The Commission may pursue any other remedies available under federal or state law.

2016, c. 108.

A. This Compact shall become effective and binding on the earlier of the date of legislative enactment of this Compact into law by no less than twenty-six (26) states or December 31, 2018. All party states to this Compact that also were parties to the prior Nurse Licensure Compact (Prior Compact) superseded by this Compact shall be deemed to have withdrawn from said Prior Compact within six (6) months after the effective date of this Compact.

B. Each party state to this Compact shall continue to recognize a nurse's multistate licensure privilege to practice in that party state issued under the Prior Compact until such party state has withdrawn from the Prior Compact.

C. Any party state may withdraw from this Compact by enacting a statute repealing the same. A party state's withdrawal shall not take effect until six (6) months after enactment of the repealing statute.

D. A party state's withdrawal or termination shall not affect the continuing requirement of the withdrawing or terminated state's licensing board to report adverse actions and significant investigations occurring prior to the effective date of such withdrawal or termination.

E. Nothing contained in this Compact shall be construed to invalidate or prevent any nurse licensure agreement or other cooperative arrangement between a party state and a non-party state that is made in accordance with the other provisions of this Compact.

F. This Compact may be amended by the party states. No amendment to this Compact shall become effective and binding upon the party states unless and until it is enacted into the laws of all party states.

G. Representatives of non-party states to this Compact shall be invited to participate in the activities of the Commission, on a nonvoting basis, prior to the adoption of this Compact by all states.

2016, c. 108.

This Compact shall be liberally construed so as to effectuate the purposes thereof. The provisions of this Compact shall be severable, and if any phrase, clause, sentence, or provision of this Compact is declared to be contrary to the constitution of any party state or of the United States, or if the applicability thereof to any government, agency, person, or circumstance is held invalid, the validity of the remainder of this Compact and the applicability thereof to any government, agency, person, or circumstance shall not be affected thereby. If this Compact shall be held to be contrary to the constitution of any party state, this Compact shall remain in full force and effect as to the remaining party states and in full force and effect as to the party state affected as to all severable matters.

2016, c. 108.

Article 7. Medication Aides.

A medication aide who administers drugs that would otherwise be self-administered to residents in an assisted living facility licensed by the Department of Social Services shall be registered by the Board.

2005, cc. 610, 924.

A. Every applicant for registration as a medication aide by competency evaluation shall pay the required application fee and shall submit written evidence that the applicant:

1. Has not committed any act that would be grounds for discipline or denial of registration under this article;

2. Has successfully completed a staff training program in direct care approved by the Department of Social Services or an approved nurse aide education program;

3. Has successfully completed an education or training program approved by the Board that shall include one of the following:

a. A medication aide education or training program approved by the Board that shall be 68 hours combined classroom instruction and clinical skills practice curriculum; or

b. A nursing education program preparing for registered nurse or practical nurse licensure; and

4. Has successfully completed a competency evaluation consisting of both a clinical evaluation of minimal competency and a written examination as specified by the Board.

B. The Board shall (i) make the written examination available in both electronic and non-electronic format, (ii) provide sufficient locations for the administration of any written examination required for registration under this section, to ensure adequate access to the written examination for all applicants, (iii) establish a procedure pursuant to which an examination shall be offered at or near the location of an education or training course, upon the request of five or more applicants, provided that the security of the examination and the integrity of the administration of the examination are ensured and that any additional costs are born by the requesting applicants, and (iv) provide written notice to applicants of the results of any competency examination completed by the applicants within seven days of completion of the examination.

C. Any applicant under this section who has provided to the Board evidence of successful completion of the education or training course required for registration may act as a medication aide on a provisional basis for no more than 120 days before successfully completing any required competency evaluation. However, upon notification of failure to successfully complete the written examination after three attempts, an applicant shall immediately cease acting as a medication aide.

D. Any applicant under this section who shall apply by endorsement from any state or the District of Columbia that requires registration of medication aides who has met the requirements of registration in such jurisdiction may be deemed eligible to sit for the competency evaluation required pursuant to this section, subject to approval of the Board.

2005, cc. 610, 924; 2009, cc. 133, 837.

Every applicant for registration as a medication aide shall complete ongoing training related to the administration of medications as required by the Board.

2005, cc. 610, 924.

Chapter 31. Nursing Home and Assisted Living Facility Administrators.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Assisted living facility" means any public or private assisted living facility, as defined in § 63.2-100, that is required to be licensed as an assisted living facility by the Department of Social Services under the provisions of Subtitle IV (§ 63.2-1700 et seq.) of Title 63.2.

"Assisted living facility administrator" means any individual charged with the general administration of an assisted living facility, regardless of whether he has an ownership interest in the facility.

"Board" means the Board of Long-Term Care Administrators.

"Nursing home" means any public or private facility required to be licensed as a nursing home under the provisions of Chapter 5 (§ 32.1-123 et seq.) of Title 32.1 and the regulations of the Board of Health.

"Nursing home administrator" means any individual charged with the general administration of a nursing home regardless of whether he has an ownership interest in the facility.

1970, c. 775, § 54-900; 1988, c. 765; 2005, cc. 610, 924.

The Board of Long-Term Care Administrators is established as a policy board, within the meaning of § 2.2-2100, in the executive branch of state government. The Board of Long-Term Care Administrators shall consist of nine nonlegislative citizen members to be appointed by the Governor. Nonlegislative citizen members shall be appointed as follows: three who are licensed nursing home administrators; three who are assisted living facility administrators; two who are from professions and institutions concerned with the care and treatment of chronically ill and elderly or mentally impaired patients or residents; and one who is a resident of a nursing home or assisted living facility or a family member or guardian of a resident of a nursing home or assisted living facility. One of the licensed nursing home administrators shall be an administrator of a proprietary nursing home. Nonlegislative citizen members of the Board shall be citizens of the Commonwealth.

After the initial staggering of terms, the terms of Board members shall be four years. Appointments to fill vacancies, other than by expiration of a term, shall be for the unexpired terms. Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointments. All members may be reappointed consistent with § 54.1-107.

The Board shall annually elect a chairman and vice-chairman from among its membership. Five members of the Board, including one who is not a licensed nursing home administrator or assisted living facility administrator, shall constitute a quorum. Special meetings of the Board shall be called by the chairman upon the written request of any three members.

All members shall be reimbursed for all reasonable and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties as provided in §§ 2.2-2813 and 2.2-2825. Funding for the costs of expenses shall be provided by the Department of Health Professions.

The Department of Health Professions shall provide staff support to the Board. All agencies of the Commonwealth shall provide assistance to the Board, upon request.

The Board shall be authorized to promulgate canons of ethics under which the professional activities of persons regulated shall be conducted.

1970, c. 775, §§ 54-903, 54-907; 1973, c. 379; 1981, c. 447; 1987, c. 686, § 54-903.1; 1988, c. 765; 2001, cc. 527, 554; 2005, cc. 610, 924.

A. In order to engage in the general administration of a nursing home, it shall be necessary to hold a nursing home administrator's license issued by the Board.

B. In order to engage in the general administration of an assisted living facility, it shall be necessary to hold an assisted living facility administrator's license or a nursing home administrator's license issued by the Board. However, an administrator of an assisted living facility licensed only to provide residential living care, as defined in § 63.2-100, shall not be required to be licensed.

1979, c. 408, § 54-901.1; 1988, c. 765; 2005, cc. 610, 924.

The Board may waive the experiential or practicum requirements for an applicant for a nursing home administrator's license if the applicant demonstrates significant experience, such as, but not limited to, twenty years of executive experience as an officer in the home office of one or more multi-facility nursing home companies and a minimum of four years of executive responsibility for the operation of one or more nursing homes.

1996, c. 762.

All licensed nursing homes within the Commonwealth shall be under the supervision of an administrator licensed by the Board. If a licensed nursing home administrator dies, becomes ill, resigns or is discharged, the nursing home that was administered by him at the time of his death, illness, resignation or discharge may continue to operate until his successor qualifies, but in no case for longer than is permitted by the licensing authority for the nursing home. The temporary supervisor or administrator shall immediately notify the Board of Long-Term Care Administrators and the Commissioner of Health that the nursing home is operating without the supervision of a licensed nursing home administrator.

1970, c. 775, § 54-901; 1974, c. 600; 1988, c. 765; 2005, cc. 610, 924.

A. All licensed assisted living facilities within the Commonwealth shall be under the supervision of an administrator licensed by the Board, except as provided in subsection B of § 54.1-3102. If a licensed assisted living facility administrator dies, resigns, is discharged, or becomes unable to perform his duties, the assisted living facility may continue to operate with an acting administrator in accordance with the provisions of § 63.2-1803. The facility shall immediately notify the Board of Long-Term Care Administrators and the regional licensing office of the Department of Social Services that the assisted living facility is operating without the supervision of a licensed assisted living facility administrator and shall provide the last date of employment of the licensed administrator. When an acting administrator is named, he shall notify the Department of Social Services of his employment and, if he is intending to assume the position permanently, submit a completed application for an approved administrator-in-training program to the Board within 10 days of employment.

B. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit an assisted living administrator from serving as the administrator of record for more than one assisted living facility as permitted by regulations of the licensing authority for the facility.

2005, cc. 610, 924; 2011, c. 609.

Chapter 32. Optometry.

Article 1. General Provisions.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Board" means the Board of Optometry.

"Optometrist" means any person practicing the profession of optometry as defined in this chapter and the regulations of the Board.

"Practice of optometry" means practice in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-3201.

"TPA-certified optometrist" means an optometrist who is licensed under this chapter and who has successfully completed the requirements for TPA certification established by the Board pursuant to Article 5 (§ 54.1-3222 et seq.).

The foregoing shall not restrict the authority of any optometrist licensed or certified under this chapter for the removal of superficial foreign bodies from the human eye and its adnexa or from delegating to personnel in his personal employ and supervised by him, such activities or functions as are nondiscretionary and do not require the exercise of professional judgment for their performance and which are usually or customarily delegated to such persons by optometrists, if such activities or functions are authorized by and performed for such optometrists and responsibility for such activities or functions is assumed by such optometrists.

Code 1950, § 54-368; 1988, cc. 243, 737, 765; 1991, c. 290; 1996, cc. 152, 158, 365, 436; 2004, c. 744; 2015, c. 355; 2018, c. 280; 2022, cc. 16, 17.

A. The practice of optometry includes:

1. Examination of the human eye to ascertain the presence of defects or abnormal conditions that may be corrected or relieved by the use of lenses, prisms or ocular exercises, or visual training or orthoptics and the prescribing or adapting of lenses, prisms or ocular exercises, or visual training or orthoptics for the correction, relief, remediation, or prevention of such conditions;

2. Employment of any subjective or objective mechanism to determine the accommodative or refractive states of the human eye or range or power of vision of the human eye;

3. Use of testing appliances for the purpose of the measurement of the powers of vision;

4. Examination, diagnosis, and optometric treatment in accordance with this chapter of conditions and visual or muscular anomalies of the human eye;

5. Evaluation, examination, diagnosis, and treatment of abnormal or diseased conditions of the human eye and its adnexa by the use of medically recognized and appropriate devices, procedures, or technologies;

6. Preoperative and postoperative care related to the human eye and adnexa; and

7. Use of diagnostic pharmaceutical agents set forth in § 54.1-3221.

B. Except as provided in §§ 54.1-3222 and 54.1-3225, the practice of optometry does not include treatment through:

1. Surgery, including:

a. Retina laser procedures; laser procedures into the vitreous chamber of the eye to treat vitreous, retinal, or macular disease; laser in situ keratomileusis and photorefractive keratectomy eye surgery; or other laser surgery;

b. Penetrating keratoplasty and corneal transplants;

c. Surgery (i) related to removal of the eye; (ii) requiring a full-thickness incision or excision of the cornea or sclera; (iii) requiring physical incision of the iris and ciliary body, including the diathermy, and cryotherapy; (iv) requiring incision of the vitreous humor or retina; (v) requiring full-thickness conjunctivoplasty with a graft or flap; (vi) of the eyelid for incisional cosmetic or functional repair, or blepharochalasis, ptosis, or tarsorrhaphy treatment; (vii) of the bony orbit, including orbital implants; (viii) requiring surgical extraction of the crystalline lens; or (ix) requiring surgical anterior or posterior chamber intraocular implants; or

d. Incisional or excisional surgery of the (i) extraocular muscles; (ii) lacrimal system, other than probing or related procedures; or (iii) pterygium surgery;

2. Cryotherapy of the ciliary body;

3. Iodizing radiation;

4. The use of injections, including venipuncture and intravenous injections;

5. Administration of or surgery using general anesthesia; or

6. Other invasive modalities.

C. An optometrist may (i) treat certain diseases or abnormal conditions of the human eye and its adnexa with certain therapeutic pharmaceutical agents as permitted under this chapter and (ii) administer intramuscular epinephrine for the treatment of emergency cases of anaphylactic shock.

D. Any person who in any way advertises himself as an optometrist or uses the title of doctor of optometry (O.D.) or any other letters or title in connection with his name which in any way conveys the impression that he is engaged in the practice of optometry shall be deemed to be practicing optometry within the meaning of this chapter.

Code 1950, § 54-368; 1988, cc. 243, 737, 765; 2022, cc. 16, 17.

This chapter shall not apply to:

1. Physicians licensed to practice medicine by the Board of Medicine or to prohibit the sale of nonprescription eyeglasses and sunglasses;

2. Any optometrist rendering free health care to an underserved population in the Commonwealth who (i) does not regularly practice optometry in the Commonwealth; (ii) holds a current valid license or certificate to practice optometry in another state, territory, district, or possession of the United States; (iii) volunteers to provide free health care in an underserved area of the Commonwealth under the auspices of a publicly supported, all volunteer nonprofit organization that sponsors the provision of health care to populations of underserved people; (iv) files a copy of his license or certification in such other jurisdiction with the Board; (v) notifies the Board at least five business days prior to the voluntary provision of services of the dates and location of such service; and (vi) acknowledges, in writing, that such licensure exemption shall only be valid, in compliance with the Board's regulations, during the limited period that such free health care is made available through the volunteer nonprofit organization on the dates and at the location filed with the Board. The Board may deny the right to practice in the Commonwealth to any optometrist whose license or certificate has been previously suspended or revoked, who has been convicted of a felony, or who is otherwise found to be in violation of applicable laws or regulations. However, the Board shall allow an optometrist who meets the criteria of this subdivision to provide volunteer services without prior notice for a period of up to three days, provided the nonprofit organization verifies that the practitioner has a valid, unrestricted license in another state; or

3. Any student, intern, or trainee in optometry who is performing optometric services under the direct supervision of a licensed optometrist or ophthalmologist as part of a course of study at an accredited institution of higher education.

Code 1950, § 54-369; 1988, c. 765; 2002, c. 740; 2008, c. 674; 2009, cc. 353, 761; 2023, c. 268.

Every person practicing optometry shall display his license in a conspicuous place in the principal office in which he practices.

Code 1950, § 54-386; 1988, c. 765.

It shall be unlawful for any person:

1. To practice optometry in this Commonwealth without holding a license issued by the Board. Practicing or offering to practice optometry, or the public representation of being qualified to practice the same by any person not authorized to practice optometry, shall be sufficient evidence of a violation of the law.

2. To impersonate a licensed optometrist of like or different name.

3. To buy or sell or fraudulently obtain a diploma or license.

4. To do any act for which if he were an optometrist his license could be revoked as provided by this chapter.

5. To possess any trial lenses, trial frames, graduated test cards, appliances or instruments used in the practice of optometry, self-testing devices or eyeglass vending machines for the purpose of fitting or prescribing glasses in the practice of optometry, unless he is or unless he regularly employs on the premises a licensed optometrist or a licensed physician.

6. To publish or cause to be published in any manner an advertisement that is false, deceptive or misleading, contains a claim of professional superiority or violates regulations of the Board governing advertising by optometrists.

7. To sell, provide, furnish, supply or duplicate eyeglasses, or lenses for the correction of vision without the prescription of a licensed physician or licensed optometrist, unless he is the holder of a license to practice optometry or a license to practice medicine under the laws of this Commonwealth.

8. To sell or dispense contact lenses, including plano or cosmetic lenses, without holding a license issued by the Board. This subdivision shall not apply to a licensed optician operating or working in a retail establishment, when selling or dispensing contact lenses, including plano or cosmetic lenses, upon the valid written prescription of an individual licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy, or a licensed optometrist.

9. To dispense, administer, or sell an ophthalmic device containing Schedule III, IV, or VI controlled substances or an over-the-counter medication without holding a license issued by the Board, including TPA certification. An "ophthalmic device" shall mean any device, as defined in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) customarily used primarily for ophthalmic purposes, including an ophthalmic device classified by the United States Food and Drug Administration as a drug. Nothing in this subsection shall preclude a pharmacist from dispensing an ophthalmic device, as defined in this subsection, upon the written and valid prescription of an optometrist, providing the patient is then advised by the pharmacist to return for follow-up care to the optometrist prescribing the ophthalmic device.

The provisions of this section shall be enforced in accordance with this chapter and § 54.1-2506.

Code 1950, § 54-396; 1976, c. 758; 1977, c. 161; 1979, c. 39; 1988, c. 765; 2009, cc. 353, 761.

A. It shall be unlawful for any optometrist to practice his profession as a lessee of or in a commercial or mercantile establishment, or to advertise, either in person or through any commercial or mercantile establishment, that he is a licensed practitioner and is practicing or will practice optometry as a lessee of or in the commercial or mercantile establishment.

B. No licensed optometrist shall practice optometry as an employee, directly or indirectly, of a commercial or mercantile establishment, unless such commercial or mercantile establishment was employing a full-time licensed optometrist in its established place of business on June 21, 1938.

C. For the purposes of this section, the term "commercial or mercantile establishment" means a business enterprise engaged in the selling of commodities.

D. For the purposes of this section, an optometrist shall be deemed to be practicing in a commercial or mercantile establishment if he practices, whether directly or indirectly, as an officer, employee, lessee or agent of any person or entity in any location that provides direct access to or from a commercial or mercantile establishment. Direct access includes any entrance or exit, except an entrance or exit closed to the public and used solely for emergency egress pursuant to applicable state and local building and fire safety codes, that prohibits a person from exiting the building or structure occupied by such practice or establishment (i) onto an exterior sidewalk or public way or (ii) into a common area that is not under the control of either the optometry practice or the commercial or mercantile establishment, such as into the common areas of an enclosed shopping mall. For the purposes of this section, neither an optometric practice nor an ophthalmologic practice which sells eyeglasses or contact lenses ancillary to its practice shall be deemed a commercial or mercantile establishment. Further, any entity that is engaged in the sale of eyeglasses or contact lenses, the majority of the beneficial ownership of which is owned by an ophthalmologic practice and/or one or more ophthalmologists, shall not be deemed a commercial or mercantile establishment.

E. This section shall not be construed to prohibit the rendering of professional services to the officers and employees of any person, firm or corporation by an optometrist, whether or not the compensation for such service is paid by the officers and employees, or by the employer, or jointly by all or any of them.

Code 1950, §§ 54-388, 54-397.1; 1968, c. 505; 1976, c. 758; 1977, c. 161; 1979, c. 39; 1988, c. 765; 2005, cc. 711, 720.

No optometrist shall be directly or indirectly supervised within the scope of the practice of optometry by any officer, employee, or agent of a commercial or mercantile establishment, as defined in subsection C of § 54.1-3205, who is not a Virginia-licensed optometrist or physician. No officer, employee, or agent of a commercial or mercantile establishment, who is not a Virginia-licensed optometrist or physician, shall directly or indirectly control, dictate, or influence the professional judgment, including but not limited to the level or type of care or services rendered, of the practice of optometry by a licensed optometrist.

1990, c. 307.

It shall be the duty of the clerk of every circuit court in which any person is convicted of any violation of this chapter or enjoined from unlawfully practicing optometry to report the same to the Board. The Board may thereupon suspend or revoke any certificate or license held by the person so convicted or enjoined. Every such report shall be directed to the secretary of the Board.

1979, c. 39, § 54-398.02; 1988, c. 765.

Article 2. Board of Optometry.

The Board shall be composed of six members as follows: five licensed optometrists and one citizen member. Licensed optometrists appointed to the Board shall be individuals who, at the time of appointment, (i) have been engaged in the practice of optometry for at least five years, (ii) have met all requirements for practice as an optometrist set forth in this chapter and are qualified to engage in the full scope of the practice of optometry, and (iii) are actively engaged in the delivery of clinical care to patients. The terms of office of the members shall be four years.

Code 1950, §§ 54-371, 54-375; 1979, c. 39; 1986, c. 464; 1988, cc. 42, 765; 1996, cc. 152, 158; 2019, c. 340.

Nominations may be made for each professional vacancy from a list of at least three names submitted to the Governor by the Virginia Optometric Association, Incorporated. The Governor may notify the Association promptly of any professional vacancy other than by expiration and like nominations may be made for the filling of the vacancy. In no case shall the Governor be bound to make any appointment from among the nominees of the Association.

Code 1950, § 54-372; 1986, c. 464; 1988, c. 765.

Any member of the Board may, upon being designated by a majority of the Board, administer oaths or take testimony concerning any matter within the jurisdiction of the Board.

Code 1950, § 54-377; 1988, c. 765.

The Board shall adopt a seal of which the executive director shall have the custody. The executive director shall keep a record of all proceedings of the Board, which shall be open to the public for inspection.

Code 1950, § 54-378; 1988, c. 765.

The Board shall set the necessary standards to be attained in the examinations to entitle the candidate to receive a license to practice optometry.

The Board may determine a score that it considers satisfactory on any written examination of the National Board of Examiners in Optometry.

Those persons licensed on or before June 30, 1997, to practice optometry in the Commonwealth but not certified to administer diagnostic pharmaceutical agents may continue to practice optometry but may not administer diagnostic pharmaceutical agents without satisfying the requirements of this section. Those persons licensed after June 30, 1997, shall be considered as certified to administer diagnostic pharmaceutical agents. After June 30, 2004, every person who is initially licensed to practice optometry in the Commonwealth shall meet the qualifications for a TPA-certified optometrist.

Code 1950, §§ 54-380 through 54-382; 1972, c. 824; 1973, c. 90; 1988, c. 765; 1996, cc. 365, 436; 2004, c. 744; 2023, c. 268.

Article 3. Licensure of Optometrists.

An application for a license to practice optometry shall be made in writing and shall be accompanied by satisfactory proof that the applicant has been graduated and received a doctor of optometry degree from a school of optometry approved by the Board.

Code 1950, § 54-382; 1972, c. 824; 1973, c. 90; 1988, c. 765.

A. Every candidate successfully passing the examination shall be licensed by the Board if such candidate possesses the qualifications required by law and regulation to practice optometry.

B. In order to be qualified for licensure as an optometrist, every applicant shall demonstrate competency for certification to prescribe for and treat diseases or abnormal conditions of the human eye and its adnexa with therapeutic pharmaceutical agents (TPAs). Requirements for TPA certification shall include:

1. Satisfactory completion of such didactic and clinical training programs for the treatment of diseases and abnormal conditions of the eye and its adnexa as are determined to be reasonable and necessary by the Board to ensure an appropriate standard of medical care for patients; and

2. Passage of such examinations as are determined to be reasonable and necessary by the Board to ensure an appropriate standard of medical care for patients.

C. Every license to practice optometry granted under the provisions of this chapter shall be renewed at such time, in such manner, and upon payment of such fees as the Board may prescribe.

Code 1950, §§ 54-383, 54-393, 54-394; 1970, c. 341; 1976, c. 32; 1977, c. 161; 1979, c. 39; 1988, c. 765; 2023, c. 268.

Repealed by Acts 2016, c. 92, cl. 1.

The Board may refuse to admit an applicant to any examination; refuse to grant or renew a license or certificate; reprimand, place on probation, or impose a monetary penalty on a licensee; or impose such terms as it may designate, suspend for a stated period of time, or revoke any license or certificate for any of the following causes:

1. Fraud or deceit in his practice;

2. Conviction of any felony under the laws of the Commonwealth, another state, the District of Columbia, or any United States possession or territory or of any misdemeanor under such laws involving moral turpitude;

3. Conducting his practice in such a manner as to endanger the health and welfare of his patients or the public;

4. Use of alcohol or drugs to the extent such use renders him unsafe to practice optometry or mental or physical illness rendering him unsafe to practice optometry;

5. Knowingly and willfully employing an unlicensed person to do anything for which a license to practice optometry is required;

6. Neglecting or refusing to display his license for the current year;

7. Obtaining of any fee by fraud or misrepresentation or the practice of deception or fraud upon any patient;

8. Advertising that directly or indirectly deceives, misleads, or defrauds the public, claims professional superiority, or offers free optometrical services or examinations;

9. Employing, procuring, or inducing a person not licensed to practice optometry to so practice;

10. Aiding or abetting in the practice of optometry any person not duly licensed to practice in the Commonwealth;

11. Advertising, practicing, or attempting to practice optometry under a name other than one's own name as set forth on the license;

12. Lending, leasing, renting, or in any other manner placing his license at the disposal or in the service of any person not licensed to practice optometry in the Commonwealth;

13. Splitting or dividing a fee with any person or persons other than with a licensed optometrist who is a legal partner or comember of a professional limited liability company formed to engage in the practice of optometry;

14. Practicing optometry where any officer, employee, or agent of a commercial or mercantile establishment, as defined in subsection C of § 54.1-3205, who is not licensed in the Commonwealth to practice optometry or medicine directly or indirectly controls, dictates, or influences the professional judgment, including but not limited to the level or type of care or services rendered, of the licensed optometrist;

15. Violating other standards of conduct as adopted by the Board;

16. Violating, assisting, inducing, or cooperating with others in violating any provisions of law relating to the practice of optometry, including the provisions of this chapter or of any regulation of the Board.

Code 1950, § 54-388; 1968, c. 505; 1976, c. 758; 1977, c. 161; 1979, c. 39; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 307; 1992, c. 574; 1999, c. 937; 2023, c. 268.

Repealed by Acts 2004, c. 64.

Repealed by Acts 1997, c. 556.

Repealed by Acts 2003, cc. 753 and 762.

A. As a prerequisite to renewal of a license or reinstatement of a license, each optometrist shall be required to complete 20 hours of continuing education relating to optometry, as approved by the Board, each year. A licensee who completes more than 20 hours of continuing education in a year shall be allowed to carry forward up to 10 hours of continuing education for the next annual renewal cycle. The courses shall include, but need not be limited to, the utilization and application of new techniques, scientific and clinical advances, and new achievements of research. The Board shall prescribe criteria for approval of courses of study. Fulfillment of education requirements shall be certified to the Board upon a form provided by the Board and shall be submitted by each licensed optometrist at the time he applies to the Board for the renewal of his license. The Board may waive individual requirements in cases of certified illness or undue hardship.

B. Of the 20 hours of continuing education relating to optometry required pursuant to subsection A:

1. At least 10 hours shall be obtained through real-time, interactive activities, including in-person or electronic presentations, provided that during the course of the presentation, the licensee and the lecturer may communicate with one another;

2. No more than two hours may consist of courses related to recordkeeping, including coding for diagnostic and treatment devices and procedures or the management of an optometry practice, provided that such courses are not primarily for the purpose of augmenting the licensee's income or promoting the sale of specific instruments or products; and

3. For TPA-certified optometrists, at least 10 hours shall be in the areas of ocular and general pharmacology, diagnosis and treatment of the human eye and its adnexa, including treatment with new pharmaceutical agents, or new or advanced clinical devices, techniques, modalities, or procedures.

C. Nothing in this section shall prevent or limit the authority of the Board to require additional hours or types of continuing education as part or in lieu of disciplinary action.

1976, c. 32, § 54-394.1; 1988, c. 765; 2016, c. 89; 2023, c. 268.

Article 4. Certification for Administration of Diagnostic Pharmaceutical Agents.

In order to become certified to administer diagnostic pharmaceutical agents for the purpose of examining and determining abnormal or diseased conditions of the human eye or related structures, an optometrist shall:

1. Complete successfully a Board-approved course in general and ocular pharmacology as it relates to the practice of optometry which shall consist of at least fifty-five classroom hours including a minimum of fifteen classroom hours in general pharmacology, twenty classroom hours in ocular pharmacology and twenty classroom hours of clinical laboratory presented by a college or university accredited by a regional or professional accreditation organization which is recognized or approved by the Council on Post Secondary Accreditation or by the United States Department of Education.

2. Pass a Board-approved, performance-based examination on general and ocular pharmacology designed to test knowledge of the proper use, characteristics, pharmacological effects, indications, contraindications and emergency care associated with the use of diagnostic pharmaceutical agents as defined in this article.

1983, c. 6, § 54-386.1; 1988, c. 765; 1996, cc. 365, 436.

A. Optometrists certified to administer diagnostic pharmaceutical agents or optometrists licensed after June 30, 1997, may administer diagnostic pharmaceutical agents only by topical application to the human eye. For purposes of this section, "diagnostic pharmaceutical agents" means Schedule VI controlled substances as set forth in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) that are used for the purpose of examining and determining abnormal or diseased conditions of the human eye or related structures.

B. Any optometrist who utilizes diagnostic pharmaceutical agents without being certified to administer diagnostic pharmaceutical agents or licensed after June 30, 1997, shall be subject to the disciplinary sanctions provided in this chapter.

C. Licensed drug suppliers or pharmacists are authorized to supply optometrists with diagnostic pharmaceutical agents upon presentation of evidence of Board certification for administration of such drugs or an optometrist license issued after June 30, 1997.

1983, c. 6, § 54-386.2; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 146; 2004, c. 744; 2023, c. 268.

Article 5. Certification for Administration of therapeutic Pharmaceutical Agents (Tpas).

TPA certification shall enable an optometrist to prescribe and administer, within his scope of practice, Schedule II controlled substances consisting of hydrocodone in combination with acetaminophen and Schedules III through VI controlled substances and devices as set forth in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) to treat diseases and abnormal conditions of the human eye and its adnexa as determined by the Board, within the following conditions:

1. Treatment with oral therapeutic pharmaceutical agents shall be limited to (i) analgesics included on Schedule II controlled substances as defined in § 54.1-3448 of the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) consisting of hydrocodone in combination with acetaminophen, and analgesics included on Schedules III through VI, as defined in §§ 54.1-3450 and 54.1-3455 of the Drug Control Act, which are appropriate to alleviate ocular pain and (ii) other Schedule VI controlled substances as defined in § 54.1-3455 of the Drug Control Act appropriate to treat diseases and abnormal conditions of the human eye and its adnexa.

2. Therapeutic pharmaceutical agents shall include topically applied Schedule VI drugs as defined in § 54.1-3455 of the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.).

3. Administration of therapeutic pharmaceutical agents by injection shall be limited to the treatment of chalazia by means of injection of a steroid included in Schedule VI controlled substances as set forth in § 54.1-3455 of the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.). A TPA-certified optometrist shall provide written evidence to the Board that he has completed a didactic and clinical training course provided by an accredited school or college of optometry that includes training in administration of TPAs by injection prior to administering TPAs by injection pursuant to this subdivision.

4. Treatment of angle closure glaucoma shall be limited to initiation of immediate emergency care.

5. Treatment of infantile or congenital glaucoma shall be prohibited.

6. Treatment through surgery or other invasive modalities shall not be permitted, except as provided in subdivision 3 or for treatment of emergency cases of anaphylactic shock with intramuscular epinephrine.

7. Entities permitted or licensed by the Board of Pharmacy to distribute or dispense drugs, including, but not limited to, wholesale distributors and pharmacists, shall be authorized to supply TPA-certified optometrists with those therapeutic pharmaceutical agents specified by the Board on the TPA-Formulary.

1996, cc. 152, 158; 2004, c. 744; 2015, c. 355; 2018, c. 280; 2023, c. 268.

A. The Board shall promulgate such regulations governing the treatment of diseases and abnormal conditions of the human eye and its adnexa with therapeutic pharmaceutical agents by TPA-certified optometrists as are reasonable and necessary to ensure an appropriate standard of medical care for patients, including, but not limited to, determinations of the diseases and abnormal conditions of the human eye and its adnexa that may be treated by TPA-certified optometrists, treatment guidelines, and the drugs specified on the TPA-Formulary.

In order to maintain a current and appropriate list of therapeutic pharmaceuticals on the TPA-Formulary, current and appropriate treatment guidelines, and current and appropriate determinations of diseases and abnormal conditions of the eye and its adnexa that may be treated by TPA-certified optometrists, the Board may, from time to time, amend such regulations. Such regulations shall be exempt from the requirements of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.), except to any extent that they may be specifically made subject to §§ 2.2-4024, 2.2-4030, and 2.2-4031; the Board's regulations shall, however, comply with § 2.2-4103 of the Virginia Register Act (§ 2.2-4100 et seq.). The Board shall, however, conduct a public hearing prior to making amendments to the TPA-Formulary, the treatment guidelines or the determinations of diseases and abnormal conditions of the eye and its adnexa that may be treated by TPA-certified optometrists. Thirty days prior to conducting such hearing, the Board shall give written notice by mail or electronic means of the date, time, and place of the hearing to all currently TPA-certified optometrists and any other persons requesting to be notified of the hearings and publish notice of its intention to amend the list in the Virginia Register of Regulations. During the public hearing, interested parties shall be given reasonable opportunity to be heard and present information prior to final adoption of any TPA-Formulary amendments. Proposed and final amendments of the list shall also be published, pursuant to § 2.2-4031, in the Virginia Register of Regulations. Final amendments to the TPA-Formulary shall become effective upon filing with the Registrar of Regulations. The TPA-Formulary shall be the inclusive list of the therapeutic pharmaceutical agents that a TPA-certified optometrist may prescribe.

B. To assist in the specification of the TPA-Formulary, there shall be a seven-member TPA-Formulary Committee, as follows: three Virginia TPA-certified optometrists to be appointed by the Board of Optometry, one pharmacist appointed by the Board of Pharmacy from among its licensees, two ophthalmologists appointed by the Board of Medicine from among its licensees, and the chairman who shall be appointed by the Board of Optometry from among its members. The ophthalmologists appointed by the Board of Medicine shall have demonstrated, through professional experience, knowledge of the optometric profession. In the event the Board of Pharmacy or the Board of Medicine fails to make appointments to the TPA-Formulary Committee within 30 days following the Board of Optometry's requesting such appointments, or within 30 days following any subsequent vacancy, the Board of Optometry shall appoint such members.

The TPA-Formulary Committee shall recommend to the Board those therapeutic pharmaceutical agents to be included on the TPA-Formulary for the treatment of diseases and abnormal conditions of the eye and its adnexa by TPA-certified optometrists.

1996, cc. 152, 158; 2004, c. 744; 2023, c. 268.

A. The Board of Optometry may deny, refuse to renew, revoke, or suspend any TPA-certificate issued to a TPA-certified optometrist, or applied for by a licensed optometrist in accordance with the provisions of this article, or may discipline or reprimand any certificate holder for violations of this chapter or the Board's regulations.

B. The Board may take action summarily to suspend a TPA-certified optometrist's certification under this section by means of a telephone conference call if, in the opinion of a majority of the Board, (i) a good faith effort to convene a regular meeting of the Board has failed and (ii) there is an imminent danger to the public health or safety which warrants this action.

1996, cc. 152, 158.

Article 6. Certification to Perform of Laser Surgery.

A. The Board shall certify an optometrist to perform laser surgery consisting of peripheral iridotomy, selective laser trabeculoplasty, and YAG capsulotomy for the medically appropriate and recognized treatment of the human eye through revision, destruction, or other structural alteration of the tissue of the eye using laser technology upon submission by the optometrist of evidence satisfactory to the Board that he:

1. Is certified by the Board to prescribe for and treat diseases or abnormal conditions of the human eye and its adnexa with therapeutic pharmaceutical agents pursuant to § 54.1-3222; and

2. Has satisfactorily completed such didactic and clinical training programs provided by an accredited school or college of optometry that includes training in the use of lasers for the medically appropriate and recognized treatment of the human eye as the Board may require.

B. The Board shall indicate on any license issued pursuant to this chapter to an optometrist certified to perform laser surgery pursuant to this section that the optometrist is so certified.

2022, cc. 16, 17.

Chapter 33. Pharmacy.

Article 1. General Provisions.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Board" means the Board of Pharmacy.

"Collaborative agreement" means a voluntary, written, or electronic arrangement between one pharmacist and his designated alternate pharmacists involved directly in patient care at a single physical location where patients receive services and (i) any person licensed to practice medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry together with any person licensed, registered, or certified by a health regulatory board of the Department of Health Professions who provides health care services to patients of such person licensed to practice medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry; (ii) a physician's office as defined in § 32.1-276.3, provided that such collaborative agreement is signed by each physician participating in the collaborative agreement; (iii) any licensed physician assistant working under the supervision of a person licensed to practice medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry; or (iv) any licensed advanced practice registered nurse working in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-2957, involved directly in patient care which authorizes cooperative procedures with respect to patients of such practitioners. Collaborative procedures shall be related to treatment using drug therapy, laboratory tests, or medical devices, under defined conditions or limitations, for the purpose of improving patient outcomes. A collaborative agreement is not required for the management of patients of an inpatient facility.

