Virginia Law

A. Wherever the terms "controlled substances" and "Schedules I, II, III, IV, V, and VI" are used in Title 18.2, such terms refer to those terms as they are used or defined in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.).

B. The term "imitation controlled substance" when used in this article means (i) a counterfeit controlled substance or (ii) a pill, capsule, tablet, or substance in any form whatsoever which is not a controlled substance subject to abuse, and:

1. Which by overall dosage unit appearance, including color, shape, size, marking and packaging or by representations made, would cause the likelihood that such a pill, capsule, tablet, or substance in any other form whatsoever will be mistaken for a controlled substance unless such substance was introduced into commerce prior to the initial introduction into commerce of the controlled substance which it is alleged to imitate; or

2. Which by express or implied representations purports to act like a controlled substance as a stimulant or depressant of the central nervous system and which is not commonly used or recognized for use in that particular formulation for any purpose other than for such stimulant or depressant effect, unless marketed, promoted, or sold as permitted by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration.

C. In determining whether a pill, capsule, tablet, or substance in any other form whatsoever, is an "imitation controlled substance," there shall be considered, in addition to all other relevant factors, comparisons with accepted methods of marketing for legitimate nonprescription drugs for medicinal purposes rather than for drug abuse or any similar nonmedicinal use, including consideration of the packaging of the drug and its appearance in overall finished dosage form, promotional materials or representations, oral or written, concerning the drug, and the methods of distribution of the drug and where and how it is sold to the public.

D. The term "marijuana" when used in this article means any part of a plant of the genus Cannabis, whether growing or not, its seeds or resin; and every compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of such plant, its seeds, its resin, or any extract containing one or more cannabinoids. "Marijuana" does not include (i) the mature stalks of such plant, fiber produced from such stalk, oil or cake made from the seed of such plant, unless such stalks, fiber, oil or cake is combined with other parts of plants of the genus Cannabis; (ii) industrial hemp, as defined in § 3.2-4112, that is possessed by a person registered pursuant to subsection A of § 3.2-4115 or his agent; (iii) industrial hemp, as defined in § 3.2-4112, that is possessed by a person who holds a hemp producer license issued by the U.S. Department of Agriculture pursuant to 7 C.F.R. Part 990; (iv) a hemp product, as defined in § 3.2-4112; (v) an industrial hemp extract, as defined in § 3.2-5145.1; or (vi) any substance containing a tetrahydrocannabinol isomer, ester, ether, salt or salts of such isomer, ester, or ether that has been placed by the Board of Pharmacy into one of the schedules set forth in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) pursuant to § 54.1-3443.

E. The term "counterfeit controlled substance" means a controlled substance that, without authorization, bears, is packaged in a container or wrapper that bears, or is otherwise labeled to bear, the trademark, trade name, or other identifying mark, imprint or device or any likeness thereof, of a drug manufacturer, processor, packer, or distributor other than the manufacturer, processor, packer, or distributor who did in fact so manufacture, process, pack or distribute such drug.

F. The term "tetrahydrocannabinol" means any naturally occurring or synthetic tetrahydrocannabinol, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation and any preparation, mixture, or substance containing, or mixed or infused with, any detectable amount of tetrahydrocannabinol. For the purposes of this definition, "isomer" means the optical, position, and geometric isomers.

G. The term "total tetrahydrocannabinol" means the sum, after the application of any necessary conversion factor, of the percentage by weight of tetrahydrocannabinol and the percentage by weight of tetrahydrocannabinolic acid.

H. The Department of Forensic Science shall determine the proper methods for detecting the concentration of tetrahydrocannabinol in substances for the purposes of this title, Chapter 11 (§ 4.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 4.1, and § 54.1-3401. The testing methodology shall use post-decarboxylation testing or other equivalent method and shall consider the potential conversion of tetrahydrocannabinolic acid into tetrahydrocannabinol.

1975, cc. 14, 15; 1979, c. 435; 1982, c. 462; 1984, c. 684; 1992, c. 756; 1999, cc. 661, 722; 2004, c. 688; 2019, cc. 653, 654; 2020, cc. 831, 1285, 1286; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 110; 2023, cc. 744, 794.

A. Except as authorized in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.), it shall be unlawful for any person to manufacture, sell, give, distribute, or possess with intent to manufacture, sell, give or distribute a controlled substance or an imitation controlled substance.

B. In determining whether any person intends to manufacture, sell, give or distribute an imitation controlled substance, the court may consider, in addition to all other relevant evidence, whether any distribution or attempted distribution of such pill, capsule, tablet or substance in any other form whatsoever included an exchange of or a demand for money or other property as consideration, and, if so, whether the amount of such consideration was substantially greater than the reasonable value of such pill, capsule, tablet or substance in any other form whatsoever, considering the actual chemical composition of such pill, capsule, tablet or substance in any other form whatsoever and, where applicable, the price at which over-the-counter substances of like chemical composition sell.

C. Except as provided in subsection C1, any person who violates this section with respect to a controlled substance classified in Schedule I or II shall upon conviction be imprisoned for not less than five nor more than 40 years and fined not more than $500,000. Upon a second conviction of such a violation, and it is alleged in the warrant, indictment, or information that the person has been before convicted of such an offense or of a substantially similar offense in any other jurisdiction, which offense would be a felony if committed in the Commonwealth, and such prior conviction occurred before the date of the offense alleged in the warrant, indictment, or information, any such person may, in the discretion of the court or jury imposing the sentence, be sentenced to imprisonment for life or for any period not less than five years, three years of which shall be a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment to be served consecutively with any other sentence, and he shall be fined not more than $500,000.

When a person is convicted of a third or subsequent offense under this subsection and it is alleged in the warrant, indictment or information that he has been before convicted of two or more such offenses or of substantially similar offenses in any other jurisdiction which offenses would be felonies if committed in the Commonwealth and such prior convictions occurred before the date of the offense alleged in the warrant, indictment, or information, he shall be sentenced to imprisonment for life or for a period of not less than 10 years, 10 years of which shall be a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment to be served consecutively with any other sentence, and he shall be fined not more than $500,000.

Any person who manufactures, sells, gives, distributes or possesses with the intent to manufacture, sell, give, or distribute the following is guilty of a felony punishable by a fine of not more than $1 million and imprisonment for five years to life, five years of which shall be a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment to be served consecutively with any other sentence:

1. 100 grams or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of heroin;

2. 500 grams or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of:

a. Coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of coca leaves from which cocaine, ecgonine, and derivatives of ecgonine or their salts have been removed;

b. Cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers;

c. Ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers; or

d. Any compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to in subdivisions 2a through 2c;

3. 250 grams or more of a mixture or substance described in subdivisions 2a through 2d that contain cocaine base; or

4. 10 grams or more of methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, or salts of its isomers or 20 grams or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, or salts of its isomers.

The mandatory minimum term of imprisonment to be imposed for a violation of this subsection shall not be applicable if the court finds that:

a. The person does not have a prior conviction for an offense listed in subsection C of § 17.1-805;

b. The person did not use violence or credible threats of violence or possess a firearm or other dangerous weapon in connection with the offense or induce another participant in the offense to do so;

c. The offense did not result in death or serious bodily injury to any person;

d. The person was not an organizer, leader, manager, or supervisor of others in the offense, and was not engaged in a continuing criminal enterprise as defined in subsection I; and

e. Not later than the time of the sentencing hearing, the person has truthfully provided to the Commonwealth all information and evidence the person has concerning the offense or offenses that were part of the same course of conduct or of a common scheme or plan, but the fact that the person has no relevant or useful other information to provide or that the Commonwealth already is aware of the information shall not preclude a determination by the court that the defendant has complied with this requirement.

C1. Any person who violates this section with respect to the manufacturing of methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, or salts of its isomers or less than 200 grams of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, or salts of its isomers shall, upon conviction, be imprisoned for not less than 10 nor more than 40 years and fined not more than $500,000. Upon a second conviction of such a violation, any such person may, in the discretion of the court or jury imposing the sentence, be sentenced to imprisonment for life or for any period not less than 10 years, and be fined not more than $500,000. When a person is convicted of a third or subsequent offense under this subsection and it is alleged in the warrant, indictment, or information that he has been previously convicted of two or more such offenses or of substantially similar offenses in any other jurisdiction, which offenses would be felonies if committed in the Commonwealth and such prior convictions occurred before the date of the offense alleged in the warrant, indictment, or information, he shall be sentenced to imprisonment for life or for a period not less than 10 years, three years of which shall be a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment to be served consecutively with any other sentence and he shall be fined not more than $500,000.