"Dispense" means to deliver a drug to an ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the lawful order of a practitioner, including the prescribing and administering, packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary to prepare the substance for delivery.

"Pharmacist" means a person holding a license issued by the Board to practice pharmacy.

"Pharmacy" means every establishment or institution in which drugs, medicines, or medicinal chemicals are dispensed or offered for sale, or a sign is displayed bearing the word or words "pharmacist," "pharmacy," "apothecary," "drugstore," "druggist," "drugs," "medicine store," "drug sundries," "prescriptions filled," or any similar words intended to indicate that the practice of pharmacy is being conducted.

"Pharmacy intern" means a student currently enrolled in or a graduate of an approved school of pharmacy who is registered with the Board for the purpose of gaining the practical experience required to apply for licensure as a pharmacist.

"Pharmacy technician" means a person registered with the Board to assist a pharmacist under the pharmacist's supervision.

"Pharmacy technician trainee" means a person registered with the Board for the purpose of performing duties restricted to a pharmacy technician as part of a pharmacy technician training program in accordance with the provisions of subsection G of § 54.1-3321.

"Practice of pharmacy" means the personal health service that is concerned with the art and science of selecting, procuring, recommending, administering, preparing, compounding, packaging, and dispensing of drugs, medicines, and devices used in the diagnosis, treatment, or prevention of disease, whether compounded or dispensed on a prescription or otherwise legally dispensed or distributed, and shall include (i) the proper and safe storage and distribution of drugs; (ii) the maintenance of proper records; (iii) the responsibility of providing information concerning drugs and medicines and their therapeutic values and uses in the treatment and prevention of disease; (iv) the management of patient care under the terms of a collaborative agreement as defined in this section; and (v) the initiating of treatment with or dispensing or administering of certain drugs, devices, or controlled paraphernalia in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-3303.1.

"Supervision" means the direction and control by a pharmacist of the activities of a pharmacy intern or a pharmacy technician whereby the supervising pharmacist is physically present in the pharmacy or in the facility in which the pharmacy is located when the intern or technician is performing duties restricted to a pharmacy intern or technician, respectively, and is available for immediate oral communication.

Other terms used in the context of this chapter shall be defined as provided in Chapter 34 (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) unless the context requires a different meaning.

Code 1950, §§ 54-399, 54-487; 1952, c. 451; 1958, c. 551, § 54-524.2; 1966, c. 193; 1968, c. 582; 1970, c. 650; 1971, Ex. Sess., c. 94; 1972, c. 798; 1975, c. 425; 1976, c. 14; 1977, c. 193; 1978, c. 833; 1979, c. 435; 1980, c. 150; 1988, c. 765; 1999, cc. 895, 1011; 2001, c. 317; 2002, c. 411; 2013, c. 192; 2018, c. 776; 2020, cc. 102, 237, 731; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 214; 2023, c. 183.

A. A pharmacist and his designated alternate pharmacists involved directly in patient care may participate with (i) any person licensed to practice medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry together with any person licensed, registered, or certified by a health regulatory board of the Department of Health Professions who provides health care services to patients of such person licensed to practice medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry; (ii) a physician's office as defined in § 32.1-276.3, provided that such collaborative agreement is signed by each physician participating in the collaborative agreement; (iii) any licensed physician assistant working in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-2951.1; or (iv) any licensed advanced practice registered nurse working in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-2957, involved directly in patient care in collaborative agreements which authorize cooperative procedures related to treatment using drug therapy, laboratory tests, or medical devices, under defined conditions or limitations, for the purpose of improving patient outcomes for patients who meet the criteria set forth in the collaborative agreement. However, no person licensed to practice medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry, or licensed as an advanced practice registered nurse or physician assistant, shall be required to participate in a collaborative agreement with a pharmacist and his designated alternate pharmacists, regardless of whether a professional business entity on behalf of which the person is authorized to act enters into a collaborative agreement with a pharmacist and his designated alternate pharmacists.

B. A patient who meets the criteria for inclusion in the category of patients whose care is subject to a collaborative agreement and who chooses to not participate in a collaborative procedure shall notify the prescriber of his refusal to participate in such collaborative procedure. A prescriber may elect to have a patient not participate in a collaborative procedure by contacting the pharmacist or his designated alternative pharmacists or by documenting the same on the patient's prescription.

C. Collaborative agreements may include the implementation, modification, continuation, or discontinuation of drug therapy pursuant to written or electronic protocols, provided implementation of drug therapy occurs following diagnosis by the prescriber; the ordering of laboratory tests; or other patient care management measures related to monitoring or improving the outcomes of drug or device therapy. No such collaborative agreement shall exceed the scope of practice of the respective parties. Any pharmacist who deviates from or practices in a manner inconsistent with the terms of a collaborative agreement shall be in violation of § 54.1-2902; such violation shall constitute grounds for disciplinary action pursuant to §§ 54.1-2400 and 54.1-3316.

D. Collaborative agreements may only be used for conditions which have protocols that are clinically accepted as the standard of care, or are approved by the Boards of Medicine and Pharmacy. The Boards of Medicine and Pharmacy shall jointly develop and promulgate regulations to implement the provisions of this section and to facilitate the development and implementation of safe and effective collaborative agreements between the appropriate practitioners and pharmacists. The regulations shall include guidelines concerning the use of protocols, and a procedure to allow for the approval or disapproval of specific protocols by the Boards of Medicine and Pharmacy if review is requested by a practitioner or pharmacist.

E. Nothing in this section shall be construed to supersede the provisions of § 54.1-3303.

1999, cc. 895, 1011; 2013, c. 192; 2018, c. 776; 2020, cc. 46, 232, 731; 2023, c. 183.

This chapter shall not be construed to:

1. Interfere with any legally qualified practitioner of dentistry, or veterinary medicine or any physician acting on behalf of the Virginia Department of Health or local health departments, in the compounding of his prescriptions or the purchase and possession of drugs as he may require;

2. Prevent any legally qualified practitioner of dentistry, or veterinary medicine or any prescriber, as defined in § 54.1-3401, acting on behalf of the Virginia Department of Health or local health departments, from administering or supplying to his patients the medicines that he deems proper under the conditions of § 54.1-3303 or from causing drugs to be administered or dispensed pursuant to §§ 32.1-42.1 and 54.1-3408, except that a veterinarian shall only be authorized to dispense a compounded drug, distributed from a pharmacy, when (i) the animal is his own patient, (ii) the animal is a companion animal as defined in regulations promulgated by the Board of Veterinary Medicine, (iii) the quantity dispensed is no more than a seven-day supply, (iv) the compounded drug is for the treatment of an emergency condition, and (v) timely access to a compounding pharmacy is not available, as determined by the prescribing veterinarian;

3. Prohibit the sale by merchants and retail dealers of proprietary medicines as defined in Chapter 34 (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) of this title;

4. Prevent the operation of automated drug dispensing systems in hospitals pursuant to Chapter 34 (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) of this title;

5. Prohibit the employment of ancillary personnel to assist a pharmacist as provided in the regulations of the Board;

6. Interfere with any legally qualified practitioner of medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry from purchasing, possessing or administering controlled substances to his own patients or providing controlled substances to his own patients in a bona fide medical emergency or providing manufacturers' professional samples to his own patients;

7. Interfere with any legally qualified practitioner of optometry, certified or licensed to use diagnostic pharmaceutical agents, from purchasing, possessing or administering those controlled substances as specified in § 54.1-3221 or interfere with any legally qualified practitioner of optometry certified to prescribe therapeutic pharmaceutical agents from purchasing, possessing, or administering to his own patients those controlled substances as specified in § 54.1-3222 and the TPA formulary, providing manufacturers' samples of these drugs to his own patients, or dispensing, administering, or selling ophthalmic devices as authorized in § 54.1-3204;

8. Interfere with any physician assistant with prescriptive authority receiving and dispensing to his own patients manufacturers' professional samples of controlled substances and devices that he is authorized, in compliance with the provisions of § 54.1-2952.1, to prescribe according to his practice setting and a written agreement with a physician or podiatrist;

9. Interfere with any licensed advanced practice registered nurse with prescriptive authority receiving and dispensing to his own patients manufacturers' professional samples of controlled substances and devices that he is authorized, in compliance with the provisions of § 54.1-2957.01, to prescribe;

10. Interfere with any legally qualified practitioner of medicine or osteopathy participating in an indigent patient program offered by a pharmaceutical manufacturer in which the practitioner sends a prescription for one of his own patients to the manufacturer, and the manufacturer donates a stock bottle of the prescription drug ordered at no cost to the practitioner or patient. The practitioner may dispense such medication at no cost to the patient without holding a license to dispense from the Board of Pharmacy. However, the container in which the drug is dispensed shall be labeled in accordance with the requirements of § 54.1-3410, and, unless directed otherwise by the practitioner or the patient, shall meet standards for special packaging as set forth in § 54.1-3426 and Board of Pharmacy regulations. In lieu of dispensing directly to the patient, a practitioner may transfer the donated drug with a valid prescription to a pharmacy for dispensing to the patient. The practitioner or pharmacy participating in the program shall not use the donated drug for any purpose other than dispensing to the patient for whom it was originally donated, except as authorized by the donating manufacturer for another patient meeting that manufacturer's requirements for the indigent patient program. Neither the practitioner nor the pharmacy shall charge the patient for any medication provided through a manufacturer's indigent patient program pursuant to this subdivision. A participating pharmacy, including a pharmacy participating in bulk donation programs, may charge a reasonable dispensing or administrative fee to offset the cost of dispensing, not to exceed the actual costs of such dispensing. However, if the patient is unable to pay such fee, the dispensing or administrative fee shall be waived;

11. Interfere with any legally qualified practitioner of medicine or osteopathy from providing controlled substances to his own patients in a free clinic without charge when such controlled substances are donated by an entity other than a pharmaceutical manufacturer as authorized by subdivision 10. The practitioner shall first obtain a controlled substances registration from the Board and shall comply with the labeling and packaging requirements of this chapter and the Board's regulations; or

12. Prevent any pharmacist from providing free health care to an underserved population in Virginia who (i) does not regularly practice pharmacy in Virginia, (ii) holds a current valid license or certificate to practice pharmacy in another state, territory, district or possession of the United States, (iii) volunteers to provide free health care to an underserved area of this Commonwealth under the auspices of a publicly supported all volunteer, nonprofit organization that sponsors the provision of health care to populations of underserved people, (iv) files a copy of the license or certificate issued in such other jurisdiction with the Board, (v) notifies the Board at least five business days prior to the voluntary provision of services of the dates and location of such service, and (vi) acknowledges, in writing, that such licensure exemption shall only be valid, in compliance with the Board's regulations, during the limited period that such free health care is made available through the volunteer, nonprofit organization on the dates and at the location filed with the Board. The Board may deny the right to practice in Virginia to any pharmacist whose license has been previously suspended or revoked, who has been convicted of a felony or who is otherwise found to be in violation of applicable laws or regulations. However, the Board shall allow a pharmacist who meets the above criteria to provide volunteer services without prior notice for a period of up to three days, provided the nonprofit organization verifies that the practitioner has a valid, unrestricted license in another state.

This section shall not be construed as exempting any person from the licensure, registration, permitting and record keeping requirements of this chapter or Chapter 34 of this title.

Code 1950, § 54-481; 1966, c. 171; 1968, c. 582, § 54-524.53; 1970, c. 650, § 54-524.54; 1972, c. 798; 1988, cc. 765, 904; 1989, c. 510; 1998, c. 101; 1999, cc. 745, 750; 2000, c. 924; 2001, c. 465; 2002, cc. 666, 707, 740; 2003, c. 794; 2008, c. 674; 2009, cc. 101, 353, 761; 2012, c. 213; 2014, c. 147; 2018, cc. 100, 776; 2023, c. 183.

A practitioner of the healing arts shall not sell or dispense controlled substances except as provided in §§ 54.1-2914 and 54.1-3304.1. Such exceptions shall extend only to his own patients unless he is licensed to practice pharmacy.

Code 1950, § 54-481; 1966, c. 171; 1968, c. 582, § 54-524.53; 1970, c. 650; 1972, c. 798; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 510.

A. A prescription for a controlled substance may be issued only by a practitioner of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, dentistry or veterinary medicine who is authorized to prescribe controlled substances, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse pursuant to § 54.1-2957.01, a licensed certified midwife pursuant to § 54.1-2957.04, a licensed physician assistant pursuant to § 54.1-2952.1, or a TPA-certified optometrist pursuant to Article 5 (§ 54.1-3222 et seq.) of Chapter 32.

B. A prescription shall be issued only to persons or animals with whom the practitioner has a bona fide practitioner-patient relationship or veterinarian-client-patient relationship. If a practitioner is providing expedited partner therapy consistent with the recommendations of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, then a bona fide practitioner-patient relationship shall not be required.

A bona fide practitioner-patient relationship shall exist if the practitioner has (i) obtained or caused to be obtained a medical or drug history of the patient; (ii) provided information to the patient about the benefits and risks of the drug being prescribed; (iii) performed or caused to be performed an appropriate examination of the patient, either physically or by the use of instrumentation and diagnostic equipment through which images and medical records may be transmitted electronically; and (iv) initiated additional interventions and follow-up care, if necessary, especially if a prescribed drug may have serious side effects. Except in cases involving a medical emergency, the examination required pursuant to clause (iii) shall be performed by the practitioner prescribing the controlled substance, a practitioner who practices in the same group as the practitioner prescribing the controlled substance, or a consulting practitioner.

A practitioner who has established a bona fide practitioner-patient relationship with a patient in accordance with the provisions of this subsection may prescribe Schedule II through VI controlled substances to that patient.

A practitioner who has established a bona fide practitioner-patient relationship with a patient in accordance with the provisions of this subsection may prescribe Schedule II through VI controlled substances to that patient via telemedicine if such prescribing is in compliance with federal requirements for the practice of telemedicine and, in the case of the prescribing of a Schedule II through V controlled substance, the prescriber maintains a practice at a physical location in the Commonwealth or is able to make appropriate referral of patients to a licensed practitioner located in the Commonwealth in order to ensure an in-person examination of the patient when required by the standard of care.

A prescriber may establish a bona fide practitioner-patient relationship for the purpose of prescribing Schedule II through VI controlled substances by an examination through face-to-face interactive, two-way, real-time communications services or store-and-forward technologies when all of the following conditions are met: (a) the patient has provided a medical history that is available for review by the prescriber; (b) the prescriber obtains an updated medical history at the time of prescribing; (c) the prescriber makes a diagnosis at the time of prescribing; (d) the prescriber conforms to the standard of care expected of in-person care as appropriate to the patient's age and presenting condition, including when the standard of care requires the use of diagnostic testing and performance of a physical examination, which may be carried out through the use of peripheral devices appropriate to the patient's condition; (e) the prescriber is actively licensed in the Commonwealth and authorized to prescribe; (f) if the patient is a member or enrollee of a health plan or carrier, the prescriber has been credentialed by the health plan or carrier as a participating provider and the diagnosing and prescribing meets the qualifications for reimbursement by the health plan or carrier pursuant to § 38.2-3418.16; (g) upon request, the prescriber provides patient records in a timely manner in accordance with the provisions of § 32.1-127.1:03 and all other state and federal laws and regulations; (h) the establishment of a bona fide practitioner-patient relationship via telemedicine is consistent with the standard of care, and the standard of care does not require an in-person examination for the purpose of diagnosis; and (i) the establishment of a bona fide practitioner patient relationship via telemedicine is consistent with federal law and regulations and any waiver thereof. Nothing in this paragraph shall apply to (1) a prescriber providing on-call coverage per an agreement with another prescriber or his prescriber's professional entity or employer; (2) a prescriber consulting with another prescriber regarding a patient's care; or (3) orders of prescribers for hospital out-patients or in-patients.

For purposes of this section, a bona fide veterinarian-client-patient relationship is one in which a veterinarian, another veterinarian within the group in which he practices, or a veterinarian with whom he is consulting has assumed the responsibility for making medical judgments regarding the health of and providing medical treatment to an animal as defined in § 3.2-6500, other than an equine as defined in § 3.2-6200, a group of agricultural animals as defined in § 3.2-6500, or bees as defined in § 3.2-4400, and a client who is the owner or other caretaker of the animal, group of agricultural animals, or bees has consented to such treatment and agreed to follow the instructions of the veterinarian. Evidence that a veterinarian has assumed responsibility for making medical judgments regarding the health of and providing medical treatment to an animal, group of agricultural animals, or bees shall include evidence that the veterinarian (A) has sufficient knowledge of the animal, group of agricultural animals, or bees to provide a general or preliminary diagnosis of the medical condition of the animal, group of agricultural animals, or bees; (B) has made an examination of the animal, group of agricultural animals, or bees, either physically or by the use of instrumentation and diagnostic equipment through which images and medical records may be transmitted electronically or has become familiar with the care and keeping of that species of animal or bee on the premises of the client, including other premises within the same operation or production system of the client, through medically appropriate and timely visits to the premises at which the animal, group of agricultural animals, or bees are kept; and (C) is available to provide follow-up care.

C. A prescription shall only be issued for a medicinal or therapeutic purpose in the usual course of treatment or for authorized research. A prescription not issued in the usual course of treatment or for authorized research is not a valid prescription. A practitioner who prescribes any controlled substance with the knowledge that the controlled substance will be used otherwise than for medicinal or therapeutic purposes shall be subject to the criminal penalties provided in § 18.2-248 for violations of the provisions of law relating to the distribution or possession of controlled substances.

D. No prescription shall be filled unless a bona fide practitioner-patient-pharmacist relationship exists. A bona fide practitioner-patient-pharmacist relationship shall exist in cases in which a practitioner prescribes, and a pharmacist dispenses, controlled substances in good faith to a patient for a medicinal or therapeutic purpose within the course of his professional practice.

In cases in which it is not clear to a pharmacist that a bona fide practitioner-patient relationship exists between a prescriber and a patient, a pharmacist shall contact the prescribing practitioner or his agent and verify the identity of the patient and name and quantity of the drug prescribed.

Any person knowingly filling an invalid prescription shall be subject to the criminal penalties provided in § 18.2-248 for violations of the provisions of law relating to the sale, distribution or possession of controlled substances.

E. Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary and consistent with recommendations of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention or the Department of Health, a practitioner may prescribe Schedule VI antibiotics and antiviral agents to other persons in close contact with a diagnosed patient when (i) the practitioner meets all requirements of a bona fide practitioner-patient relationship, as defined in subsection B, with the diagnosed patient and (ii) in the practitioner's professional judgment, the practitioner deems there is urgency to begin treatment to prevent the transmission of a communicable disease. In cases in which the practitioner is an employee of or contracted by the Department of Health or a local health department, the bona fide practitioner-patient relationship with the diagnosed patient, as required by clause (i), shall not be required.

F. A pharmacist may dispense a controlled substance pursuant to a prescription of an out-of-state practitioner of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, dentistry, optometry, or veterinary medicine, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant authorized to issue such prescription if the prescription complies with the requirements of this chapter and the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.).

G. A licensed advanced practice registered nurse who is authorized to prescribe controlled substances pursuant to § 54.1-2957.01 may issue prescriptions or provide manufacturers' professional samples for controlled substances and devices as set forth in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) in good faith to his patient for a medicinal or therapeutic purpose within the scope of his professional practice.

H. A licensed physician assistant who is authorized to prescribe controlled substances pursuant to § 54.1-2952.1 may issue prescriptions or provide manufacturers' professional samples for controlled substances and devices as set forth in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) in good faith to his patient for a medicinal or therapeutic purpose within the scope of his professional practice.

I. A TPA-certified optometrist who is authorized to prescribe controlled substances pursuant to Article 5 (§ 54.1-3222 et seq.) of Chapter 32 may issue prescriptions in good faith or provide manufacturers' professional samples to his patients for medicinal or therapeutic purposes within the scope of his professional practice for the drugs specified on the TPA-Formulary, established pursuant to § 54.1-3223, which shall be limited to (i) analgesics included on Schedule II controlled substances as defined in § 54.1-3448 of the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) consisting of hydrocodone in combination with acetaminophen; (ii) oral analgesics included in Schedules III through VI, as defined in §§ 54.1-3450 and 54.1-3455 of the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.), which are appropriate to relieve ocular pain; (iii) other oral Schedule VI controlled substances, as defined in § 54.1-3455 of the Drug Control Act, appropriate to treat diseases and abnormal conditions of the human eye and its adnexa; (iv) topically applied Schedule VI drugs, as defined in § 54.1-3455 of the Drug Control Act; and (v) intramuscular administration of epinephrine for treatment of emergency cases of anaphylactic shock.

J. The requirement for a bona fide practitioner-patient relationship shall be deemed to be satisfied by a member or committee of a hospital's medical staff when approving a standing order or protocol for the administration of influenza vaccinations and pneumococcal vaccinations in a hospital in compliance with § 32.1-126.4.

K. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a prescriber may authorize a registered nurse or licensed practical nurse to approve additional refills of a prescribed drug for no more than 90 consecutive days, provided that (i) the drug is classified as a Schedule VI drug; (ii) there are no changes in the prescribed drug, strength, or dosage; (iii) the prescriber has a current written protocol, accessible by the nurse, that identifies the conditions under which the nurse may approve additional refills; and (iv) the nurse documents in the patient's chart any refills authorized for a specific patient pursuant to the protocol and the additional refills are transmitted to a pharmacist in accordance with the allowances for an authorized agent to transmit a prescription orally or by facsimile pursuant to subsection C of § 54.1-3408.01 and regulations of the Board.

1983, c. 528, § 54-524.50:1; 1985, c. 336; 1988, c. 765; 1991, cc. 519, 524; 1992, c. 793; 1996, cc. 152, 158, 408; 1997, c. 806; 1998, c. 101; 1999, c. 745; 2000, cc. 882, 924; 2001, c. 465; 2003, c. 639; 2004, c. 744; 2006, c. 432; 2010, c. 74; 2015, cc. 32, 115; 2016, c. 86; 2017, cc. 58, 110; 2018, cc. 373, 380, 790; 2019, c. 335; 2020, c. 464; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 200, 201, 301, 302; 2023, c. 183.

A. Notwithstanding the provisions of § 54.1-3303, a pharmacist may initiate treatment with, dispense, or administer the following drugs, devices, controlled paraphernalia, and other supplies and equipment to persons 18 years of age or older with whom the pharmacist has a bona fide pharmacist-patient relationship and in accordance with a statewide protocol developed by the Board in collaboration with the Board of Medicine and the Department of Health and set forth in regulations of the Board:

1. Naloxone or other opioid antagonist, including such controlled paraphernalia, as defined in § 54.1-3466, as may be necessary to administer such naloxone or other opioid antagonist;

2. Epinephrine;

3. Injectable or self-administered hormonal contraceptives, provided the patient completes an assessment consistent with the United States Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraceptive Use;

4. Prenatal vitamins for which a prescription is required;

5. Dietary fluoride supplements, in accordance with recommendations of the American Dental Association for prescribing of such supplements for persons whose drinking water has a fluoride content below the concentration recommended by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services;

6. Drugs as defined in § 54.1-3401, devices as defined in § 54.1-3401, controlled paraphernalia as defined in § 54.1-3466, and other supplies and equipment available over-the-counter, covered by the patient's health carrier when the patient's out-of-pocket cost is lower than the out-of-pocket cost to purchase an over-the-counter equivalent of the same drug, device, controlled paraphernalia, or other supplies or equipment;

7. Vaccines included on the Immunization Schedule published by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and vaccines for COVID-19;

8. Tuberculin purified protein derivative for tuberculosis testing;

9. Controlled substances for the prevention of human immunodeficiency virus, including controlled substances prescribed for pre-exposure and post-exposure prophylaxis pursuant to guidelines and recommendations of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention;

10. Nicotine replacement and other tobacco cessation therapies, including controlled substances as defined in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.), together with providing appropriate patient counseling;

11. Controlled substances or devices for the initiation of treatment of the following diseases or conditions for which clinical decision making can be guided by a clinical test that is classified as waived under the federal Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988: group A Streptococcus bacteria infection, influenza virus infection, COVID-19 virus infection, and urinary tract infection; and

12. Tests for COVID-19 and other coronaviruses.

B. Notwithstanding the provisions of § 54.1-3303, a pharmacist may initiate treatment with, dispense, or administer the following drugs and devices to persons three years of age or older in accordance with a statewide protocol as set forth in regulations of the Board:

1. (Contingent Effective Date) Vaccines included on the Immunization Schedule published by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and vaccines for COVID-19; and

2. (Contingent Effective Date) Tests for COVID-19 and other coronaviruses.

C. A pharmacist who initiates treatment with or dispenses or administers a drug or device pursuant to this section shall notify the patient's primary health care provider that the pharmacist has initiated treatment with such drug or device or that such drug or device has been dispensed or administered to the patient, provided that the patient consents to such notification. No pharmacist shall limit the ability of notification to be sent to the patient's primary care provider by requiring use of electronic mail that is secure or compliant with the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (42 U.S.C. § 1320d et seq.). If the patient does not have a primary health care provider, the pharmacist shall counsel the patient regarding the benefits of establishing a relationship with a primary health care provider and provide information regarding primary health care providers, including federally qualified health centers, free clinics, or local health departments serving the area in which the patient is located. If the pharmacist is initiating treatment with, dispensing, or administering injectable or self-administered hormonal contraceptives, the pharmacist shall counsel the patient regarding seeking preventative care, including (i) routine well-woman visits, (ii) testing for sexually transmitted infections, and (iii) pap smears.

D. A pharmacist who administers a vaccination pursuant to subdivisions A 7 and B 1 shall report such administration to the Virginia Immunization Information System in accordance with the requirements of § 32.1-46.01.

E. A pharmacist who initiates treatment with, dispenses, or administers drugs, devices, controlled paraphernalia, and other supplies and equipment pursuant to this section shall obtain a history from the patient, including questioning the patient for any known allergies, adverse reactions, contraindications, or health diagnoses or conditions that would be adverse to the initiation of treatment, dispensing, or administration.

F. A pharmacist may initiate treatment with, dispense, or administer drugs, devices, controlled paraphernalia, and other supplies and equipment pursuant to this section through telemedicine services, as defined in § 38.2-3418.16, in compliance with all requirements of § 54.1-3303 and consistent with the applicable standard of care.

G. A pharmacist who administers a vaccination to a minor pursuant to subdivision B 1 shall provide written notice to the minor's parent or guardian that the minor should visit a pediatrician annually.

2020, c. 731; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 214; 2022, cc. 790, 791; 2023, cc. 171, 172.

For good cause shown, the Board may grant a license to any physician licensed under the laws of Virginia authorizing such physician to dispense drugs to persons to whom a pharmaceutical service is not reasonably available. This license may be renewed annually. Any physician or osteopath so licensed shall be governed by the regulations of the Board of Pharmacy when applicable.

1976, c. 614, § 54-524.34:1; 1980, c. 288; 1988, c. 765.

A. The Board of Pharmacy shall have the authority to license and regulate the dispensing of controlled substances by practitioners of the healing arts. Except as prescribed in this chapter or by Board regulations, it shall be unlawful for any practitioner of the healing arts to dispense controlled substances within the Commonwealth unless licensed by the Board to sell controlled substances.

B. Facilities from which practitioners of the healing arts dispense controlled substances shall obtain a permit from the Board and comply with the regulations for practitioners of the healing arts to sell controlled substances. Facilities in which only one practitioner of the healing arts is licensed by the Board to sell controlled substances shall be exempt from fees associated with obtaining and renewing such permit.

C. The Board of Pharmacy may issue a limited-use license for the purpose of dispensing Schedule VI controlled substances, excluding the combination of misoprostol and methotrexate, and hypodermic syringes and needles for the administration of prescribed controlled substances to a doctor of medicine, osteopathic medicine, or podiatry, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant, provided that such limited-use licensee is practicing at a nonprofit facility. Such facility shall obtain a limited-use permit from the Board and comply with regulations for such a permit.

1988, c. 904, § 54-524.34:2; 1989, c. 510; 2015, c. 117; 2020, cc. 609, 610; 2023, c. 183.

Article 2. Board of Pharmacy.

The Board of Pharmacy shall consist of ten members, as follows: eight licensed pharmacists who are graduates of an approved school or college of pharmacy and two citizen members. The terms of office of the members shall be four years.

The Board shall meet at least annually at such times and places, and upon such notice as the Board may determine and as its business may require. A majority of the members of the Board shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business.

The Board shall annually elect from its members a chairman.

There shall be an executive director for the Board of Pharmacy who shall be licensed or eligible for licensure in the Commonwealth as a pharmacist.

Code 1950, §§ 54-404, 54-405, 54-410, 54-412; 1958, c. 551; 1970, c. 650, §§ 54-524.5, 54-524.11; 1976, c. 614, § 54-524.13; 1986, c. 464, § 54-524.6; 1988, cc. 42, 765; 1994, c. 283; 2005, c. 70.

Nominations may be made for each professional vacancy from a list of at least three names submitted to the Governor by the Virginia Pharmaceutical Association. The Governor may notify the Association of any professional vacancy other than by expiration. In no case shall the Governor be bound to make any appointment from among the nominees of the Association.

Code 1950, § 54-406; 1958, c. 551; 1970, c. 650, § 54-524.7; 1986, c. 464; 1988, c. 765.

A. The Board shall regulate the practice of pharmacy and the manufacturing, dispensing, selling, distributing, processing, compounding, or disposal of drugs and devices. The Board shall also control the character and standard of all drugs, cosmetics, and devices within the Commonwealth, investigate all complaints as to the quality and strength of all drugs, cosmetics, and devices, and take such action as may be necessary to prevent the manufacturing, dispensing, selling, distributing, processing, compounding, and disposal of such drugs, cosmetics, and devices that do not conform to the requirements of law.

The Board's regulations shall include criteria for:

1. Maintenance of the quality, quantity, integrity, safety, and efficacy of drugs or devices distributed, dispensed, or administered.

2. Compliance with the prescriber's instructions regarding the drug and its quantity, quality, and directions for use.

3. Controls and safeguards against diversion of drugs or devices.

4. Maintenance of the integrity of, and public confidence in, the profession and improving the delivery of quality pharmaceutical services to the citizens of Virginia.

5. Maintenance of complete records of the nature, quantity, or quality of drugs or substances distributed or dispensed and of all transactions involving controlled substances or drugs or devices so as to provide adequate information to the patient, the practitioner, or the Board.

6. Control of factors contributing to abuse of legitimately obtained drugs, devices, or controlled substances.

7. Promotion of scientific or technical advances in the practice of pharmacy and the manufacture and distribution of controlled drugs, devices, or substances.

8. Impact on costs to the public and within the health care industry through the modification of mandatory practices and procedures not essential to meeting the criteria set out in subdivisions 1 through 7.

9. Such other factors as may be relevant to, and consistent with, the public health and safety and the cost of rendering pharmacy services.

B. The Board may collect and examine specimens of drugs, devices, and cosmetics that are manufactured, distributed, stored, or dispensed in the Commonwealth.

Code 1950, §§ 54-415, 54-416.1; 1954, c. 396; 1958, c. 551, § 54-524.16; 1970, c. 650, § 54-524.18; 1972, c. 798; 1980, c. 288; 1988, c. 765; 1995, c. 529; 1996, cc. 37, 407; 2005, c. 777; 2006, c. 632; 2016, c. 221; 2020, c. 1166; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 344, 345.

Repealed by Acts 1997, c. 206.

A. Any person who proposes to use a process or procedure related to the dispensing of drugs or devices or to the practice of pharmacy not specifically authorized by Chapter 33 (§ 54.1-3300 et seq.) of this title or by a regulation of the Board of Pharmacy may apply to the Board for approval to use such process or procedure. The application under this section may only include new processes or procedures, within the current scope of the practice of pharmacy, that relate to the form or format of prescriptions, the manner of transmitting prescriptions or prescription information, the manner of required recordkeeping, the use of unlicensed ancillary personnel in the dispensing process, and the use of new technologies in the dispensing process. The authority granted the Board under this section shall not authorize expansion of the current scope of practice for pharmacists and shall not interfere with the requirement that pharmacists only dispense drugs in accordance with instructions from a prescriber, as defined in § 54.1-3401.

B. The application to the Board shall address safety to the public regarding the new process or procedure, any potential benefit to the public, promotion of scientific or technical advances in the practice of pharmacy, compliance with prescriber's instructions for any drug dispensed, any impact the new process may have on the potential for diversion of drugs, maintenance in the integrity of and public confidence in the profession of pharmacy and of the drugs dispensed, impact on cost to the public and within the health care industry, means of monitoring the new process or procedure for any negative outcomes or other problems, and the reporting of such outcomes to the Board.

C. An informal conference committee, composed of not less than two members of the Board and in accordance with § 2.2-4019, shall receive and review the application and any investigative report requested by the committee. The committee shall have the authority to grant or deny approval of the request. The committee may grant approval of the request unconditionally or may impose conditions on the approval as follows:

1. The committee may grant approval for a finite period of time, after which time the applicant must provide additional information as requested by the committee in order to continue the approval;

2. The committee may require that ongoing reports concerning performance and problems be submitted; or

3. The committee may impose such other conditions as it deems necessary to provide assurance of public health and safety and accountability for controlled substances.

D. If an applicant does not agree with the decision of the committee, the applicant may request a hearing before the Board or a panel of the Board, in accordance with § 2.2-4020.

E. Application under this section shall be on a form provided by the Board and shall be accompanied by a fee determined by the Board.

2000, c. 876.

When the Governor has declared a disaster or a state of emergency pursuant to Chapter 3.2 (§ 44-146.13 et seq.) of Title 44 and it is necessary to permit the provision of needed drugs, devices, and pharmacy services to the citizens of the Commonwealth, the Board may waive the requirements of this chapter, the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.), and the Board's regulations governing the practice of pharmacy (18VAC110-20-10 et seq.). However, the Board shall not authorize the administering or dispensing of controlled substances by persons whose scope of practice does not include such authority.

2003, c. 794.

The members of the Board and their duly authorized agents shall have the power to inspect in a lawful manner the drugs, cosmetics and devices which are manufactured, stored or dispensed in the Commonwealth. For this purpose the Board shall have the right to enter and inspect during business hours any pharmacy, or any other place in Virginia where drugs, cosmetics or devices are manufactured, stored or dispensed. The Board shall report any evidence of violation of the provisions of this chapter or Chapter 34 (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) of this title by practitioners for action to the appropriate licensing board. The report shall constitute a pending complaint upon which the appropriate licensing board shall initiate action within thirty days.

Code 1950, § 54-417; 1958, c. 551; 1968, c. 582, § 54-524.19; 1970, c. 650; 1972, c. 798; 1976, c. 614; 1988, c. 765.

A. The Board or its agents are authorized upon presenting appropriate credentials and a written notice as to the purpose of the inspection to the owner, operator or agent in charge to enter at reasonable times any factory, warehouse or establishment in which drugs, devices or cosmetics are manufactured, processed, packed or held for introduction into commerce or to enter any vehicle being used to transport or hold such drugs, devices or cosmetics.

The Board or its agents are authorized to inspect such factory, warehouse, establishment or vehicle and all pertinent equipment, materials, containers and labeling.

In the case of any factory, warehouse, establishment or consulting laboratory in which prescription drugs are manufactured, processed, packed or held, the inspection shall extend to all things, including records, files, papers, processes, controls and facilities, bearing on compliance with Chapter 34 (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) of this title.

No inspection authorized for prescription drugs shall extend to financial data, sales data other than shipment data, pricing data, personnel data, other than data as to qualifications of technical and professional personnel performing functions subject to this chapter, and research data.

Each inspection shall be commenced and completed with reasonable promptness. The Board or its agents shall have access to copy all records of carriers in commerce showing the movement in commerce of any drug, device, or cosmetic and the quantity, shipper and consignee. The evidence obtained under this section shall not be used in a criminal prosecution of the person from whom obtained; and carriers shall not be subject to the provisions of Chapter 34 by reason of their receipt, carriage, holding, or delivery of food, drugs, devices, or cosmetics in the usual course of business.

B. If the authorized agent inspecting a factory, warehouse or other establishment has obtained any sample in the course of the inspection, upon completion of the inspection and prior to leaving the premises, he shall give to the owner, operator, or agent in charge a receipt describing the samples.

1970, c. 650, § 54-524.99; 1988, c. 765.

Article 3. Licensure of Pharmacists.

Except as prescribed in this chapter or by Board regulations it shall be unlawful for any person to practice pharmacy, or to engage in, carry on, or be employed in the dispensing, or compounding of drugs within this Commonwealth unless licensed by the Board as a pharmacist. The possession by any person in any place of a miscellaneous stock of drugs shall be prima facie evidence that such person is practicing pharmacy.

Code 1950, § 54-475; 1970, c. 650; 1976, c. 614, § 54-524.48; 1988, c. 765.

Every person desiring to be licensed as a pharmacist shall file with the executive director of the Board an application, verified under oath, setting forth the name and age of the applicant, the place or places at which, and the time spent in, the study of pharmacy, and other information required by the Board.

The Board shall conduct examinations of applicants for licensure at least twice a calendar year.

Code 1950, §§ 54-420, 54-423; 1958, c. 551; 1970, c. 650, §§ 54-524.23, 54-524.25; 1972, c. 798; 1976, c. 614; 1980, c. 288; 1988, c. 765.

A. In order to be licensed as a pharmacist within the meaning of this chapter, an applicant shall present to the Board satisfactory evidence that he:

1. Is at least eighteen years of age;

2. Is of good moral character;

3. Is a graduate of a school of pharmacy approved by the Board, or a foreign college of pharmacy, if the graduate has satisfactorily completed (i) a college of pharmacy equivalency examination program approved by the Board and (ii) written and oral communication ability tests of the English language approved by the Board;

4. Has had a period of practical experience in the United States in accordance with the Board's regulations; however, such requirement shall not exceed twelve months; and

5. Has passed the examination prescribed by the Board.

B. As used in this article, an approved school of pharmacy shall be an institution which meets the minimum standards of the American Council on Pharmaceutical Education and appears on the Council's list of schools of pharmacy as published annually.

Code 1950, § 54-422; 1952, c. 230; 1958, c. 551, § 54-524.21; 1970, c. 650; 1972, cc. 798, 824; 1974, c. 686; 1976, c. 614; 1988, c. 765; 1994, c. 657.

The Board of Pharmacy may issue a license by endorsement, without examination, except as provided in this section, to practice pharmacy to persons who hold a current and unrestricted license as pharmacists in other states, the District of Columbia or possessions or territories of the United States. The applicant for such license shall present satisfactory evidence of the qualifications equal to those required of applicants for licensure by examination in Virginia and that he was licensed by examination by the board of pharmacy in such other jurisdiction. The standard of competence required in such other jurisdiction shall not be lower than that required in Virginia.

Prior to the issuance of a license, the Board may require applicants for licensure by endorsement to pass an examination on Virginia drug laws and Board of Pharmacy regulations equal to that required of applicants for licensure by examination in Virginia.

Code 1950, § 54-423.1; 1958, c. 551; 1970, c. 650, § 54-524.26; 1976, c. 614; 1980, c. 288; 1988, cc. 251, 765; 1990, c. 269.

Every person licensed to practice as a pharmacist must at all times display his license conspicuously in the place in which he regularly practices.

Code 1950, § 54-431; 1958, c. 551; 1970, c. 650, § 54-524.30; 1988, c. 765.

A. Each pharmacist shall have obtained a minimum of 15 continuing education hours of pharmaceutical education through an approved continuing pharmaceutical education program during the year immediately preceding his license renewal date.

B. An approved continuing pharmaceutical education program shall be any program approved by the Board.

C. Pharmacists who have been initially licensed by the Board during the one year preceding the license renewal date shall not be required to comply with the requirement on the first license renewal date that would immediately follow.

D. The Board may grant an exemption from the continuing education requirement if the pharmacist presents evidence that failure to comply was due to circumstances beyond the control of the pharmacist.

E. Upon the written request of a pharmacist, the Board may grant an extension of one year in order for a pharmacist to fulfill the continuing education requirements for the period of time in question. Such extension shall not relieve the pharmacist of complying with the continuing education requirement for the current period.

F. The pharmacist shall attest to the fact that he has completed the continuing education requirements as specified by the Board.

G. The following shall apply to the requirements for continuing pharmaceutical education:

1. The provider of an approved continuing education program shall issue to each pharmacist who has successfully completed a program certification that the pharmacist has completed a specified number of hours.

2. The certificates so issued to the pharmacist shall be maintained by the pharmacist for a period of two years following the renewal of his license.

3. The pharmacist shall provide the Board, upon request, with certification of completion of continuing education programs in a manner to be determined by the Board.

H. Pharmacists who are also licensed in other states and who have obtained a minimum of fifteen hours of approved continuing education requirements of such other states need not obtain additional hours.

I. The Board shall provide for an inactive status for those pharmacists who do not wish to practice in Virginia. The Board shall require upon request for change from inactive to active status proof of continuing education hours as specified in regulations. No person shall practice in Virginia unless he holds a current active license.

J. As part of the annual 15-hour requirement, the Board may require up to two hours of continuing education in a specific subject area. If the Board designates a subject area for continuing education, it shall publish such requirement no later than January 1 of the calendar year for which the specific continuing education is required.

1992, c. 868; 2008, c. 672.

Repealed by Acts 2007, c. 662, cl. 2.

The Board may refuse to admit an applicant to any examination; refuse to issue a license, permit, certificate, or registration to any applicant; or reprimand, impose a monetary penalty, place on probation, impose such terms as it may designate, suspend for a stated period of time or indefinitely, or revoke any license, permit, certificate, or registration if it finds that an applicant or a person holding a license, permit, certificate, or registration:

1. Has been negligent in the practice of pharmacy or in any activity requiring a license, permit, certificate, or registration from the Board;

2. Has engaged in unprofessional conduct specified in regulations promulgated by the Board;

3. Has become incompetent to practice pharmacy or to engage in any activity requiring a license, permit, certificate, or registration from the Board because of a mental or physical condition;

4. Uses drugs or alcohol to the extent that he is rendered unsafe to practice pharmacy or to engage in any activity requiring a license, permit, certificate, or registration from the Board;

5. Has engaged in or attempted any fraud or deceit in connection with the practice of pharmacy or any activity requiring a license, permit, certificate, or registration from the Board, including any application to the Board for such license, permit, certificate, or registration;

6. Has engaged in activities beyond the scope of a license, permit, certificate, or registration or has assisted or allowed unlicensed persons to engage in the practice of pharmacy or perform duties related to the practice of pharmacy for which a license or registration is required;

7. Has violated or cooperated with others in violating any provisions of law or regulation relating to practice of pharmacy or any activity requiring a license, permit, certificate, or registration from the Board;

8. Has had revoked or suspended any registration issued by the United States Drug Enforcement Administration or other federal agency that is necessary to conduct an activity also requiring a license, permit, certificate, or registration from the Board;

9. Has engaged in the theft or diversion of controlled substances or has violated any federal drug law or any drug law of Virginia or of another state;

10. Has had denied, suspended, or revoked in any other state a license to practice pharmacy or any license, permit, certificate, or registration necessary to conduct an activity requiring a license, permit, certificate, or registration from the Board, or has surrendered in another state such license, permit, certificate, or registration;

11. Has been convicted of any felony or of any misdemeanor involving moral turpitude;

12. Has issued or published statements intended to deceive or defraud about his professional service or an activity requiring a license, permit, certificate, or registration from the Board;

13. Has conducted his practice, or activity requiring a license, permit, certificate, or registration from the Board in such a manner as to be a danger to the health and welfare of the public; or

14. Has failed to comply with requirements of this chapter or any regulation of the Board relating to continuing education.

1972, c. 798, § 54-524.22:1; 1976, c. 614; 1977, c. 86; 1982, c. 401; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 868; 1994, c. 296; 2007, c. 662.

Repealed by Acts 1997, c. 556.

Whenever the Board revokes the license of any pharmacist, it shall notify the licensee of such action, and he shall immediately deliver his license to the Board or its representative.

Code 1950, § 54-427; 1970, c. 650, § 54-524.28; 1988, c. 765.

A. A pharmacist shall conduct a prospective drug review before each new prescription is dispensed or delivered to a patient or a person acting on behalf of the patient. Such review shall include screening for potential drug therapy problems due to therapeutic duplication, drug-disease contraindications, drug-drug interactions, including serious interactions with nonprescription or over-the-counter drugs, incorrect drug dosage or duration of drug treatment, drug-allergy interactions, and clinical abuse or misuse. A pharmacist may conduct a prospective drug review before refilling a prescription to the extent the pharmacist deems appropriate in his professional judgment.

B. A pharmacist shall offer to counsel any person who presents a new prescription for filling. The offer to counsel may be made in any manner the pharmacist deems appropriate in his professional judgment, and may include any one or a combination of the following:

1. Face-to-face communication with the pharmacist or the pharmacist's designee;

2. A sign posted in such a manner that it can be seen by patients;

3. A notation affixed to or written on the bag in which the prescription is to be delivered;

4. A notation contained on the prescription container; or

5. By telephone.

For the purposes of medical assistance and other third-party reimbursement or payment programs, any of the above methods, or a combination thereof, shall constitute an acceptable offer to provide counseling, except to the extent this subsection is inconsistent with regulations promulgated by the federal Health Care Financing Administration governing 42 U.S.C. § 1396r-8 (g)(2)(A)(ii). A pharmacist may offer to counsel any person who receives a refill of a prescription to the extent deemed appropriate by the pharmacist in his professional judgment.

C. If the offer to counsel is accepted, the pharmacist shall counsel the person presenting the prescription to the extent the pharmacist deems appropriate in his professional judgment. Such counseling shall be performed by the pharmacist himself and may, but need not, include the following:

1. The name and description of the medication;

2. The dosage form, dosage, route of administration, and duration of drug therapy;

3. Special directions and precautions for preparation, administration, and use by the patient;

4. Common adverse or severe side effects or interactions and therapeutic contraindications that may be encountered, including their avoidance, and the action required if they occur;

5. Techniques for self-monitoring drug therapy;

6. Proper storage and disposal;

7. Prescription refill information; and

8. Action to be taken in the event of a missed dose.

Nothing in this section shall be construed as requiring a pharmacist to provide counseling when the person presenting the prescription fails to accept the pharmacist's offer to counsel. If the prescription is delivered to a person residing outside of the local telephone calling area of the pharmacy, the pharmacist shall either provide a toll-free telephone number or accept reasonable collect calls from such person.

D. Reasonable efforts shall be made to obtain, record, and maintain the following patient information generated at the individual pharmacy:

1. Name, address, telephone number, date of birth or age, and gender;

2. Individual history where significant, including known allergies and drug reactions, and a comprehensive list of medications and relevant devices; and

3. Any additional comments relevant to the patient's drug use, including any failure to accept the pharmacist's offer to counsel.

Such information may be recorded in the patient's manual or electronic profile, or in the prescription signature log, or in any other system of records and may be considered by the pharmacist in the exercise of his professional judgment concerning both the offer to counsel and content of counseling. The absence of any record of a failure to accept the pharmacist's offer to counsel shall be presumed to signify that such offer was accepted and that such counseling was provided.

E. This section shall not apply to any drug dispensed to an inpatient of a hospital or nursing home, except to the extent required by regulations promulgated by the federal Health Care Financing Administration implementing 42 U.S.C. § 1396r-8 (g)(2)(A).

1992, c. 689; 2019, cc. 96, 135.

A. Within the practice of pharmacy as defined in § 54.1-3300, the following acts shall be performed by pharmacists, except as provided in subsection B:

1. The review of a prescription, in conformance with this chapter and Chapter 34 (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) of this title and with current practices in pharmacy, for its completeness, validity, safety, and drug-therapy appropriateness, including, but not limited to, interactions, contraindications, adverse effects, incorrect dosage or duration of treatment, clinical misuse or abuse, and noncompliance and duplication of therapy;

2. The receipt of an oral prescription from a practitioner or his authorized agent;

3. The conduct of a prospective drug review and counseling as required by § 54.1-3319 prior to the dispensing or refilling of any prescription;

4. The provision of information to the public or to a practitioner concerning the therapeutic value and use of drugs in the treatment and prevention of disease;

5. The communication with the prescriber, or the prescriber's agent, involving any modification other than refill authorization of a prescription or of any drug therapy, resolution of any drug therapy problem, or the substitution of any drug prescribed;

6. The verification of the accuracy of a completed prescription prior to dispensing the prescription;

7. The supervision of pharmacy interns and pharmacy technicians; and

8. Any other activity required by regulation to be performed by a pharmacist.

B. A pharmacy intern may engage in the acts to be performed by a pharmacist as set forth in subsection A or the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) for the purpose of obtaining practical experience required for licensure as a pharmacist, if the supervising pharmacist is directly monitoring these activities.

C. A registered pharmacy technician, working under the direct supervision of a qualified nuclear pharmacist, as defined by regulations of the Board, may accept oral prescriptions for diagnostic, nonpatient specific radiopharmaceuticals in accordance with subsection C of § 54.1-3410.1.

D. Consistent with patient safety, a pharmacist shall exercise sole authority in determining the maximum number of pharmacy technicians that he shall supervise; however, no pharmacist shall supervise more pharmacy technicians than allowed by Board regulations.

2001, c. 317; 2005, c. 403; 2006, c. 626; 2010, c. 90.

Article 4. Registration of Pharmacy Technicians.

A. No person shall perform the duties of a pharmacy technician without first being registered as a pharmacy technician with the Board. Upon being registered with the Board as a pharmacy technician, the following tasks may be performed:

1. The entry of prescription information and drug history into a data system or other record keeping system;

2. The preparation of prescription labels or patient information;

3. The removal of the drug to be dispensed from inventory;

4. The counting, measuring, or compounding of the drug to be dispensed;

5. The packaging and labeling of the drug to be dispensed and the repackaging thereof;

6. The stocking or loading of automated dispensing devices or other devices used in the dispensing process;

7. The acceptance of refill authorization from a prescriber or his authorized agency, so long as there is no change to the original prescription;

8. Under the supervision of a pharmacist, meaning the supervising pharmacist is at the same physical location of the technician or pharmacy intern, and consistent with the requirements of § 54.1-3303.1, administration of the following drugs and devices to persons three years of age or older as set forth in regulations of the Board: vaccines included on the Immunization Schedule published by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and vaccines for COVID-19; and

9. The performance of any other task restricted to pharmacy technicians by the Board's regulations.

B. To be registered as a pharmacy technician, a person shall submit:

1. An application and fee specified in regulations of the Board;

2. Evidence that he has successfully completed a training program that is (i) an accredited training program, including an accredited training program operated through the Department of Education's Career and Technical Education program or approved by the Board, or (ii) operated through a federal agency or branch of the military; and

3. Evidence that he has successfully passed a national certification examination administered by the Pharmacy Technician Certification Board or the National Healthcareer Association.

C. The Board shall promulgate regulations establishing requirements for:

1. Issuance of a registration as a pharmacy technician to a person who, prior to the effective date of such regulations, (i) successfully completed or was enrolled in a Board-approved pharmacy technician training program or (ii) passed a national certification examination required by the Board but did not complete a Board-approved pharmacy technician training program;

2. Issuance of a registration as a pharmacy technician to a person who (i) has previously practiced as a pharmacy technician in another U.S. jurisdiction and (ii) has passed a national certification examination required by the Board; and

3. Evidence of continued competency as a condition of renewal of a registration as a pharmacy technician.

D. The Board shall waive the initial registration fee for a pharmacy technician applicant who works as a pharmacy technician exclusively in a free clinic pharmacy. A person registered pursuant to this subsection shall be issued a limited-use registration. A pharmacy technician with a limited-use registration shall not perform pharmacy technician tasks in any setting other than a free clinic pharmacy. The Board shall also waive renewal fees for such limited-use registrations. A pharmacy technician with a limited-use registration may convert to an unlimited registration by paying the current renewal fee.

E. Any person registered as a pharmacy technician prior to the effective date of regulations implementing the provisions of this section shall not be required to comply with the requirements of subsection B in order to maintain or renew registration as a pharmacy technician.

F. A pharmacy technician trainee enrolled in a training program for pharmacy technicians described in subdivision B 2 may engage in the acts set forth in subsection A for the purpose of obtaining practical experience required for completion of the training program, so long as such activities are directly monitored by a supervising pharmacist.

G. To be registered as a pharmacy technician trainee, a person shall submit an application and a fee specified in regulations of the Board. Such registration shall only be valid while the person is enrolled in a pharmacy technician training program described in subsection B and actively progressing toward completion of such program. A registration card issued pursuant to this section shall be invalid and shall be returned to the Board if such person fails to enroll in a pharmacy technician training program described in subsection B.

H. A pharmacy intern may perform the duties set forth for pharmacy technicians in subsection A when registered with the Board for the purpose of gaining the practical experience required to apply for licensure as a pharmacist.

I. A registered nurse or licensed practical nurse practicing at an opioid treatment program pharmacy may perform the duties set forth for pharmacy technicians in subsection A, provided that all take-home medication doses are verified for accuracy by a pharmacist prior to dispensing.

2001, c. 317; 2004, c. 47; 2020, cc. 102, 237; 2022, cc. 138, 790, 791.

Repealed by Acts 2007, c. 662, cl. 2.

Chapter 34. Drug Control Act.

Article 1. General Provisions.

This chapter may be cited as "The Drug Control Act."

1970, c. 650, § 54-524.1; 1988, c. 765.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Administer" means the direct application of a controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means, to the body of a patient or research subject by (i) a practitioner or by his authorized agent and under his direction or (ii) the patient or research subject at the direction and in the presence of the practitioner.

"Advertisement" means all representations disseminated in any manner or by any means, other than by labeling, for the purpose of inducing, or which are likely to induce, directly or indirectly, the purchase of drugs or devices.

"Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf of or at the direction of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser. It does not include a common or contract carrier, public warehouseman, or employee of the carrier or warehouseman.

"Anabolic steroid" means any drug or hormonal substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to testosterone, other than estrogens, progestins, corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone.

"Animal" means any nonhuman animate being endowed with the power of voluntary action.

"Automated drug dispensing system" means a mechanical or electronic system that performs operations or activities, other than compounding or administration, relating to pharmacy services, including the storage, dispensing, or distribution of drugs and the collection, control, and maintenance of all transaction information, to provide security and accountability for such drugs.

"Biological product" means a virus, therapeutic serum, toxin, antitoxin, vaccine, blood, blood component or derivative, allergenic product, protein other than a chemically synthesized polypeptide, or analogous product, or arsphenamine or any derivative of arsphenamine or any other trivalent organic arsenic compound, applicable to the prevention, treatment, or cure of a disease or condition of human beings.

"Biosimilar" means a biological product that is highly similar to a specific reference biological product, notwithstanding minor differences in clinically inactive compounds, such that there are no clinically meaningful differences between the reference biological product and the biological product that has been licensed as a biosimilar pursuant to 42 U.S.C. § 262(k) in terms of safety, purity, and potency of the product.

"Board" means the Board of Pharmacy.

"Bulk drug substance" means any substance that is represented for use, and that, when used in the compounding, manufacturing, processing, or packaging of a drug, becomes an active ingredient or a finished dosage form of the drug; however, "bulk drug substance" shall not include intermediates that are used in the synthesis of such substances.

"Change of ownership" of an existing entity permitted, registered, or licensed by the Board means (i) the sale or transfer of all or substantially all of the assets of the entity or of any corporation that owns or controls the entity; (ii) the creation of a partnership by a sole proprietor, the dissolution of a partnership, or change in partnership composition; (iii) the acquisition or disposal of 50 percent or more of the outstanding shares of voting stock of a corporation owning the entity or of the parent corporation of a wholly owned subsidiary owning the entity, except that this shall not apply to any corporation the voting stock of which is actively traded on any securities exchange or in any over-the-counter market; (iv) the merger of a corporation owning the entity or of the parent corporation of a wholly-owned subsidiary owning the entity with another business or corporation; or (v) the expiration or forfeiture of a corporation's charter.

"Co-licensed partner" means a person who, with at least one other person, has the right to engage in the manufacturing or marketing of a prescription drug, consistent with state and federal law.

"Compounding" means the combining of two or more ingredients to fabricate such ingredients into a single preparation and includes the mixing, assembling, packaging, or labeling of a drug or device (i) by a pharmacist, or within a permitted pharmacy, pursuant to a valid prescription issued for a medicinal or therapeutic purpose in the context of a bona fide practitioner-patient-pharmacist relationship, or in expectation of receiving a valid prescription based on observed historical patterns of prescribing and dispensing; (ii) by a practitioner of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, dentistry, or veterinary medicine as an incident to his administering or dispensing, if authorized to dispense, a controlled substance in the course of his professional practice; or (iii) for the purpose of, or as incident to, research, teaching, or chemical analysis and not for sale or for dispensing. The mixing, diluting, or reconstituting of a manufacturer's product drugs for the purpose of administration to a patient, when performed by a practitioner of medicine or osteopathy licensed under Chapter 29 (§ 54.1-2900 et seq.), a person supervised by such practitioner pursuant to subdivision A 6 or 19 of § 54.1-2901, or a person supervised by such practitioner or a licensed advanced nurse or physician assistant pursuant to subdivision A 4 of § 54.1-2901 shall not be considered compounding.

"Controlled substance" means a drug, substance, or immediate precursor in Schedules I through VI of this chapter. The term shall not include distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco as those terms are defined or used in Title 3.2 or Title 4.1. The term "controlled substance" includes a controlled substance analog that has been placed into Schedule I or II by the Board pursuant to the regulatory authority in subsection D of § 54.1-3443.

"Controlled substance analog" means a substance the chemical structure of which is substantially similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II and either (i) which has a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II or (ii) with respect to a particular person, which such person represents or intends to have a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system that is substantially similar to or greater than the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II. "Controlled substance analog" does not include (a) any substance for which there is an approved new drug application as defined under § 505 of the federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. § 355) or that is generally recognized as safe and effective pursuant to §§ 501, 502, and 503 of the federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. §§ 351, 352, and 353) and 21 C.F.R. Part 330; (b) with respect to a particular person, any substance for which an exemption is in effect for investigational use for that person under § 505 of the federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act to the extent that the conduct with respect to that substance is pursuant to such exemption; or (c) any substance to the extent not intended for human consumption before such an exemption takes effect with respect to that substance.

"DEA" means the Drug Enforcement Administration, U.S. Department of Justice, or its successor agency.

"Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive, or attempted transfer of any item regulated by this chapter, whether or not there exists an agency relationship, including delivery of a Schedule VI prescription device to an ultimate user or consumer on behalf of a medical equipment supplier by a manufacturer, nonresident manufacturer, wholesale distributor, nonresident wholesale distributor, warehouser, nonresident warehouser, third-party logistics provider, or nonresident third-party logistics provider at the direction of a medical equipment supplier in accordance with § 54.1-3415.1.

"Device" means instruments, apparatus, and contrivances, including their components, parts, and accessories, intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in man or animals or to affect the structure or any function of the body of man or animals.

"Dialysis care technician" or "dialysis patient care technician" means an individual who is certified by an organization approved by the Board of Health Professions pursuant to Chapter 27.01 (§ 54.1-2729.1 et seq.) and who, under the supervision of a licensed physician, an advanced practice registered nurse, a physician assistant, or a registered nurse, assists in the care of patients undergoing renal dialysis treatments in a Medicare-certified renal dialysis facility.

"Dialysis solution" means either the commercially available, unopened, sterile solutions whose purpose is to be instilled into the peritoneal cavity during the medical procedure known as peritoneal dialysis, or commercially available solutions whose purpose is to be used in the performance of hemodialysis not to include any solutions administered to the patient intravenously.

"Dispense" means to deliver a drug to an ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the lawful order of a practitioner, including the prescribing and administering, packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary to prepare the substance for that delivery. However, dispensing shall not include the transportation of drugs mixed, diluted, or reconstituted in accordance with this chapter to other sites operated by such practitioner or that practitioner's medical practice for the purpose of administration of such drugs to patients of the practitioner or that practitioner's medical practice at such other sites. For practitioners of medicine or osteopathy, "dispense" shall only include the provision of drugs by a practitioner to patients to take with them away from the practitioner's place of practice.

"Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses.

"Distribute" means to deliver other than by administering or dispensing a controlled substance.

"Distributor" means a person who distributes.

"Drug" means (i) articles or substances recognized in the official United States Pharmacopoeia National Formulary or official Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or any supplement to any of them; (ii) articles or substances intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in man or animals; (iii) articles or substances, other than food, intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of man or animals; (iv) articles or substances intended for use as a component of any article specified in clause (i), (ii), or (iii); or (v) a biological product. "Drug" does not include devices or their components, parts, or accessories.

"Drug product" means a specific drug in dosage form from a known source of manufacture, whether by brand or therapeutically equivalent drug product name.

"Electronic prescription" means a written prescription that is generated on an electronic application and is transmitted to a pharmacy as an electronic data file; Schedule II through V prescriptions shall be transmitted in accordance with 21 C.F.R. Part 1300.

"Facsimile (FAX) prescription" means a written prescription or order that is transmitted by an electronic device over telephone lines that sends the exact image to the receiving pharmacy in hard copy form.

"FDA" means the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

"Immediate precursor" means a substance which the Board of Pharmacy has found to be and by regulation designates as being the principal compound commonly used or produced primarily for use, and which is an immediate chemical intermediary used or likely to be used in the manufacture of a controlled substance, the control of which is necessary to prevent, curtail, or limit manufacture.

"Interchangeable" means a biosimilar that meets safety standards for determining interchangeability pursuant to 42 U.S.C. § 262(k)(4).

"Label" means a display of written, printed, or graphic matter upon the immediate container of any article. A requirement made by or under authority of this chapter that any word, statement, or other information appear on the label shall not be considered to be complied with unless such word, statement, or other information also appears on the outside container or wrapper, if any, of the retail package of such article or is easily legible through the outside container or wrapper.

"Labeling" means all labels and other written, printed, or graphic matter on an article or any of its containers or wrappers, or accompanying such article.

"Manufacture" means the production, preparation, propagation, conversion, or processing of any item regulated by this chapter, either directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of natural origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging of the substance or labeling or relabeling of its container. This term does not include compounding.

"Manufacturer" means every person who manufactures, a manufacturer's co-licensed partner, or a repackager.

"Marijuana" means any part of a plant of the genus Cannabis whether growing or not, its seeds, or its resin; and every compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of such plant, its seeds, its resin, or any extract containing one or more cannabinoids. "Marijuana" does not include (i) the mature stalks of such plant, fiber produced from such stalk, or oil or cake made from the seeds of such plant, unless such stalks, fiber, oil, or cake is combined with other parts of plants of the genus Cannabis; (ii) industrial hemp, as defined in § 3.2-4112, that is possessed by a person registered pursuant to subsection A of § 3.2-4115 or his agent; (iii) industrial hemp, as defined in § 3.2-4112, that is possessed by a person who holds a hemp producer license issued by the U.S. Department of Agriculture pursuant to 7 C.F.R. Part 990; (iv) a hemp product, as defined in § 3.2-4112; (v) an industrial hemp extract, as defined in § 3.2-5145.1; or (vi) any substance containing a tetrahydrocannabinol isomer, ester, ether, salt, or salts of such isomer, ester, or ether that has been placed by the Board of Pharmacy into one of the schedules set forth in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) pursuant to § 54.1-3443.

"Medical equipment supplier" means any person, as defined in § 1-230, engaged in the delivery to the ultimate consumer, pursuant to the lawful order of a practitioner, of hypodermic syringes and needles, medicinal oxygen, Schedule VI controlled devices, those Schedule VI controlled substances with no medicinal properties that are used for the operation and cleaning of medical equipment, solutions for peritoneal dialysis, and sterile water or saline for irrigation.

"Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis: (i) opium, opiates, and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of opium or opiates; (ii) any salt, compound, isomer, derivative, or preparation thereof which is chemically equivalent or identical with any of the substances referred to in clause (i), but not including the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium; (iii) opium poppy and poppy straw; (iv) coca leaves and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of coca leaves, and any salt, compound, isomer, derivative, or preparation thereof which is chemically equivalent or identical with any of these substances, but not including decocainized coca leaves or extraction of coca leaves which do not contain cocaine or ecgonine.

"New drug" means (i) any drug, except a new animal drug or an animal feed bearing or containing a new animal drug, the composition of which is such that such drug is not generally recognized, among experts qualified by scientific training and experience to evaluate the safety and effectiveness of drugs, as safe and effective for use under the conditions prescribed, recommended, or suggested in the labeling, except that such a drug not so recognized shall not be deemed to be a "new drug" if at any time prior to the enactment of this chapter it was subject to the Food and Drugs Act of June 30, 1906, as amended, and if at such time its labeling contained the same representations concerning the conditions of its use, or (ii) any drug, except a new animal drug or an animal feed bearing or containing a new animal drug, the composition of which is such that such drug, as a result of investigations to determine its safety and effectiveness for use under such conditions, has become so recognized, but which has not, otherwise than in such investigations, been used to a material extent or for a material time under such conditions.

"Nuclear medicine technologist" means an individual who holds a current certification with the American Registry of Radiological Technologists or the Nuclear Medicine Technology Certification Board.

"Official compendium" means the official United States Pharmacopoeia National Formulary, official Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or any supplement to any of them.

"Official written order" means an order written on a form provided for that purpose by the U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration, under any laws of the United States making provision therefor, if such order forms are authorized and required by federal law, and if no such order form is provided then on an official form provided for that purpose by the Board of Pharmacy.

"Opiate" means any substance having an addiction-forming or addiction-sustaining liability similar to morphine or being capable of conversion into a drug having such addiction-forming or addiction-sustaining liability. It does not include, unless specifically designated as controlled under Article 4 (§ 54.1-3437 et seq.), the dextrorotatory isomer of 3-methoxy-n-methylmorphinan and its salts (dextromethorphan). It does include its racemic and levorotatory forms.

"Opium poppy" means the plant of the species Papaver somniferum L., except the seeds thereof.

"Original package" means the unbroken container or wrapping in which any drug or medicine is enclosed together with label and labeling, put up by or for the manufacturer, wholesaler, or distributor for use in the delivery or display of such article.

"Outsourcing facility" means a facility that is engaged in the compounding of sterile drugs and is currently registered as an outsourcing facility with the U.S. Secretary of Health and Human Services and that complies with all applicable requirements of federal and state law, including the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act.

"Person" means both the plural and singular, as the case demands, and includes an individual, partnership, corporation, association, governmental agency, trust, or other institution or entity.

"Pharmacist-in-charge" means the person who, being licensed as a pharmacist, signs the application for a pharmacy permit and assumes full legal responsibility for the operation of the relevant pharmacy in a manner complying with the laws and regulations for the practice of pharmacy and the sale and dispensing of controlled substances; the "pharmacist-in-charge" shall personally supervise the pharmacy and the pharmacy's personnel as required by § 54.1-3432.

"Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of the opium poppy, after mowing.

"Practitioner" means a physician, dentist, licensed advanced practice registered nurse pursuant to § 54.1-2957.01, licensed physician assistant pursuant to § 54.1-2952.1, pharmacist pursuant to § 54.1-3300, TPA-certified optometrist pursuant to Article 5 (§ 54.1-3222 et seq.) of Chapter 32, veterinarian, scientific investigator, or other person licensed, registered, or otherwise permitted to distribute, dispense, prescribe and administer, or conduct research with respect to a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research in the Commonwealth.

"Prescriber" means a practitioner who is authorized pursuant to §§ 54.1-3303 and 54.1-3408 to issue a prescription.

"Prescription" means an order for drugs or medical supplies, written or signed or transmitted by word of mouth, telephone, telegraph, or other means of communication to a pharmacist by a duly licensed physician, dentist, veterinarian, or other practitioner authorized by law to prescribe and administer such drugs or medical supplies.

"Prescription drug" means any drug required by federal law or regulation to be dispensed only pursuant to a prescription, including finished dosage forms and active ingredients subject to § 503(b) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. § 353(b)).

"Production" or "produce" includes the manufacture, planting, cultivation, growing, or harvesting of a controlled substance or marijuana.

"Proprietary medicine" means a completely compounded nonprescription drug in its unbroken, original package which does not contain any controlled substance or marijuana as defined in this chapter and is not in itself poisonous, and which is sold, offered, promoted, or advertised directly to the general public by or under the authority of the manufacturer or primary distributor, under a trademark, trade name, or other trade symbol privately owned, and the labeling of which conforms to the requirements of this chapter and applicable federal law. However, this definition shall not include a drug that is only advertised or promoted professionally to licensed practitioners, a narcotic or drug containing a narcotic, a drug that may be dispensed only upon prescription or the label of which bears substantially the statement "Warning — may be habit-forming," or a drug intended for injection.

"Radiopharmaceutical" means any drug that exhibits spontaneous disintegration of unstable nuclei with the emission of nuclear particles or photons and includes any non-radioactive reagent kit or radionuclide generator that is intended to be used in the preparation of any such substance, but does not include drugs such as carbon-containing compounds or potassium-containing salts that include trace quantities of naturally occurring radionuclides. The term also includes any biological product that is labeled with a radionuclide or intended solely to be labeled with a radionuclide.

"Reference biological product" means the single biological product licensed pursuant to 42 U.S.C. § 262(a) against which a biological product is evaluated in an application submitted to the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for licensure of biological products as biosimilar or interchangeable pursuant to 42 U.S.C. § 262(k).

"Sale" includes barter, exchange, or gift, or offer therefor, and each such transaction made by any person, whether as an individual, proprietor, agent, servant, or employee.

"Tetrahydrocannabinol" means any naturally occurring or synthetic tetrahydrocannabinol, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation and any preparation, mixture, or substance containing, or mixed or infused with, any detectable amount of tetrahydrocannabinol. For the purposes of this definition, "isomer" means the optical, position, and geometric isomers.

"Therapeutically equivalent drug products" means drug products that contain the same active ingredients and are identical in strength or concentration, dosage form, and route of administration and that are classified as being therapeutically equivalent by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration pursuant to the definition of "therapeutically equivalent drug products" set forth in the most recent edition of the Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations, otherwise known as the "Orange Book."

"Third-party logistics provider" means a person that provides or coordinates warehousing of or other logistics services for a drug or device in interstate commerce on behalf of a manufacturer, wholesale distributor, or dispenser of the drug or device but does not take ownership of the product or have responsibility for directing the sale or disposition of the product.

"Total tetrahydrocannabinol" means the sum, after the application of any necessary conversion factor, of the percentage by weight of tetrahydrocannabinol and the percentage by weight of tetrahydrocannabinolic acid.

"USP-NF" means the current edition of the United States Pharmacopeia-National Formulary.

"Warehouser" means any person, other than a wholesale distributor, manufacturer, or third-party logistics provider, engaged in the business of (i) selling or otherwise distributing prescription drugs or devices to any person who is not the ultimate user or consumer and (ii) delivering Schedule VI prescription devices to the ultimate user or consumer pursuant to § 54.1-3415.1. No person shall be subject to any state or local tax by reason of this definition.

"Wholesale distribution" means (i) distribution of prescription drugs to persons other than consumers or patients and (ii) delivery of Schedule VI prescription devices to the ultimate user or consumer pursuant to § 54.1-3415.1, subject to the exemptions set forth in the federal Drug Supply Chain Security Act.

"Wholesale distributor" means any person other than a manufacturer, a manufacturer's co-licensed partner, a third-party logistics provider, or a repackager that engages in wholesale distribution.

The words "drugs" and "devices" as used in Chapter 33 (§ 54.1-3300 et seq.) and in this chapter shall not include surgical or dental instruments, physical therapy equipment, X-ray apparatus, or glasses or lenses for the eyes.

The terms "pharmacist," "pharmacy," and "practice of pharmacy" as used in this chapter shall be defined as provided in Chapter 33 (§ 54.1-3300 et seq.) unless the context requires a different meaning.

Code 1950, §§ 54-399, 54-487; 1952, c. 451; 1958, c. 551, § 54-524.2; 1966, c. 193; 1968, c. 582; 1970, c. 650; 1971, Ex. Sess., c. 94; 1972, c. 798; 1975, c. 425; 1976, c. 14; 1977, c. 193; 1978, c. 833; 1979, c. 435; 1980, c. 150; 1988, c. 765; 1991, cc. 519, 524; 1992, cc. 737, 793; 1996, cc. 37, 152, 158, 407, 408; 1997, cc. 20, 677, 806; 1998, c. 470; 1999, cc. 661, 750; 2000, cc. 861, 878, 935; 2003, cc. 509, 639, 995; 2005, cc. 475, 839; 2006, c. 346; 2012, c. 213; 2013, cc. 412, 504, 544, 765; 2014, cc. 674, 719; 2015, cc. 158, 180, 300; 2016, cc. 221, 495; 2017, cc. 115, 429; 2018, cc. 241, 242, 689, 690; 2019, cc. 653, 654; 2020, cc. 831, 1285, 1286; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 110; 2023, cc. 183, 744, 794.

Repealed by Acts 2016, c. 221, cl. 2.

Repealed by Acts 2003, c. 509.

This chapter shall not be construed to apply (i) to poisons used for the control of insects, animal pests, weeds, fungus diseases or other substances sold for use in agricultural, horticultural or related arts and sciences when such substances which are poisons within the meaning of this chapter are sold in original unbroken packages bearing a label having plainly printed upon it the name of the contents and the word POISON and an effective antidote or (ii) to any person, persons, corporations or associations engaged in the business of selling, making, compounding or manufacturing industrial chemicals for distribution or sale at wholesale or for making, compounding or manufacturing other products.

Code 1950, § 54-403.1; 1958, c. 551; 1970, c. 650, § 54-524.4; 1988, c. 765.