Upon conviction, in addition to any other punishment, a person found guilty of this offense shall be ordered by the court to make restitution, as the court deems appropriate, to any innocent property owner whose property is damaged, destroyed, or otherwise rendered unusable as a result of such methamphetamine production. This restitution shall include the person's or his estate's estimated or actual expenses associated with cleanup, removal, or repair of the affected property. If the property that is damaged, destroyed, or otherwise rendered unusable as a result of such methamphetamine production is property owned in whole or in part by the person convicted, the court shall order the person to pay to the Methamphetamine Cleanup Fund authorized in § 18.2-248.04 the reasonable estimated or actual expenses associated with cleanup, removal, or repair of the affected property or, if actual or estimated expenses cannot be determined, the sum of $10,000. The convicted person shall also pay the cost of certifying that any building that is cleaned up or repaired pursuant to this section is safe for human occupancy according to the guidelines established pursuant to § 32.1-11.7.

D. If such person proves that he gave, distributed or possessed with intent to give or distribute a controlled substance classified in Schedule I or II only as an accommodation to another individual who is not an inmate in a community correctional facility, local correctional facility or state correctional facility as defined in § 53.1-1 or in the custody of an employee thereof, and not with intent to profit thereby from any consideration received or expected nor to induce the recipient or intended recipient of the controlled substance to use or become addicted to or dependent upon such controlled substance, he shall be guilty of a Class 5 felony.

E. If the violation of the provisions of this article consists of the filling by a pharmacist of the prescription of a person authorized under this article to issue the same, which prescription has not been received in writing by the pharmacist prior to the filling thereof, and such written prescription is in fact received by the pharmacist within one week of the time of filling the same, or if such violation consists of a request by such authorized person for the filling by a pharmacist of a prescription which has not been received in writing by the pharmacist and such prescription is, in fact, written at the time of such request and delivered to the pharmacist within one week thereof, either such offense shall constitute a Class 4 misdemeanor.

E1. Any person who violates this section with respect to a controlled substance classified in Schedule III except for an anabolic steroid classified in Schedule III, constituting a violation of § 18.2-248.5, shall be guilty of a Class 5 felony.

E2. Any person who violates this section with respect to a controlled substance classified in Schedule IV shall be guilty of a Class 6 felony.

E3. Any person who proves that he gave, distributed or possessed with the intent to give or distribute a controlled substance classified in Schedule III or IV, except for an anabolic steroid classified in Schedule III, constituting a violation of § 18.2-248.5, only as an accommodation to another individual who is not an inmate in a community correctional facility, local correctional facility or state correctional facility as defined in § 53.1-1 or in the custody of an employee thereof, and not with the intent to profit thereby from any consideration received or expected nor to induce the recipient or intended recipient of the controlled substance to use or become addicted to or dependent upon such controlled substance, is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

F. Any person who violates this section with respect to a controlled substance classified in Schedule V or Schedule VI or an imitation controlled substance which imitates a controlled substance classified in Schedule V or Schedule VI, shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

G. Any person who violates this section with respect to an imitation controlled substance which imitates a controlled substance classified in Schedule I, II, III, or IV shall be guilty of a Class 6 felony. In any prosecution brought under this subsection, it is not a defense to a violation of this subsection that the defendant believed the imitation controlled substance to actually be a controlled substance.

H. Any person who manufactures, sells, gives, distributes or possesses with the intent to manufacture, sell, give or distribute the following:

1. 1.0 kilograms or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of heroin;

2. 5.0 kilograms or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of:

a. Coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of coca leaves from which cocaine, ecgonine, and derivatives of ecgonine or their salts have been removed;

b. Cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers;

c. Ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers; or

d. Any compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to in subdivisions a through c;

3. 2.5 kilograms or more of a mixture or substance described in subdivision 2 which contains cocaine base;

4. 100 kilograms or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of marijuana; or

5. 100 grams or more of methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, or salts of its isomers or 200 grams or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, or salts of its isomers shall be guilty of a felony punishable by a fine of not more than $1 million and imprisonment for 20 years to life, 20 years of which shall be a mandatory minimum sentence. Such mandatory minimum sentence shall not be applicable if the court finds that (i) the person does not have a prior conviction for an offense listed in subsection C of § 17.1-805; (ii) the person did not use violence or credible threats of violence or possess a firearm or other dangerous weapon in connection with the offense or induce another participant in the offense to do so; (iii) the offense did not result in death or serious bodily injury to any person; (iv) the person was not an organizer, leader, manager, or supervisor of others in the offense, and was not engaged in a continuing criminal enterprise as defined in subsection I of this section; and (v) not later than the time of the sentencing hearing, the person has truthfully provided to the Commonwealth all information and evidence the person has concerning the offense or offenses that were part of the same course of conduct or of a common scheme or plan, but the fact that the person has no relevant or useful other information to provide or that the Commonwealth already is aware of the information shall not preclude a determination by the court that the defendant has complied with this requirement.

H1. Any person who was the principal or one of several principal administrators, organizers or leaders of a continuing criminal enterprise shall be guilty of a felony if (i) the enterprise received at least $100,000 but less than $250,000 in gross receipts during any 12-month period of its existence from the manufacture, importation, or distribution of heroin or cocaine or ecgonine or methamphetamine or the derivatives, salts, isomers, or salts of isomers thereof or marijuana or (ii) the person engaged in the enterprise to manufacture, sell, give, distribute or possess with the intent to manufacture, sell, give or distribute the following during any 12-month period of its existence:

1. At least 1.0 kilograms but less than 5.0 kilograms of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of heroin;

2. At least 5.0 kilograms but less than 10 kilograms of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of:

a. Coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of coca leaves from which cocaine, ecgonine, and derivatives of ecgonine or their salts have been removed;

b. Cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers;

c. Ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers; or

d. Any compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to in subdivisions a through c;

3. At least 2.5 kilograms but less than 5.0 kilograms of a mixture or substance described in subdivision 2 which contains cocaine base;

4. At least 100 kilograms but less than 250 kilograms of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of marijuana; or

5. At least 100 grams but less than 250 grams of methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, or salts of its isomers or at least 200 grams but less than 1.0 kilograms of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, or salts of its isomers.

A conviction under this section shall be punishable by a fine of not more than $1 million and imprisonment for 20 years to life, 20 years of which shall be a mandatory minimum sentence.

H2. Any person who was the principal or one of several principal administrators, organizers or leaders of a continuing criminal enterprise if (i) the enterprise received $250,000 or more in gross receipts during any 12-month period of its existence from the manufacture, importation, or distribution of heroin or cocaine or ecgonine or methamphetamine or the derivatives, salts, isomers, or salts of isomers thereof or marijuana or (ii) the person engaged in the enterprise to manufacture, sell, give, distribute or possess with the intent to manufacture, sell, give or distribute the following during any 12-month period of its existence:

1. At least 5.0 kilograms of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of heroin;

2. At least 10 kilograms of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of:

a. Coca leaves, except coca leaves and extracts of coca leaves from which cocaine, ecgonine, and derivatives of ecgonine or their salts have been removed;

b. Cocaine, its salts, optical and geometric isomers, and salts of isomers;

c. Ecgonine, its derivatives, their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers; or

d. Any compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of any of the substances referred to in subdivisions a through c;

3. At least 5.0 kilograms of a mixture or substance described in subdivision 2 which contains cocaine base;

4. At least 250 kilograms of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of marijuana; or

5. At least 250 grams of methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, or salts of its isomers or at least 1.0 kilograms of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, or salts of its isomers shall be guilty of a felony punishable by a fine of not more than $1 million and imprisonment for life, which shall be served with no suspension in whole or in part. Such punishment shall be made to run consecutively with any other sentence. However, the court may impose a mandatory minimum sentence of 40 years if the court finds that the defendant substantially cooperated with law-enforcement authorities.

I. For purposes of this section, a person is engaged in a continuing criminal enterprise if (i) he violates any provision of this section, the punishment for which is a felony and either (ii) such violation is a part of a continuing series of violations of this section which are undertaken by such person in concert with five or more other persons with respect to whom such person occupies a position of organizer, a supervisory position, or any other position of management, and from which such person obtains substantial income or resources or (iii) such violation is committed, with respect to methamphetamine or other controlled substance classified in Schedule I or II, for the benefit of, at the direction of, or in association with any criminal street gang as defined in § 18.2-46.1.

J. Except as authorized in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.), any person who possesses any two or more different substances listed below with the intent to manufacture methamphetamine, methcathinone, or amphetamine is guilty of a Class 6 felony: liquefied ammonia gas, ammonium nitrate, ether, hypophosphorus acid solutions, hypophosphite salts, hydrochloric acid, iodine crystals or tincture of iodine, phenylacetone, phenylacetic acid, red phosphorus, methylamine, methyl formamide, lithium, sodium metal, sulfuric acid, sodium hydroxide, potassium dichromate, sodium dichromate, potassium permanganate, chromium trioxide, methylbenzene, methamphetamine precursor drugs, trichloroethane, or 2-propanone.

K. The term "methamphetamine precursor drug," when used in this article, means a drug or product containing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine or any of their salts, optical isomers, or salts of optical isomers.