A. Except as set forth in subsection G, every person manufacturing, compounding, processing, selling, dispensing or otherwise disposing of drugs in Schedules I, II, III, IV or V shall take a complete and accurate inventory of all stocks of Schedules I through V drugs on the date he first engages in business. If there are no controlled substances on hand at that time, he shall record this fact as part of the inventory. An inventory taken by use of an oral recording device shall be promptly reduced to writing and maintained in a written, typewritten or printed form. Such inventory shall be made either as of the opening of business or as of the close of business on the inventory date.

B. After the initial inventory is taken, every person described herein shall take a new inventory at least every two years of all stocks on hand of Schedules I through V drugs. The biennial inventory shall be taken on any date which is within two years of the previous biennial inventory.

C. The record of such drugs received shall in every case show the date of receipt, the name and address of the person from whom received and the kind and quantity of drugs received, the kind and quantity of drugs produced or removed from process of manufacture, and the date of such production or removal from process of manufacture. The record shall in every case show the proportion of morphine, cocaine, or ecgonine contained in or producible from crude opium or coca leaves received or produced.

D. The record of all drugs sold, administered, dispensed, or otherwise disposed of, shall show the date of selling, administering, or dispensing, the name and address of the person to whom or for whose use, or the owner and species of animal for which the drugs were sold, administered or dispensed, and the kind and quantity of drugs. Any person selling, administering, dispensing or otherwise disposing of such drugs shall make and sign such record at the time of each transaction. The keeping of a record required by or under the federal laws, containing substantially the same information as is specified above, shall constitute compliance with this section, except that every such record shall contain a detailed list of any drugs lost, destroyed or stolen, the kind and quantity of such drugs, and the date of the discovery of such loss, destruction or theft. The form of records shall be prescribed by the Board.

E. Whenever any registrant or licensee discovers a theft or any other unusual loss of any controlled substance, he shall immediately report such theft or loss to the Board. If the registrant or licensee is unable to determine the exact kind and quantity of the drug loss, he shall immediately make a complete inventory of all Schedule I through V drugs.

Within 30 days after the discovery of a loss of drugs, the registrant or licensee shall furnish the Board with a listing of the kind, quantity and strength of such drugs lost.

F. All records required pursuant to this section shall be maintained completely and accurately for two years from the date of the transaction recorded.

G. Each person authorized to conduct chemical analyses using controlled substances in the Department of Forensic Science shall comply with the inventory requirements set forth in subsections A through F; however, the following substances shall not be required to be included in such inventory: (i) controlled substances on hand at the time of the inventory in a quantity of less than one kilogram, other than a hallucinogenic controlled substance listed in Schedule I of this chapter; or (ii) hallucinogenic controlled substances, other than lysergic acid diethylamide, on hand at the time of the inventory in a quantity of less than 20 grams; or (iii) lysergic acid diethylamide on hand at the time of the inventory in a quantity of less than 0.5 grams. Further, no inventory shall be required of known or suspected controlled substances that have been received as evidentiary materials for analyses by the Department of Forensic Science.

1970, c. 650, § 54-524.56; 1972, c. 798; 1978, c. 833; 1979, c. 435; 1980, c. 203; 1982, c. 278; 1988, c. 765; 1998, c. 105; 2004, c. 51; 2005, cc. 868, 881.

Every person required to prepare or obtain, and keep, records, and any carrier maintaining records with respect to any shipment containing any drug, and every person in charge or having custody of such records shall, upon request of an agent designated by the Board, permit such agent at reasonable times to have access to and copy such records.

Any agent designated by the Superintendent of the Department of State Police to conduct drug diversion investigations shall, for the purpose of such investigations, also be permitted access at reasonable times to all such records relevant to a specific investigation and be allowed to inspect and copy such records. However, agents designated by the Superintendent of the Department of State Police to conduct drug diversion investigations shall not copy and remove patient records unless such patient records are relevant to a specific investigation. Any agent designated by the Superintendent of the Department of State Police shall allow the person or carrier maintaining such records, or agent thereof, to examine any copies of records before their removal from the premises. If the agent designated by the Superintendent of State Police copies records on magnetic storage media, he will deliver a duplicate of the magnetic storage media on which the copies are stored to the person or carrier maintaining such records or an agent thereof, prior to removing the copies from the premises. If the original of any record is removed by any agent designated by the Superintendent of State Police, a receipt therefor shall be left with the person or carrier maintaining such records or an agent thereof, and a copy of the removed record shall be provided the person or carrier maintaining such records within a reasonable time thereafter.

For the purposes of verification of such records and of enforcement of this chapter, agents designated by the Board or by the Superintendent are authorized, upon presenting appropriate credentials to the owner, operator, or agent in charge, to enter, at reasonable times, any factory, warehouse, establishment, or vehicle in which any drug is held, manufactured, compounded, processed, sold, delivered, or otherwise disposed of; and to inspect, within reasonable limits and in a reasonable manner, such factory, warehouse, establishment, or vehicle, and all pertinent equipment, finished and unfinished material, containers and labeling, including records, files, papers, processes, controls, and facilities, bearing on violation of this chapter; and to inventory and obtain samples of any stock of any drugs.

If a sample of any drug is obtained, the agent making the inspection shall, upon completion of the inspection and before leaving the premises, give to the owner, operator, or agent in charge a receipt describing the sample. No inspection shall extend to financial data, sales data other than shipment data, pricing data, personnel data or research data.

Any information obtained by a designated State Police agent during an inspection under this section which constitutes evidence of a violation of any provision of this chapter shall be reported to the Department of Health Professions upon its discovery.

Any information obtained by an agent designated by the Board during an inspection under this section which constitutes evidence of a violation of Article 1 (§ 18.2-247 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2 shall be reported to the Department of State Police upon its discovery.

1970, c. 650, § 54-524.57; 1988, cc. 266, 765; 1992, cc. 743, 808.

A. No agent of the Board or agent designated by the Superintendent of the Department of State Police having knowledge by virtue of his office of any prescriptions, papers, records, or stocks of drugs shall divulge such knowledge, except in connection with a criminal investigation authorized by the Attorney General or attorney for the Commonwealth or with a prosecution or proceeding in court or before a regulatory board or officer, to which investigation, prosecution or proceeding the person to whom such prescriptions, papers or records relate is a subject or party. This section shall not be construed to prohibit the Board president or his designee and the Director of the Department of Health Professions from discharging their duties as provided in this title.

B. Notwithstanding the provisions of § 54.1-2400.2, the Board shall have the authority to submit to the U.S. Secretary of Health and Human Services information resulting from an inspection or an investigation indicating that a compounding pharmacy or outsourcing facility may be in violation of federal law or regulations with the exception of compounding for office-based administration in accordance with § 54.1-3410.2.

Code 1950, § 54-512; 1970, c. 650; 1983, c. 528, § 54-524.58; 1988, cc. 266, 765; 2015, c. 300.

A licensed physician or pharmacist may receive controlled substances from or on behalf of a patient for qualitative or quantitative analysis purposes only, without an official order form, if within twenty-four hours of its receipt the physician or pharmacist mails or delivers the entire sample to a laboratory operated by the Commonwealth and designated by the Board to receive such substances. If the sample is mailed, it shall be sent by registered or certified mail, postage prepaid, with return receipt requested. If personally delivered, a receipt shall be obtained from such laboratory. All receipts or returns shall be kept on file for three years and shall be available for inspection by the Board at any reasonable time.

1972, c. 798, § 54-524.59:1; 1988, c. 765.

A. A practitioner of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, dentistry, or veterinary medicine, a licensed advanced practice registered nurse pursuant to § 54.1-2957.01, a licensed certified midwife pursuant to § 54.1-2957.04, a licensed physician assistant pursuant to § 54.1-2952.1, or a TPA-certified optometrist pursuant to Article 5 (§ 54.1-3222 et seq.) of Chapter 32 shall only prescribe, dispense, or administer controlled substances in good faith for medicinal or therapeutic purposes within the course of his professional practice. A licensed midwife pursuant to § 54.1-2957.7 shall only obtain, possess, and administer controlled substances in good faith for medicinal or therapeutic purposes within the course of his professional practice.

B. The prescribing practitioner's order may be on a written prescription or pursuant to an oral prescription as authorized by this chapter. The prescriber may administer drugs and devices, or he may cause drugs or devices to be administered by:

1. A nurse, physician assistant, or intern under his direction and supervision;

2. Persons trained to administer drugs and devices to patients in state-owned or state-operated hospitals or facilities licensed as hospitals by the Board of Health or psychiatric hospitals licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services who administer drugs under the control and supervision of the prescriber or a pharmacist;

3. Emergency medical services personnel certified and authorized to administer drugs and devices pursuant to regulations of the Board of Health who act within the scope of such certification and pursuant to an oral or written order or standing protocol;

4. Persons who are employed or engaged at a medical care facility, as defined in § 32.1-3, who have a valid emergency medical services provider certification issued by the Board of Health as a requirement of being employed or engaged at the medical care facility within the scope of such certification, pursuant to an oral or written order or standing protocol to administer drugs and devices at the medical care facility; or

5. A licensed respiratory therapist as defined in § 54.1-2954 who administers by inhalation controlled substances used in inhalation or respiratory therapy.

C. Pursuant to an oral or written order or standing protocol, the prescriber, who is authorized by state or federal law to possess and administer radiopharmaceuticals in the scope of his practice, may authorize a nuclear medicine technologist to administer, under his supervision, radiopharmaceuticals used in the diagnosis or treatment of disease.

D. Pursuant to an oral or written order or standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, such prescriber may authorize registered nurses and licensed practical nurses to possess (i) epinephrine and oxygen for administration in treatment of emergency medical conditions and (ii) heparin and sterile normal saline to use for the maintenance of intravenous access lines.

Pursuant to the regulations of the Board of Health, certain emergency medical services technicians may possess and administer epinephrine in emergency cases of anaphylactic shock.

Pursuant to an order or standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, any school nurse, school board employee, employee of a local governing body, or employee of a local health department who is authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of epinephrine may possess and administer epinephrine.

Pursuant to an order or standing protocol that shall be issued by the local health director within the course of his professional practice, any school nurse, licensed athletic trainer under contract with a local school division, school board employee, employee of a local governing body, or employee of a local health department who is authorized by the local health director and trained in the administration of albuterol inhalers and valved holding chambers or nebulized albuterol may possess or administer an albuterol inhaler and a valved holding chamber or nebulized albuterol to a student diagnosed with a condition requiring an albuterol inhaler or nebulized albuterol when the student is believed to be experiencing or about to experience an asthmatic crisis.

Pursuant to an order or a standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, any employee of a school for students with disabilities, as defined in § 22.1-319 and licensed by the Board of Education, or any employee of a private school that is accredited pursuant to § 22.1-19 as administered by the Virginia Council for Private Education who is authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of (a) epinephrine may possess and administer epinephrine and (b) albuterol inhalers or nebulized albuterol may possess or administer an albuterol inhaler or nebulized albuterol to a student diagnosed with a condition requiring an albuterol inhaler or nebulized albuterol when the student is believed to be experiencing or about to experience an asthmatic crisis.

Pursuant to an order or a standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, any nurse at an early childhood care and education entity, employee at the entity, or employee of a local health department who is authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of epinephrine may possess and administer epinephrine.

Pursuant to an order or a standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, any employee of a public institution of higher education or a private institution of higher education who is authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of epinephrine may possess and administer epinephrine.

Pursuant to an order or a standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, any employee of an organization providing outdoor educational experiences or programs for youth who is authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of epinephrine may possess and administer epinephrine.

Pursuant to an order or a standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, and in accordance with policies and guidelines established by the Department of Health, such prescriber may authorize any employee of a restaurant licensed pursuant to Chapter 3 (§ 35.1-18 et seq.) of Title 35.1 to possess and administer epinephrine on the premises of the restaurant at which the employee is employed, provided that such person is trained in the administration of epinephrine.

Pursuant to an order issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, an employee of a provider licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services or a person providing services pursuant to a contract with a provider licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services may possess and administer epinephrine, provided such person is authorized and trained in the administration of epinephrine.

Pursuant to an order or standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, any employee of a public place, as defined in § 15.2-2820, who is authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of epinephrine may possess and administer epinephrine.

Pursuant to an oral or written order or standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, such prescriber may authorize pharmacists to possess epinephrine and oxygen for administration in treatment of emergency medical conditions.

E. Pursuant to an oral or written order or standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, such prescriber may authorize licensed physical therapists to possess and administer topical corticosteroids, topical lidocaine, and any other Schedule VI topical drug.

F. Pursuant to an oral or written order or standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, such prescriber may authorize licensed athletic trainers to possess and administer topical corticosteroids, topical lidocaine, or other Schedule VI topical drugs; oxygen and IV saline for use in emergency situations; subcutaneous lidocaine for wound closure; epinephrine for use in emergency cases of anaphylactic shock; and naloxone or other opioid antagonist for overdose reversal.

G. Pursuant to an oral or written order or standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, and in accordance with policies and guidelines established by the Department of Health pursuant to § 32.1-50.2, such prescriber may authorize registered nurses or licensed practical nurses under the supervision of a registered nurse to possess and administer tuberculin purified protein derivative (PPD) in the absence of a prescriber. The Department of Health's policies and guidelines shall be consistent with applicable guidelines developed by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for preventing transmission of mycobacterium tuberculosis and shall be updated to incorporate any subsequently implemented standards of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration and the Department of Labor and Industry to the extent that they are inconsistent with the Department of Health's policies and guidelines. Such standing protocols shall explicitly describe the categories of persons to whom the tuberculin test is to be administered and shall provide for appropriate medical evaluation of those in whom the test is positive. The prescriber shall ensure that the nurse implementing such standing protocols has received adequate training in the practice and principles underlying tuberculin screening.

The Health Commissioner or his designee may authorize registered nurses, acting as agents of the Department of Health, to possess and administer, at the nurse's discretion, tuberculin purified protein derivative (PPD) to those persons in whom tuberculin skin testing is indicated based on protocols and policies established by the Department of Health.

H. Pursuant to a written order or standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, such prescriber may authorize, with the consent of the parents as defined in § 22.1-1, an employee of (i) a school board, (ii) a school for students with disabilities as defined in § 22.1-319 licensed by the Board of Education, or (iii) a private school accredited pursuant to § 22.1-19 as administered by the Virginia Council for Private Education who is trained in the administration of insulin and glucagon to assist with the administration of insulin or administer glucagon to a student diagnosed as having diabetes and who requires insulin injections during the school day or for whom glucagon has been prescribed for the emergency treatment of hypoglycemia. Such authorization shall only be effective when a licensed nurse, an advanced practice registered nurse, a physician, or a physician assistant is not present to perform the administration of the medication.

Pursuant to a written order or standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, such prescriber may authorize an employee of a public institution of higher education or a private institution of higher education who is trained in the administration of insulin and glucagon to assist with the administration of insulin or administration of glucagon to a student diagnosed as having diabetes and who requires insulin injections or for whom glucagon has been prescribed for the emergency treatment of hypoglycemia. Such authorization shall only be effective when a licensed nurse, an advanced practice registered nurse, a physician, or a physician assistant is not present to perform the administration of the medication.

Pursuant to a written order issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, such prescriber may authorize an employee of a provider licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services or a person providing services pursuant to a contract with a provider licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services to assist with the administration of insulin or to administer glucagon to a person diagnosed as having diabetes and who requires insulin injections or for whom glucagon has been prescribed for the emergency treatment of hypoglycemia, provided such employee or person providing services has been trained in the administration of insulin and glucagon.

I. A prescriber may authorize, pursuant to a protocol approved by the Board of Nursing, the administration of vaccines to adults for immunization, when a practitioner with prescriptive authority is not physically present, by (i) licensed pharmacists, (ii) registered nurses, or (iii) licensed practical nurses under the supervision of a registered nurse. A prescriber acting on behalf of and in accordance with established protocols of the Department of Health may authorize the administration of vaccines to any person by a pharmacist, nurse, or designated emergency medical services provider who holds an advanced life support certificate issued by the Commissioner of Health under the direction of an operational medical director when the prescriber is not physically present. The emergency medical services provider shall provide documentation of the vaccines to be recorded in the Virginia Immunization Information System.

J. A dentist may cause Schedule VI topical drugs to be administered under his direction and supervision by either a dental hygienist or by an authorized agent of the dentist.

Further, pursuant to a written order and in accordance with a standing protocol issued by the dentist in the course of his professional practice, a dentist may authorize a dental hygienist under his general supervision, as defined in § 54.1-2722, or his remote supervision, as defined in subsection E or F of § 54.1-2722, to possess and administer topical oral fluorides, topical oral anesthetics, topical and directly applied antimicrobial agents for treatment of periodontal pocket lesions, and any other Schedule VI topical drug approved by the Board of Dentistry.

In addition, a dentist may authorize a dental hygienist under his direction to administer Schedule VI nitrous oxide and oxygen inhalation analgesia and, to persons 18 years of age or older, Schedule VI local anesthesia.

K. Pursuant to an oral or written order or standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, such prescriber may authorize registered professional nurses certified as sexual assault nurse examiners-A (SANE-A) under his supervision and when he is not physically present to possess and administer preventive medications for victims of sexual assault as recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

L. This section shall not prevent the administration of drugs by a person who has satisfactorily completed a training program for this purpose approved by the Board of Nursing and who administers such drugs in accordance with a prescriber's instructions pertaining to dosage, frequency, and manner of administration, and in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Board of Pharmacy relating to security and record keeping, when the drugs administered would be normally self-administered by (i) an individual receiving services in a program licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services; (ii) a resident of the Virginia Rehabilitation Center for the Blind and Vision Impaired; (iii) a resident of a facility approved by the Board or Department of Juvenile Justice for the placement of children in need of services or delinquent or alleged delinquent youth; (iv) a program participant of an adult day-care center licensed by the Department of Social Services; (v) a resident of any facility authorized or operated by a state or local government whose primary purpose is not to provide health care services; (vi) a resident of a private children's residential facility, as defined in § 63.2-100 and licensed by the Department of Social Services, Department of Education, or Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services; or (vii) a student in a school for students with disabilities, as defined in § 22.1-319 and licensed by the Board of Education.

In addition, this section shall not prevent a person who has successfully completed a training program for the administration of drugs via percutaneous gastrostomy tube approved by the Board of Nursing and been evaluated by a registered nurse as having demonstrated competency in administration of drugs via percutaneous gastrostomy tube from administering drugs to a person receiving services from a program licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services to such person via percutaneous gastrostomy tube. The continued competency of a person to administer drugs via percutaneous gastrostomy tube shall be evaluated semiannually by a registered nurse.

M. Medication aides registered by the Board of Nursing pursuant to Article 7 (§ 54.1-3041 et seq.) of Chapter 30 may administer drugs that would otherwise be self-administered to residents of any assisted living facility licensed by the Department of Social Services. A registered medication aide shall administer drugs pursuant to this section in accordance with the prescriber's instructions pertaining to dosage, frequency, and manner of administration; in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Board of Pharmacy relating to security and recordkeeping; in accordance with the assisted living facility's Medication Management Plan; and in accordance with such other regulations governing their practice promulgated by the Board of Nursing.

N. In addition, this section shall not prevent the administration of drugs by a person who administers such drugs in accordance with a physician's instructions pertaining to dosage, frequency, and manner of administration and with written authorization of a parent, and in accordance with school board regulations relating to training, security and record keeping, when the drugs administered would be normally self-administered by a student of a Virginia public school. Training for such persons shall be accomplished through a program approved by the local school boards, in consultation with the local departments of health.

O. In addition, this section shall not prevent the administration of drugs by a person to (i) a child in a child day program as defined in § 22.1-289.02 and regulated by the Board of Education or a local government pursuant to § 15.2-914, or (ii) a student of a private school that is accredited pursuant to § 22.1-19 as administered by the Virginia Council for Private Education, provided such person (a) has satisfactorily completed a training program for this purpose approved by the Board of Nursing and taught by a registered nurse, a licensed practical nurse, an advanced practice registered nurse, a physician assistant, a doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine, or a pharmacist; (b) has obtained written authorization from a parent or guardian; (c) administers drugs only to the child identified on the prescription label in accordance with the prescriber's instructions pertaining to dosage, frequency, and manner of administration; and (d) administers only those drugs that were dispensed from a pharmacy and maintained in the original, labeled container that would normally be self-administered by the child or student, or administered by a parent or guardian to the child or student.

P. In addition, this section shall not prevent the administration or dispensing of drugs and devices by persons if they are authorized by the State Health Commissioner in accordance with protocols established by the State Health Commissioner pursuant to § 32.1-42.1 when (i) the Governor has declared a disaster or a state of emergency, the United States Secretary of Health and Human Services has issued a declaration of an actual or potential bioterrorism incident or other actual or potential public health emergency, or the Board of Health has made an emergency order pursuant to § 32.1-13 for the purpose of suppressing nuisances dangerous to the public health and communicable, contagious, and infectious diseases and other dangers to the public life and health and for the limited purpose of administering vaccines as an approved countermeasure for such communicable, contagious, and infectious diseases; (ii) it is necessary to permit the provision of needed drugs or devices; and (iii) such persons have received the training necessary to safely administer or dispense the needed drugs or devices. Such persons shall administer or dispense all drugs or devices under the direction, control, and supervision of the State Health Commissioner.

Q. Nothing in this title shall prohibit the administration of normally self-administered drugs by unlicensed individuals to a person in his private residence.

R. This section shall not interfere with any prescriber issuing prescriptions in compliance with his authority and scope of practice and the provisions of this section to a Board agent for use pursuant to subsection G of § 18.2-258.1. Such prescriptions issued by such prescriber shall be deemed to be valid prescriptions.

S. Nothing in this title shall prevent or interfere with dialysis care technicians or dialysis patient care technicians who are certified by an organization approved by the Board of Health Professions or persons authorized for provisional practice pursuant to Chapter 27.01 (§ 54.1-2729.1 et seq.), in the ordinary course of their duties in a Medicare-certified renal dialysis facility, from administering heparin, topical needle site anesthetics, dialysis solutions, sterile normal saline solution, and blood volumizers, for the purpose of facilitating renal dialysis treatment, when such administration of medications occurs under the orders of a licensed physician, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant and under the immediate and direct supervision of a licensed registered nurse. Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to prohibit a patient care dialysis technician trainee from performing dialysis care as part of and within the scope of the clinical skills instruction segment of a supervised dialysis technician training program, provided such trainee is identified as a "trainee" while working in a renal dialysis facility.

The dialysis care technician or dialysis patient care technician administering the medications shall have demonstrated competency as evidenced by holding current valid certification from an organization approved by the Board of Health Professions pursuant to Chapter 27.01 (§ 54.1-2729.1 et seq.).

T. Persons who are otherwise authorized to administer controlled substances in hospitals shall be authorized to administer influenza or pneumococcal vaccines pursuant to § 32.1-126.4.

U. Pursuant to a specific order for a patient and under his direct and immediate supervision, a prescriber may authorize the administration of controlled substances by personnel who have been properly trained to assist a doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine, provided the method does not include intravenous, intrathecal, or epidural administration and the prescriber remains responsible for such administration.

V. A physician assistant, nurse, dental hygienist, or authorized agent of a doctor of medicine, osteopathic medicine, or dentistry may possess and administer topical fluoride varnish pursuant to an oral or written order or a standing protocol issued by a doctor of medicine, osteopathic medicine, or dentistry.

W. A prescriber, acting in accordance with guidelines developed pursuant to § 32.1-46.02, may authorize the administration of influenza vaccine to minors by a licensed pharmacist, registered nurse, licensed practical nurse under the direction and immediate supervision of a registered nurse, or emergency medical services provider who holds an advanced life support certificate issued by the Commissioner of Health when the prescriber is not physically present.

X. Notwithstanding the provisions of § 54.1-3303, pursuant to an oral, written, or standing order issued by a prescriber or a standing order issued by the Commissioner of Health or his designee authorizing the dispensing of naloxone or other opioid antagonist used for overdose reversal in the absence of an oral or written order for a specific patient issued by a prescriber, and in accordance with protocols developed by the Board of Pharmacy in consultation with the Board of Medicine and the Department of Health, a pharmacist, a health care provider providing services in a hospital emergency department, and emergency medical services personnel, as that term is defined in § 32.1-111.1, may dispense naloxone or other opioid antagonist used for overdose reversal and a person to whom naloxone or other opioid antagonist has been dispensed pursuant to this subsection may possess and administer naloxone or other opioid antagonist used for overdose reversal to a person who is believed to be experiencing or about to experience a life-threatening opioid overdose. Law-enforcement officers as defined in § 9.1-101, employees of the Department of Forensic Science, employees of the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner, employees of the Department of General Services Division of Consolidated Laboratory Services, employees of the Department of Corrections designated by the Director of the Department of Corrections or designated as probation and parole officers or as correctional officers as defined in § 53.1-1, employees of the Department of Juvenile Justice designated as probation and parole officers or as juvenile correctional officers, employees of regional jails, school nurses, local health department employees that are assigned to a public school pursuant to an agreement between the local health department and the school board, other school board employees or individuals contracted by a school board to provide school health services, and firefighters may also possess and administer naloxone or other opioid antagonist used for overdose reversal and may dispense naloxone or other opioid antagonist used for overdose reversal pursuant to an oral, written, or standing order issued by a prescriber or a standing order issued by the Commissioner of Health or his designee in accordance with protocols developed by the Board of Pharmacy in consultation with the Board of Medicine and the Department of Health.

Notwithstanding the provisions of § 54.1-3303, pursuant to an oral, written, or standing order issued by a prescriber or a standing order issued by the Commissioner of Health or his designee authorizing the dispensing of naloxone or other opioid antagonist used for overdose reversal in the absence of an oral or written order for a specific patient issued by a prescriber, and in accordance with protocols developed by the Board of Pharmacy in consultation with the Board of Medicine and the Department of Health, any person may possess and administer naloxone or other opioid antagonist used for overdose reversal, other than naloxone in an injectable formulation with a hypodermic needle or syringe, in accordance with protocols developed by the Board of Pharmacy in consultation with the Board of Medicine and the Department of Health.

Y. Notwithstanding any other law or regulation to the contrary, a person who is acting on behalf of an organization that provides services to individuals at risk of experiencing an opioid overdose or training in the administration of naloxone for overdose reversal may dispense naloxone, provided that such dispensing is (i) pursuant to a standing order issued by a prescriber and (ii) in accordance with protocols developed by the Board of Pharmacy in consultation with the Board of Medicine and the Department of Health. If the person acting on behalf of an organization dispenses naloxone in an injectable formulation with a hypodermic needle or syringe, he shall first obtain authorization from the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services to train individuals on the proper administration of naloxone by and proper disposal of a hypodermic needle or syringe, and he shall obtain a controlled substance registration from the Board of Pharmacy. The Board of Pharmacy shall not charge a fee for the issuance of such controlled substance registration. The dispensing may occur at a site other than that of the controlled substance registration provided the entity possessing the controlled substances registration maintains records in accordance with regulations of the Board of Pharmacy. No person who dispenses naloxone on behalf of an organization pursuant to this subsection shall charge a fee for the dispensing of naloxone that is greater than the cost to the organization of obtaining the naloxone dispensed. A person to whom naloxone has been dispensed pursuant to this subsection may possess naloxone and may administer naloxone to a person who is believed to be experiencing or about to experience a life-threatening opioid overdose.

Z. A person who is not otherwise authorized to administer naloxone or other opioid antagonist used for overdose reversal may administer naloxone or other opioid antagonist used for overdose reversal to a person who is believed to be experiencing or about to experience a life-threatening opioid overdose.

AA. Pursuant to a written order or standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice, such prescriber may authorize, with the consent of the parents as defined in § 22.1-1, an employee of (i) a school board, (ii) a school for students with disabilities as defined in § 22.1-319 licensed by the Board of Education, or (iii) a private school accredited pursuant to § 22.1-19 as administered by the Virginia Council for Private Education who is trained in the administration of injected medications for the treatment of adrenal crisis resulting from a condition causing adrenal insufficiency to administer such medication to a student diagnosed with a condition causing adrenal insufficiency when the student is believed to be experiencing or about to experience an adrenal crisis. Such authorization shall be effective only when a licensed nurse, an advanced practice registered nurse, a physician, or a physician assistant is not present to perform the administration of the medication.

Code 1950, § 54-497; 1956, c. 225; 1970, c. 650, § 54-524.65; 1973, c. 468; 1976, cc. 358, 614; 1977, c. 302; 1978, c. 224; 1980, cc. 270, 287; 1983, cc. 456, 528; 1984, cc. 141, 555; 1986, c. 81; 1987, c. 226; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 309; 1991, cc. 141, 519, 524, 532; 1992, cc. 610, 760, 793; 1993, cc. 15, 810, 957, 993; 1994, c. 53; 1995, cc. 88, 529; 1996, cc. 152, 158, 183, 406, 408, 490; 1997, cc. 272, 566, 806, 906; 1998, c. 112; 1999, c. 570; 2000, cc. 135, 498, 861, 881, 935; 2003, cc. 465, 497, 515, 794, 995, 1020; 2005, cc. 113, 610, 924; 2006, cc. 75, 432, 686, 858; 2007, cc. 17, 699, 702, 783; 2008, cc. 85, 694; 2009, cc. 48, 110, 506, 813, 840; 2010, cc. 179, 245, 252; 2011, c. 292; 2012, cc. 787, 803, 833, 835; 2013, cc. 114, 132, 183, 191, 252, 267, 328, 336, 359, 617; 2014, cc. 88, 491; 2015, cc. 302, 387, 502, 503, 514, 725, 732, 752; 2016, c. 144; 2017, cc. 3, 55, 107, 168, 174, 182, 294, 304, 713; 2018, cc. 62, 247; 2019, cc. 87, 212, 221, 431; 2020, cc. 39, 302, 459, 460, 556, 560, 853, 860, 861, 924, 927, 1095; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 181, 200, 201, 508; 2022, cc. 695, 696, 733, 774; 2023, cc. 115, 116, 183, 267, 569, 631, 673, 674, 729.

A. The written prescription referred to in § 54.1-3408 shall be written with ink or individually typed or printed. The prescription shall contain the name, address, and telephone number of the prescriber. A prescription for a controlled substance other than one controlled in Schedule VI shall also contain the federal controlled substances registration number assigned to the prescriber. The prescriber's information shall be either preprinted upon the prescription blank, electronically printed, typewritten, rubber stamped, or printed by hand.

The written prescription shall contain the first and last name of the patient for whom the drug is prescribed. The address of the patient shall either be placed upon the written prescription by the prescriber or his agent, or by the dispenser of the prescription. If the prescriber is providing expedited partner therapy pursuant to § 54.1-3303 and the contact patient's name and address are unavailable, then "Expedited Partner Therapy" or "EPT" shall be affixed on the written prescription, in lieu of the contact patient's name and address. If not otherwise prohibited by law, the dispenser may record the address of the patient in an electronic prescription dispensing record for that patient in lieu of recording it on the prescription. Each written prescription shall be dated as of, and signed by the prescriber on, the day when issued. The prescription may be prepared by an agent for the prescriber's signature.

This section shall not prohibit a prescriber from using preprinted prescriptions for drugs classified in Schedule VI if all requirements concerning dates, signatures, and other information specified above are otherwise fulfilled.

No written prescription order form shall include more than one prescription. However, this provision shall not apply (i) to prescriptions written as chart orders for patients in hospitals and long-term-care facilities, patients receiving home infusion services or hospice patients, or (ii) to a prescription ordered through a pharmacy operated by or for the Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice, the central pharmacy of the Department of Health, or the central outpatient pharmacy operated by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services; or (iii) to prescriptions written for patients residing in adult and juvenile detention centers, local or regional jails, or work release centers operated by the Department of Corrections.

B. Prescribers' orders, whether written as chart orders or prescriptions, for Schedules II, III, IV, and V controlled drugs to be administered to (i) patients or residents of long-term care facilities served by a Virginia pharmacy from a remote location or (ii) patients receiving parenteral, intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous or intraspinal infusion therapy and served by a home infusion pharmacy from a remote location, may be transmitted to that remote pharmacy by an electronic communications device over telephone lines which send the exact image to the receiver in hard copy form, and such facsimile copy shall be treated as a valid original prescription order. If the order is for a radiopharmaceutical, a physician authorized by state or federal law to possess and administer medical radioactive materials may authorize a nuclear medicine technologist to transmit a prescriber's verbal or written orders for radiopharmaceuticals.

C. The oral prescription referred to in § 54.1-3408 shall be transmitted to the pharmacy of the patient's choice by the prescriber or his authorized agent. For the purposes of this section, an authorized agent of the prescriber shall be an employee of the prescriber who is under his immediate and personal supervision, or if not an employee, an individual who holds a valid license allowing the administration or dispensing of drugs and who is specifically directed by the prescriber.

2000, cc. 135, 861; 2002, c. 411; 2003, c. 639; 2006, c. 195; 2009, cc. 813, 840; 2020, c. 464.

A. Consistent with federal law and in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Board, prescriptions may be transmitted to a pharmacy as an electronic prescription or by facsimile machine and shall be treated as valid original prescriptions.

B. Any prescription for a controlled substance that contains an opioid shall be issued as an electronic prescription.

C. The requirements of subsection B shall not apply if:

1. The prescriber dispenses the controlled substance that contains an opioid directly to the patient or the patient's agent;

2. The prescription is for an individual who is residing in a hospital, assisted living facility, nursing home, or residential health care facility or is receiving services from a hospice provider or outpatient dialysis facility;

3. The prescriber experiences temporary technological or electrical failure or other temporary extenuating circumstance that prevents the prescription from being transmitted electronically, provided that the prescriber documents the reason for this exception in the patient's medical record;

4. The prescriber issues a prescription to be dispensed by a pharmacy located on federal property, provided that the prescriber documents the reason for this exception in the patient's medical record;

5. The prescription is issued by a licensed veterinarian for the treatment of an animal;

6. The FDA requires the prescription to contain elements that are not able to be included in an electronic prescription;

7. The prescription is for an opioid under a research protocol;

8. The prescription is issued in accordance with an executive order of the Governor of a declared emergency;

9. The prescription cannot be issued electronically in a timely manner and the patient's condition is at risk, provided that the prescriber documents the reason for this exception in the patient's medical record; or

10. The prescriber has been issued a waiver pursuant to subsection D.

D. The licensing health regulatory board of a prescriber may grant such prescriber, in accordance with regulations adopted by such board, a waiver of the requirements of subsection B, for a period not to exceed one year, due to demonstrated economic hardship, technological limitations that are not reasonably within the control of the prescriber, or other exceptional circumstances demonstrated by the prescriber.

2000, c. 878; 2017, cc. 115, 429; 2019, c. 664.

A. A pharmacist may dispense a therapeutically equivalent drug product for a prescription that is written for a brand-name drug product unless (i) the prescriber indicates such substitution is not authorized by specifying on the prescription, "brand medically necessary" or (ii) the patient insists on the dispensing of the brand-name drug product.

In the case of an oral prescription, the prescriber's oral dispensing instructions regarding substitution shall be followed.

B. Prescribers using prescription blanks printed in compliance with Virginia law in effect on June 30, 2003, having two check boxes and referencing the Virginia Voluntary Formulary, may indicate, until July 1, 2006, that substitution is not authorized by checking the "Dispense as Written" box. If the "Voluntary Formulary Permitted" box is checked on such prescription blanks or if neither box is checked, a pharmacist may dispense a therapeutically equivalent drug product pursuant to such prescriptions.

C. If the pharmacist dispenses a drug product other than the brand name prescribed, he shall so inform the purchaser and shall indicate, unless otherwise directed by the prescriber, on both his permanent record and the prescription label, the brand name or, in the case of a therapeutically equivalent drug product, the name of the manufacturer or the distributor. Whenever a pharmacist dispenses a therapeutically equivalent drug product pursuant to a prescription written for a brand-name product, the pharmacist shall label the drug with the name of the therapeutically equivalent drug product followed by the words "generic for" and the brand name of the drug for which the prescription was written.

D. When a pharmacist dispenses a drug product other than the drug product prescribed, the dispensed drug product shall be at a lower retail price than that of the drug product prescribed. Such retail price shall not exceed the usual and customary retail price charged by the pharmacist for the dispensed therapeutically equivalent drug product.

2003, c. 639.

A. A pharmacist may dispense a biosimilar that has been licensed by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration as interchangeable with the prescribed product unless (i) the prescriber indicates such substitute is not authorized by specifying on the prescription "brand medically necessary" or (ii) the patient insists on the dispensing of the prescribed biological product. In the case of an oral prescription, the prescriber's oral dispensing instructions regarding dispensing of an interchangeable biosimilar shall be followed. No pharmacist shall dispense a biosimilar in place of a prescribed biological product unless the biosimilar has been licensed as interchangeable with the prescribed biological product by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

B. When a pharmacist dispenses an interchangeable biosimilar in the place of a prescribed biological product, the pharmacist or his designee shall inform the patient prior to dispensing the interchangeable biosimilar. The pharmacist or his designee shall also indicate, unless otherwise directed by the prescriber, on both the record of dispensing and the prescription label, the brand name or, in the case of an interchangeable biosimilar, the product name and the name of the manufacturer or distributor of the interchangeable biosimilar. Whenever a pharmacist substitutes an interchangeable biosimilar pursuant to a prescription written for a brand-name product, the pharmacist or his designee shall label the drug with the name of the interchangeable biosimilar followed by the words "Substituted for" and the name of the biological product for which the prescription was written. Records of substitutions of interchangeable biosimilars shall be maintained by the pharmacist and the prescriber for a period of not less than two years from the date of dispensing.

C. [Expired]

D. [Expired]

2013, cc. 412, 544.

Except as otherwise provided in this chapter, no person shall be prosecuted under Chapter 7 (§ 18.2-247 et seq.) of Title 18.2 for acting in accordance with § 54.1-3421 or for prescribing, administering, dispensing, or possessing pursuant to a valid prescription issued by a prescriber any substance that has been approved as a prescription drug by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration pursuant to 21 U.S.C. § 360bb and 21 U.S.C. § 355 on or after July 1, 2017, in accordance with any final or interim final order or rule issued pursuant to 21 U.S.C. § 811(j). Such immunity from prosecution for a particular substance shall remain in effect until the earlier of (i) nine months as calculated from the latter of the date of the publication in the Federal Register of the interim final order or rule scheduling such substance or the final order or rule scheduling such substance, provided that a final order or rule is issued within nine months of the interim final order or rule, or (ii) such substance being added to a schedule in Article 5 (§ 54.1-3443 et seq.) pursuant to § 54.1-3443 or by enactment into law.

2017, cc. 416, 432.

In the case of a patient with intractable pain, a physician may prescribe a dosage in excess of the recommended dosage of a pain relieving agent if he certifies the medical necessity for such excess dosage in the patient's medical record. Any person who prescribes, dispenses or administers an excess dosage in accordance with this section shall not be in violation of the provisions of this title because of such excess dosage, if such excess dosage is prescribed, dispensed or administered in good faith for accepted medicinal or therapeutic purposes.

Nothing in this section shall be construed to grant any person immunity from investigation or disciplinary action based on the prescription, dispensing or administration of an excess dosage in violation of this title.

1988, c. 870, § 54-524.65:1; 1990, c. 681; 1995, c. 277.

Any person authorized to prescribe, dispense, or administer controlled substances pursuant to § 54.1-3408 who has reason to suspect that a person has obtained or attempted to obtain a controlled substance or prescription for a controlled substance by fraud or deceit, may report the activity to the local law-enforcement agency for investigation. Any person who, in good faith, makes a report or furnishes information or records to a law-enforcement officer or entity pursuant to this section shall not be liable for civil damages in connection with making such report or furnishing such information or records.

2010, c. 185.

A. As used in this section:

"Botanical cannabis" means cannabis that is composed wholly of usable cannabis from the same parts of the same chemovar of cannabis plant.

"Cannabis dispensing facility" means the same as that term is defined in § 54.1-3442.5.

"Cannabis oil" means any formulation of processed Cannabis plant extract, which may include industrial hemp extracts, including isolates and distillates, acquired by a pharmaceutical processor pursuant to § 54.1-3442.6, or a dilution of the resin of the Cannabis plant that contains, except as otherwise provided in Article 4.2 (§ 54.1-3442.5 et seq.), no more than 10 milligrams of tetrahydrocannabinol per dose. "Cannabis oil" does not include industrial hemp, as defined in § 3.2-4112, that is grown, handled, or processed in compliance with state or federal law, unless it has been grown and processed in the Commonwealth by a registered industrial hemp processor and acquired and formulated by a pharmaceutical processor.

"Cannabis product" means a product that (i) is formulated with cannabis oil or botanical cannabis; (ii) is produced by a pharmaceutical processor and sold by a pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility; (iii) is registered with the Board; (iv) contains, except as otherwise provided in Article 4.2 (§ 54.1-3442.5 et seq.), no more than 10 milligrams of tetrahydrocannabinol per dose; and (v) is compliant with testing requirements.

"Designated caregiver facility" means any hospice or hospice facility licensed pursuant to § 32.1-162.3, or home care organization as defined in § 32.1-162.7 that provides pharmaceutical services or home health services, private provider licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services pursuant to Article 2 (§ 37.2-403 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 37.2, assisted living facility licensed pursuant to § 63.2-1701, or adult day care center licensed pursuant to § 63.2-1701.

"Pharmaceutical processor" means the same as that term is defined in § 54.1-3442.5.

"Practitioner" means a practitioner of medicine or osteopathy licensed by the Board of Medicine, a physician assistant licensed by the Board of Medicine, or an advanced practice registered nurse jointly licensed by the Board of Medicine and the Board of Nursing.

"Registered agent" means an individual (i) designated by a patient who has been issued a written certification, or, if such patient is a minor or a vulnerable adult as defined in § 18.2-369, designated by such patient's parent or legal guardian, and (ii) registered with the Board or listed on the patient's written certification pursuant to subsection G.

"Usable cannabis" means any cannabis plant material, including seeds, but not (i) resin that has been extracted from any part of the cannabis plant, its seeds, or its resin; (ii) the mature stalks, fiber produced from the stalks, or any other compound, manufacture, salt, or derivative, mixture, or preparation of the mature stalks; or (iii) oil or cake made from the seeds of the plant.

B. A practitioner in the course of his professional practice may issue a written certification for the use of cannabis products for treatment or to alleviate the symptoms of any diagnosed condition or disease determined by the practitioner to benefit from such use. The practitioner shall use his professional judgment to determine the manner and frequency of patient care and evaluation and may employ the use of telemedicine, provided that the use of telemedicine includes the delivery of patient care through real-time interactive audio-visual technology. No practitioner may issue a written certification while such practitioner is on the premises of a pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility. A pharmaceutical processor shall not endorse or promote any practitioner who issues certifications to patients. If a practitioner determines it is consistent with the standard of care to dispense botanical cannabis to a minor, the written certification shall specifically authorize such dispensing. If not specifically included on the initial written certification, authorization for botanical cannabis may be communicated verbally or in writing to the pharmacist at the time of dispensing. A practitioner who issues written certifications shall not directly or indirectly accept, solicit, or receive anything of value from a pharmaceutical processor, cannabis dispensing facility, or any person associated with a pharmaceutical processor, cannabis dispensing facility, or provider of paraphernalia, excluding information on products or educational materials on the benefits and risks of cannabis products.

C. The written certification shall be on a form provided by the Board of Pharmacy. Such written certification shall contain the name, address, and telephone number of the practitioner; the name and address of the patient issued the written certification; the date on which the written certification was made; and the signature or authentic electronic signature of the practitioner. Such written certification issued pursuant to subsection B shall expire one year after its issuance unless the practitioner provides in such written certification an earlier expiration. A written certification shall not be issued to a patient by more than one practitioner during any given time period.

D. No practitioner shall be prosecuted under § 18.2-248 or 18.2-248.1 for the issuance of a certification for the use of cannabis products for the treatment or to alleviate the symptoms of a patient's diagnosed condition or disease pursuant to a written certification issued pursuant to subsection B. Nothing in this section shall preclude a practitioner's professional licensing board from sanctioning the practitioner for failing to properly evaluate or treat a patient's medical condition or otherwise violating the applicable standard of care for evaluating or treating medical conditions.

E. A practitioner who issues a written certification to a patient pursuant to this section (i) shall hold sufficient education and training to exercise appropriate professional judgment in the certification of patients; (ii) shall not offer a discount or any other thing of value to a patient or a patient's parent, guardian, or registered agent that is contingent on or encourages the person's decision to use a particular pharmaceutical processor or cannabis product; (iii) shall not issue a certification to himself or his family members, employees, or coworkers; (iv) shall not provide product samples containing cannabis other than those approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration; and (v) shall not accept compensation from a pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility. The Board shall not limit the number of patients to whom a practitioner may issue a written certification. The Board may report information to the applicable licensing board on unusual patterns of certifications issued by a practitioner.

F. No patient shall be required to physically present the written certification after the initial dispensing by any pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility under each written certification, provided that the pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility maintains an electronic copy of the written certification. Pharmaceutical processors and cannabis dispensing facilities shall electronically transmit, on a monthly basis, all new written certifications received by the pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility to the Board.

G. A patient, or, if such patient is a minor or a vulnerable adult as defined in § 18.2-369, such patient's parent or legal guardian, may designate an individual to act as his registered agent for the purposes of receiving cannabis products pursuant to a valid written certification. Such designated individual shall register with the Board unless the individual's name is listed on the patient's written certification. An individual may, on the basis of medical need and in the discretion of the patient's registered practitioner, be listed on the patient's written certification upon the patient's request. The Board may set a limit on the number of patients for whom any individual is authorized to act as a registered agent.

H. Upon delivery of a cannabis product by a pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility to a designated caregiver facility, any employee or contractor of a designated caregiver facility, who is licensed or registered by a health regulatory board and who is authorized to possess, distribute, or administer medications, may accept delivery of the cannabis product on behalf of a patient or resident for subsequent delivery to the patient or resident and may assist in the administration of the cannabis product to the patient or resident as necessary.

I. Information obtained under the patient certification or agent registration process shall be confidential and shall not be subject to the disclosure provisions of the Virginia Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq.). However, reasonable access to registry information shall be provided to (i) the Chairmen of the House Committee for Courts of Justice and the Senate Committee on the Judiciary, (ii) state and federal agencies or local law enforcement for the purpose of investigating or prosecuting a specific individual for a specific violation of law, (iii) licensed practitioners or pharmacists, or their agents, for the purpose of providing patient care and drug therapy management and monitoring of drugs obtained by a patient, (iv) a pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility involved in the treatment of a patient, or (v) a registered agent, but only with respect to information related to such patient.

2015, cc. 7, 8; 2017, c. 613; 2018, cc. 246, 809; 2019, cc. 653, 654, 681, 690; 2020, cc. 730, 831, 928, 1278; 2021 Sp. Sess. I, cc. 205, 227, 228; 2022, cc. 259, 391, 392, 642; 2023, cc. 183, 744, 760, 780, 794, 799.

A. As used in this section, "botanical cannabis," "cannabis oil," "cannabis product," and "practitioner" mean the same as those terms are defined in § 4.1-1600.

B. A practitioner in the course of his professional practice may issue a written certification for the use of cannabis products for treatment or to alleviate the symptoms of any diagnosed condition or disease determined by the practitioner to benefit from such use in accordance with the provisions of § 4.1-1601.

2015, cc. 7, 8; 2017, c. 613; 2018, cc. 246, 809; 2019, cc. 653, 654, 681, 690; 2020, cc. 730, 831, 928, 1278; 2021 Sp. Sess. I, cc. 205, 227, 228; 2022, cc. 259, 391, 392, 642; 2023, cc. 183, 740, 744, 760, 773, 780, 794, 799.

Expired July 1, 2022

Every public place, as defined in § 15.2-2820, may make epinephrine available for administration. Pursuant to an order or standing protocol issued by the prescriber within the course of his professional practice and in accordance with policies and guidelines established by the Department of Health, any employee of a public place, as defined in § 15.2-2820, who is authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of epinephrine may possess and administer epinephrine to a person present in the public place believed in good faith to be having an anaphylactic reaction.

2020, c. 556.

A veterinarian may not prescribe controlled substances for human use and shall only prescribe, dispense or administer a controlled substance in good faith for use by animals within the course of his professional practice. He may prescribe, on a written prescription or on oral prescription as authorized by § 54.1-3410. He may administer drugs, and he may cause them to be administered by an assistant or orderly under his direction and supervision. Such a prescription shall be dated and signed by the person prescribing on the day when issued, and shall bear the full name and address of the owner of the animal, and the species of the animal for which the drug is prescribed and the full name, address and registry number, under the federal laws of the person prescribing, if he is required by those laws to be so registered.

Code 1950, § 54-498; 1956, c. 225; 1970, c. 650, § 54-524.66; 1983, c. 528; 1988, c. 765.

A. A pharmacist, acting in good faith, may sell and dispense drugs and devices to any person pursuant to a prescription of a prescriber as follows:

1. A drug listed in Schedule II shall be dispensed only upon receipt of a written prescription that is properly executed, dated and signed by the person prescribing on the day when issued and bearing the full name and address of the patient for whom, or of the owner of the animal for which, the drug is dispensed, and the full name, address, and registry number under the federal laws of the person prescribing, if he is required by those laws to be so registered. If the prescription is for an animal, it shall state the species of animal for which the drug is prescribed;

2. In emergency situations, Schedule II drugs may be dispensed pursuant to an oral prescription in accordance with the Board's regulations;

3. Whenever a pharmacist dispenses any drug listed within Schedule II on a prescription issued by a prescriber, he shall affix to the container in which such drug is dispensed, a label showing the prescription serial number or name of the drug; the date of initial filling; his name and address, or the name and address of the pharmacy; the name of the patient or, if the patient is an animal, the name of the owner of the animal and the species of the animal; the name of the prescriber by whom the prescription was written, except for those drugs dispensed to a patient in a hospital pursuant to a chart order; and such directions as may be stated on the prescription.

B. A drug controlled by Schedules III through VI or a device controlled by Schedule VI shall be dispensed upon receipt of a written or oral prescription as follows:

1. If the prescription is written, it shall be properly executed, dated and signed by the person prescribing on the day when issued and bear the full name and address of the patient for whom, or of the owner of the animal for which, the drug is dispensed, and the full name and address of the person prescribing. If the prescription is for an animal, it shall state the species of animal for which the drug is prescribed. If the prescription is for expedited partner therapy pursuant to § 54.1-3303 and the contact patient's name and address are unavailable, the prescription shall state "Expedited Partner Therapy" or "EPT" in lieu of the full name and address of the contact patient.

2. If the prescription is oral, the prescriber shall furnish the pharmacist with the same information as is required by law in the case of a written prescription for drugs and devices, except for the signature of the prescriber.

A pharmacist who dispenses a Schedule III through VI drug or device shall label the drug or device as required in subdivision A 3 of this section. However, if the pharmacist dispenses a Schedule III through VI drug or device for expedited partner therapy pursuant to § 54.1-3303 and the contact patient's name and address are unavailable, the prescription shall state "Expedited Partner Therapy" or "EPT" in lieu of the full name and address of the contact patient.

C. A drug controlled by Schedule VI may be refilled without authorization from the prescriber if, after reasonable effort has been made to contact him, the pharmacist ascertains that he is not available and the patient's health would be in imminent danger without the benefits of the drug. The refill shall be made in compliance with the provisions of § 54.1-3411.

If the written or oral prescription is for a Schedule VI drug or device and does not contain the address or registry number of the prescriber, or the address of the patient, the pharmacist need not reduce such information to writing if such information is readily retrievable within the pharmacy. If the prescription is for a Schedule VI drug or device for expedited partner therapy pursuant to § 54.1-3303 and the contact patient's name and address are unavailable, then labeling the name and address of the contact patient is not required.

D. Pursuant to authorization of the prescriber, an agent of the prescriber on his behalf may orally transmit a prescription for a drug classified in Schedules III through VI if, in such cases, the written record of the prescription required by this subsection specifies the full name of the agent of the prescriber transmitting the prescription.

E. A dispenser who receives a non-electronic prescription for a controlled substance containing an opioid is not required to verify that one of the exceptions set forth in § 54.1-3408.02 applies and may dispense such controlled substance pursuant to such prescription and applicable law.

1970, c. 650, § 54-524.67; 1972, c. 798; 1976, c. 614; 1977, c. 302; 1983, cc. 395, 612; 1988, c. 765; 1996, c. 408; 2003, c. 511; 2017, cc. 115, 429; 2019, c. 664; 2020, c. 464.

A. A pharmacist who is authorized by the Board and acting in good faith, may sell and dispense radiopharmaceuticals pursuant to the order of a physician who is authorized by state or federal law to possess and administer radiopharmaceuticals for the treatment or diagnosis of disease.

B. When an authorized nuclear pharmacist dispenses a radioactive medical material, he shall assure that the outer container (shield) of the radiopharmaceutical shall bear the following information:

1. The name and address of the nuclear pharmacy;

2. The name of the prescriber (authorized user);

3. The date of dispensing;

4. The serial number assigned to the radiopharmaceutical order;

5. The standard radiation symbol;

6. The name of the diagnostic procedure;

7. The words "Caution: Radioactive Material";

8. The name of the radionuclide;

9. The amount of radioactivity and the calibration date and time;

10. The expiration date and time;

11. In the case of a diagnostic radiopharmaceutical, the patient's name or the words "Per Physician's Order"; and

12. In the case of a therapeutic radiopharmaceutical, the patient's name.

C. Orders for radiopharmaceuticals, whether written or verbal, shall include at least the following information:

1. The name of the institution or facility and the name of the person transmitting the order;

2. The date that the radiopharmaceutical will be needed and the calibration time;

3. The name or generally recognized and accepted abbreviation of the radiopharmaceutical;

4. The dose or activity of the radiopharmaceutical at the time of calibration; and

5. In the case of a therapeutic radiopharmaceutical or a radiopharmaceutical blood product, the name of the patient shall be obtained prior to dispensing.

2000, c. 861.

A. A pharmacist may engage in compounding of drug products when the dispensing of such compounded products is (i) pursuant to valid prescriptions for specific patients and (ii) consistent with the provisions of § 54.1-3303 relating to the issuance of prescriptions and the dispensing of drugs.

Pharmacists shall label all compounded drug products that are dispensed pursuant to a prescription in accordance with this chapter and the Board's regulations, and shall include on the labeling an appropriate beyond-use date as determined by the pharmacist in compliance with USP-NF standards for pharmacy compounding.

B. A pharmacist may also engage in compounding of drug products in anticipation of receipt of prescriptions based on a routine, regularly observed prescribing pattern.

Pharmacists shall label all products compounded prior to dispensing with (i) the name and strength of the compounded medication or a list of the active ingredients and strengths; (ii) the pharmacy's assigned control number that corresponds with the compounding record; (iii) an appropriate beyond-use date as determined by the pharmacist in compliance with USP-NF standards for pharmacy compounding; and (iv) the quantity.

C. In accordance with the conditions set forth in subsections A and B, pharmacists shall not distribute compounded drug products for subsequent distribution or sale to other persons or to commercial entities, including distribution to pharmacies or other entities under common ownership or control with the facility in which such compounding takes place; however, a pharmacist may distribute to a veterinarian in accordance with federal law.

Compounded products for companion animals, as defined in regulations promulgated by the Board of Veterinary Medicine, and distributed by a pharmacy to a veterinarian for further distribution or sale to his own patients shall be limited to drugs necessary to treat an emergent condition when timely access to a compounding pharmacy is not available as determined by the prescribing veterinarian.

A pharmacist may, however, deliver compounded products dispensed pursuant to valid prescriptions to alternate delivery locations pursuant to § 54.1-3420.2.

A pharmacist may provide a reasonable amount of compounded products to practitioners of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, or dentistry to administer to their patients, either personally or under their direct and immediate supervision, if there is a critical need to treat an emergency condition, or as allowed by federal law or regulations. A pharmacist may also provide compounded products to practitioners of veterinary medicine for office-based administration to their patients.

Pharmacists who provide compounded products for office-based administration for treatment of an emergency condition or as allowed by federal law or regulations shall label all compounded products distributed to practitioners other than veterinarians for administration to their patients with (i) the statement "For Administering in Prescriber Practice Location Only"; (ii) the name and strength of the compounded medication or list of the active ingredients and strengths; (iii) the facility's control number; (iv) an appropriate beyond-use date as determined by the pharmacist in compliance with USP-NF standards for pharmacy compounding; (v) the name and address of the pharmacy; and (vi) the quantity.

Pharmacists shall label all compounded products for companion animals, as defined in regulations promulgated by the Board of Veterinary Medicine, and distributed to a veterinarian for either further distribution or sale to his own patient or administration to his own patient with (a) the name and strength of the compounded medication or list of the active ingredients and strengths; (b) the facility's control number; (c) an appropriate beyond-use date as determined by the pharmacist in compliance with USP-NF standards for pharmacy compounding; (d) the name and address of the pharmacy; and (e) the quantity.

D. Pharmacists shall personally perform or personally supervise the compounding process, which shall include a final check for accuracy and conformity to the formula of the product being prepared, correct ingredients and calculations, accurate and precise measurements, appropriate conditions and procedures, and appearance of the final product.

E. Pharmacists shall ensure compliance with USP-NF standards for both sterile and non-sterile compounding.

F. Pharmacists may use bulk drug substances in compounding when such bulk drug substances:

1. Comply with the standards of an applicable United States Pharmacopoeia or National Formulary monograph, if such monograph exists, and the United States Pharmacopoeia chapter on pharmacy compounding; or are drug substances that are components of drugs approved by the FDA for use in the United States; or are otherwise approved by the FDA; or are manufactured by an establishment that is registered by the FDA; and

2. Are distributed by a licensed wholesale distributor or registered nonresident wholesale distributor, or are distributed by a supplier otherwise approved by the Board and the FDA to distribute bulk drug substances if the pharmacist can establish purity and safety by reasonable means, such as lot analysis, manufacturer reputation, or reliability of the source.

G. Pharmacists may compound using ingredients that are not considered drug products in accordance with the USP-NF standards and guidance on pharmacy compounding.

H. Pharmacists shall not engage in the following:

1. The compounding for human use of a drug product that has been withdrawn or removed from the market by the FDA because such drug product or a component of such drug product has been found to be unsafe. However, this prohibition shall be limited to the scope of the FDA withdrawal;

2. The regular compounding or the compounding of inordinate amounts of any drug products that are essentially copies of commercially available drug products. However, this prohibition shall not include (i) the compounding of any commercially available product when there is a change in the product ordered by the prescriber for an individual patient, (ii) the compounding of a commercially manufactured drug only during times when the product is not available from the manufacturer or supplier, (iii) the compounding of a commercially manufactured drug whose manufacturer has notified the FDA that the drug is unavailable due to a current drug shortage, (iv) the compounding of a commercially manufactured drug when the prescriber has indicated in the oral or written prescription for an individual patient that there is an emergent need for a drug that is not readily available within the time medically necessary, or (v) the mixing of two or more commercially available products regardless of whether the end product is a commercially available product; or

3. The compounding of inordinate amounts of any preparation in cases in which there is no observed historical pattern of prescriptions and dispensing to support an expectation of receiving a valid prescription for the preparation. The compounding of an inordinate amount of a preparation in such cases shall constitute manufacturing of drugs.

I. Pharmacists shall maintain records of all compounded drug products as part of the prescription, formula record, formula book, or other log or record. Records may be maintained electronically, manually, in a combination of both, or by any other readily retrievable method.

1. In addition to other requirements for prescription records, records for products compounded pursuant to a prescription order for a single patient where only manufacturers' finished products are used as components shall include the name and quantity of all components, the date of compounding and dispensing, the prescription number or other identifier of the prescription order, the total quantity of finished product, the signature or initials of the pharmacist or pharmacy technician performing the compounding, and the signature or initials of the pharmacist responsible for supervising the pharmacy technician and verifying the accuracy and integrity of compounded products.

2. In addition to the requirements of subdivision I 1, records for products compounded in bulk or batch in advance of dispensing or when bulk drug substances are used shall include: the generic name and the name of the manufacturer of each component or the brand name of each component; the manufacturer's lot number and expiration date for each component or when the original manufacturer's lot number and expiration date are unknown, the source of acquisition of the component; the assigned lot number if subdivided, the unit or package size and the number of units or packages prepared; and the beyond-use date. The criteria for establishing the beyond-use date shall be available for inspection by the Board.

3. A complete compounding formula listing all procedures, necessary equipment, necessary environmental considerations, and other factors in detail shall be maintained where such instructions are necessary to replicate a compounded product or where the compounding is difficult or complex and must be done by a certain process in order to ensure the integrity of the finished product.

4. A formal written quality assurance plan shall be maintained that describes specific monitoring and evaluation of compounding activities in accordance with USP-NF standards. Records shall be maintained showing compliance with monitoring and evaluation requirements of the plan to include training and initial and periodic competence assessment of personnel involved in compounding, monitoring of environmental controls and equipment calibration, and any end-product testing, if applicable.

J. Practitioners who may lawfully compound drugs for administering or dispensing to their own patients pursuant to §§ 54.1-3301, 54.1-3304, and 54.1-3304.1 shall comply with all provisions of this section and the relevant Board regulations.

K. Every pharmacist-in-charge or owner of a permitted pharmacy or a registered nonresident pharmacy engaging in sterile compounding shall notify the Board of its intention to dispense or otherwise deliver a sterile compounded drug product into the Commonwealth. Upon renewal of its permit or registration, a pharmacy or nonresident pharmacy shall notify the Board of its intention to continue dispensing or otherwise delivering sterile compounded drug products into the Commonwealth. Failure to provide notification to the Board shall constitute a violation of Chapter 33 (§ 54.1-3300 et seq.) or Chapter 34 (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.). The Board shall maintain this information in a manner that will allow the production of a list identifying all such sterile compounding pharmacies.

2003, c. 509; 2005, c. 200; 2012, c. 173; 2013, c. 765; 2014, c. 147; 2015, c. 300; 2016, c. 221.

Prescriptions may be refilled as follows:

1. A prescription for a drug in Schedule II may not be refilled.

2. A prescription for a drug in Schedules III or IV may not be filled or refilled more than six months after the date on which such prescription was issued and no such prescription may be authorized to be refilled, nor be refilled, more than five times, except that any prescription for such a drug after six months from the date of issue, or after being refilled five times, may be renewed by the prescriber issuing it either in writing, or orally, if promptly reduced to writing and filed by the pharmacist filling it.

3. A prescription in Schedule VI may not be refilled unless authorized by the prescriber either on the face of the original prescription or orally by the prescriber except as provided in subdivision 4. Oral instructions shall be reduced promptly to writing by the pharmacist and filed on or with the original prescription.

4. A prescription for a drug controlled by Schedule VI, including insulin, may be refilled without authorization from the prescriber if reasonable effort has been made to communicate with the prescriber, and the pharmacist has determined that he is not available and the patient's health would be in imminent danger without the benefits of the drug. Authorization to refill under this subdivision also exists when the pharmacist only has access to the label on a prescription container. The pharmacist shall inform the patient of the prescriber's unavailability and that the refill is being made without his authorization. The pharmacist shall promptly inform the prescriber of such refill. The date and quantity of the refill, the prescriber's unavailability, and the rationale for the refill shall be noted on the reverse side of the prescription.

1970, c. 650, § 54-524.68; 1972, c. 798; 1976, c. 614; 1983, c. 395; 1988, c. 765; 1996, c. 408; 2023, c. 341.

A. Drugs dispensed to persons pursuant to a prescription shall not be accepted for return or exchange for the purpose of re-dispensing by any pharmacist or pharmacy after such drugs have been removed from the pharmacy premises from which they were dispensed except:

1. In a hospital with an on-site hospital pharmacy wherein drugs may be returned to the pharmacy in accordance with practice standards;

2. In such cases where official compendium storage requirements are assured and the drugs are in manufacturers' original sealed containers or in sealed individual dose or unit dose packaging that meets official compendium class A or B container requirements, or better, and such return or exchange is consistent with federal law; or

3. When a dispensed drug has not been out of the possession of a delivery agent of the pharmacy.

B. The Board shall promulgate regulations to establish a prescription drug donation program for accepting unused previously dispensed prescription drugs that meet the criteria set forth in subdivision A 2, for the purpose of re-dispensing such drugs to indigent patients, either through hospitals or through clinics organized in whole or in part for the delivery of health care services to the indigent. Such program shall not authorize the donation of Schedule II-V controlled substances if so prohibited by federal law. No drugs shall be re-dispensed unless the integrity of the drug can be assured. Such program shall accept eligible prescription drugs from individuals, including those residing in nursing homes, assisted living facilities, or intermediate care facilities established for individuals with intellectual disability (ICF/IID), licensed hospitals, or any facility operated by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services. Additionally, such program shall accept eligible prescription drugs from an agent pursuant to a power of attorney, a decedent's personal representative, a legal guardian of an incapacitated person, or a guardian ad litem donated on behalf of the represented individual.

C. Unused prescription drugs dispensed for use by persons eligible for coverage under Title XIX or Title XXI of the Social Security Act, as amended, may be donated pursuant to this section unless such donation is prohibited.

D. A pharmaceutical manufacturer shall not be liable for any claim or injury arising from the storage, donation, acceptance, transfer, or dispensing of any drug provided to a patient or any other activity undertaken in accordance with a drug distribution program established pursuant to this section.

E. Nothing in this section shall be construed to create any new or additional liability, or to abrogate any liability that may exist, applicable to a pharmaceutical manufacturer for its products separately from the storage, donation, acceptance, transfer, or dispensing of any drug provided to a patient in accordance with a drug distribution program established pursuant to this section.

F. In the absence of bad faith or gross negligence, no person that donates, accepts, or dispenses unused prescription drugs in accordance with this section and Board regulations shall be subject to criminal or civil liability for matters arising from the donation, acceptance, or dispensing of such unused prescription drugs.

2002, c. 632; 2005, c. 68; 2008, c. 429; 2009, cc. 109, 114; 2018, c. 376.

A. As used in this section:

"Authorized pharmacy disposal site" means a pharmacy that qualifies as a collection site pursuant to 21 C.F.R § 1317.40.

"Pharmacy drug disposal program" means any voluntary drug disposal program located at or operated in accordance with state and federal law by a pharmacy.

B. A pharmacy may participate in a pharmacy drug disposal program in accordance with state and federal law regarding proper collection, storage, and destruction of prescription drugs, including controlled and noncontrolled substances. A pharmacy that chooses to participate in a pharmacy drug disposal program shall notify the Board, and the Board shall maintain a list of all pharmacies in the Commonwealth that have chosen to participate in a pharmacy drug disposal program on a website maintained by the Board.

C. No person that participates in a pharmacy drug disposal program shall be liable for any theft, robbery, or other criminal act related to its participation in the pharmacy drug disposal program nor shall such person be liable for acts of simple negligence in the collection, storage, or destruction of prescription drugs collected through such pharmacy drug disposal program, provided that the pharmacy practice site is acting in good faith and in accordance with applicable state and federal law and regulations.

D. In order to mitigate the risk of diversion of drugs upon the death of a patient, any hospice licensed by the Department or exempt from licensure pursuant to § 32.1-162.2 shall develop policies and procedures for the disposal of drugs, including opioids, dispensed as part of the hospice plan of care. Such disposal shall be (i) performed in a manner that complies with all state and federal requirements for the safe disposal of drugs by a licensed nurse, physician assistant, or physician who is employed by or has entered into a contract with the hospice program; (ii) witnessed by a member of the patient's family or a second employee of the hospice program who is licensed by a health regulatory board within the Department of Health Professions; and (iii) documented in the patient's medical record.

2016, c. 95; 2018, c. 95; 2020, c. 739.

A. The Board of Pharmacy shall develop guidelines for the provision of counseling and information regarding proper disposal of unused dispensed drugs, including information about pharmacy drug disposal programs in which the pharmacy participates pursuant to § 54.1-3411.2, by pharmacists to patients for whom a prescription is dispensed.

B. The Board of Pharmacy shall determine methods to enhance public awareness of proper drug disposal methods, which may include requirements for pharmacies or hospitals or clinics with an on-site pharmacy to provide such information to customers and the public through the provision of informative pamphlets, the posting of signs in public areas of the pharmacy, and the posting of information on public-facing websites.

2017, c. 114; 2020, c. 614.

Pursuant to regulations promulgated by the Board, the pharmacist dispensing any prescription shall record the date of dispensing and his initials on the prescription in (i) an automated data processing system used for the storage and retrieval of dispensing information for prescriptions or (ii) on another record that is accurate from which dispensing information is retrievable and in which the original prescription and any information maintained in such data processing system concerning such prescription can be found.

1970, c. 650, § 54-524.69; 1979, c. 388; 1987, c. 198; 1988, c. 765; 2002, c. 411.

It shall be lawful for a person to manufacture, and for a practitioner to administer, Schedule I drugs if:

1. The manufacturer and practitioner are expressly authorized to engage in such activities by the Attorney General of the United States, or pursuant to the federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act;

2. The manufacturer or dispenser is registered under all appropriate provisions of this chapter;

3. Any Schedule I drug so manufactured is sold or furnished on an official written order to a practitioner or other authorized person only; and

4. The manufacturer and practitioner comply with all other requirements of this chapter.

1970, c. 650, § 54-524.58:1; 1972, c. 798; 1988, c. 765.

An official written order for any Schedule II drug shall be signed by the purchasing licensee or by his agent. The original shall be presented to the person who supplies the drug or drugs. If such person accepts the order, each party to the transaction shall preserve his copy of the order for two years in such a way as to be readily accessible for inspection by any public officer or employee engaged in the enforcement of this chapter. It shall be deemed a compliance with this section if the parties to the transaction have complied with the federal laws respecting the requirements governing the use of order forms. Parties ordering Schedule II drugs electronically shall comply with all requirements of federal law and regulation governing such transactions.

Code 1950, § 54-493; 1970, c. 650, § 54-524.60; 1988, c. 765; 2006, c. 346.

A. A permitted manufacturer or wholesaler may distribute Schedule II drugs to any of the following persons, but only on official written orders or pursuant to an electronic order in compliance with federal laws and regulations governing the electronic ordering of Schedule II drugs:

1. To a manufacturer or wholesaler who has been issued permits pursuant to this chapter;

2. To a licensed pharmacist, permitted pharmacy or a licensed practitioner of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, dentistry or veterinary medicine;

3. To a person who has been issued a controlled substance registration certificate pursuant to § 54.1-3422, if the certificate of such person authorizes such purchase;

4. On a special written order accompanied by a certificate of exemption, as required by the federal laws, to a person in the employ of the United States government or of any state, territorial, district, county, municipal, or insular government, purchasing, receiving or possessing drugs by reason of his official duties;

5. To a master of a ship or a person in charge of any aircraft upon which no physician is regularly employed, for the actual medical needs of persons on board such ship or aircraft when not in port. However, such drugs shall be sold to a master of such ship or person in charge of such aircraft pursuant to a special order form approved by a commissioned medical officer or acting assistant surgeon of the United States Public Health Service; and

6. To a person in a foreign country in compliance with the provisions of the relevant federal laws.

B. A permitted manufacturer or wholesaler may distribute drugs classified in Schedule III through Schedule VI and devices to all persons listed in subsection A of this section without an official written order. However, this section shall not be construed to prohibit the distribution of a Schedule VI drug or device to any person who is otherwise authorized by law to administer, prescribe or dispense such drug or device.

Code 1950, § 54-492; 1970, c. 650; 1972, c. 798, § 54-524.59; 1977, c. 302; 1978, c. 833; 1988, c. 765; 1998, c. 490; 2006, c. 346.

A. A permitted manufacturer, wholesale distributor, warehouser, nonresident warehouser, third-party logistics provider, or nonresident third-party logistics provider or registered nonresident manufacturer or nonresident wholesale distributor may deliver Schedule VI prescription devices directly to an ultimate user or consumer on behalf of a medical equipment supplier, provided that (i) such delivery occurs at the direction of a medical equipment supplier that has received a valid order from a prescriber authorizing the dispensing of such prescription device to the ultimate user or consumer and (ii) the manufacturer, nonresident manufacturer, wholesale distributor, nonresident wholesale distributor, warehouser, nonresident warehouser, third-party logistics provider, or nonresident third-party logistics provider has entered into an agreement with the medical equipment supplier for such delivery.

B. A permitted manufacturer, wholesale distributor, warehouser, nonresident warehouser, third-party logistics provider, or nonresident third-party logistics provider, or registered nonresident manufacturer or nonresident wholesale distributor may deliver Schedule VI prescription devices directly to an ultimate user's or consumer's residence to be administered by persons authorized to administer such devices, provided that (i) such delivery is made on behalf of a medical director of a home health agency, nursing home, assisted living facility, or hospice who has requested the distribution of the Schedule VI prescription device and directs the delivery of such device to the ultimate user's or consumer's residence and (ii) the medical director on whose behalf such Schedule VI prescription device is being delivered has entered into an agreement with the manufacturer, nonresident manufacturer, wholesale distributor, nonresident wholesale distributor, warehouser, nonresident warehouser, third-party logistics provider, or nonresident third-party logistics provider for such delivery.

2018, cc. 241, 242.

A preparation listed pursuant to Schedule V may be dispensed without a prescription if:

1. The preparation is dispensed only by a pharmacist directly to the person requesting the preparation;

2. The preparation is dispensed only to a person who is at least eighteen years of age;

3. The pharmacist requires the person requesting the preparation to furnish suitable identification including proof of age when appropriate;

4. The pharmacist does not dispense to any one person, or for the use of any one person or animal, any narcotic drug preparation or preparations, when he knows, or can by reasonable diligence ascertain, that such dispensing will provide the person to whom or for whose use, or the owner of the animal for the use of which, such preparation is dispensed, within 48 consecutive hours, with more than 200 milligrams of opium, or more than 270 milligrams of codeine, or more than 130 milligrams of dihydrocodeinone, or more than 65 milligrams of ethylmorphine, or more than 32 5/10 milligrams of diphenoxylate. In dispensing such a narcotic drug preparation, the pharmacist shall exercise professional discretion to ensure that the preparation is being dispensed for medical purposes only.