Code 1950, § 54-524.101:1; 1972, c. 798; 1973, c. 479; 1974, c. 586; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1976, c. 614; 1977, c. 409; 1978, cc. 177, 779; 1979, c. 435; 1982, cc. 276, 462; 1985, c. 569; 1986, c. 453; 1988, c. 355; 1990, c. 82; 1991, c. 13; 1992, cc. 685, 737, 756; 1995, c. 538; 1999, c. 722; 2000, cc. 1020, 1041; 2004, c. 461; 2005, cc. 174, 759, 796, 923, 941; 2006, cc. 697, 759; 2008, cc. 79, 618; 2009, c. 750; 2012, cc. 219, 710, 844; 2013, c. 426; 2014, c. 513.

Except as authorized in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) it is unlawful for any person to transport into the Commonwealth by any means with intent to sell or distribute one ounce or more of cocaine, coca leaves or any salt, compound, derivative or preparation thereof as described in Schedule II of the Drug Control Act or one ounce or more of any other Schedule I or II controlled substance or five or more pounds of marijuana. A violation of this section shall constitute a separate and distinct felony. Upon conviction, the person shall be sentenced to not less than five years nor more than 40 years imprisonment, three years of which shall be a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment, and a fine not to exceed $1,000,000. A second or subsequent conviction hereunder shall be punishable by a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment of 10 years, which shall be served consecutively with any other sentence.

1992, c. 723; 2000, cc. 1020, 1041; 2004, c. 461.

Any person 18 years of age or older who knowingly allows (i) a minor under the age of 15, (ii) a minor 15 years of age or older with whom he maintains a custodial relationship, including but not limited to as a parent, step-parent, grandparent, step-grandparent, or who stands in loco parentis with respect to such minor, or (iii) a mentally incapacitated or physically helpless person of any age, to be present in the same dwelling, apartment as defined by § 55.1-2000, unit of a hotel as defined in § 35.1-1, garage, shed, or vehicle during the manufacture or attempted manufacture of methamphetamine as prohibited by subsection C1 of § 18.2-248 or any substance containing a detectable amount of fentanyl, including its derivatives, isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, is guilty of a felony punishable by imprisonment for not less than 10 nor more than 40 years. This penalty shall be in addition to and served consecutively with any other sentence.

2005, cc. 923, 941; 2013, c. 743; 2024, c. 371.

A. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any person who manufactures, sells, gives, distributes, or possesses with intent to manufacture, sell, give, or distribute 28 grams or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, or salts of its isomers is guilty of a felony punishable by a fine of not more than $500,000 and imprisonment for not less than five nor more than 40 years, three years of which shall be a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment to be served consecutively with any other sentence.

B. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any person who manufactures, sells, gives, distributes, or possesses with intent to manufacture, sell, give, or distribute 227 grams or more of a mixture or substance containing a detectable amount of methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, or salts of its isomers is guilty of a felony punishable by a fine of not more than $1 million and imprisonment for not less than five years nor more than life, five years of which shall be a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment to be served consecutively with any other sentence.

2008, cc. 858, 874.

There is hereby created in the state treasury a special nonreverting fund to be known as the Methamphetamine Cleanup Fund, hereafter referred to as "the Fund." The Fund shall be established on the books of the Comptroller. All moneys assessed against a person convicted of manufacture of methamphetamine as methamphetamine cleanup funds pursuant to subsection C1 of § 18.2-248 shall be paid into the state treasury and credited to the Fund. Interest earned on moneys in the Fund shall remain in the Fund and be credited to it. Any moneys remaining in the Fund, including interest thereon, at the end of each fiscal year shall not revert to the general fund but shall remain in the Fund. Moneys in the Fund shall be used solely for the purposes of restoration to an environmentally sound state sites used for the criminal manufacture of methamphetamine. Expenditures and disbursements from the Fund shall be made by the State Treasurer on warrants issued by the Comptroller upon written request signed by any agency of the Commonwealth, law-enforcement agency, or locality with the responsibility for and engaged in a specific methamphetamine site cleanup.

2012, c. 219.

A. For the purposes of this section:

"Encapsulating machine" means manual, semiautomatic, or fully automatic equipment that can be used to fill shells or capsules with powdered or granular solids or semisolid material to produce coherent solid contents.

"Tableting machine" means manual, semiautomatic, or fully automatic equipment that can be used to compact, compress, or mold powdered or granular solids or semisolid material to produce fused coherent solid tablets.

B. Except for manufacturers permitted pursuant to the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.), it is unlawful for any person to possess, purchase, sell, give, distribute, or possess with intent to sell, give, or distribute an encapsulating machine or a tableting machine that manufactures, compounds, converts, produces, processes, prepares, or otherwise introduces into the human body a controlled substance. Any person who violates this section is guilty of a Class 6 felony. However, any person who violates this section knowing, intending, or having reasonable cause to believe that such action will result in the unlawful manufacture of a controlled substance or counterfeit controlled substance that contains (i) a controlled substance classified in Schedule I or Schedule II of the Drug Control Act or (ii) a controlled substance analog as defined in § 54.1-3456 is guilty of a Class 5 felony.

2024, c. 371.

Except as authorized in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.), it is unlawful for any person to sell, give, distribute or possess with intent to sell, give, or distribute marijuana.

(a) Any person who violates this section with respect to:

(1) Not more than one ounce of marijuana is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor;

(2) More than one ounce but not more than five pounds of marijuana is guilty of a Class 5 felony;

(3) More than five pounds of marijuana is guilty of a felony punishable by imprisonment of not less than five nor more than 30 years.

There shall be a rebuttable presumption that a person who possesses no more than one ounce of marijuana possesses it for personal use.

If such person proves that he gave, distributed, or possessed with intent to give or distribute marijuana only as an accommodation to another individual and not with intent to profit thereby from any consideration received or expected nor to induce the recipient or intended recipient of the marijuana to use or become addicted to or dependent upon such marijuana, he is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

(b) Any person who gives, distributes, or possesses marijuana as an accommodation and not with intent to profit thereby, to an inmate of a state or local correctional facility, as defined in § 53.1-1, or in the custody of an employee thereof is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

(c) Any person who manufactures marijuana, or possesses marijuana with the intent to manufacture such substance, not for his own use is guilty of a felony punishable by imprisonment of not less than five nor more than 30 years and a fine not to exceed $10,000.

(d) When a person is convicted of a third or subsequent felony offense under this section and it is alleged in the warrant, indictment or information that he has been before convicted of two or more felony offenses under this section or of substantially similar offenses in any other jurisdiction which offenses would be felonies if committed in the Commonwealth, and such prior convictions occurred before the date of the offense alleged in the warrant, indictment, or information, he shall be sentenced to imprisonment for life or for any period not less than five years, five years of which shall be a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment to be served consecutively with any other sentence and he shall be fined not more than $500,000.

1979, c. 435; 1986, c. 467; 2000, cc. 819, 1020, 1041; 2004, c. 461; 2006, cc. 697, 759; 2020, cc. 1285, 1286.

Repealed by Acts 2014, cc. 674 and 719, cl. 2.

Repealed by Acts 1981, c. 598.

No civil or criminal liability shall be imposed by virtue of this article on any person licensed under the Drug Control Act, Chapter 34 of Title 54.1, who manufactures, sells, gives or distributes an imitation controlled substance for use as a placebo by a licensed practitioner in the course of professional practice or research.

1982, c. 462.

It shall be a Class 1 misdemeanor for any person knowingly to sell or display for sale, or to distribute, whether or not any charge is made therefor, any book, pamphlet, handbill or other printed matter which he knows is intended to promote the distribution of an imitation controlled substance.

1982, c. 462.

A. Except as authorized in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.), Chapter 34 of Title 54.1, it shall be unlawful for any person to knowingly manufacture, sell, give, distribute or possess with intent to manufacture, sell, give or distribute any anabolic steroid.

A violation of subsection A shall be punishable by a term of imprisonment of not less than one year nor more than 10 years or, in the discretion of the jury or the court trying the case without a jury, confinement in jail for not more than 12 months or a fine of not more than $20,000, either or both. Any person violating the provisions of this subsection shall, upon conviction, be incarcerated for a mandatory minimum term of six months to be served consecutively with any other sentence.

B. It shall be unlawful for any person to knowingly sell or otherwise distribute, without prescription, to a minor any pill, capsule or tablet containing any combination of caffeine and ephedrine sulfate.

A violation of this subsection B shall be punishable as a Class 1 misdemeanor.

1984, c. 620; 1988, c. 428; 1989, c. 567; 2000, cc. 1020, 1041; 2004, c. 461.

Repealed by Acts 1999, c. 348, cl. 2.

Repealed by Acts 2012, cc. 160 and 252, cl. 2, effective January 1, 2013.

Repealed by Acts 2004, c. 995.

A. It is unlawful for any person knowingly or intentionally to possess a controlled substance unless the substance was obtained directly from, or pursuant to, a valid prescription or order of a practitioner while acting in the course of his professional practice, or except as otherwise authorized by the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.).