Any pharmacist shall, at the time of dispensing, make and keep a record showing the date of dispensing, the name and quantity of the preparation, the name and address of the person to whom the preparation is dispensed, and enter his initials thereon. Such records shall be maintained as set forth in § 54.1-3404 and the regulations of the Board.

1970, c. 650, § 54-524.75; 1972, c. 798; 1988, c. 765.

The owner of any stocks of drugs included in Schedules II through V obtained in compliance with this chapter, upon discontinuance of dealing in such drugs, may dispose of such stocks only on an official written order as follows:

1. A pharmacy or practitioner or an agent or agents of a pharmacy or practitioner under specific written authorization from the owner of such pharmacy or such practitioner, may dispose of such stocks to a manufacturer or wholesaler holding a valid license to deal in such drugs, or to another pharmacy or practitioner.

2. A manufacturer or wholesaler may dispose of such stocks only to a manufacturer or wholesaler holding a valid permit to deal in such drugs.

1970, c. 650, § 54-524.61; 1976, c. 406; 1988, c. 765.

A pharmacist, only upon an official written order, may sell to a physician, dentist, or veterinarian, in quantities not exceeding one ounce at any one time, aqueous or oleaginous solutions compounded by the pharmacist, of which the content of narcotic drugs does not exceed a proportion greater than twenty percent of the complete solution, to be used for medical purposes.

Code 1950, § 54-496; 1956, c. 225; 1970, c. 650, § 54-524.62; 1988, c. 765.

Any insulin preparation shall be dispensed only by or under the supervision of a licensed pharmacist.

1984, c. 723, § 54-524.67:3; 1988, c. 765.

No manufacturer or distributor of controlled substances shall distribute or dispense any substance listed on Schedules II through V to any person, whether a practitioner of the healing arts or some other profession, except with the written request or confirmation of receipt of the practitioner. Such request or confirmation shall be maintained as required by this chapter.

Subject to the foregoing provisions, no person shall be prohibited from distributing controlled substances listed on Schedules II through V for charitable uses or for use in research or investigations.

1984, c. 724, § 54-524.58:2; 1988, c. 765.

A. Before dispensing any drug listed on Schedules III through V, a pharmacist may require proof of identity from any patient presenting a prescription or requesting a refill of a prescription.

B. A pharmacist, or his agent, shall require proof of identity at the time of delivery from any person seeking to take delivery of any drug listed on Schedule II pursuant to a valid prescription, unless such person is known to the pharmacist or to his agent. If the person seeking to take delivery of a drug listed on Schedule II pursuant to a valid prescription is not the patient for whom the drug is prescribed, and the person is not known to the pharmacist or his agent, the pharmacist or his agent shall either make a photocopy or electronic copy of such person's identification or record the full name and address of such person. The pharmacist shall keep records of the names and addresses or copies of proof of identity of persons taking delivery of drugs as required by this subsection for a period of at least one month. For the purposes of this subsection, "proof of identity" means a driver's license, government-issued identification card, or other photo identification along with documentation of the person's current address.

C. Whenever any pharmacist permitted to operate in the Commonwealth or nonresident pharmacist registered to conduct business in the Commonwealth delivers a prescription drug order for any drug listed on Schedule II by mail, common carrier, or delivery service to a Virginia address, the method of delivery employed shall require the signature of the recipient as confirmation of receipt.

1988, c. 400, § 54-524.67:4; 2010, c. 193; 2011, cc. 262, 318.

A. Whenever any pharmacy permitted to operate in this Commonwealth or nonresident pharmacy registered to conduct business in the Commonwealth delivers a prescription drug order by mail, common carrier, or delivery service, when the drug order is not personally hand delivered directly, to the patient or his agent at the person's residence or other designated location, the following conditions shall be required:

1. Written notice shall be placed in each shipment alerting the consumer that under certain circumstances chemical degradation of drugs may occur; and

2. Written notice shall be placed in each shipment providing a toll-free or local consumer access telephone number which is designed to respond to consumer questions pertaining to chemical degradation of drugs.

B. If a prescription drug order for a Schedule VI controlled substance is not personally hand delivered directly to the patient or the patient's agent, or if the prescription drug order is not delivered to the residence of the patient, the delivery location shall hold a current permit, license, or registration with the Board that authorizes the possession of controlled substances at that location. The Board shall promulgate regulations related to the security, access, required records, accountability, storage, and accuracy of delivery of such drug delivery systems. Schedule II through Schedule V controlled substances shall be delivered to an alternate delivery location only if such delivery is authorized by federal law and regulations of the Board.

C. Prescription drug orders dispensed to a patient and delivered to a community services board or behavioral health authority facility licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services upon the signed written request of the patient or the patient's legally authorized representative may be stored, retained, and repackaged at the facility on behalf of the patient for subsequent delivery or administration. The repackaging of a dispensed prescription drug order retained by a community services board or behavioral health authority facility for the purpose of assisting a client with self-administration pursuant to this subsection shall only be performed by a pharmacist, pharmacy technician, nurse, or other person who has successfully completed a Board-approved training program for repackaging of prescription drug orders as authorized by this subsection. The Board shall promulgate regulations relating to training, packaging, labeling, and recordkeeping for such repackaging.

D. Prescription drug orders dispensed to a patient and delivered to a Virginia Department of Health or local health department clinic upon the signed written request of a patient, a patient's legally authorized representative, or a Virginia Department of Health district director or his designee may be stored and retained at the clinic on behalf of the patient for subsequent delivery or administration.

E. Prescription drug orders dispensed to a patient and delivered to a program of all-inclusive care for the elderly (PACE) site licensed by the Department of Social Services pursuant to § 63.2-1701 and overseen by the Department of Medical Assistance Services in accordance with § 32.1-330.3 upon the signed written request of the patient or the patient's legally authorized representative may be stored, retained, and repackaged at the site on behalf of the patient for subsequent delivery or administration. The repackaging of a dispensed prescription drug order retained by the PACE site for the purpose of assisting a client with self-administration pursuant to this subsection shall only be performed by a pharmacist, pharmacy technician, nurse, or other person who has successfully completed a Board-approved training program for repackaging of prescription drug orders as authorized by this subsection. The Board shall promulgate regulations relating to training, packaging, labeling, and recordkeeping for such repackaging.

1998, c. 597; 2002, c. 411; 2010, c. 28; 2015, c. 505.

A. A pharmacy shall not implement or enforce a policy that prevents a pharmacist from dispensing a prescription solely on the basis of the prescriber's use of a telemedicine platform to provide services.

B. A pharmacist shall not prioritize dispensing a prescription from a prescriber who does not use telemedicine over dispensing a prescription from a prescriber who does use telemedicine solely on the basis of the prescriber's use of a telemedicine platform to provide services.

2023, c. 368.

A. No person shall sell, deliver, offer for sale, hold for sale or give away any new drug unless an application with respect to the drug has been approved and the approval has not been withdrawn under § 505 of the federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. § 355).

B. This section shall not apply to a drug subject to the federal act intended solely for investigational use and for which a notice of claimed investigational exemption for a new drug has been filed with the U.S. Food and Drug Administration in accordance with 21 C.F.R. Part 312.

1970, c. 650, § 54-524.95; 1988, c. 765; 2000, c. 135.

A. Every person who manufactures, distributes or dispenses any substance that is controlled in Schedules I through V or who proposes to engage in the manufacture, distribution or dispensing of any such controlled substance except permitted pharmacies, those persons who are licensed pharmacists, those persons who are licensed physician assistants, and those persons who are licensed practitioners of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, dentistry, optometry, nursing, or veterinary medicine shall obtain annually a controlled substances registration certificate issued by the Board. This registration shall be in addition to other licensing or permitting requirements enumerated in this chapter or otherwise required by law.

B. Registration under this section and under all other applicable registration requirements shall entitle the registrant to possess, manufacture, distribute, dispense, perform laboratory analysis, or conduct research with those substances to the extent authorized by this registration and in conformity with the other provisions of this chapter.

C. The following persons need not register and may possess controlled substances listed on Schedules I through VI:

1. An agent or employee of any holder of a controlled substance registration certificate or of any practitioner listed in subsection A of this section as exempt from the requirement for registration, if such agent or employee is acting in the usual course of his business or employment;

2. A common or contract carrier or warehouseman, or his employee, whose possession is in the usual course of business or employment; or

3. An ultimate user or a person in possession of any controlled substance pursuant to a lawful order of a prescriber or in lawful possession of a Schedule V substance.

D. A separate registration is required at each principal place of business or professional practice where the applicant manufactures, distributes, or dispenses controlled substances.

1972, c. 798, § 54-524.47:2; 1988, c. 765; 1996, cc. 408, 468, 496; 1998, c. 490; 2001, cc. 243, 465; 2020, c. 941.

A. The Board shall register an applicant to manufacture or distribute controlled substances included in Schedules I through V unless it determines that the issuance of that registration would be inconsistent with the public interest. In determining the public interest, the Board shall consider the following factors:

1. Maintenance of effective controls against diversion of controlled substances into other than legitimate medical, scientific, or industrial channels;

2. Compliance with applicable state and local law;

3. Any convictions of the applicant under any federal and state laws relating to any controlled substance;

4. Past experience in the manufacture or distribution of controlled substances, and the existence in the applicant's establishment of effective controls against diversion;

5. Furnishing by the applicant of false or fraudulent material in any application filed under this chapter;

6. Suspension or revocation of the applicant's federal registration to manufacture, distribute, or dispense controlled substances as authorized by federal law; and

7. Any other factors relevant to and consistent with the public health and safety.

B. Registration under subsection A does not entitle a registrant to manufacture and distribute controlled substances in Schedule I or II other than those specified in the registration.

C. Practitioners must be registered to conduct research or laboratory analysis with controlled substances in Schedules II through VI or marijuana. Practitioners registered under federal law to conduct research with Schedule I substances, other than marijuana, may conduct research with Schedule I substances within the Commonwealth upon furnishing the evidence of that federal registration.

D. The Board may register other persons or entities to possess controlled substances listed on Schedules II through VI upon a determination that (i) there is a documented need, (ii) the issuance of the registration is consistent with the public interest, (iii) the possession and subsequent use of the controlled substances complies with applicable state and federal laws and regulations, and (iv) the subsequent storage, use, and recordkeeping of the controlled substances will be under the general supervision of a licensed pharmacist, practitioner of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, dentistry, or veterinary medicine as specified in the Board's regulations. The Board shall consider, at a minimum, the factors listed in subsection A in determining whether the registration shall be issued. Notwithstanding the exceptions listed in § 54.1-3422 A, the Board may mandate a controlled substances registration for sites maintaining certain types and quantities of Schedules II through VI controlled substances as it may specify in its regulations. The Board shall promulgate regulations related to requirements or criteria for the issuance of such controlled substances registration, storage, security, supervision, and recordkeeping.

E. The Board may register a public or private animal shelter as defined in § 3.2-6500 to purchase, possess, and administer certain Schedule II through VI controlled substances approved by the State Veterinarian for the purpose of euthanizing injured, sick, homeless, and unwanted domestic pets and animals and to purchase, possess, and administer certain Schedule VI drugs and biological products for the purpose of preventing, controlling, and treating certain communicable diseases that failure to control would result in transmission to the animal population in the shelter. Controlled substances used for euthanasia shall be administered only in accordance with protocols established by the State Veterinarian and only by persons trained in accordance with instructions by the State Veterinarian. The list of Schedule VI drugs and biological products used for treatment and prevention of communicable diseases within the shelter shall be determined by the supervising veterinarian of the shelter and the drugs and biological products shall be administered only pursuant to written protocols established or approved by the supervising veterinarian of the shelter and only by persons who have been trained in accordance with instructions established or approved by the supervising veterinarian. The shelter shall maintain a copy of the approved list of drugs and biological products, written protocols for administering, and training records of those persons administering drugs and biological products on the premises of the shelter.

F. The Board may register a crisis stabilization unit established pursuant to § 37.2-500 or 37.2-601 and licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services to maintain a stock of Schedule VI controlled substances necessary for immediate treatment of patients admitted to the crisis stabilization unit, which may be accessed and administered by a nurse pursuant to a written or oral order of a prescriber in the absence of a prescriber. Schedule II through Schedule V controlled substances shall only be maintained if so authorized by federal law and Board regulations.

G. The Board may register an entity at which a patient is treated by the use of instrumentation and diagnostic equipment through which images and medical records may be transmitted electronically for the purpose of establishing a bona fide practitioner-patient relationship and is prescribed Schedule II through VI controlled substances when such prescribing is in compliance with federal requirements for the practice of telemedicine and the patient is not in the physical presence of a practitioner registered with the U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration. In determining whether the registration shall be issued, the Board shall consider (i) the factors listed in subsection A, (ii) whether there is a documented need for such registration, and (iii) whether the issuance of the registration is consistent with the public interest.

H. Applications for controlled substances registration certificates and renewals thereof shall be made on a form prescribed by the Board and such applications shall be accompanied by a fee in an amount to be determined by the Board.

I. Upon (i) any change in ownership or control of a business, (ii) any change of location of the controlled substances stock, (iii) the termination of authority by or of the person named as the responsible party on a controlled substances registration, or (iv) a change in the supervising practitioner, if applicable, the registrant or responsible party shall immediately surrender the registration. The registrant shall, within 14 days following surrender of a registration, file a new application and, if applicable, name the new responsible party or supervising practitioner.

1972, c. 798, § 54-524.47:3; 1978, c. 833; 1980, c. 288; 1988, c. 765; 1996, cc. 468, 496; 1998, c. 490; 2009, cc. 149, 169; 2010, c. 28; 2014, c. 148; 2017, cc. 58, 110; 2018, c. 774; 2020, c. 941; 2023, cc. 744, 794.

A. A registration to manufacture, distribute, or dispense a controlled substance may be suspended or revoked by the Board upon a finding that the registrant:

1. Has furnished false or fraudulent material information in an application filed under this chapter;

2. Has been convicted of a felony under any state or federal law relating to any controlled substance;

3. Has had his federal registration to manufacture, distribute or dispense controlled substances suspended or revoked;

4. Has violated or cooperated with others in violating any provision of this chapter or regulations of the Board relating to the manufacture, distribution or dispensing of controlled substances.

B. The Board may limit revocation or suspension of a registration to the particular controlled substance with respect to which grounds for revocation or suspension exist.

C. If the Board summarily suspends, suspends, or revokes a registration, license, permit, or certificate, all controlled substances and prescription devices owned or possessed pursuant to the registration, license, permit, or certificate may be placed under seal by the Board or an authorized agent of the Board as of the effective date of the order of summary suspension, suspension, or revocation. The Board or an authorized agent of the board shall perform an inventory of the controlled substances and prescription devices placed under seal. The controlled substances and prescription devices under seal shall remain in a secured manner on the premises at the previously authorized address of the registration, license, permit, or certificate. No person shall access or relocate such controlled substances and prescription devices without authorization from the Board. The registrant, licensee, permittee, or certificate holder shall ensure the controlled substances and prescription devices remain securely under seal at all times with no unauthorized access.

Following the conclusion of all appeals, if any, or the deadline to file an appeal, if none are filed, the controlled substances and prescription devices shall be subject to forfeiture. The Board shall direct the owner to appropriately transfer or dispose of the sealed controlled substances and prescription devices under the supervision of an authorized agent, or the controlled substances and devices shall be forfeited, seized, and destroyed by the Board, the authorized agent of the Board, or any law-enforcement officer. Costs associated with the storage and destruction of the seized substances and devices shall be at the expense of the owner of such.

Prior to forfeiture, the owner of the controlled substances or prescription devices may request permission from the Board to transfer the sealed controlled substances and prescription devices, at the owner's expense and under the supervision of an authorized agent, to an entity authorized to possess or destroy such substances or devices.

D. Controlled substances and prescription devices that have been abandoned and are stored at a location that is not authorized for the storage of such substances and devices shall be considered contraband. The Board, an authorized agent of the Board, or any law-enforcement officer may seize and destroy such substances and devices. Costs associated with the storage and destruction of the seized substances and devices shall be at the expense of the owner of such substances and devices, if known.

E. The Board shall promptly notify the DEA of all orders suspending or revoking registration and all forfeitures of controlled substances.

1972, c. 798, § 54-524.47:4; 1988, c. 765; 1996, cc. 468, 496; 1998, c. 490; 2019, c. 94.

Repealed by Acts 2009, c. 149, cl. 2, effective March 6, 2009, and c. 169, cl. 2, effective March 23, 2009.

A. The Board shall adopt standards for special packaging consistent with those promulgated pursuant to the federal Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 (15 U.S.C. § 1471 et seq.). The Board may exempt any drug from the requirements of special packaging and shall exempt any drug exempted pursuant to the Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970.

B. A prescriber or a purchaser may direct that a drug, which is subject to being dispensed in special packaging, be dispensed in other than special packaging.

1978, c. 833, § 54-524.67:1; 1988, c. 765; 1996, c. 408.

When a pharmacist receives the request of any person that a drug or drugs for such person to be dispensed by the pharmacist not be placed in a safety closure container, the pharmacist may dispense such drug or drugs in such nonsafety closure container. The delivering pharmacist shall not be civilly liable simply by reason of dispensing a drug or drugs in such a container if the recipient signs a release covering a period of time or a single delivery, which release provides that the recipient releases the pharmacist from civil liability for not using the safety closure container, unless the pharmacist acted with willful and wanton disregard of safety.

1978, c. 839, § 54-524.67:2; 1988, c. 765.

The Board may disseminate such information regarding drugs, devices, and cosmetics as the Board deems necessary in the interest of public health and the protection of the consumer against fraud. This section shall not be construed to prohibit the Board from collecting, reporting, and illustrating the results of its investigations.

1970, c. 650, § 54-524.100; 1988, c. 765.

The Board may revoke a permit issued to a manufacturer, wholesaler or distributor for failure to comply with regulations promulgated pursuant to the provisions of this chapter.

1970, c. 650, § 54-524.46; 1988, c. 765.

Permits issued under the provisions of this chapter shall be displayed in a conspicuous place in the factory or other place of business for which issued.

Permits shall not be transferable and shall be renewed annually.

Code 1950, §§ 54-449, 54-450; 1970, c. 650, § 54-524.38; 1976, c. 614, § 54-524.39; 1988, c. 765.

In any administrative hearing, a certificate of analysis of a chemist, performed in any laboratory operated by the Department of Forensic Science or authorized by such Department to conduct such analysis, when such certificate is attested by such chemist, shall be admissible as evidence. A copy of such certificate shall be delivered to the parties in interest at least seven days prior to the date fixed for the hearing.

Any certificate of analysis purporting to be signed by any chemist shall be admissible as evidence in such hearing without any proof of the seal or signature or of the official character of the chemist whose name is signed to it.

Code 1950, § 54-524.77; 1970, c. 650; 1972, cc. 741, 798, § 54-524.77:1; 1973, c. 479; 1977, c. 633; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 825; 2005, cc. 868, 881.

Article 2. Permitting of Pharmacies.

Every pharmacy shall be under the personal supervision of a pharmacist on the premises of the pharmacy.

Code 1950, § 54-478; 1958, c. 551; 1970, c. 650, § 54-524.51; 1988, c. 765.

It shall be unlawful for any place of business which is not a pharmacy as defined in this chapter to advertise or to have upon it or in it as a sign the words, "pharmacy," "pharmacist," "apothecary," "drugstore," "druggist," "drugs," "medicine store," "drug sundries," "prescriptions filled" or any like words indicating that drugs are compounded or sold or prescriptions filled. Each day during which such advertisement appears or such sign is allowed to remain upon or in such place of business shall constitute a separate offense under this section. Upon consultation with the Department of Historic Resources, the Board may grant an exception from this section for such signage on an historic building that formerly housed a drugstore or pharmacy if that building is individually listed as a Virginia Historic Landmark, a contributing property in a Virginia Historic Landmark District, or determined to be eligible for listing by the Department of Historic Resources, provided that the signage relates to the historic character of the building.

Code 1950, § 54-477; 1970, c. 650, § 54-524.49; 1988, c. 765; 2005, c. 97.

No person shall conduct a pharmacy without first obtaining a permit from the Board.

The application for such permit shall be made on a form provided by the Board and signed by a pharmacist who will be in full and actual charge of the pharmacy and who will be fully engaged in the practice of pharmacy at the location designated on the application.

The application shall (i) show the corporate name and trade name, (ii) list any pharmacist in addition to the pharmacist-in-charge practicing at the location indicated on the application, and (iii) list the hours during which the pharmacy will be open to provide pharmacy services. Any change in the hours of operation, which is expected to last more than one week, shall be reported to the Board in writing and posted, at least fourteen days prior to the anticipated change, in a conspicuous place to provide notice to the public. The Board shall promulgate regulations to provide exceptions to this prior notification.

If the owner is other than the pharmacist making the application, the type of ownership shall be indicated and shall list any partner or partners, and, if a corporation, then the corporate officers and directors. Further, if the owner is not a pharmacist, he shall not abridge the authority of the pharmacist-in-charge to exercise professional judgment relating to the dispensing of drugs in accordance with this act and Board regulations.

The permit shall be issued only to the pharmacist who signs the application as the pharmacist-in-charge and as such assumes the full responsibilities for the legal operation of the pharmacy. This permit and responsibilities shall not be construed to negate any responsibility of any pharmacist or other person.

Upon termination of practice by the pharmacist-in-charge, or upon any change in partnership composition, or upon the acquisition, as defined in Board regulations, of the existing corporation by another person or the closing of a pharmacy, the permit previously issued shall be immediately surrendered to the Board by the pharmacist-in-charge to whom it was issued, or by his legal representative, and an application for a new permit may be made in accordance with the requirements of this chapter.

The Board shall promulgate regulations (i) defining acquisition of an existing permitted, registered or licensed facility or of any corporation under which the facility is directly or indirectly organized; (ii) providing for the transfer, confidentiality, integrity, and security of the pharmacy's prescription dispensing records and other patient records, regardless of where located; and (iii) establishing a reasonable time period for designation of a new pharmacist-in-charge. At the conclusion of the time period for designation of a new pharmacist-in-charge, a pharmacy which has failed to designate a new pharmacist-in-charge shall not operate as a pharmacy nor maintain a stock of prescription drugs on the premises. The Director shall immediately notify the owner of record that the pharmacy no longer holds a valid permit and that the owner shall make provision for the proper disposition of all Schedule II through VI drugs and devices on the premises within 15 days of receipt of this notice. At the conclusion of the 15-day period, the Director or his authorized agent, or any law-enforcement officer in coordination with the Director, shall seize and indefinitely secure all Schedule II through VI drugs and devices still on the premises, and the Director shall notify the owner of such seizure. The Director, his authorized agent, or the law-enforcement officer may properly dispose of the seized drugs and devices after 60 days from the date of the notice of seizure if the owner has not claimed and provided for the proper disposition of the property. The Board or law-enforcement agency shall assess a fee of not less than the cost of storage of said drugs upon the owner for reclaiming seized property.

The succeeding pharmacist-in-charge shall cause an inventory to be made of all Schedule I, II, III, IV and V drugs on hand. Such inventory shall be completed as of the date he becomes pharmacist-in-charge and prior to opening for business on that date.

The pharmacist to whom such permit is issued shall provide safeguards against diversion of all controlled substances.

An application for a pharmacy permit shall be accompanied by a fee determined by the Board. All permits shall expire annually on a date determined by the Board in regulation.

Every pharmacy shall be equipped so that prescriptions can be properly filled. The Board of Pharmacy shall prescribe the minimum of such professional and technical equipment and reference material which a pharmacy shall at all times possess. Nothing shall prevent a pharmacist who is eligible to receive information from the Prescription Monitoring Program from requesting and receiving such information; however, no pharmacy shall be required to maintain Internet access to the Prescription Monitoring Program. No permit shall be issued or continued for the conduct of a pharmacy until or unless there is compliance with the provisions of this chapter and regulations promulgated by the Board.

Every pharmacy shall comply with federal requirements for an electronic, interoperable system to identify, trace, and verify prescription drugs as they are distributed.

Each day during which a person is in violation of this section shall constitute a separate offense.

1970, c. 650, § 54-524.31; 1972, c. 798; 1976, c. 614; 1977, c. 302; 1980, c. 288; 1983, c. 286; 1986, c. 207; 1988, cc. 445, 765; 1994, c. 299; 1998, c. 470; 2000, c. 135; 2008, c. 320; 2011, c. 610; 2016, c. 221; 2019, c. 94.

A. Prior to the closing of a pharmacy for more than one week, the owner shall either (i) post a conspicuous notice at least thirty days prior to the anticipated closing or (ii) mail a notice, at least fourteen days prior to the anticipated closing, to every current pharmacy customer having refill authority. Each notice posted or mailed pursuant to this section shall indicate the date of such closing, if available, and the name of the pharmacy to which prescriptions and other required prescription dispensing records and individual patient records will be transferred unless patients indicate their preference to the contrary. The Board of Pharmacy shall promulgate regulations providing for a definition of "closing of a pharmacy" and exceptions to the requirements of this section.

B. Upon any change of ownership of a pharmacy, regardless of how such change may be effectuated, the prescription dispensing records and other patient records for at least two years immediately prior to the change of ownership, shall be transferred, in accordance with Board regulations, to the new owner in a manner to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and security of the pharmacy's prescription dispensing records and other patient records and the continuity of pharmacy services at substantially the same level as that offered by the previous owner.

Refusing to process a request for the prescription dispensing records and other patient records tendered in accordance with law or regulation shall constitute a closing and the requirements of this section shall apply. Such refusal may constitute a violation of § 54.1-111 A 9, depending on the circumstance.

1992, c. 667; 1994, c. 668; 1998, c. 470.

A. Hospitals licensed pursuant to Title 32.1 or Title 37.2 may use automated drug dispensing systems, as defined in § 54.1-3401, upon meeting the following conditions:

1. Drugs are placed in the automated drug dispensing system in a hospital and are under the control of a pharmacy providing services to the hospital;

2. The pharmacist-in-charge of the pharmacy providing services to the hospital has established procedures for assuring the accurate stocking and proper storage of drugs in the automated drug dispensing system and for ensuring accountability for and security of all drugs utilized in the automated drug dispensing system until the time such drugs are removed from the automated drug dispensing system for administration to the patients;

3. Removal of drugs from any automated drug dispensing system for administration to patients can only be made pursuant to a valid prescription or lawful order of a prescriber;

4. Adequate security for automated drug dispensing systems is provided, as evidenced by written policies and procedures, for (i) preventing unauthorized access, (ii) complying with federal and state regulations on prescribing and dispensing controlled substances, (iii) maintaining patient confidentiality, and (iv) assuring compliance with the requirements of this section;

5. Accountability for drugs dispensed from automated drug dispensing systems is vested in the pharmacist-in-charge of a pharmacy located within the hospital or the pharmacist-in-charge of any outside pharmacy providing pharmacy services to the hospital;

6. Filling and stocking of all drugs in automated drug dispensing systems shall be performed under the direction of the pharmacist-in-charge. The task of filling and stocking of drugs into an automated drug dispensing system shall be performed by a pharmacist or a registered pharmacy technician, who shall be an employee of the provider pharmacy and shall be properly trained in accordance with established standards set forth in a policy and procedure manual maintained by the provider pharmacy. The pharmacist stocking and filling the automated drug dispensing system or the pharmacist-in-charge, if the automated drug dispensing system is stocked and filled by a registered pharmacy technician, shall be responsible for the proper and accurate stocking and filling of the automated drug dispensing system.

B. Drugs placed into and removed from automated drug dispensing systems for administration to patients shall be in the manufacturer's or distributor's sealed original packaging or in unit-dose containers packaged by the pharmacy. Drugs in multi-dose packaging, other than those administered orally, may be placed in such a device if approved by the pharmacist-in-charge in consultation with a standing hospital committee comprised of pharmacy, medical, and nursing staff.

C. The pharmacist-in-charge in a pharmacy located within a hospital or the pharmacist-in-charge of any outside pharmacy providing pharmacy services to a hospital shall be responsible for establishing procedures for (i) periodically inspecting and auditing automated drug dispensing systems to assure the proper storage, security, and accountability for all drugs placed in and removed from automated drug dispensing systems, and (ii) reviewing the operation and maintenance of automated drug dispensing systems. This monitoring shall be reviewed by a pharmacist while on the premises of the hospital and in accordance with the pharmacist-in-charge's procedures and the Board of Pharmacy's regulations.

D. The Board of Pharmacy shall promulgate regulations establishing minimum requirements for random periodic inspections and monthly audits of automated drug dispensing systems to assure the proper storage, security, and accountability of all drugs placed in and removed from automated drug dispensing systems and for reviewing the operation and maintenance of automated drug dispensing systems.

1999, c. 750; 2004, c. 140; 2009, c. 100.

Each pharmacy shall implement a program for continuous quality improvement, according to regulations of the Board. Such program shall provide for a systematic, ongoing process of analysis of dispensing errors that uses findings to formulate an appropriate response and to develop or improve pharmacy systems and workflow processes designed to prevent or reduce future errors. The Board shall promulgate regulations to further define the required elements of such program.

Any pharmacy that actively reports to a patient safety organization that has as its primary mission continuous quality improvement under the Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act of 2005 (P.L. 109-41), shall be deemed in compliance with this section.

2011, c. 124.

The Board of Pharmacy shall, in cases in which a monetary fine may be imposed for a violation of the provisions of Article 2 (§ 54.1-3432 et seq.) of the Drug Control Act relating to the practice of pharmacy and the pharmacy subject to the fine is affiliated with a free clinic that receives state or local funds, ascertain the factual basis for its decisions of such cases through informal conference or consultation proceedings in accordance with § 2.2-4019, unless the named party and the Board agree to resolve the matter through a consent order or the named party consents to waive such a conference or proceeding to go directly to a formal hearing.

2014, c. 345.

A. No person shall act as an outsourcing facility without first obtaining a permit from the Board.

B. Applications for a permit to act as an outsourcing facility shall be made on a form provided by the Board and signed by a pharmacist who will be in full and actual charge of the outsourcing facility and who will be fully engaged in the compounding performed at the location designated on the application. Such application shall be accompanied by a fee determined by the Board in regulation. All permits shall expire annually on a date determined by the Board in regulation. No permit shall be issued or renewed for an outsourcing facility unless the facility can demonstrate compliance with all applicable federal and state laws and regulations governing outsourcing facilities.

C. As a prerequisite to obtaining or renewing a permit from the Board, the outsourcing facility shall (i) register as an outsourcing facility with the U.S. Secretary of Health and Human Services in accordance with 21 U.S.C. § 353b and (ii) submit a copy of a current inspection report resulting from an inspection conducted by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration that indicates compliance with the requirements of state and federal law and regulations, including all applicable guidance documents and Current Good Manufacturing Practices published by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

The inspection report required pursuant to clause (ii) shall be deemed current for the purposes of this section if the inspection was conducted (a) no more than one year prior to the date of submission of an application for a permit to the Board or (b) no more than two years prior to the date of submission of an application for renewal of a permit to the Board. However, if the outsourcing facility has not been inspected by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration within the required period, the Board may accept an inspection report or other documentation from another entity that is satisfactory to the Board, or the Board may cause an inspection to be conducted by its duly authorized agent and may charge an inspection fee in an amount sufficient to cover the costs of the inspection.

D. Every outsourcing facility shall compound in compliance with the requirements of state and federal law and regulations except § 54.1-3410.2, to include all applicable guidance documents and Current Good Manufacturing Practices published by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

E. An outsourcing facility shall not engage in compounding of drug products to be dispensed pursuant to a valid prescription for a specific patient without first obtaining a permit to operate a pharmacy.

2015, c. 300.

Article 2.1. Registration of Nonresident Pharmacies.

A. Any pharmacy located outside the Commonwealth that ships, mails, or delivers, in any manner, Schedule II through VI drugs or devices pursuant to a prescription into the Commonwealth shall be considered a nonresident pharmacy, shall be registered with the Board, shall designate a pharmacist in charge who is licensed as a pharmacist in Virginia and is responsible for the pharmacy's compliance with this chapter, and shall disclose to the Board all of the following:

1. The location, names, and titles of all principal corporate officers and the name and Virginia license number of the designated pharmacist in charge, if applicable. A report containing this information shall be made on an annual basis and within 30 days after any change of office, corporate officer, or pharmacist in charge.

2. That it maintains, at all times, a current unrestricted license, permit, certificate, or registration to conduct the pharmacy in compliance with the laws of the jurisdiction, within the United States or within another jurisdiction that may lawfully deliver prescription drugs directly or indirectly to consumers within the United States, in which it is a resident. The pharmacy shall also certify that it complies with all lawful directions and requests for information from the regulatory or licensing agency of the jurisdiction in which it is licensed as well as with all requests for information made by the Board pursuant to this section.

3. As a prerequisite to registering or renewing a registration with the Board, the nonresident pharmacy shall submit a copy of a current inspection report resulting from an inspection conducted by the regulatory or licensing agency of the jurisdiction in which it is located that indicates compliance with the requirements of this chapter, including compliance with USP-NF standards for pharmacies performing sterile and non-sterile compounding. The inspection report shall be deemed current for the purpose of this subdivision if the inspection was conducted (i) no more than six months prior to the date of submission of an application for registration with the Board or (ii) no more than two years prior to the date of submission of an application for renewal of a registration with the Board. However, if the nonresident pharmacy has not been inspected by the regulatory or licensing agency of the jurisdiction in which it is licensed within the required period, the Board may accept an inspection report or other documentation from another entity that is satisfactory to the Board or the Board may cause an inspection to be conducted by its duly authorized agent and may charge an inspection fee in an amount sufficient to cover the costs of the inspection.

4. For a nonresident pharmacy that dispenses more than 50 percent of its total prescription volume pursuant to an original prescription order received as a result of solicitation on the Internet, including the solicitation by electronic mail, that it is credentialed and has been inspected and that it has received certification from the National Association of Boards of Pharmacy that it is a Verified Internet Pharmacy Practice Site, or has received certification from a substantially similar program approved by the Board. The Board may, in its discretion, waive the requirements of this subdivision for a nonresident pharmacy that only does business within the Commonwealth in limited transactions.

5. That it maintains its records of prescription drugs or dangerous drugs or devices dispensed to patients in the Commonwealth so that the records are readily retrievable from the records of other drugs dispensed and provides a copy or report of such dispensing records to the Board, its authorized agents, or any agent designated by the Superintendent of the Department of State Police upon request within seven days of receipt of a request.

6. That its pharmacists do not knowingly fill or dispense a prescription for a patient in Virginia in violation of § 54.1-3303 and that it has informed its pharmacists that a pharmacist who dispenses a prescription that he knows or should have known was not written pursuant to a bona fide practitioner-patient relationship is guilty of unlawful distribution of a controlled substance in violation of § 18.2-248.

7. That it maintains a continuous quality improvement program as required of resident pharmacies, pursuant to § 54.1-3434.03.

The requirement that a nonresident pharmacy have a Virginia licensed pharmacist in charge shall not apply to a registered nonresident pharmacy that provides services as a pharmacy benefits administrator.

B. Any pharmacy subject to this section shall, during its regular hours of operation, but not less than six days per week, and for a minimum of 40 hours per week, provide a toll-free telephone service to facilitate communication between patients in the Commonwealth and a pharmacist at the pharmacy who has access to the patient's records. This toll-free number shall be disclosed on a label affixed to each container of drugs dispensed to patients in the Commonwealth.

C. Pharmacies subject to this section shall comply with the reporting requirements of the Prescription Monitoring Program as set forth in § 54.1-2521.

D. The registration fee shall be the fee specified for pharmacies within Virginia.

E. A nonresident pharmacy shall only deliver controlled substances that are dispensed pursuant to a prescription, directly to the consumer or his designated agent, or directly to a pharmacy located in Virginia pursuant to regulations of the Board.

F. Pharmacies subject to this section shall comply with the requirements set forth in § 54.1-3408.04 relating to dispensing of an interchangeable biosimilar in the place of a prescribed biological product.

G. Every nonresident pharmacy shall comply with federal requirements for an electronic, interoperable system to identify, trace, and verify prescription drugs as they are distributed.

1990, c. 270; 1994, c. 300; 2000, c. 882; 2005, cc. 115, 637, 678; 2006, c. 397; 2008, cc. 79, 618; 2011, c. 124; 2013, cc. 412, 544, 765; 2016, c. 221.

The Board shall only register nonresident pharmacies that maintain a current unrestricted license, certificate, permit, or registration as a pharmacy in a jurisdiction within the United States, or within another jurisdiction that may lawfully deliver prescription drugs directly or indirectly to consumers within the United States.