Upon the prosecution of a person for a violation of this section, ownership or occupancy of premises or vehicle upon or in which a controlled substance was found shall not create a presumption that such person either knowingly or intentionally possessed such controlled substance.

(a) Any person who violates this section with respect to any controlled substance classified in Schedule I or II of the Drug Control Act shall be guilty of a Class 5 felony, except that any person other than an inmate of a penal institution as defined in § 53.1-1 or in the custody of an employee thereof who violates this section with respect to a cannabimimetic agent is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

(b) Any person other than an inmate of a penal institution as defined in § 53.1-1 or in the custody of an employee thereof, who violates this section with respect to a controlled substance classified in Schedule III shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

(b1) Violation of this section with respect to a controlled substance classified in Schedule IV shall be punishable as a Class 2 misdemeanor.

(b2) Violation of this section with respect to a controlled substance classified in Schedule V shall be punishable as a Class 3 misdemeanor.

(c) Violation of this section with respect to a controlled substance classified in Schedule VI shall be punishable as a Class 4 misdemeanor.

B. The provisions of this section shall not apply to members of state, federal, county, city or town law-enforcement agencies, jail officers, or correctional officers, as defined in § 53.1-1, certified as handlers of dogs trained in the detection of controlled substances when possession of a controlled substance or substances is necessary in the performance of their duties.

Code 1950, § 54-524.101:2; 1972, c. 798; 1973, c. 64; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1976, c. 614; 1978, cc. 151, 177, 179; 1979, c. 435; 1980, c. 285; 1991, c. 649; 1998, c. 116; 2014, cc. 674, 719.

Repealed by Acts 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 550 and 551, cl. 3, effective July 1, 2021.

Whenever any person who has not previously been convicted of any criminal offense under this article or under any statute of the United States or of any state relating to narcotic drugs, marijuana, or stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic drugs, with the exception of any misdemeanor conviction for possession of marijuana, or has not previously had a proceeding against him for violation of such an offense dismissed as provided in this section, except a dismissal of a misdemeanor offense for possession of marijuana, pleads guilty to or enters a plea of not guilty to possession of a controlled substance under § 18.2-250, the court, upon such plea if the facts found by the court would justify a finding of guilt, without entering a judgment of guilt and with the consent of the accused, may defer further proceedings and place him on probation upon terms and conditions. If the court defers further proceedings, at that time the court shall determine whether the clerk of court has been provided with the fingerprint identification information or fingerprints of the person, taken by a law-enforcement officer pursuant to § 19.2-390, and, if not, shall order that the fingerprints and photograph of the person be taken by a law-enforcement officer.

As a term or condition, the court shall require the accused to undergo a substance abuse assessment pursuant to § 18.2-251.01 or 19.2-299.2, as appropriate, and enter treatment and/or education program or services, if available, such as, in the opinion of the court, may be best suited to the needs of the accused based upon consideration of the substance abuse assessment. The program or services may be located in the judicial district in which the charge is brought or in any other judicial district as the court may provide. The services shall be provided by (i) a program licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, by a similar program which is made available through the Department of Corrections, (ii) a local community-based probation services agency established pursuant to § 9.1-174, or (iii) an ASAP program certified by the Commission on VASAP.

The court shall require the person entering such program under the provisions of this section to pay all or part of the costs of the program, including the costs of the screening, assessment, testing, and treatment, based upon the accused's ability to pay unless the person is determined by the court to be indigent.

As a condition of probation, the court shall require the accused (a) to successfully complete treatment or education program or services, (b) to remain drug and alcohol free during the period of probation and submit to such tests during that period as may be necessary and appropriate to determine if the accused is drug and alcohol free, (c) to make reasonable efforts to secure and maintain employment, and (d) to comply with a plan of at least 100 hours of community service for a felony and up to 24 hours of community service for a misdemeanor. Such testing shall be conducted by personnel of the supervising probation agency or personnel of any program or agency approved by the supervising probation agency.

Upon violation of a term or condition, the court may enter an adjudication of guilt and proceed as otherwise provided. Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions, and upon determining that the clerk of court has been provided with the fingerprint identification information or fingerprints of such person, the court shall discharge the person and dismiss the proceedings against him. Discharge and dismissal under this section shall be without adjudication of guilt and is a conviction only for the purposes of applying this section in subsequent proceedings.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, whenever a court places an individual on probation upon terms and conditions pursuant to this section, such action shall be treated as a conviction for purposes of § 22.1-315. The provisions of this paragraph shall not be applicable to any offense for which a juvenile has had his license suspended or denied pursuant to § 16.1-278.9 for the same offense.

Code 1950, § 54-524.101:3; 1972, c. 798; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1976, c. 181; 1979, c. 435; 1983, c. 513; 1991, c. 482; 1992, cc. 58, 833; 1993, c. 410; 1997, c. 380; 1998, cc. 688, 783, 840; 2000, cc. 1020, 1041; 2001, cc. 430, 450, 827; 2007, c. 133; 2009, cc. 813, 840; 2011, cc. 384, 410; 2014, cc. 674, 719; 2017, cc. 695, 703; 2019, cc. 782, 783; 2020, cc. 740, 741, 1285, 1286; 2024, cc. 785, 811.

A. When a person is convicted of a felony, except a Class 1 felony, committed on or after January 1, 2000, he shall be required to undergo a substance abuse screening and, if the screening indicates a substance abuse or dependence problem, an assessment by a certified substance abuse counselor as defined in § 54.1-3500 employed by the Department of Corrections or by an agency employee under the supervision of such counselor. If the person is determined to have a substance abuse problem, the court shall require him to enter treatment and/or education program or services, if available, which, in the opinion of the court, is best suited to the needs of the person. The program or services may be located in the judicial district in which the conviction was had or in any other judicial district as the court may provide. The treatment and/or education program or services shall be licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services or shall be a similar program or services which are made available through the Department of Corrections if the court imposes a sentence of one year or more or, if the court imposes a sentence of 12 months or less, by a similar program or services available through a local or regional jail, a local community-based probation services agency established pursuant to § 9.1-174, or an ASAP program certified by the Commission on VASAP. The services agency or program may require the person entering such program or services under the provisions of this section to pay a fee for the education and treatment component, or both, based upon the defendant's ability to pay.

B. As a condition of any suspended sentence and probation, the court shall order the person to undergo periodic testing and treatment for substance abuse, if available, as the court deems appropriate based upon consideration of the substance abuse assessment.

1998, cc. 783, 840; 1999, cc. 891, 913; 2000, cc. 1020, 1041; 2007, c. 133; 2009, cc. 813, 840; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 344, 345.

There is hereby established in the state treasury the Drug Offender Assessment and Treatment Fund, which shall consist of moneys received from fees imposed on certain drug offense convictions pursuant to § 16.1-69.48:3 and subdivisions A 10 and 11 of § 17.1-275. All interest derived from the deposit and investment of moneys in the Fund shall be credited to the Fund. Any moneys not appropriated by the General Assembly shall remain in the Drug Offender Assessment and Treatment Fund and shall not be transferred or revert to the general fund at the end of any fiscal year. All moneys in the Fund shall be subject to annual appropriation by the General Assembly to the Department of Corrections, the Department of Juvenile Justice, and the Commission on VASAP to implement and operate the offender substance abuse screening and assessment program; the Department of Criminal Justice Services for the support of community-based probation and local pretrial services agencies; and the Office of the Executive Secretary of the Supreme Court of Virginia for the support of recovery court programs.

1998, cc. 783, 840; 2003, c. 606; 2004, c. 1004; 2020, cc. 1285, 1286; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 550, 551; 2024, cc. 25, 130.

A. For purposes of this section, "overdose" means a life-threatening condition resulting from the consumption or use of a controlled substance, alcohol, or any combination of such substances.

B. No individual shall be subject to arrest or prosecution for the unlawful purchase, possession, or consumption of alcohol pursuant to § 4.1-305, unlawful purchase, possession, or consumption of marijuana pursuant to § 4.1-1105.1, possession of a controlled substance pursuant to § 18.2-250, intoxication in public pursuant to § 18.2-388, or possession of controlled paraphernalia pursuant to § 54.1-3466 if:

1. Such individual (i) in good faith, seeks or obtains emergency medical attention (a) for himself, if he is experiencing an overdose, or (b) for another individual, if such other individual is experiencing an overdose; (ii) is experiencing an overdose and another individual, in good faith, seeks or obtains emergency medical attention for such individual, by contemporaneously reporting such overdose to a firefighter, as defined in § 65.2-102, emergency medical services personnel, as defined in § 32.1-111.1, a law-enforcement officer, as defined in § 9.1-101, or an emergency 911 system; or (iii) in good faith, renders emergency care or assistance, including cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) or the administration of naloxone or other opioid antagonist for overdose reversal, to an individual experiencing an overdose while another individual seeks or obtains emergency medical attention in accordance with this subdivision;

2. Such individual remains at the scene of the overdose or at any alternative location to which he or the person requiring emergency medical attention has been transported until a law-enforcement officer responds to the report of an overdose. If no law-enforcement officer is present at the scene of the overdose or at the alternative location, then such individual shall cooperate with law enforcement as otherwise set forth herein;

3. Such individual identifies himself to the law-enforcement officer who responds to the report of the overdose; and

4. The evidence for the prosecution of an offense enumerated in this subsection was obtained as a result of the individual seeking or obtaining emergency medical attention or rendering emergency care or assistance.