Applications for a nonresident pharmacy registration, under this section, shall be made on a form furnished by the Board. The Board may require such information as it deems is necessary to carry out the purpose of the section.

The permit or nonresident pharmacy registration shall be renewed annually on a date determined by the Board in regulation. Renewal is contingent upon the nonresident pharmacy providing documentation of a current inspection report in accordance with subdivision A 3 of § 54.1-3434.1; continuing current, unrestricted licensure in the resident jurisdiction; and continuing certification if required in subdivision A 4 of § 54.1-3434.1.

1990, c. 270; 2005, c. 115; 2008, cc. 79, 320, 618; 2013, c. 765.

The Board may deny, revoke, suspend, or take other disciplinary actions against a nonresident pharmacy registration as provided for in § 54.1-3316.

The Board shall immediately suspend, without a hearing, the registration of any nonresident pharmacy upon receipt of documentation by the licensing agency in the jurisdiction where a nonresident pharmacy registered with the Board is located, that the nonresident pharmacy has had its license, certificate, permit, or registration as a pharmacy revoked or suspended by that agency and has not been reinstated, or if the Board has received notification from the licensing agency that the pharmacy in the resident state no longer holds a valid unexpired license, permit, certificate, or registration as a pharmacy. The Board shall provide written notice of the suspension to the nonresident pharmacy at the address of record on file with the Board and to the resident-state licensing agency. The nonresident pharmacy may apply for reinstatement of the registration only after it has been reinstated by and holds a current and unrestricted license, certificate, permit, or registration as a pharmacy from the licensing agency in the jurisdiction where it is located. Such nonresident pharmacy shall be entitled to a hearing not later than the next regular meeting of the Board after the expiration of 60 days from the receipt of such application, and shall have the right to be represented by counsel and to summon witnesses to testify on its behalf.

The Board may summarily suspend the registration of any nonresident pharmacy without a hearing, simultaneously with the institution of proceedings for a hearing, if it finds that there is a substantial danger to the public health or safety that warrants such action. The Board may meet by telephone conference call when summarily suspending the registration if a good faith effort to assemble a quorum of the Board has failed and, in the judgment of a majority of the members of the Board, the continued dispensing by the nonresident pharmacy constitutes a substantial danger to the public health or safety. Institution of proceedings for a hearing shall be provided simultaneously with the summary suspension. The hearing shall be scheduled within a reasonable time of the date of the summary suspension. The Board may consider other information concerning possible violations of Virginia law at a hearing, if reasonable notice is given to such nonresident pharmacy of the information.

A nonresident pharmacy with a suspended registration shall not ship, mail, or deliver any Schedule II through VI drugs into the Commonwealth unless reinstated by the Board.

The Board may refer complaints concerning nonresident pharmacies to the regulatory or licensing agency in the jurisdiction where the pharmacy is located. The Board may take other disciplinary action against a nonresident pharmacy in accordance with §§ 54.1-2400 and 54.1-3316 following notice and the opportunity for a hearing.

1990, c. 270; 2005, c. 115; 2007, c. 662; 2019, c. 138.

A. It is unlawful for any person or entity which is not registered under this article to (i) conduct the business of shipping, mailing, or otherwise delivering Schedule II through VI controlled substances into Virginia or (ii) advertise the availability for purchase of any Schedule II through VI controlled substances by any citizen of the Commonwealth. Further, it shall be unlawful for any person who is a resident of Virginia to advertise the pharmacy services of a nonresident pharmacy or compounding services of an outsourcing facility that has not registered with the Board, with the knowledge that the advertisement will or is likely to induce members of the public in the Commonwealth to use the pharmacy or outsourcing facility to obtain controlled substances.

B. Any controlled substance that is ordered or shipped in violation of any provision of this chapter, shall be considered as contraband and may be seized by any law-enforcement officer or any agent of the Board of Pharmacy.

1990, c. 270; 2005, c. 115; 2008, cc. 79, 618; 2015, c. 300.

A. Any outsourcing facility located outside the Commonwealth that ships, mails, or delivers in any manner Schedule II through VI drugs or devices into the Commonwealth shall be considered a nonresident outsourcing facility and shall be registered with the Board.

B. Applications for registration to act as a non-resident outsourcing facility shall be made on a form provided by the Board and signed by a pharmacist who is licensed as a pharmacist in Virginia and who is in full and actual charge of the outsourcing facility, is fully engaged in the compounding performed at the location stated on the application, and is fully responsible for the outsourcing facility's compliance with state and federal law and regulations. Such application shall be accompanied by a fee determined by the Board in regulation. All registrations shall expire annually on a date determined by the Board in regulation.

C. As a prerequisite to registering or renewing a registration with the Board, the outsourcing facility shall (i) register as an outsourcing facility with the U.S. Secretary of Health and Human Services in accordance with 21 U.S.C. § 353b and (ii) submit a copy of a current inspection report resulting from an inspection conducted by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration that indicates compliance with the requirements of state and federal law and regulations, including all applicable guidance documents and Current Good Manufacturing Practices published by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

The inspection report required pursuant to clause (ii) shall be deemed current for the purposes of this section if the inspection was conducted (a) no more than one year prior to the date of submission of an application for registration with the Board or (b) no more than two years prior to the date of submission of an application for renewal of a registration with the Board. However, if the outsourcing facility has not been inspected by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration within the required period, the Board may accept an inspection report or other documentation from another entity that is satisfactory to the Board, or the Board may cause an inspection to be conducted by its duly authorized agent and may charge an inspection fee in an amount sufficient to cover the costs of the inspection.

D. A nonresident outsourcing facility shall not engage in compounding of drug products to be dispensed pursuant to a valid prescription for a specific patient without first obtaining a registration to operate a nonresident pharmacy. The nonresident pharmacy shall comply with all state and federal laws, regulations, and requirements except § 54.1-3410.2.

2015, c. 300.

Article 3. Wholesale Distributors and Medical Equipment Suppliers.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person to engage in the wholesale distribution of prescription drugs in the Commonwealth without a valid unrevoked license issued by the Board. The applicant for licensure as a wholesale distributor, as defined in § 54.1-3401, in the Commonwealth shall apply to the Board for a license, using such forms as the Board may furnish; renew such license using such forms as the Board may furnish, if granted, annually on a date determined by the Board in regulation; notify the Board within 30 days of any substantive change in the information reported on the application form previously submitted to the Board; and remit a fee as determined by the Board.

B. A wholesale distributor that ceases distribution of Schedule II through V drugs to a pharmacy, licensed physician dispenser, or licensed physician dispensing facility located in the Commonwealth due to suspicious orders of controlled substances shall notify the Board within five days of the cessation. For the purposes of this section, "suspicious orders of controlled substances" means, relative to the pharmacy's, licensed physician dispenser's, or licensed physician dispensing facility's order history and the order history of similarly situated pharmacies, licensed physician dispensers, or licensed physician dispensing facilities, (i) orders of unusual size, (ii) orders deviating substantially from a normal pattern, and (iii) orders of unusual frequency.

C. A wholesale distributor shall be immune from civil liability for giving notice in accordance with subsection B unless the notice was given in bad faith or with malicious intent.

D. The Board shall not impose any disciplinary or enforcement action against any licensee or permit holder solely on the basis of a notice received from a wholesale distributor pursuant to subsection B.

E. The Board may promulgate such regulations relating to the storage, handling, and distribution of prescription drugs by wholesale distributors as it deems necessary to implement this section, to prevent diversion of prescription drugs, and to protect the public.

F. Every wholesale distributor shall comply with federal requirements for an electronic, interoperable system to identify, trace, and verify prescription drugs as they are distributed.

1970, c. 650, § 54-524.44; 1976, c. 614; 1980, c. 288; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 737; 2008, c. 320; 2015, c. 299; 2016, c. 221.

A. Any person located outside the Commonwealth who engages in the wholesale distribution of prescription drugs into the Commonwealth shall be registered with the Board. The applicant for registration as a nonresident wholesale distributor shall apply to the Board using such forms as the Board may furnish; renew such registration, if granted, using such forms as the Board may furnish, annually on a date determined by the Board in regulation; notify the Board within 30 days of any substantive change in the information previously submitted to the Board; and remit a fee, which shall be the fee specified for wholesale distributors located within the Commonwealth.

B. The nonresident wholesale distributor shall at all times maintain a valid, unexpired license, permit, or registration in the state in which it is located and shall furnish proof of such upon application and at each renewal.

C. Records of prescription drugs distributed into the Commonwealth shall be maintained in such a manner that they are readily retrievable from records of distributions into other jurisdictions and shall be provided to the Board, its authorized agent, or any agent designated by the Superintendent of State Police upon request within seven days of receipt of such request.

D. A nonresident wholesale distributor that ceases distribution of Schedule II through V drugs to a pharmacy, licensed physician dispenser, or licensed physician dispensing facility located in the Commonwealth due to suspicious orders of controlled substances shall notify the Board within five days of the cessation. For the purposes of this section, "suspicious orders of controlled substances" means, relative to the pharmacy's, licensed physician dispenser's, or licensed physician dispensing facility's order history and the order history of similarly situated pharmacies, licensed physician dispensers, or licensed physician dispensing facilities, (i) orders of unusual size, (ii) orders deviating substantially from a normal pattern, and (iii) orders of unusual frequency.

E. A nonresident wholesale distributor shall be immune from civil liability for giving notice in accordance with subsection D unless the notice was given in bad faith or with malicious intent.

F. The Board shall not impose any disciplinary or enforcement action against any licensee or permit holder solely on the basis of a notice received from a nonresident wholesale distributor pursuant to subsection D.

G. This section shall not apply to persons who distribute prescription drugs directly to a licensed wholesale distributor located within the Commonwealth.

H. Every nonresident wholesale distributor shall comply with federal requirements for an electronic, interoperable system to identify, trace, and verify prescription drugs as they are distributed.

1994, c. 300; 2008, c. 320; 2015, c. 299; 2016, c. 221.

A. A permitted pharmacy may engage in wholesale distributions of small quantities of prescription drugs without being licensed as wholesale distributors when such wholesale distributions are in compliance with federal law as follows: such wholesale distributions of controlled substances do not exceed five percent of the gross annual sales of prescription drugs by the relevant permitted pharmacy or such wholesale distributions of Schedules II through V controlled substances do not exceed five percent of the total dosage units of the Schedule II through V controlled substances dispensed annually by the relevant permitted pharmacy.

B. A permitted medical equipment supplier may engage in wholesale distributions of small quantities of oxygen without being licensed as a wholesale distributor when such wholesale distributions are in compliance with federal law and such distributions do not exceed five percent of the gross annual sales of oxygen by the relevant permitted medical equipment supplier.

2003, c. 509; 2004, c. 854.

A. The Board may deny, revoke, suspend, or take other disciplinary actions against a wholesale distributor license, nonresident wholesale distributor registration, third-party logistics provider permit, nonresident third-party logistics provider registration, manufacturer permit, nonresident manufacturer permit, or nonresident warehouser registration as provided for in § 54.1-3316 or the following:

1. Any conviction of the applicant, licensee, or registrant under federal or state laws relating to controlled substances, including, but not limited to, drug samples and wholesale or retail prescription drug distribution;

2. Violations of licensing requirements under previously held licenses;

3. Failure to maintain and make available to the Board or to federal regulatory officials those records required to be maintained by wholesale distributors of prescription drugs; or

4. Violations of the minimum requirements for qualifications, personnel, storage, and handling of prescription drugs and maintenance of prescription drug records as set forth in the federal Drug Supply Chain Security Act of 2013, Title II of P. L. 113-54, and the requirements of Chapter 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations.

B. Wholesale drug distributors, nonresident wholesale drug distributors, third-party logistics providers, nonresident third-party logistics providers, manufacturers, nonresident manufacturers, and nonresident warehousers shall allow the Board or its authorized agents to enter and inspect, at reasonable times and in a reasonable manner, their premises and delivery vehicles, and to audit their records and written operating procedures. Such agents shall be required to show appropriate identification prior to being permitted access to wholesale drug distributors' premises and delivery vehicles.

1992, c. 737; 1994, c. 300; 2007, c. 662; 2016, c. 221; 2018, c. 96.

A. Unless otherwise authorized by this chapter or Chapter 33 (§ 54.1-3300 et seq.) of this title, it shall be unlawful for any person to act as a medical equipment supplier, as defined in § 54.1-3401, in this Commonwealth without a valid unrevoked permit issued by the Board. The applicant for a permit to act as a medical equipment supplier in this Commonwealth shall apply to the Board for a permit, using such form as the Board may furnish; renew such permit, if granted, annually on a date determined by the Board in regulation; and remit a fee as determined by the Board.

B. Prescription drugs received, stored, and distributed by authority of this section shall be limited to those Schedule VI controlled substances with no medicinal properties which are used for the operation and cleaning of medical equipment, solutions for peritoneal dialysis, and sterile water and saline for irrigation.

C. Distribution of any Schedule VI drug or device or of any hypodermic needle or syringe, or medicinal oxygen by authority of this section is limited to delivery to the ultimate user upon lawful order by a prescriber authorized to prescribe such drugs and devices.

D. The Board may promulgate such regulations relating to the storage, handling, and distribution of prescription drugs, devices and controlled paraphernalia by medical equipment suppliers as it deems necessary to implement this section, to prevent diversion of prescription drugs and devices and controlled paraphernalia, and to protect the public.

1992, c. 737; 1996, c. 408; 1997, c. 677; 2008, c. 320; 2013, c. 504.

Medical equipment suppliers shall allow the Board or its authorized agents to enter and inspect, at reasonable times and in a reasonable manner, their premises and delivery vehicles, and to audit their records and written operating procedures.

1992, c. 737; 2007, c. 662.

A. Any person located outside the Commonwealth other than a nonresident pharmacy registered pursuant to § 54.1-3434.1 that ships, mails, or delivers to a consumer in the Commonwealth any hypodermic syringes or needles, medicinal oxygen, Schedule VI controlled device, those Schedule VI controlled substances with no medicinal properties that are used for the operation and cleaning of medical equipment, sterile water and saline for irrigation, or solutions for peritoneal dialysis pursuant to a lawful order of a prescriber shall be registered with the Board as a nonresident medical equipment supplier. Registration as a nonresident medical equipment supplier shall be renewed by March 1 of each year. Applicants for registration or renewal of a registration shall submit a fee specified by the Board in regulations at the time of registration or renewal. A nonresident medical equipment supplier registered in accordance with this section shall notify the Board within 30 days of any substantive change in the information previously submitted to the Board.

B. The nonresident medical equipment supplier shall at all times maintain a valid, unexpired license, permit, or registration in the state in which it is located, if required by the resident state, and shall furnish proof of such license, permit, or registration upon application for registration or renewal. If the resident state does not require a license, permit, or registration to engage in direct consumer supply of the medical equipment described in subsection A, the applicant shall furnish proof that it meets the minimum statutory and regulatory requirements for medical equipment suppliers in the Commonwealth.

C. Records of distribution of medical equipment described in subsection A into the Commonwealth shall be maintained in such a manner that they are readily retrievable from records of distribution into other jurisdictions and shall be provided to the Board, its authorized agent, or any agent designated by the Superintendent of State Police upon request within seven days of receipt of such request.

2016, c. 88.

A. Unless otherwise authorized by this chapter or Chapter 33 (§ 54.1-3300 et seq.) of this title, it shall be unlawful for any person to act as a warehouser, as defined in § 54.1-3401, in this Commonwealth without a valid unrevoked permit issued by the Board. The applicant for a permit to act as a warehouser in this Commonwealth shall apply to the Board for a permit, using such form as the Board may furnish; renew such permit, if granted, annually on a date determined by the Board in regulation; and remit a fee as determined by the Board.

B. The Board may promulgate such regulations relating to the storage, handling, and distribution of prescription drugs and devices by warehousers as it deems necessary to implement this section, to prevent diversion of prescription drugs and devices, and to protect the public.

C. Warehousers shall allow the Board or its authorized agents to enter and inspect, at reasonable times and in a reasonable manner, their premises and delivery vehicles, and to audit their records and written operating procedures. Such agents shall be required to show appropriate identification prior to being permitted access to warehousers' premises and delivery vehicles.

1992, c. 737; 2008, c. 320.

A. Any warehouser located outside the Commonwealth that ships prescription drugs or devices into the Commonwealth shall be registered with the Board. Such nonresident warehouser shall renew such registration annually on a date determined by the Board and shall notify the Board within 30 days of any substantive change in the information previously submitted.

B. The Board may promulgate such regulations relating to the storage, handling, and distribution of prescription drugs and devices by nonresident warehousers as it deems necessary to implement this section, to prevent diversion of prescription drugs and devices, and to protect the public.

C. The nonresident warehouser shall at all times maintain a valid, unexpired license, permit, or registration in the state in which it is located that authorizes the possession and distribution of such prescription drugs and devices and shall furnish proof of such upon application and at each renewal.

D. Records of prescription drugs and devices distributed into the Commonwealth shall be maintained in such a manner that they are readily retrievable from records of distributions into other jurisdictions and shall be provided to the Board, its authorized agent, or any agent designated by the Superintendent of State Police upon request within seven days of receipt of such request.

2018, c. 96.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person to operate as a third-party logistics provider in the Commonwealth without a valid, unrevoked permit issued by the Board. The third-party logistics provider shall renew such permit annually on a date determined by the Board in regulation and shall notify the Board within 30 days of any substantive change in the information reported on the application form previously submitted.

B. The Board shall adopt such regulations relating to the requirements to operate as a third-party logistics provider, including the storage, handling, and distribution of prescription drugs by third-party logistics providers, as it deems necessary to prevent diversion of prescription drugs and to protect the public.

2016, c. 221.

A. Any third-party logistics provider located outside the Commonwealth that ships prescription drugs or devices into the Commonwealth shall be registered with the Board. Such nonresident third-party logistics provider shall renew such registration annually on a date determined by the Board and shall notify the Board within 30 days of any substantive change in the information previously submitted.

B. The Board may promulgate such regulations relating to the storage, handling, and distribution of prescription drugs and devices by nonresident third-party logistics providers as it deems necessary to implement this section, to prevent diversion of prescription drugs and devices, and to protect the public.

C. The nonresident third-party logistics provider shall at all times maintain a valid, unexpired license, permit, or registration in the state in which it is located or current licensure as a third-party logistics provider with the FDA and shall furnish proof of such upon application and at each renewal.

D. Records of prescription drugs and devices distributed into the Commonwealth shall be maintained in such a manner that they are readily retrievable from records of distributions into other jurisdictions and shall be provided to the Board, its authorized agent, or any agent designated by the Superintendent of State Police upon request within seven days of receipt of such request.

2018, c. 96.

Repealed by Acts 2007, c. 662, cl. 2.

Repealed by Acts 1992, c. 737.

A. As used in this section:

"Brand-name drug" means a prescription drug approved under 21 U.S.C. § 355(b) or 42 U.S.C. § 262.

"Generic drug" means a prescription drug approved under 21 U.S.C. § 355(j).

"Nonprofit data services organization" has the same meaning as set forth in § 32.1-23.4.

"Pharmacy benefits manager" has the same meaning as set forth in § 38.2-3407.15:4.

"Wholesale acquisition cost" has the same meaning as set forth in 42 U.S.C. § 1395w-3a(c)(6)(B).

B. To ensure data that is useful, relevant, and not duplicative, the Department of Health may request wholesale distributors to report to the nonprofit organization with which the Department of Health has entered into a contract or agreement pursuant to § 32.1-23.4 the following information on the 25 costliest drugs in the Commonwealth upon a determination by the Department of Health that data received from health carriers, pharmacy benefits managers, and manufacturers is insufficient:

1. The wholesale acquisition cost that the wholesale distributor has negotiated directly with the manufacturer in the last calendar year, related to the 25 costliest drugs dispensed in the Commonwealth;

2. The wholesale acquisition cost that the wholesale distributor has negotiated directly with the manufacturer in the current calendar year for the 25 costliest drugs dispensed in the Commonwealth;

3. Aggregate total rebates, discounts, and price concessions negotiated directly with the manufacturer for the 25 costliest drugs dispensed in the Commonwealth in the last calendar year, for business in the Commonwealth, in total; and

4. Aggregate total discounts, dispensing fees, and other fees negotiated in the last calendar year with pharmacies, for the 25 costliest drugs dispensed in the Commonwealth, in total.

C. A report submitted by a wholesale distributor pursuant to subsection B shall not disclose the identity of a specific wholesale distributor, the price charged for a specific prescription drug or class of prescription drugs, or the amount of any price concession, rebate, or fee provided for a specific prescription drug or class of prescription drugs.

2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 304.

Article 4. Permitting of Manufacturers.

It shall be lawful to manufacture, make, produce, pack, package, repackage, relabel or prepare any drug not controlled by Schedule I after first obtaining the appropriate permit from the Board. Such permits shall be subject to the Board's regulations on sanitation, equipment, and safeguards against diversion, and shall allow the distribution of the drug manufactured, made, produced, packed, packaged, repackaged, relabeled, or prepared to anyone other than the end user without the need to obtain a wholesale distributor permit. This provision shall not apply to manufacturers or packers of medicated feeds who manufacture or package no other drugs.

Code 1950, § 54-448; 1958, c. 551; 1970, c. 650, § 54-524.36; 1988, c. 765; 1996, cc. 37, 407; 2016, c. 221.

The Board may issue a limited manufacturing permit for the purpose of repackaging drugs, upon such terms and conditions approved by the Board, to the pharmacy directly operated by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services and which serves clients of the community services boards.

1997, c. 218; 2009, cc. 813, 840.

No drugs or proprietary medicines shall be manufactured, made, produced, packed, packaged, repackaged, relabeled or prepared within this Commonwealth, except under the personal and immediate supervision of a pharmacist or such other person as may be approved by the Board of Pharmacy after an investigation and a determination by the Board that they are qualified by scientific or technical training to perform such duties or supervision as may be necessary to protect the public health and safety. This provision shall not apply to manufacturers or packers of medicated feeds who manufacture or pack no other drugs. Medicated feeds are hereby defined as products obtained by mixing a commercial feed and a drug.

Code 1950, § 54-447; 1958, c. 551; 1970, c. 650, § 54-524.37; 1976, c. 614; 1988, c. 765; 1996, cc. 37, 407.

Every person desiring to manufacture any drug or proprietary medicines shall annually apply to the Board for a nonrestricted manufacturing permit. The application shall be accompanied by the required fee. Separate applications shall be made and separate permits issued for each specific place of manufacturing. Each such permit shall expire annually on a date determined by the Board in regulation.

1970, c. 650, § 54-524.40; 1972, c. 798; 1976, c. 614; 1980, c. 288; 1988, c. 765; 1996, cc. 37, 407; 2008, c. 320.

No person shall be granted a nonrestricted permit as a manufacturer unless he is of good moral character and properly equipped as to land, buildings, equipment and safeguards against diversion to carry out the functions of a manufacturer with due regard to the protection of the public safety.

1970, c. 650, § 54-524.41; 1976, c. 614; 1988, c. 765.

Every person desiring to manufacture a proprietary medicine or to repackage medical gases shall apply to the Board for a restricted manufacturing permit. The application shall be accompanied by the required fee. Separate applications shall be made and separate permits issued for each separate place of manufacturing.

1976, c. 614, § 54-524.41:1; 1980, c. 288; 1988, c. 765; 1996, cc. 37, 407.

No person shall be granted a restricted manufacturing permit as a manufacturer unless such person is properly equipped as to buildings and equipment to carry out the functions of a manufacturer with due regard to the protection of the public health. The Board shall promulgate regulations in order to carry out the provisions of this section.

1976, c. 614, § 54-524.41:2; 1988, c. 765.

A. Any manufacturer located outside the Commonwealth who ships prescription drugs into the Commonwealth shall be registered with the Board. The nonresident manufacturer shall renew such registration annually on a date determined by the Board in regulation and shall notify the Board within 30 days of any substantive change in the information previously submitted.

B. The nonresident manufacturer shall at all times maintain a valid, unexpired license, permit, or registration in the state in which it is located or current registration as a manufacturer or repackager with the federal Food and Drug Administration and shall furnish proof of such upon application and at each renewal.

C. Records of prescription drugs distributed into the Commonwealth shall be maintained in such a manner that they are readily retrievable from records of shipments into other jurisdictions and shall be provided to the Board, its authorized agent, or any agent designated by the Superintendent of the Department of State Police upon request within seven days of receipt of such request.

2016, c. 221.

A. As used in this section:

"Biosimilar" means a drug that is produced or distributed pursuant to a biologics license application approved under 42 U.S.C. § 262(k)(3).

"Brand-name drug" means a prescription drug approved under 21 U.S.C. § 355(b) or 42 U.S.C. § 262.

"Generic drug" means a prescription drug approved under 21 U.S.C. § 355(j) or 42 U.S.C. 262(k).

"New prescription drug" means a drug or biological product receiving initial approval under an original new drug application pursuant to 21 U.S.C. § 355(b) or under a biologics license application under 42 U.S.C. § 262.

"Nonprofit data services organization" has the same meaning as set forth in § 32.1-23.4.

"Pharmacy benefits manager" has the same meaning as set forth in § 38.2-3407.15:4.

"Wholesale acquisition cost" has the same meaning as set forth in 42 U.S.C. § 1395w-3a(c)(6)(B).

B. Every manufacturer shall report annually by April 1 to the nonprofit organization with which the Department of Health has entered into a contract or agreement pursuant to § 32.1-23.4, for each (i) brand-name drug and biologic other than a biosimilar with a wholesale acquisition cost of $100 or more for a 30-day supply or a single course of treatment and any increase of 15 percent or more in the wholesale acquisition cost of such brand-name drug or biologic over the preceding calendar year; (ii) biosimilar with an initial wholesale acquisition cost that is not at least 15 percent less than the wholesale acquisition cost of the referenced brand biologic at the time the biosimilar is launched; and (iii) generic drug with a price increase that results in an increase in the wholesale acquisition cost of such generic drug that is equal to 200 percent or more during the preceding 12-month period, when the wholesale acquisition cost of such generic drug is equal to or greater than $100, annually adjusted by the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers, for a 30-day supply, with such increase defined as the difference between the wholesale acquisition cost of the generic drug after such increase and the average wholesale acquisition cost of such generic drug during the previous 12 months, the following information:

1. The name of the prescription drug;

2. Whether the drug is a brand name or generic;

3. The effective date of the change in wholesale acquisition cost;

4. Aggregate, company-level research and development costs for the most recent year for which final audit data is available;

5. The name of each of the manufacturer's new prescription drugs approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration within the previous three calendar years;

6. The name of each of the manufacturer's prescription drugs that, within the previous three calendar years, became subject to generic competition and for which there is a therapeutically equivalent generic version; and

7. A concise statement regarding the factor or factors that caused the increase in wholesale acquisition cost.

C. A manufacturer's obligations pursuant to this section shall be fully satisfied by the submission to the nonprofit data services organization with which the Department of Health has entered into a contract pursuant to § 32.1-23.4 of information and data that a manufacturer includes in the manufacturer's annual consolidation report on Securities and Exchange Commission Form 10-K or any other public disclosure.

2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 304.

Article 4.1. Expanded Access to Investigational Drugs, Biological Products, and Devices.

As used in this article, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Investigational drug, biological product, or device" means a drug, biological product, or device that has successfully completed Phase I of a clinical trial but has not been approved for general use by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration and remains under investigation in a clinical trial.

"Terminal condition" means a condition caused by injury, disease, or illness from which, to a reasonable degree of medical probability, a patient cannot recover and (i) the patient's death is imminent or (ii) the patient is in a persistent vegetative state.

"Treating physician" means a physician who is providing or has previously provided medical treatment or evaluation to and has or previously had an ongoing treatment relationship with the person.

2015, cc. 655, 656.

A. A person shall be eligible for expanded access to investigational drugs, biological products, or devices if:

1. He has a terminal condition, attested to by his treating physician and confirmed by a second physician not previously involved in the treatment of the person who has conducted an independent examination of the person;

2. He has, in consultation with his treating physician, considered all other treatment options currently approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration and the treating physician has determined that no reasonable opportunity exists for him to participate in an ongoing clinical trial for his terminal condition;

3. The potential benefits of use of the investigational drug, biological product, or device to treat his terminal condition are greater than the potential risks of the use of the investigational drug, biological product, or device to treat his terminal condition;

4. He has received a recommendation from his treating physician for use of an investigational drug, biological product, or device for treatment of his terminal condition; and

5. He or, if he is incapable of making an informed decision, his legally authorized representative has given written informed consent to use of the investigational drug, biological product, or device for treatment of his terminal condition or, if the person is a minor or lacks capacity to provide informed consent, his parent or legal guardian has given written informed consent to the use of the investigational drug, biological product, or device for treatment of his terminal condition.

Documentation indicating that the person meets the criteria for eligibility for expanded access to investigational drugs, biological products, or devices shall be provided by the person's treating physician and shall be included in the person's medical record.

B. Written informed consent to use of an investigational drug, biological product, or device shall include:

1. An explanation of the currently approved products and treatments for the person's terminal condition;

2. A statement that the person has, in consultation with his treating physician, considered all other treatment options currently approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration and the treating physician has determined that no reasonable opportunity exists for the person to participate in an ongoing clinical trial for his terminal condition;

3. An explanation of the specific investigational drug, biological product, or device proposed for treatment of the person's terminal condition;

4. A description of possible outcomes resulting from use of the investigational drug, biological product, or device to treat the person's terminal condition, including a statement that new, unanticipated, different, or worse symptoms might result from and death could be hastened by the proposed treatment, based on the treating physician's knowledge of the proposed treatment in conjunction with an awareness of the person's terminal condition;

5. A statement that the person may be required to pay any costs associated with use of the investigational drug, biological product, or device; and

6. A statement that the person or, if the person is a minor or lacks capacity to provide informed consent, his parent or legal guardian consents to the use of the investigational drug, biological product, or device for treatment of his terminal condition.

2015, cc. 655, 656.

A. A manufacturer of an investigational drug, biological product, or device may make such investigational drug, biological product, or device available to a person who meets the criteria set forth in subsection A of § 54.1-3442.2; however, nothing in this article shall require a manufacturer of an investigational drug, biological product, or device to make such investigational drug, biological product, or device available to such person.

B. A manufacturer that makes an investigational drug, biological product, or device available to a person who meets the criteria set forth in subsection A of § 54.1-3442.2 may provide the investigational drug, biological product, or device to the person free of charge or may require the person to pay the costs of, or the costs associated with, the manufacture of the investigational drug, biological product, or device.

C. An insurer proposing to issue individual or group accident and sickness insurance policies providing hospital, medical and surgical, or major medical coverage on an expense-incurred basis, a corporation providing individual or group accident and sickness subscription contracts, or a health maintenance organization providing a health care plan for health care services may provide coverage for costs related to treatment of a person's terminal condition with an investigational drug, biological product, or device; however, nothing in this article shall require an insurer proposing to issue individual or group accident and sickness insurance policies providing hospital, medical and surgical, or major medical coverage on an expense-incurred basis, a corporation providing individual or group accident and sickness subscription contracts, or a health maintenance organization providing a health care plan for health care services to provide coverage for costs related to treatment of a person's terminal condition with an investigational drug, biological product, or device.

2015, cc. 655, 656.

A. Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, a health care provider as defined in § 8.01-581.1 who recommends an investigational drug, biological product, or device to a person who meets the criteria set forth in subsection A of § 54.1-3442.2 shall be immune from civil liability for any adverse action, condition, or other outcome resulting from the person's use of the investigational drug, biological product, or device.

B. Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, a manufacturer, distributor, administrator, health care provider as defined in § 8.01-581.1, sponsor, or physician who manufactures, supplies, distributes, administers, prescribes, or recommends an investigational drug, biological product, or device to a person who meets the criteria set forth in § 54.1-3442.2 shall be immune from suit and liability caused by, arising out of, or relating to the design, development, clinical testing and investigation, manufacture, labeling, distribution, sale, purchase, donation, dispensing, prescription, recommendation, administration, efficacy, or use of such investigational drug, biological product, or device made available to such person.

C. No claim or cause of action against a manufacturer, distributor, administrator, health care provider as defined in § 8.01-581.1, sponsor, or physician who manufactures, supplies, distributes, administers, prescribes, or recommends an investigational drug, biological product, or device to a person who meets the criteria set forth in § 54.1-3442.2 shall exist in any state court for claims of property, personal injury, or death caused by, arising out of, or relating to the design, development, clinical testing and investigation, manufacture, labeling, distribution, sale, purchase, donation, dispensing, prescription, recommendation, administration, efficacy, or use of such investigational drug, biological product, or device made available to such person.

D. No health care provider as defined in § 8.01-581.1 who recommends, prescribes, administers, distributes, or supplies an investigational drug, biological product, or device to a person who meets the criteria set forth in § 54.1-3442.2 shall be deemed to have engaged in unprofessional conduct, or shall be adversely affected in any decision relating to licensure, on such grounds.

E. Nothing in this article shall require a person to violate or act in contravention of any federal or state law as such law relates to the prescribing, dispensing, administration, or use of an investigational drug, biological product, or device.

2015, cc. 655, 656.

Article 4.2. Permitting of Pharmaceutical Processors to Produce and Dispense Cannabis Products.

As used in this article:

"Botanical cannabis," "cannabis oil," "cannabis product," "designated caregiver facility," "practitioner," "registered agent," and "usable cannabis" have the same meanings as specified in § 54.1-3408.3.

"Cannabis dispensing facility" means a facility that (i) has obtained a permit from the Board pursuant to § 54.1-3442.6; (ii) is owned, at least in part, by a pharmaceutical processor; and (iii) dispenses cannabis products produced by a pharmaceutical processor to a patient, his registered agent, or, if such patient is a minor or a vulnerable adult as defined in § 18.2-369, such patient's parent or legal guardian.

"Pharmaceutical processor" means a facility that (i) has obtained a permit from the Board pursuant to § 54.1-3442.6 and (ii) cultivates Cannabis plants intended only for the production of cannabis oil, botanical cannabis, and usable cannabis, produces cannabis products, and dispenses cannabis products to a patient pursuant to a written certification, his registered agent, or, if such patient is a minor or a vulnerable adult as defined in § 18.2-369, such patient's parent or legal guardian.

2017, c. 613; 2018, cc. 246, 809; 2019, c. 690; 2020, c. 1278; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 205, 227, 228; 2022, cc. 259, 391, 392, 642; 2023, cc. 760, 780.

A. No person shall operate a pharmaceutical processor or a cannabis dispensing facility without first obtaining a permit from the Board. The application for such permit shall be made on a form provided by the Board and signed by a pharmacist who will be in full and actual charge of the pharmaceutical processor's dispensing area or cannabis dispensing facility. The Board shall establish an application fee and other general requirements for such application.

B. Each permit shall expire annually on a date determined by the Board in regulation. The number of permits that the Board may issue or renew in any year is limited to one pharmaceutical processor and up to five cannabis dispensing facilities for each health service area established by the Board of Health. Permits shall be displayed in a conspicuous place on the premises of the pharmaceutical processor and cannabis dispensing facility.

C. The Board shall adopt regulations establishing health, safety, and security requirements for pharmaceutical processors and cannabis dispensing facilities. Such regulations shall include requirements for (i) physical standards; (ii) location restrictions; (iii) security systems and controls; (iv) minimum equipment and resources; (v) recordkeeping; (vi) labeling and packaging; (vii) routine inspections no more frequently than once annually; (viii) processes for safely and securely dispensing and delivering in person cannabis products to a patient, his registered agent, or, if such patient is a minor or a vulnerable adult as defined in § 18.2-369, such patient's parent or legal guardian; (ix) dosage limitations for cannabis products that provide that each dispensed dose of a cannabis product not exceed 10 milligrams of total tetrahydrocannabinol, except as permitted under § 54.1-3442.7:2; (x) a process for the wholesale distribution of and the transfer of usable cannabis, botanical cannabis, cannabis oil, and cannabis products between pharmaceutical processors, between a pharmaceutical processor and a cannabis dispensing facility, and between cannabis dispensing facilities; (xi) an allowance for the sale of devices for administration of dispensed cannabis products and hemp-based CBD products that meet the applicable standards set forth in state and federal law, including the laboratory testing standards set forth in subsection M; (xii) an allowance for the use and distribution of inert product samples containing no cannabinoids for patient demonstration exclusively at the pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility, and not for further distribution or sale, without the need for a written certification; (xiii) a process for acquiring industrial hemp extracts and formulating such extracts into cannabis products; and (xiv) an allowance for the advertising and promotion of the pharmaceutical processor's products and operations, which shall not limit the pharmaceutical processor from the provision of educational material to practitioners who issue written certifications and patients. The Board shall also adopt regulations for pharmaceutical processors that include requirements for (a) processes for safely and securely cultivating Cannabis plants intended for producing cannabis products, (b) the disposal of agricultural waste, and (c) a process for registering cannabis products.