C. The provisions of this section shall not apply to any person who seeks or obtains emergency medical attention for himself or another individual, to a person experiencing an overdose when another individual seeks or obtains emergency medical attention for him, or to a person who renders emergency care or assistance to an individual experiencing an overdose while another person seeks or obtains emergency medical attention during the execution of a search warrant or during the conduct of a lawful search or a lawful arrest.

D. This section does not establish protection from arrest or prosecution for any individual or offense other than those listed in subsection B.

E. No law-enforcement officer acting in good faith shall be found liable for false arrest if it is later determined that the person arrested was immune from prosecution under this section.

2015, cc. 418, 436; 2019, c. 626; 2020, c. 1016; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 29, 550, 551.

A. No person shall be prosecuted under § 18.2-250 or § 18.2-250.1 for the possession of marijuana or tetrahydrocannabinol when that possession occurs pursuant to a valid prescription issued by a medical doctor in the course of his professional practice for treatment of cancer or glaucoma.

B. No medical doctor shall be prosecuted under § 18.2-248 or § 18.2-248.1 for dispensing or distributing marijuana or tetrahydrocannabinol for medical purposes when such action occurs in the course of his professional practice for treatment of cancer or glaucoma.

C. No pharmacist shall be prosecuted under §§ 18.2-248 to 18.2-248.1 for dispensing or distributing marijuana or tetrahydrocannabinol to any person who holds a valid prescription of a medical doctor for such substance issued in the course of such doctor's professional practice for treatment of cancer or glaucoma.

1979, c. 435.

No school nurse employed by a local school board, person employed by a local health department who is assigned to the public school pursuant to an agreement between the local health department and the school board, or other person employed by or contracted with a local school board to deliver health-related services shall be prosecuted under Chapter 11 (§ 4.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 4.1 or § 18.2-248, 18.2-248.1, 18.2-250, or 18.2-255 for the possession or distribution of cannabis oil for storing, dispensing, or administering cannabis oil, in accordance with a policy adopted by the local school board, to a student who has been issued a valid written certification for the use of cannabis oil in accordance with § 4.1-1601.

2019, cc. 573, 574; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 550, 551; 2023, cc. 740, 773.

No person employed by a nursing home, hospice, hospice facility, or assisted living facility and authorized to possess, distribute, or administer medications to patients or residents shall be prosecuted under Chapter 11 (§ 4.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 4.1 or § 18.2-248, 18.2-248.1, or 18.2-250 for the possession or distribution of cannabis oil for the purposes of storing, dispensing, or administering cannabis oil to a patient or resident who has been issued a valid written certification for the use of cannabis oil in accordance with § 4.1-1601.

2020, c. 846; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 550, 551; 2023, cc. 740, 773.

A. No person employed by an analytical laboratory to retrieve, deliver, or possess cannabis oil or industrial hemp samples from a permitted pharmaceutical processor, a registered industrial hemp grower, a federally licensed hemp producer, or a registered industrial hemp processor for the purpose of performing required testing shall be prosecuted under Chapter 11 (§ 4.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 4.1 or § 18.2-248, 18.2-248.1, 18.2-250, or 18.2-255 for the possession or distribution of cannabis oil or industrial hemp or for storing cannabis oil or industrial hemp for testing purposes in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Board of Pharmacy and the Board of Agriculture and Consumer Services.

B. No employee of the Department of Agriculture and Consumer Services or of the Department of Law shall be prosecuted under § 18.2-247, 18.2-248, 18.2-248.01, 18.2-248.1, or 18.2-250 for the possession or distribution of industrial hemp or any substance containing tetrahydrocannabinol when possession of industrial hemp or any substance containing tetrahydrocannabinol is necessary in the performance of his duties.

2020, c. 941, § 18.2-251.1:2; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 110, 550, 551; 2023, cc. 744, 794.

Notwithstanding the provisions of §§ 54.1-3446 and 54.1-3452, the drug flunitrazepam shall be deemed to be listed on Schedule I for the purposes of penalties for violations of the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.). Any person knowingly manufacturing, selling, giving, distributing or possessing the drug flunitrazepam shall be punished under the penalties prescribed for such violations in accordance with §§ 18.2-248 and 18.2-250.

1997, c. 595.

Any person who knowingly manufactures, sells, gives, distributes or possesses with the intent to distribute the substances gamma-butyrolactone; or 1, 4-butanediol, when intended for human consumption shall be guilty of a Class 3 felony.

2000, c. 348.

A. It is unlawful for a person to:

1. Sell, give away, distribute, transport or market human urine in the Commonwealth with the intent of using the urine to defeat a drug or alcohol screening test;

2. Attempt to defeat a drug or alcohol screening test by the substitution of a sample;

3. Adulterate a urine or other bodily fluid sample with the intent to defraud a drug or alcohol screening test.

B. A violation of this section is a Class 1 misdemeanor.

2001, c. 379.

A. Any person who knowingly manufactures, sells, gives, distributes, or possesses with the intent to manufacture, sell, give, or distribute the substance xylazine, when intended for human consumption, is guilty of a Class 5 felony.

B. Any person who knowingly possesses the substance xylazine, when intended for human consumption, is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

C. Notwithstanding subsections A and B, it shall not be an offense to (i) manufacture xylazine for legitimate veterinary use; (ii) distribute or sell xylazine for authorized veterinary use; (iii) possess, administer, prescribe, or dispense xylazine in good faith for use by animals within the course of legitimate veterinary practice; or (iv) possess or administer xylazine pursuant to a valid prescription from a licensed veterinarian.

2024, cc. 472, 516.

The trial judge or court trying the case of any person found guilty of a criminal violation of any law concerning the use, in any manner, of drugs, controlled substances, narcotics, marijuana, noxious chemical substances and like substances shall condition any suspended sentence by first requiring such person to agree to undergo a substance abuse screening pursuant to § 18.2-251.01 and to submit to such periodic substance abuse testing, to include alcohol testing, as may be directed by the court. Such testing shall be conducted by the supervising probation agency or by personnel of any program or agency approved by the supervising probation agency. The cost of such testing ordered by the court shall be paid by the Commonwealth and taxed as a part of the costs of such proceedings. The judge or court shall order the person, as a condition of any suspended sentence, to undergo such treatment or education for substance abuse, if available, as the judge or court deems appropriate based upon consideration of the substance abuse assessment. The treatment or education shall be provided by a program or agency licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, by a similar program or services available through the Department of Corrections if the court imposes a sentence of one year or more or, if the court imposes a sentence of 12 months or less, by a similar program or services available through a local or regional jail, a local community-based probation services agency established pursuant to § 9.1-174, or an ASAP program certified by the Commission on VASAP.

Code 1950, § 54-524.101:4; 1973, c. 473; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1979, c. 435; 1998, cc. 783, 840; 2000, cc. 1020, 1041; 2007, c. 133; 2009, cc. 813, 840; 2020, cc. 1285, 1286.

Repealed by Acts 2004, c. 995.

A. Whenever any person who has not previously been convicted of any criminal offense under this article or under any statute of the United States or of any state relating to narcotic drugs, marijuana, stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic drugs or has not previously had a proceeding against him for violation of such an offense dismissed as provided in § 18.2-251 is found guilty of violating any law concerning the use, in any manner, of drugs, controlled substances, narcotics, marijuana, noxious chemical substances, and like substances, the judge or court shall require such person to undergo a substance abuse screening pursuant to § 18.2-251.01 and to submit to such periodic substance abuse testing, to include alcohol testing, as may be directed by the court. The cost of such testing ordered by the court shall be paid by the Commonwealth and taxed as a part of the costs of the criminal proceedings. The judge or court shall also order the person to undergo such treatment or education for substance abuse, if available, as the judge or court deems appropriate based upon consideration of the substance abuse assessment. The treatment or education shall be provided by a program or agency licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services or by a similar program or services available through the Department of Corrections if the court imposes a sentence of one year or more or, if the court imposes a sentence of 12 months or less, by a similar program or services available through a local or regional jail, a local community-based probation services agency established pursuant to § 9.1-174, or an ASAP program certified by the Commission on VASAP.

B. The court trying the case of any person alleged to have committed any criminal offense designated by this article or by the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) or in any other criminal case in which the commission of the offense was motivated by or closely related to the use of drugs and determined by the court, pursuant to a substance abuse screening and assessment, to be in need of treatment for the use of drugs may commit, based upon a consideration of the substance abuse assessment, such person, upon his conviction, to any facility for the treatment of persons with substance abuse, licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, if space is available in such facility, for a period of time not in excess of the maximum term of imprisonment specified as the penalty for conviction of such offense or, if sentence was determined by a jury, not in excess of the term of imprisonment as set by such jury. Confinement under such commitment shall be, in all regards, treated as confinement in a penal institution and the person so committed may be convicted of escape if he leaves the place of commitment without authority. A charge of escape may be prosecuted in either the jurisdiction where the treatment facility is located or the jurisdiction where the person was sentenced to commitment. The court may revoke such commitment at any time and transfer the person to an appropriate state or local correctional facility. Upon presentation of a certified statement from the director of the treatment facility to the effect that the confined person has successfully responded to treatment, the court may release such confined person prior to the termination of the period of time for which such person was confined and may suspend the remainder of the term upon such conditions as the court may prescribe.

C. The court trying a case in which commission of the criminal offense was related to the defendant's habitual abuse of alcohol and in which the court determines, pursuant to a substance abuse screening and assessment, that such defendant is in need of treatment, may commit, based upon a consideration of the substance abuse assessment, such person, upon his conviction, to any facility for the treatment of persons with substance abuse licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, if space is available in such facility, for a period of time not in excess of the maximum term of imprisonment specified as the penalty for conviction. Confinement under such commitment shall be, in all regards, treated as confinement in a penal institution and the person so committed may be convicted of escape if he leaves the place of commitment without authority. The court may revoke such commitment at any time and transfer the person to an appropriate state or local correctional facility. Upon presentation of a certified statement from the director of the treatment facility to the effect that the confined person has successfully responded to treatment, the court may release such confined person prior to the termination of the period of time for which such person was confined and may suspend the remainder of the term upon such conditions as the court may prescribe.

Code 1950, § 54-524.102; 1972, c. 758; 1974, c. 447; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1978, c. 640; 1979, cc. 413, 435; 1992, c. 852; 1998, c. 724; 2000, cc. 1020, 1041; 2004, c. 130; 2005, c. 716; 2007, c. 133; 2009, cc. 813, 840; 2020, cc. 1285, 1286.

A. This section shall be known and may be cited as the "Recovery Court Act."

B. The General Assembly recognizes that there is a critical need in the Commonwealth for effective treatment programs that reduce the incidence of drug use, drug addiction, family separation due to parental substance abuse, and drug-related crimes. It is the intent of the General Assembly by this section to enhance public safety by facilitating the creation of recovery courts as means by which to accomplish this purpose.

C. The goals of recovery courts include: (i) reducing drug addiction and drug dependency among offenders; (ii) reducing recidivism; (iii) reducing drug-related court workloads; (iv) increasing personal, familial and societal accountability among offenders; and (v) promoting effective planning and use of resources among the criminal justice system and community agencies.

D. Recovery courts are specialized court dockets within the existing structure of Virginia's court system offering judicial monitoring of intensive treatment and strict supervision of addicts in drug and drug-related cases. Local officials must complete a recognized planning process before establishing a recovery court program.

E. Administrative oversight for implementation of the Recovery Court Act shall be conducted by the Supreme Court of Virginia. The Supreme Court of Virginia shall be responsible for (i) providing oversight for the distribution of funds for recovery courts; (ii) providing technical assistance to recovery courts; (iii) providing training for judges who preside over recovery courts; (iv) providing training to the providers of administrative, case management, and treatment services to recovery courts; and (v) monitoring the completion of evaluations of the effectiveness and efficiency of recovery courts in the Commonwealth.

F. The state Recovery Court Advisory Committee shall be established to (i) evaluate and recommend standards for the planning and implementation of recovery courts; (ii) assist in the evaluation of their effectiveness and efficiency; and (iii) encourage and enhance cooperation among agencies that participate in their planning and implementation. The committee shall be chaired by the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of Virginia or his designee and shall include a member of the Judicial Conference of Virginia who presides over a recovery court; a district court judge; the Executive Secretary or his designee; the directors of the following executive branch agencies: Department of Corrections, Department of Criminal Justice Services, Department of Juvenile Justice, Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, Department of Social Services; a representative of the following entities: a local community-based probation and pretrial services agency, the Commonwealth's Attorney's Association, the Virginia Indigent Defense Commission, the Circuit Court Clerk's Association, the Virginia Sheriff's Association, the Virginia Association of Chiefs of Police, the Commission on VASAP, and two representatives designated by the Virginia Drug Court Association.

G. Each jurisdiction or combination of jurisdictions that intend to establish a recovery court or continue the operation of an existing one shall establish a local recovery court advisory committee. Jurisdictions that establish separate adult and juvenile recovery courts may establish an advisory committee for each such court. Each advisory committee shall ensure quality, efficiency, and fairness in the planning, implementation, and operation of the recovery court or courts that serve the jurisdiction or combination of jurisdictions. Advisory committee membership shall include, but shall not be limited to the following people or their designees: (i) the recovery court judge; (ii) the attorney for the Commonwealth, or, where applicable, the city or county attorney who has responsibility for the prosecution of misdemeanor offenses; (iii) the public defender or a member of the local criminal defense bar in jurisdictions in which there is no public defender; (iv) the clerk of the court in which the recovery court is located; (v) a representative of the Virginia Department of Corrections, or the Department of Juvenile Justice, or both, from the local office which serves the jurisdiction or combination of jurisdictions; (vi) a representative of a local community-based probation and pretrial services agency; (vii) a local law-enforcement officer; (viii) a representative of the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services or a representative of local drug treatment providers; (ix) the recovery court administrator; (x) a representative of the Department of Social Services; (xi) county administrator or city manager; and (xii) any other people selected by the recovery court advisory committee.

H. Each local recovery court advisory committee shall establish criteria for the eligibility and participation of offenders who have been determined to be addicted to or dependent upon drugs. Subject to the provisions of this section, neither the establishment of a recovery court nor anything herein shall be construed as limiting the discretion of the attorney for the Commonwealth to prosecute any criminal case arising therein which he deems advisable to prosecute, except to the extent the participating attorney for the Commonwealth agrees to do so. An adult offender shall not be eligible for participation in any recovery court established or continued in operation pursuant to this section if any of the following conditions apply:

1. The offender is presently charged with a felony offense or is convicted of a felony offense while participating in any recovery court where:

a. The offender carried, possessed, or used a firearm or any dangerous weapon specified in § 18.2-308 during such offense;

b. The death or serious bodily injury of any person occurred during such offense; or

c. The use of force against any other person besides the offender occurred during such offense; or

2. The offender was previously convicted as an adult of any felony offense that involved the use of force or attempted use of force against any person with the intent to cause death or serious bodily injury.

I. Each recovery court advisory committee shall establish policies and procedures for the operation of the court to attain the following goals: (i) effective integration of drug and alcohol treatment services with criminal justice system case processing; (ii) enhanced public safety through intensive offender supervision and drug treatment; (iii) prompt identification and placement of eligible participants; (iv) efficient access to a continuum of alcohol, drug, and related treatment and rehabilitation services; (v) verified participant abstinence through frequent alcohol and other drug testing; (vi) prompt response to participants' noncompliance with program requirements through a coordinated strategy; (vii) ongoing judicial interaction with each recovery court participant; (viii) ongoing monitoring and evaluation of program effectiveness and efficiency; (ix) ongoing interdisciplinary education and training in support of program effectiveness and efficiency; and (x) ongoing collaboration among recovery courts, public agencies, and community-based organizations to enhance program effectiveness and efficiency.

J. Participation by an offender in a recovery court shall be voluntary and made pursuant only to a written agreement entered into by and between the offender and the Commonwealth with the concurrence of the court.

K. Nothing in this section shall preclude the establishment of substance abuse treatment programs and services pursuant to the deferred judgment provisions of § 18.2-251.

L. Each offender shall contribute to the cost of the substance abuse treatment he receives while participating in a recovery court pursuant to guidelines developed by the recovery court advisory committee.

M. Nothing contained in this section shall confer a right or an expectation of a right to treatment for an offender or be construed as requiring a local recovery court advisory committee to accept for participation every offender.

N. The Office of the Executive Secretary shall, with the assistance of the state Recovery Court Advisory Committee, develop a statewide evaluation model and conduct ongoing evaluations of the effectiveness and efficiency of all local recovery courts. A report of these evaluations shall be submitted to the General Assembly by December 1 of each year. Each local recovery court advisory committee shall submit evaluative reports to the Office of the Executive Secretary as requested.

O. Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, no recovery court shall be established subsequent to March 1, 2004, unless the jurisdiction or jurisdictions intending or proposing to establish such court have been specifically granted permission under the Code of Virginia to establish such court. The provisions of this subsection shall not apply to any recovery court established on or before March 1, 2004, and operational as of July 1, 2004.

P. Subject to the requirements and conditions established by the state Recovery Court Advisory Committee, there shall be established a recovery court in the following jurisdictions: the City of Chesapeake and the City of Newport News.