D. The Board shall require that, after processing and before dispensing any cannabis products, a pharmaceutical processor shall make a sample available from each batch of cannabis product for testing by an independent laboratory located in Virginia meeting Board requirements. A valid sample size for testing shall be determined by each laboratory and may vary due to sample matrix, analytical method, and laboratory-specific procedures. A minimum sample size of 0.5 percent of individual units for dispensing or distribution from each homogenized batch of cannabis oil is required to achieve a representative cannabis oil sample for analysis. A minimum sample size, to be determined by the certified testing laboratory, from each batch of botanical cannabis is required to achieve a representative botanical cannabis sample for analysis. Botanical cannabis products shall only be tested for the following: total cannabidiol (CBD); total tetrahydrocannabinol (THC); terpenes; pesticide chemical residue; heavy metals; mycotoxins; moisture; and microbiological contaminants. Testing thresholds shall be consistent with generally accepted cannabis industry thresholds. The pharmaceutical processor may remediate botanical cannabis or cannabis oil that fails any quality testing standard except pesticides. Following remediation, all remediated botanical cannabis or cannabis oil shall be subject to laboratory testing, which shall not be more stringent than initial testing prior to remediation. Remediated botanical cannabis or cannabis oil that passes such quality testing may be packaged and labeled. If a batch of botanical cannabis fails retesting after remediation, it shall be considered usable cannabis and may be processed into cannabis oil. Stability testing shall not be required for any cannabis product with an expiration date assigned by the pharmaceutical processor of six months or less from the date of the cannabis product registration approval. Stability testing required for assignment of an expiration date longer than six months shall be limited to microbial testing, on a pass/fail basis, and potency testing, on a 15 percent deviation basis, of total THC and total CBD. No cannabis product shall have an expiration date longer than six months from the date of the cannabis product registration approval unless supported by stability testing.

E. A laboratory testing samples for a pharmaceutical processor shall obtain a controlled substances registration certificate pursuant to § 54.1-3423 and shall comply with quality standards established by the Board in regulation.

F. Every pharmaceutical processor's dispensing area or cannabis dispensing facility shall be under the personal supervision of a licensed pharmacist on the premises of the pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility unless all cannabis products are contained in a vault or other similar container to which only the pharmacist has access controls. The pharmaceutical processor shall ensure that security measures are adequate to protect the cannabis from diversion at all times, and the pharmacist-in-charge shall have concurrent responsibility for preventing diversion from the dispensing area.

Every pharmaceutical processor shall designate a person who shall have oversight of the cultivation and production areas of the pharmaceutical processor and shall provide such information to the Board. The Board shall direct all communications related to enforcement of requirements related to cultivation and production of cannabis and cannabis products by the pharmaceutical processor to such designated person.

G. The Board shall require the material owners of an applicant for a pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility permit to submit to fingerprinting and provide personal descriptive information to be forwarded along with his fingerprints through the Central Criminal Records Exchange to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the purpose of obtaining criminal history record information regarding the applicant's material owners. The cost of fingerprinting and the criminal history record search shall be paid by the applicant. The Central Criminal Records Exchange shall forward the results of the criminal history background check to the Board or its designee, which shall be a governmental entity. A pharmaceutical processor shall maintain evidence of criminal background checks for all employees and delivery agents of the pharmaceutical processor. Criminal background checks of employees and delivery agents may be conducted by any service sufficient to disclose any federal and state criminal convictions.

H. In addition to other employees authorized by the Board, a pharmaceutical processor may employ individuals who may have less than two years of experience (i) to perform cultivation-related duties under the supervision of an individual who has received a degree in a field related to the cultivation of plants or a certification recognized by the Board or who has at least two years of experience cultivating plants, (ii) to perform extraction-related duties under the supervision of an individual who has a degree in chemistry or pharmacology or at least two years of experience extracting chemicals from plants, and (iii) to perform duties at the pharmaceutical processor and cannabis dispensing facility upon certification as a pharmacy technician.

I. A pharmaceutical processor to whom a permit has been issued by the Board may (i) establish up to five cannabis dispensing facilities, subject to the permit requirement set forth in subsection B, for the dispensing of cannabis products that have been cultivated and produced on the premises of a pharmaceutical processor permitted by the Board and (ii) establish, if authorized by the Board, one additional location at which the pharmaceutical processor may cultivate cannabis plants. Each cannabis dispensing facility and the additional cultivation location shall be located within the same health service area as the pharmaceutical processor.

J. No person who has been convicted of a felony under the laws of the Commonwealth or another jurisdiction within the last five years shall be employed by or act as an agent of a pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility.

K. Every pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility shall adopt policies for pre-employment drug screening and regular, ongoing, random drug screening of employees.

L. A pharmacist at the pharmaceutical processor's dispensing area and the cannabis dispensing facility shall determine the number of pharmacy interns, pharmacy technicians, and pharmacy technician trainees who can be safely and competently supervised at one time; however, no pharmacist shall supervise more than six persons performing the duties of a pharmacy technician at one time in the pharmaceutical processor's dispensing area or cannabis dispensing facility.

M. A pharmaceutical processor may acquire from a registered industrial hemp handler or processor industrial hemp extracts that (i) are grown and processed in Virginia in compliance with state or federal law and (ii) notwithstanding the tetrahydrocannabinol limits set forth in the definition of "industrial hemp extract" in § 3.2-5145.1, contain a total tetrahydrocannabinol concentration of no greater than 0.3 percent. A pharmaceutical processor may process and formulate such extracts into an allowable dosage of cannabis product. Industrial hemp extracts acquired and formulated by a pharmaceutical processor are subject to the same third-party testing requirements that may apply to cannabis plant extract. Testing shall be performed by a laboratory located in Virginia and in compliance with state law governing the testing of cannabis products. The industrial hemp handler or processor shall provide such third-party testing results to the pharmaceutical processor before industrial hemp extracts may be acquired.

N. Product labels for all cannabis products and botanical cannabis shall be complete, accurate, easily discernable, and uniform among different products and brands. Pharmaceutical processors shall affix to all cannabis products and botanical cannabis a label, which shall also be accessible on the pharmaceutical processor's website, that includes:

1. The product name;

2. All active and inactive ingredients, including cannabinoids, terpenes, additives, preservatives, flavorings, sweeteners, and carrier oils;

3. The total percentage and milligrams of tetrahydrocannabinol and cannabidiol included in the product and the number of milligrams of tetrahydrocannabinol and cannabidiol in each serving;

4. The amount of product that constitutes a single serving and the amount recommended for use by the practitioner or dispensing pharmacist;

5. Information regarding the product's purpose and detailed usage directions;

6. Child and safety warnings in a conspicuous font; and

7. Such other information required by the Board.

O. A pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility shall maintain an adequate supply of cannabis products that (i) contain cannabidiol as their primary cannabinoid and (ii) have low levels of or no tetrahydrocannabinol.

P. With the exception of § 2.2-4031, neither the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) nor public participation guidelines adopted pursuant thereto shall apply to the adoption of any regulation pursuant to this section. Prior to adopting any regulation pursuant to this section, the Board of Pharmacy shall publish a notice of opportunity to comment in the Virginia Register of Regulations and post the action on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall. Such notice of opportunity to comment shall contain (i) a summary of the proposed regulation; (ii) the text of the proposed regulation; and (iii) the name, address, and telephone number of the agency contact person responsible for receiving public comments. Such notice shall be made at least 60 days in advance of the last date prescribed in such notice for submittals of public comment. The legislative review provisions of subsections A and B of § 2.2-4014 shall apply to the promulgation or final adoption process for regulations pursuant to this section. The Board of Pharmacy shall consider and keep on file all public comments received for any regulation adopted pursuant to this section.

2017, c. 613; 2018, c. 567; 2019, cc. 417, 681, 690; 2020, cc. 831, 928, 944, 1278; 2021 Sp. Sess. I, cc. 205, 227, 228, 550, 551; 2022, cc. 259, 391, 392, 642; 2023, cc. 744, 760, 780, 794, 799, 812.

A. A pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility shall dispense or deliver cannabis products only in person to (i) a patient who is a Virginia resident or temporarily resides in Virginia and has been issued a valid written certification; (ii) such patient's registered agent; or (iii) if such patient is a minor or a vulnerable adult as defined in § 18.2-369, such patient's parent or legal guardian who is a Virginia resident or temporarily resides in Virginia. A companion may accompany a patient into a pharmaceutical processor's dispensing area or cannabis dispensing facility. Prior to the initial dispensing of cannabis products pursuant to each written certification, a pharmacist or pharmacy technician employed by the pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility shall make and maintain, on site or remotely by electronic means, for two years a paper or electronic copy of the written certification that provides an exact image of the document that is clearly legible; shall view, in person or by audiovisual means, a current photo identification of the patient, registered agent, parent, or legal guardian; and shall verify current board registration of the corresponding registered agent if applicable. Thereafter, an initial dispensing may be delivered to the patient, registered agent, parent, legal guardian, or designated caregiver facility. Prior to any subsequent dispensing of cannabis products pursuant to each written certification, an employee or delivery agent shall view a current photo identification of the patient, registered agent, parent, or legal guardian and the current board registration issued to the registered agent if applicable. No pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility shall dispense more than a 90-day supply, as determined by the dispensing pharmacist or certifying practitioner, for any patient during any 90-day period. A pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility may dispense less than a 90-day supply of a cannabis product for any patient during any 90-day period; however, a pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility may dispense more than one cannabis product to a patient at one time. No more than four ounces of botanical cannabis shall be dispensed for each 30-day period for which botanical cannabis is dispensed. In determining the appropriate amount of a cannabis product to be dispensed to a patient, a pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility shall consider all cannabis products dispensed to the patient and adjust the amount dispensed accordingly.

B. A pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility shall dispense only cannabis products produced on the premises of a pharmaceutical processor permitted by the Board or cannabis products that have been formulated with extracts from industrial hemp acquired by a pharmaceutical processor from a registered industrial hemp handler or processor pursuant to § 54.1-3442.6. A pharmaceutical processor may begin cultivation upon being issued a permit by the Board.

C. The Board shall report annually by December 1 to the Chairmen of the House Committee for Health, Welfare and Institutions and the Senate Committee on Education and Health on the operation of pharmaceutical processors and cannabis dispensing facilities issued a permit by the Board.

D. The concentration of total tetrahydrocannabinol in any cannabis product on site may be up to 15 percent greater than or less than the level of total tetrahydrocannabinol listed in the approved cannabis product registration. A pharmaceutical processor and cannabis dispensing facility shall ensure that such concentration in any cannabis product on site is within such range. A pharmaceutical processor producing cannabis products shall establish a stability testing schedule of cannabis products that have an expiration date longer than six months.

2017, c. 613; 2018, cc. 246, 567, 809; 2019, c. 690; 2020, cc. 730, 831, 928, 1278; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 205, 227, 228; 2022, cc. 259, 391, 392, 642; 2023, cc. 744, 760, 780, 794.

No agent or employee of a pharmaceutical processor or cannabis dispensing facility shall be prosecuted under Chapter 11 (§ 4.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 4.1 or § 18.2-248, 18.2-248.1, or 18.2-250 for possession or manufacture of marijuana or for possession, manufacture, or distribution of cannabis products, subject to any civil penalty, denied any right or privilege, or subject to any disciplinary action by a professional licensing board if such agent or employee (i) possessed or manufactured such marijuana for the purposes of producing cannabis products in accordance with the provisions of this article and Board regulations or (ii) possessed, manufactured, or distributed such cannabis products that are consistent with generally accepted cannabis industry standards in accordance with the provisions of this article and Board regulations.

2017, c. 613; 2020, cc. 764, 1278; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 227, 228, 550, 551.

Article 5. Standards and Schedules.

A. The Board shall administer this article and may add substances to or deschedule or reschedule all substances enumerated in the schedules in this article pursuant to the procedures of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.). In making a determination regarding a substance, the Board shall consider the following:

1. The actual or relative potential for abuse;

2. The scientific evidence of its pharmacological effect, if known;

3. The state of current scientific knowledge regarding the substance;

4. The history and current pattern of abuse;

5. The scope, duration, and significance of abuse;

6. The risk to the public health;

7. The potential of the substance to produce psychic or physical dependence; and

8. Whether the substance is an immediate precursor of a substance already controlled under this article.

B. After considering the factors enumerated in subsection A, the Board shall make findings and issue a regulation controlling the substance if it finds the substance has a potential for abuse.

C. If the Board designates a substance as an immediate precursor, substances which are precursors of the controlled precursor shall not be subject to control solely because they are precursors of the controlled precursor.

D. If the Board, in consultation with the Department of Forensic Science, determines the substance shall be placed into Schedule I or II pursuant to § 54.1-3445 or 54.1-3447, the Board may amend its regulations pursuant to Article 2 (§ 2.2-4006 et seq.) of the Administrative Process Act. Prior to making such amendments, the Board shall conduct a public hearing. At least 30 days prior to conducting such hearing, it shall post notice of the hearing on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and shall send notice of the hearing to any persons requesting to be notified of a regulatory action. In the notice, the Board shall include a list of all substances it intends to schedule by regulation. The Board shall notify the House Committee for Courts of Justice and the Senate Committee on the Judiciary of any new substance added to Schedule I or II pursuant to this subsection. Any substance added to Schedule I or II pursuant to this subsection shall remain on Schedule I or II for a period of 18 months. Upon expiration of such 18-month period, such substance shall be descheduled unless a general law is enacted adding such substance to Schedule I or II. Nothing in this subsection shall preclude the Board from adding substances to or descheduling or rescheduling all substances enumerated in the schedules pursuant to the provisions of subsections A, B, and E.

E. If any substance is designated, rescheduled, or descheduled as a controlled substance under federal law and notice of such action is given to the Board, the Board may similarly control the substance under this chapter after the expiration of 30 days from publication in the Federal Register of a final or interim final order or rule designating a substance as a controlled substance or rescheduling or descheduling a substance by amending its regulations in accordance with the requirements of Article 2 (§ 2.2-4006 et seq.) of the Administrative Process Act. Prior to making such amendments, the Board shall post notice of the hearing on the Virginia Regulatory Town Hall and shall send notice of the hearing to any persons requesting to be notified of a regulatory action. The Board shall include a list of all substances it intends to schedule by regulation in such notice.

F. Authority to control under this section does not extend to distilled spirits, wine, malt beverages, or tobacco as those terms are defined or used in Title 4.1.

G. The Board shall exempt any nonnarcotic substance from a schedule if such substance may, under the provisions of the federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. § 301 et seq.) or state law, be lawfully sold over the counter without a prescription.

H. Any tetrahydrocannabinol isomer, ester, ether, salt, or salts of such isomer, ester, or ether scheduled pursuant to this section shall not be included in the definition of marijuana set forth in § 4.1-600, 18.2-247, or 54.1-3401.

1972, c. 798, § 54-524.84:1; 1976, c. 614; 1988, c. 765; 1993, c. 866; 1996, c. 408; 2014, cc. 674, 719; 2017, cc. 416, 432; 2023, cc. 744, 794.

The controlled substances listed or to be listed in the schedules in this chapter are included by whatever official, common, usual, chemical, or trade name designated.

1972, c. 798, § 54-524.84:2; 1988, c. 765.

The Board shall place a substance in Schedule I if it finds that the substance:

1. Has high potential for abuse; and

2. Has no accepted medical use in treatment in the United States or lacks accepted safety for use in treatment under medical supervision.

1972, c. 798, § 54-524.84:3; 1988, c. 765.

The controlled substances listed in this section are included in Schedule I:

1. Any of the following opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these isomers, esters, ethers and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation:

1-{1-[1-(4-bromophenyl)ethyl]-4-piperidinyl}-1,3-dihydro-2H-benzimidazol-2-one (other name: Brorphine);

1-[2-methyl-4-(3-phenyl-2-propen-1-yl)-1-piperazinyl]-1-butanone (other name: 2-methyl AP-237);

1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-phenyl-4-acetyloxypiperidine (other name: PEPAP);

1-(4-cinnamyl-2,6-dimethylpiperazin-1-yl)propan-1-one (other name: AP-238);

1-methyl-4-phenyl-4-propionoxypiperidine (other name: MPPP);

2-(4-ethoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1-[2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)ethyl]-1H-benzimidazole (other names: N-pyrrolidino etonitazene, etonitazepyne);

2-[(4-methoxyphenyl)methyl]-N,N-diethyl-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazole-1-ethanamine (other name: Metonitazene);

2-methoxy-N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-acetamide (other name: Methoxyacetyl fentanyl);

3,4-dichloro-N-[2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-methyl-benzamide (other name: U-47700);

3,4-dichloro-N-{[1-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]methyl}benzamide (other name: AH-7921);

Acetyl fentanyl (other name: desmethyl fentanyl);

Acetylmethadol;

Allylprodine;

Alphacetylmethadol (except levo-alphacetylmethadol, also known as levo-alpha-acetylmethadol, levomethadyl acetate, or LAAM);

Alphameprodine;

Alphamethadol;

Benzethidine;

Betacetylmethadol;

Betameprodine;

Betamethadol;

Betaprodine;

Clonitazene;

Dextromoramide;

Diampromide;

Diethylthiambutene;

Difenoxin;

Dimenoxadol;

Dimepheptanol;

Dimethylthiambutene;

Dioxaphetylbutyrate;

Dipipanone;

Ethylmethylthiambutene;

Etonitazene;

Etoxeridine;

Furethidine;

Hydroxypethidine;

Ketobemidone;

Levomoramide;

Levophenacylmorphan;

Morpheridine;

MT-45 (1-cyclohexyl-4-(1,2-diphenylethyl)piperazine);

N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenylcyclopropanecarboxamide (other name: Cyclopropyl fentanyl);

N-(1-phenethylpiperidin-4-yl)-N-phenyltetrahydrofuran-2-carboxamide (other name: Tetrahydrofuranyl fentanyl);

N-[1-[1-methyl-2-(2-thienyl)ethyl]-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide (other name: alpha-methylthiofentanyl);

N-[1-(1-methyl-2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylacetamide (other name: acetyl-alpha-methylfentanyl);

N-{1-[2-hydroxy-2-(2-thienyl)ethyl]-4-piperidinyl}-N-phenylpropanamide (other name: beta-hydroxythiofentanyl);

N-[1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenyl)ethyl-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide (other name: beta-hydroxyfentanyl);

N-[1-(alpha-methyl-beta-phenyl)ethyl-4-piperidyl]propionanilide (other names: 1-(1-methyl-2-phenylethyl)-4-(N-propanilido) piperidine, alpha-methylfentanyl);

N-(2-fluorophenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-propanamide (other names: 2-fluorofentanyl, ortho-fluorofentanyl);

N-(3-fluorophenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-propanamide (other name: 3-fluorofentanyl);

N-[3-methyl-1-(2-hydroxy-2-phenylethyl)4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide (other name: beta-hydroxy-3-methylfentanyl);

N-[3-methyl-1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidyl]-N-phenylpropanamide (other name: 3-methylfentanyl);

N-[3-methyl-1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-4-piperidinyl]-N-phenylpropanamide (other name: 3-methylthiofentanyl);

N-(4-chlorophenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-propanamide (other names: para-chlorofentanyl, 4-chlorofentanyl);

N-(4-fluorophenyl)-2-methyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-propanamide (other name: para-fluoroisobutyryl fentanyl);

N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-butanamide (other name: para-fluorobutyrylfentanyl);

N-(4-fluorophenyl)-N-1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-propanamide (other name: para-fluorofentanyl);

N,N-diethyl-2-(2-(4-isopropoxybenzyl)-5-nitro-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl)ethan-1-amine (other name: Isotonitazene);

N,N-diethyl-2-{[(4-ethoxyphenyl) methyl]-1H-benzimidazol-1-yl}-ethan-1-amine (other names: Etazene, Desnitroetonitazene);

N,N-diethyl-2-[(4-methoxyphenyl)methyl]-1H-benzimidazole-1-ethanamine (other name: Metodesnitazene);

N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylmethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-2-furancarboxamide (other name: N-benzyl Furanyl norfentanyl);

N-phenyl-N-(4-piperidinyl)-propanamide (other name: Norfentanyl);

Noracymethadol;

Norlevorphanol;

Normethadone;

Norpipanone;

N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-2-furancarboxamide (other name: Furanyl fentanyl);

N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-2-propenamide (other name: Acryl fentanyl);

N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-butanamide (other name: butyryl fentanyl);

N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-pentanamide (other name: Pentanoyl fentanyl);

N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-thienyl)ethyl-4-piperidinyl]-propanamide (other name: thiofentanyl);

Phenadoxone;

Phenampromide;

Phenomorphan;

Phenoperidine;

Piritramide;

Proheptazine;

Properidine;

Propiram;

Racemoramide;

Tilidine;

Trimeperidine;

N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-1,3-benzodioxole-5-carboxamide (other name: Benzodioxole fentanyl);

3,4-dichloro-N-[2-(diethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-methylbenzamide (other name: U-49900);

2-(2,4-dichlorophenyl)-N-[2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-methyl acetamide (other name: U-48800);

2-(3,4-dichlorophenyl)-N-[2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-methyl acetamide (other name: U-51754);

N-(2-fluorophenyl)-2-methoxy-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-acetamide (other name: Ocfentanil);

N-(4-methoxyphenyl)-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-butanamide (other name: 4-methoxybutyrylfentanyl);

N-phenyl-2-methyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-propanamide (other name: Isobutyryl fentanyl);

N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-cyclopentanecarboxamide (other name: Cyclopentyl fentanyl);

N-phenyl-N-(1-methyl-4-piperidinyl)-propanamide (other name: N-methyl norfentanyl);

N-[2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-methyl-1,3-benzodioxole-5-carboxamide (other names: 3,4-methylenedioxy U-47700 or 3,4-MDO-U-47700);

N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-2-butenamide (other name: Crotonyl fentanyl);

N-phenyl-N-[4-phenyl-1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-propanamide (other name: 4-phenylfentanyl);

N-phenyl-N-[1-(2-phenylethyl)-4-piperidinyl]-benzamide (other names: Phenyl fentanyl, Benzoyl fentanyl);

N-[2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-phenylfuran-2-carboxamide (other name: Furanyl UF-17);

N-[2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-phenylpropionamide (other name: UF-17);

3,4-dichloro-N-[2-(dimethylamino)cyclohexyl]-N-isopropyl-benzamide (other name: Isopropyl U-47700).

2. Any of the following opium derivatives, their salts, isomers and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

Acetorphine;

Acetyldihydrocodeine;

Benzylmorphine;

Codeine methylbromide;

Codeine-N-Oxide;

Cyprenorphine;

Desomorphine;

Dihydromorphine;

Drotebanol;

Etorphine;

Heroin;

Hydromorphinol;

Methyldesorphine;

Methyldihydromorphine;

Morphine methylbromide;

Morphine methylsulfonate;

Morphine-N-Oxide;

Myrophine;

Nicocodeine;

Nicomorphine;

Normorphine;

Pholcodine;

Thebacon.

3. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation, which contains any quantity of the following hallucinogenic substances, or which contains any of its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation (for purposes of this subdivision only, the term "isomer" includes the optical, position, and geometric isomers):

Alpha-ethyltryptamine (some trade or other names: Monase; a-ethyl-1H-indole-3-ethanamine; 3-2-aminobutyl] indole; a-ET; AET);

4-Bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (some trade or other names: 2-4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl]-1-aminoethane;alpha-desmethyl DOB; 2C-B; Nexus);

3,4-methylenedioxy amphetamine;

5-methoxy-3,4-methylenedioxy amphetamine;

3,4,5-trimethoxy amphetamine;

Alpha-methyltryptamine (other name: AMT);

Bufotenine;

Diethyltryptamine;

Dimethyltryptamine;

4-methyl-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine;

2,5-dimethoxy-4-ethylamphetamine (DOET);

4-fluoro-N-ethylamphetamine;

2,5-dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylthiophenethylamine (other name: 2C-T-7);

Ibogaine;

5-methoxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (other name: 5-MeO-DIPT);

Lysergic acid diethylamide;

Mescaline;

Parahexyl (some trade or other names: 3-Hexyl-1-hydroxy-7,8,9,10-tetrahydro-6,6,9-trimethyl-6H-dibenzo [b,d] pyran; Synhexyl);

Peyote;

N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;

N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;

Psilocybin;

Psilocyn;

Salvinorin A;

2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (some trade or other names: 2,5-dimethoxy-a-methylphenethylamine; 2,5-DMA);

3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA), its optical, positional and geometric isomers, salts and salts of isomers;

3,4-methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine (also known as N-ethyl-alpha-methyl-3,4 (methylenedioxy)phenethylamine, N-ethyl MDA, MDE, MDEA);

N-hydroxy-3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine (some other names: N-hydroxy-alpha-methyl-3,4(methylenedioxy)phenethylamine, and N-hydroxy MDA);

4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine (some trade or other names: 4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-a-methylphenethylamine; 4-bromo-2,5-DMA);

4-methoxyamphetamine (some trade or other names: 4-methoxy-a-methylphenethylamine; paramethoxyamphetamine; PMA);

Ethylamine analog of phencyclidine (some other names: N-ethyl-1-phenylcyclohexylamine, (1-phenylcyclohexyl) ethylamine, N-(1-phenylcyclohexyl) ethylamine, cyclohexamine, PCE);

Pyrrolidine analog of phencyclidine (some other names: 1-(1-phenylcyclohexyl)-pyrrolidine, PCPy, PHP);

Thiophene analog of phencyclidine (some other names: 1-[1-(2-thienyl)-cyclohexyl]-piperidine, 2-thienyl analog of phencyclidine, TPCP, TCP);

1-1-(2-thienyl)cyclohexyl]pyrrolidine (other name: TCPy);

3,4-methylenedioxypyrovalerone (other name: MDPV);

4-methylmethcathinone (other names: mephedrone, 4-MMC);

3,4-methylenedioxymethcathinone (other name: methylone);

Naphthylpyrovalerone (other name: naphyrone);

4-fluoromethcathinone (other names: flephedrone, 4-FMC);

4-methoxymethcathinone (other names: methedrone; bk-PMMA);

Ethcathinone (other name: N-ethylcathinone);

3,4-methylenedioxyethcathinone (other name: ethylone);

Beta-keto-N-methyl-3,4-benzodioxolylbutanamine (other name: butylone);

N,N-dimethylcathinone (other name: metamfepramone);

Alpha-pyrrolidinopropiophenone (other name: alpha-PPP);

4-methoxy-alpha-pyrrolidinopropiophenone (other name: MOPPP);

3,4-methylenedioxy-alpha-pyrrolidinopropiophenone (other name: MDPPP);

Alpha-pyrrolidinovalerophenone (other name: alpha-PVP);

6,7-dihydro-5H-indeno-(5,6-d)-1,3-dioxol-6-amine (other name: MDAI);

3-fluoromethcathinone (other name: 3-FMC);

4-Ethyl-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (other name: 2C-E);

4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (other name: 2C-I);

4-Methylethcathinone (other name: 4-MEC);

4-Ethylmethcathinone (other name: 4-EMC);

N,N-diallyl-5-methoxytryptamine (other name: 5-MeO-DALT);

Beta-keto-methylbenzodioxolylpentanamine (other names: Pentylone, bk-MBDP);

Alpha-methylamino-butyrophenone (other name: Buphedrone);

Alpha-methylamino-valerophenone (other name: Pentedrone);

3,4-Dimethylmethcathinone (other name: 3,4-DMMC);

4-methyl-alpha-pyrrolidinopropiophenone (other name: MPPP);

4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]-benzeneethanamine (other names: 25-I, 25I-NBOMe, 2C-I-NBOMe);

Methoxetamine (other names: MXE, 3-MeO-2-Oxo-PCE);

4-Fluoromethamphetamine (other name: 4-FMA);

4-Fluoroamphetamine (other name: 4-FA);

2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-methylphenyl)ethanamine (other name: 2C-D);

2-(4-Chloro-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (other name: 2C-C);

2-[4-(Ethylthio)-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl]ethanamine (other name: 2C-T-2);

2-[4-(Isopropylthio)-2,5-dimethoxyphenyl]ethanamine (other name: 2C-T-4);

2-(2,5-Dimethoxyphenyl)ethanamine (other name: 2C-H);

2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-nitro-phenyl)ethanamine (other name: 2C-N);

2-(2,5-Dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylphenyl)ethanamine (other name: 2C-P);

(2-aminopropyl)benzofuran (other name: APB);

(2-aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran (other name: APDB);

4-chloro-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]-benzeneethanamine (other names: 2C-C-NBOMe, 25C-NBOMe, 25C);

4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-methoxyphenyl)methyl]-benzeneethanamine (other names: 2C-B-NBOMe, 25B-NBOMe, 25B);

Acetoxydimethyltryptamine (other names: AcO-Psilocin, AcO-DMT, Psilacetin);

Benocyclidine (other names: BCP, BTCP);

Alpha-pyrrolidinobutiophenone (other name: alpha-PBP);

3,4-methylenedioxy-N,N-dimethylcathinone (other names: Dimethylone, bk-MDDMA);

4-bromomethcathinone (other name: 4-BMC);

4-chloromethcathinone (other name: 4-CMC);

4-Iodo-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-hydroxyphenyl)methyl]-benzeneethanamine (other name: 25I-NBOH);

Alpha-Pyrrolidinohexiophenone (other name: alpha-PHP);

Alpha-Pyrrolidinoheptiophenone (other name: PV8);

5-methoxy-N,N-methylisopropyltryptamine (other name: 5-MeO-MIPT);

Beta-keto-N,N-dimethylbenzodioxolylbutanamine (other names: Dibutylone, bk-DMBDB);

Beta-keto-4-bromo-2,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (other name: bk-2C-B);

1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(ethylamino)-1-pentanone (other name: N-ethylpentylone);

1-[1-(3-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexyl]piperidine (other name: 3-methoxy PCP);

1-[1-(4-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexyl]piperidine (other name: 4-methoxy PCP);

4-Chloroethcathinone (other name: 4-CEC);

3-Methoxy-2-(methylamino)-1-(4-methylphenyl)-1-propanone (other name: Mexedrone);

1-propionyl lysergic acid diethylamide (other name: 1P-LSD);

(2-Methylaminopropyl)benzofuran (other name: MAPB);

1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(dimethylamino)-1-pentanone (other names: N,N-Dimethylpentylone, Dipentylone);

1-(4-methoxyphenyl)-2-(pyrrolidin-1-yl)octan-1-one (other name: 4-methoxy-PV9);

3,4-tetramethylene-alpha-pyrrolidinovalerophenone (other name: TH-PVP);

4-allyloxy-3,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (other name: Allylescaline);

4-Bromo-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-hydroxyphenyl)methyl]-benzeneethanamine (other name: 25B-NBOH);

4-chloro-alpha-methylamino-valerophenone (other name: 4-chloropentedrone);

4-chloro-alpha-Pyrrolidinovalerophenone (other name: 4-chloro-alpha-PVP);

4-fluoro-alpha-Pyrrolidinoheptiophenone (other name: 4-fluoro-PV8);

4-hydroxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (other name: 4-OH-DIPT);

4-methyl-alpha-ethylaminopentiophenone;

4-methyl-alpha-Pyrrolidinohexiophenone (other name: MPHP);

5-methoxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine (other name: 5-MeO-DMT);

5-methoxy-N-ethyl-N-isopropyltryptamine (other name: 5-MeO-EIPT);

6-ethyl-6-nor-lysergic acid diethylamide (other name: ETH-LAD);

6-allyl-6-nor-lysergic acid diethylamide (other name: AL-LAD);

(N-methyl aminopropyl)-2,3-dihydrobenzofuran (other name: MAPDB);

2-(methylamino)-2-phenyl-cyclohexanone (other name: Deschloroketamine);

2-(ethylamino)-2-phenyl-cyclohexanone (other name: deschloro-N-ethyl-ketamine);

2-methyl-1-(4-(methylthio)phenyl)-2-morpholinopropiophenone (other name: MMMP);

Alpha-ethylaminohexanophenone (other name: N-ethylhexedrone);

N-ethyl-1-(3-methoxyphenyl)cyclohexylamine (other name: 3-methoxy-PCE);

4-fluoro-alpha-pyrrolidinohexiophenone (other name: 4-fluoro-alpha-PHP);

N-ethyl-1,2-diphenylethylamine (other name: Ephenidine);

2,5-dimethoxy-4-chloroamphetamine (other name: DOC);

3,4-methylenedioxy-N-tert-butylcathinone;

Alpha-pyrrolidinoisohexiophenone (other name: alpha-PiHP);

1-[1-(3-hydroxyphenyl)cyclohexyl]piperidine (other name: 3-hydroxy PCP);

4-acetyloxy-N,N-diallyltryptamine (other name: 4-AcO-DALT);

4-hydroxy-N,N-methylisopropyltryptamine (other name: 4-hydroxy-MiPT);

3,4-Methylenedioxy-alpha-pyrrolidinohexanophenone (other name: MDPHP);

5-methoxy-N,N-dibutyltryptamine (other name: 5-methoxy-DBT);

1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(ethylamino)-1-butanone (other names: Eutylone, bk-EBDB);

1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(butylamino)-1-pentanone (other name: N-butylpentylone);

N-benzyl-3,4-dimethoxyamphetamine (other name: N-benzyl-3,4-DMA);

1-(benzo[d][1,3]dioxol-5-yl)-2-(sec-butylamino)pentan-1-one (other name: N-sec-butyl Pentylone);

1-cyclopropionyl lysergic acid diethylamide (other name: 1cP-LSD);

2-(ethylamino)-1-phenylheptan-1-one (other name: N-ethylheptedrone);

(2-ethylaminopropyl)benzofuran (other name: EAPB);

4-ethyl-2,5-dimethoxy-N-[(2-hydroxyphenyl)methyl]-benzeneethanamine (other name: 25E-NBOH);

2-fluoro-Deschloroketamine (other name: 2-(2-fluorophenyl)-2-(methylamino)-cyclohexanone);

4-hydroxy-N-ethyl-N-propyltryptamine (other name: 4-hydroxy-EPT);

2-(isobutylamino)-1-phenylhexan-1-one (other names: N-Isobutyl Hexedrone, alpha-isobutylaminohexanphenone);

1-(4-methoxyphenyl)-N-methylpropan-2-amine (other names: para-Methoxymethamphetamine, PMMA);

N-ethyl-1-(3-hydroxyphenyl)cyclohexylamine (other name: 3-hydroxy-PCE);

N-heptyl-3,4-dimethoxyamphetamine (other name: N-heptyl-3,4-DMA);

N-hexyl-3,4-dimethoxyamphetamine (other name: N-hexyl-3,4-DMA);

4-fluoro-3-methyl-alpha-pyrrolidinovalerophenone (other name: 4-fluoro-3-methyl-alpha-PVP);

4-fluoro-alpha-methylamino-valerophenone (other name: 4-fluoropentedrone);

N-(1,4-dimethylpentyl)-3,4-dimethoxyamphetamine (other name: N-(1,4-dimethylpentyl)-3,4-DMA);

4,5-methylenedioxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine (other name: 4,5-MDO-DiPT);

Alpha-pyrrolidinocyclohexanophenone (other name: alpha-PCYP);

3,4-methylenedioxy-alpha-pyrrolidinoheptiophenone (other name: MDPV8);

4-chloro-alpha-methylaminobutiophenone (other name: 4-chloro Buphedrone);

1-(1,3-benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(propylamino)-1-butanone (other names: 3,4-Methylenedioxy-alpha-propylaminobutiophenone; N-propyl butylone);

2-(ethylamino)-1-phenylpentan-1-one (other names: N-ethylpentedrone, alpha-ethylaminopentiophenone);

3,4-methylenedioxy-alpha-cyclohexylaminopropiophenone (other name: Cyputylone);

3,4-methylenedioxy-alpha-cyclohexylmethylaminopropiophenone (other name: 3,4-Methylenedioxy-N,N-cyclohexylmethcathinone);

3,4-methylenedioxy-alpha-isopropylaminobutiophenone (other name: N-isopropyl butylone);

4-chloro-N-butylcathinone (other names: 4-chlorobutylcathinone, para-chloro-N-butylcathinone);

4-hydroxy-N-methyl-N-ethyltryptamine (other names: 4-hydroxy MET, Metocin);

4-methallyloxy-3,5-dimethoxyphenethylamine (other name: Methallylescaline);

Alpha-pyrrolidino-2-phenylacetophenone (other name: alpha-D2PV).

4. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

5-(2-chlorophenyl)-1,3-dihydro-3-methyl-7-nitro-2H-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one (other name: Meclonazepam);

7-chloro-5-(2-fluorophenyl)-1,3-dihydro-1,4-benzodiazepin-2-one (other name: Norfludiazepam);

Bromazolam;

Clonazolam;

Deschloroetizolam;

Etizolam;

Flualprazolam;

Flubromazepam;

Flubromazolam;

Gamma hydroxybutyric acid (some other names include GHB; gamma hydroxybutyrate; 4-hydroxybutyrate; 4-hydroxybutanoic acid; sodium oxybate; sodium oxybutyrate);

Mecloqualone;