Q. Subject to the requirements and conditions established by the state Recovery Court Advisory Committee, there shall be established a recovery court in the Juvenile and Domestic Relations District Court for the County of Franklin, provided that such court is funded solely through local sources.

R. Subject to the requirements and conditions established by the state Recovery Court Advisory Committee, there shall be established a recovery court in the City of Bristol and the County of Tazewell, provided that the court is funded within existing state and local appropriations.

2004, c. 1004; 2005, cc. 519, 602; 2006, cc. 175, 341; 2007, c. 133; 2009, cc. 205, 281, 294, 813, 840; 2010, c. 258; 2024, cc. 25, 130, 260.

A. The Office of the Executive Secretary of the Supreme Court shall develop a statewide evaluation model and conduct ongoing evaluations of the effectiveness and efficiency of all local specialty dockets established in accordance with the Rules of Supreme Court of Virginia. Each local specialty docket shall submit evaluative reports to the Office of the Executive Secretary as requested. The Office of the Executive Secretary of the Supreme Court of Virginia shall submit a report of such evaluations to the General Assembly by December 1 of each year.

B. Any veterans docket authorized and established as a local specialty docket in accordance with the Rules of Supreme Court of Virginia shall be deemed a "Veterans Treatment Court Program," as that term is used under federal law or by any other entity, for the purposes of applying for, qualifying for, or receiving any federal grants, other federal money, or money from any other entity designated to assist or fund such state programs.

2019, cc. 13, 51; 2020, c. 603.

A. This section shall be known and may be cited as the "Behavioral Health Docket Act."

B. The General Assembly recognizes the critical need to promote public safety and reduce recidivism by addressing co-occurring behavioral health issues, such as mental illness and substance abuse, related to persons in the criminal justice system. It is the intention of the General Assembly to enhance public safety by facilitating the creation of behavioral health dockets to accomplish this purpose.

C. The goals of behavioral health dockets shall include (i) reducing recidivism; (ii) increasing personal, familial, and societal accountability among offenders through ongoing judicial intervention; (iii) addressing mental illness and substance abuse that contribute to criminal behavior and recidivism; and (iv) promoting effective planning and use of resources within the criminal justice system and community agencies. Behavioral health dockets promote outcomes that will benefit not only the offender but society as well.

D. Behavioral health dockets are specialized criminal court dockets within the existing structure of Virginia's court system that enable the judiciary to manage its workload more efficiently. Under the leadership and regular interaction of presiding judges, and through voluntary offender participation, behavioral health dockets shall address offenders with mental health conditions and drug addictions that contribute to criminal behavior. Behavioral health dockets shall employ evidence-based practices to diagnose behavioral health illness and provide treatment, enhance public safety, reduce recidivism, ensure offender accountability, and promote offender rehabilitation in the community. Local officials shall complete a planning process recognized by the state behavioral health docket advisory committee before establishing a behavioral health docket program.

E. Administrative oversight of implementation of the Behavioral Health Docket Act shall be conducted by the Supreme Court of Virginia. The Supreme Court of Virginia shall be responsible for (i) providing oversight of the distribution of funds for behavioral health dockets; (ii) providing technical assistance to behavioral health dockets; (iii) providing training to judges who preside over behavioral health dockets; (iv) providing training to the providers of administrative, case management, and treatment services to behavioral health dockets; and (v) monitoring the completion of evaluations of the effectiveness and efficiency of behavioral health dockets in the Commonwealth.

F. A state behavioral health docket advisory committee shall be established in the judicial branch. The committee shall be chaired by the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of Virginia, who shall appoint a vice-chair to act in his absence. The membership of the committee shall include a behavioral health circuit court judge, a behavioral health general district court judge, a behavioral health juvenile and domestic relations district court judge, the Executive Secretary of the Supreme Court or his designee, the Governor or his designee, and a representative from each of the following entities: the Commonwealth's Attorneys' Services Council, the Virginia Court Clerks' Association, the Virginia Indigent Defense Commission, the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, the Virginia Organization of Consumers Asserting Leadership, a community services board or behavioral health authority, and a local community-based probation and pretrial services agency.

G. Each jurisdiction or combination of jurisdictions that intend to establish a behavioral health docket or continue the operation of an existing behavioral health docket shall establish a local behavioral health docket advisory committee. Jurisdictions that establish separate adult and juvenile behavioral health dockets may establish an advisory committee for each such docket. Each local behavioral health docket advisory committee shall ensure quality, efficiency, and fairness in the planning, implementation, and operation of the behavioral health dockets that serve the jurisdiction or combination of jurisdictions. Advisory committee membership may include, but shall not be limited to, the following persons or their designees: (i) the behavioral health docket judge; (ii) the attorney for the Commonwealth or, where applicable, the city or county attorney who has responsibility for the prosecution of misdemeanor offenses; (iii) the public defender or a member of the local criminal defense bar in jurisdictions in which there is no public defender; (iv) the clerk of the court in which the behavioral health docket is located; (v) a representative of the Virginia Department of Corrections or the Department of Juvenile Justice, or both, from the local office that serves the jurisdiction or combination of jurisdictions; (vi) a representative of a local community-based probation and pretrial services agency; (vii) a local law-enforcement officer; (viii) a representative of the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services or a representative of local treatment providers, or both; (ix) a representative of the local community services board or behavioral health authority; (x) the behavioral health docket administrator; (xi) a public health official; (xii) the county administrator or city manager; (xiii) a certified peer recovery specialist; and (xiv) any other persons selected by the local behavioral health docket advisory committee.

H. Each local behavioral health docket advisory committee shall establish criteria for the eligibility and participation of offenders who have been determined to have problems with drug addiction, mental illness, or related issues. The committee shall ensure the use of a comprehensive, valid, and reliable screening instrument to assess whether the individual is a candidate for a behavioral health docket. Once an individual is identified as a candidate appropriate for a behavioral health court docket, a full diagnosis and treatment plan shall be prepared by qualified professionals.

Subject to the provisions of this section, neither the establishment of a behavioral health docket nor anything in this section shall be construed as limiting the discretion of the attorney for the Commonwealth to prosecute any criminal case arising therein that he deems advisable to prosecute, except to the extent that the participating attorney for the Commonwealth agrees to do so.

I. Each local behavioral health docket advisory committee shall establish policies and procedures for the operation of the docket to attain the following goals: (i) effective integration of appropriate treatment services with criminal justice system case processing; (ii) enhanced public safety through intensive offender supervision and treatment; (iii) prompt identification and placement of eligible participants; (iv) efficient access to a continuum of related treatment and rehabilitation services; (v) verified participant abstinence through frequent alcohol and other drug testing and mental health status assessments, where applicable; (vi) prompt response to participants' noncompliance with program requirements through a coordinated strategy; (vii) ongoing judicial interaction with each behavioral health docket participant; (viii) ongoing monitoring and evaluation of program effectiveness and efficiency; (ix) ongoing interdisciplinary education and training in support of program effectiveness and efficiency; and (x) ongoing collaboration among behavioral health dockets, public agencies, and community-based organizations to enhance program effectiveness and efficiency.

J. If there is cause for concern that a defendant was experiencing a crisis related to a mental health or substance abuse disorder then his case will be referred, if such referral is appropriate, to a behavioral health docket to determine eligibility for participation. Participation by an offender in a behavioral health docket shall be voluntary and made pursuant only to a written agreement entered into by and between the offender and the Commonwealth with the concurrence of the court. If an offender determined to be eligible to participate in a behavioral health docket resides in a locality other than that in which the behavioral health docket is located, or such offender desires to move to a locality other than that in which the behavioral health docket is located, and the court determines it is practicable and appropriate, the supervision of such offender may be transferred to a supervising agency in the new locality. If the receiving agency accepts the transfer, it shall confirm in writing that it can and will comply with all of the conditions of supervision of the behavioral health docket, including the frequency of in-person and other contact with the offender and updates from the offender's treatment providers. If the receiving agency cannot comply with the conditions of supervision, the agency shall deny the transfer in writing and the sending agency shall notify the court. Where supervision is transferred, the sending agency shall be responsible for providing reports on an offender's conduct, treatment, and compliance with the conditions of supervision to the court.

K. An offender may be required to contribute to the cost of the treatment he receives while participating in a behavioral health docket pursuant to guidelines developed by the local behavioral health docket advisory committee.

L. Nothing contained in this section shall confer a right or an expectation of a right to treatment for an offender or be construed as requiring a local behavioral health docket advisory committee to accept for participation every offender.

M. The Office of the Executive Secretary shall, with the assistance of the state behavioral health docket advisory committee, develop a statewide evaluation model and conduct ongoing evaluations of the effectiveness and efficiency of all behavioral health dockets. The Executive Secretary shall submit an annual report of these evaluations to the General Assembly by December 1 of each year. The annual report shall be submitted as a report document as provided in the procedures of the Division of Legislative Automated Systems for the processing of legislative documents and reports and shall be posted on the General Assembly's website. Each local behavioral health docket advisory committee shall submit evaluative reports, as provided by the Behavioral/Mental Health Docket Advisory Committee, to the Office of the Executive Secretary as requested.

2020, c. 1096; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 191.

A. Except as authorized in the Drug Control Act, Chapter 34 (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) of Title 54.1, it shall be unlawful for any person who is at least 18 years of age to knowingly or intentionally (i) distribute any drug classified in Schedule I, II, III or IV or marijuana to any person under 18 years of age who is at least three years his junior or (ii) cause any person under 18 years of age to assist in such distribution of any drug classified in Schedule I, II, III or IV or marijuana. Any person violating this provision shall upon conviction be imprisoned in a state correctional facility for a period not less than 10 nor more than 50 years, and fined not more than $100,000. Five years of the sentence imposed for a conviction under this section involving a Schedule I or II controlled substance or one ounce or more of marijuana shall be a mandatory minimum sentence. Two years of the sentence imposed for a conviction under this section involving less than one ounce of marijuana shall be a mandatory minimum sentence.

B. It shall be unlawful for any person who is at least 18 years of age to knowingly or intentionally (i) distribute any imitation controlled substance to a person under 18 years of age who is at least three years his junior or (ii) cause any person under 18 years of age to assist in such distribution of any imitation controlled substance. Any person violating this provision shall be guilty of a Class 6 felony.

Code 1950, § 54-524.103; 1970, c. 650; 1972, c. 798; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1976, c. 614; 1979, c. 435; 1982, c. 462; 1990, cc. 720, 864, 866; 1992, cc. 708, 724; 2000, cc. 1020, 1041; 2004, c. 461; 2011, cc. 384, 410; 2014, cc. 674, 719.

It shall be a Class 1 misdemeanor for any person knowingly to sell, distribute, or display for sale to a minor any book, pamphlet, periodical or other printed matter which he knows advertises for sale any instrument, device, article, or contrivance for advertised use in unlawfully ingesting, smoking, administering, preparing or growing marijuana or a controlled substance.

1980, c. 737; 2011, cc. 384, 410; 2014, cc. 674, 719.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person to manufacture, sell or distribute or possess with intent to sell, give or distribute any controlled substance, imitation controlled substance, or marijuana while:

1. Upon the property, including buildings and grounds, of any public or private elementary or secondary school, any institution of higher education, or any clearly marked licensed child day center as defined in § 22.1-289.02;

2. Upon public property or any property open to public use within 1,000 feet of the property described in subdivision 1;

3. On any school bus as defined in § 46.2-100;

4. Upon a designated school bus stop, or upon either public property or any property open to public use which is within 1,000 feet of such school bus stop, during the time when school children are waiting to be picked up and transported to or are being dropped off from school or a school-sponsored activity;

5. Upon the property, including buildings and grounds, of any publicly owned or publicly operated recreation or community center facility or any public library; or

6. Upon the property of any state facility as defined in § 37.2-100 or upon public property or property open to public use within 1,000 feet of such an institution. It is a violation of the provisions of this section if the person possessed the controlled substance, imitation controlled substance, or marijuana on the property described in subdivisions 1 through 6, regardless of where the person intended to sell, give or distribute the controlled substance, imitation controlled substance, or marijuana. Nothing in this section shall prohibit the authorized distribution of controlled substances.

B. Violation of this section shall constitute a separate and distinct felony. Any person violating the provisions of this section shall, upon conviction, be imprisoned for a term of not less than one year nor more than five years and fined not more than $100,000. A second or subsequent conviction hereunder for an offense involving a controlled substance classified in Schedule I, II, or III of the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) or more than one-half ounce of marijuana shall be punished by a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment of one year to be served consecutively with any other sentence. However, if such person proves that he sold such controlled substance or marijuana only as an accommodation to another individual and not with intent to profit thereby from any consideration received or expected nor to induce the recipient or intended recipient of the controlled substance or marijuana to use or become addicted to or dependent upon such controlled substance or marijuana, he is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

C. If a person commits an act violating the provisions of this section, and the same act also violates another provision of law that provides for penalties greater than those provided for by this section, then nothing in this section shall prohibit or bar any prosecution or proceeding under that other provision of law or the imposition of any penalties provided for thereby.

1982, c. 594; 1989, cc. 619, 682, 709; 1990, cc. 617, 622; 1991, c. 268; 1991, 1st Sp. Sess., c. 14; 1993, cc. 30, 708, 729; 1999, c. 873; 2000, cc. 1020, 1041; 2003, cc. 80, 91; 2004, c. 461; 2005, c. 716; 2006, c. 325; 2011, cc. 384, 410; 2014, cc. 674, 719; 2020, cc. 860, 861.

Any person who conspires to commit any offense defined in this article or in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) is punishable by imprisonment or fine or both which may not be less than the minimum punishment nor exceed the maximum punishment prescribed for the offense, the commission of which was the object of the conspiracy.

Code 1950, § 54-524.104; 1970, c. 650; 1972, c. 798; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1978, c. 130.

(a) Any person who attempts to commit any offense defined in this article or in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) which is a felony shall be imprisoned for not less than one nor more than ten years; provided, however, that any person convicted of attempting to commit a felony for which a lesser punishment may be imposed may be punished according to such lesser penalty.

(b) Any person who attempts to commit any offense defined in this article or in the Drug Control Act which is a misdemeanor shall be guilty of a Class 2 misdemeanor; provided, however, that any person convicted of attempting to commit a misdemeanor for which a lesser punishment may be imposed may be punished according to such lesser penalty.

Code 1950, § 54-524.104:1; 1972, c. 798; 1973, c. 447; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1979, c. 435.

Any office, store, shop, restaurant, dance hall, theater, poolroom, clubhouse, storehouse, warehouse, dwelling house, apartment, building of any kind, vehicle, vessel, boat, or aircraft, which with the knowledge of the owner, lessor, agent of any such lessor, manager, chief executive officer, operator, or tenant thereof, is frequented by persons under the influence of illegally obtained controlled substances or marijuana, as defined in § 54.1-3401, or for the purpose of illegally obtaining possession of, manufacturing or distributing controlled substances or marijuana, or is used for the illegal possession, manufacture or distribution of controlled substances or marijuana shall be deemed a common nuisance. Any such owner, lessor, agent of any such lessor, manager, chief executive officer, operator, or tenant who knowingly permits, establishes, keeps or maintains such a common nuisance is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor and, for a second or subsequent offense, a Class 6 felony.

Code 1950, § 54-524.104:2; 1972, c. 736; 1973, c. 400; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1979, c. 435; 1990, c. 948; 1992, cc. 248, 538; 2004, c. 462; 2011, cc. 384, 410; 2014, cc. 674, 719.

The attorney for the Commonwealth, or any citizen of the county, city, or town, where such a nuisance as is described in § 18.2-258 exists, may, in addition to the remedies given in and punishment imposed by this chapter, maintain a suit in equity in the name of the Commonwealth to enjoin the same; provided, however, the attorney for the Commonwealth shall not be required to prosecute any suit brought by a citizen under this section. In every case where the bill charges, on the knowledge or belief of complainant, and is sworn to by two witnesses, that a nuisance exists as described in § 18.2-258, a temporary injunction may be granted as soon as the bill is presented to the court provided reasonable notice has been given. The injunction shall enjoin and restrain any owners, tenants, their agents, employees, and any other person from contributing to or maintaining the nuisance and may impose such other requirements as the court deems appropriate. If, after hearing, the court finds that the material allegations of the bill are true, although the premises complained of may not then be unlawfully used, it shall continue the injunction against such persons or premises for such period of time as it deems appropriate, with the right to dissolve the injunction upon a proper showing by the owner of the premises.

1990, c. 948.

Any office, store, shop, restaurant, dance hall, theater, poolroom, clubhouse, storehouse, warehouse, dwelling house, apartment or building or structure of any kind which is (i) substantially altered from its original status by means of reinforcement with the intent to impede, deter or delay lawful entry by a law-enforcement officer into such structure, (ii) being used for the purpose of manufacturing or distributing controlled substances or marijuana, and (iii) the object of a valid search warrant, shall be considered a fortified drug house. Any person who maintains or operates a fortified drug house is guilty of a Class 5 felony.

1996, c. 913; 2011, cc. 384, 410; 2014, cc. 674, 719.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person to obtain or attempt to obtain any drug or procure or attempt to procure the administration of any controlled substance or marijuana: (i) by fraud, deceit, misrepresentation, embezzlement, or subterfuge; (ii) by the forgery or alteration of a prescription or of any written order; (iii) by the concealment of a material fact; or (iv) by the use of a false name or the giving of a false address.

B. It shall be unlawful for any person to furnish false or fraudulent information in or omit any information from, or willfully make a false statement in, any prescription, order, report, record, or other document required by Chapter 34 (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) of Title 54.1.

C. It shall be unlawful for any person to use in the course of the manufacture or distribution of a controlled substance or marijuana a license number which is fictitious, revoked, suspended, or issued to another person.

D. It shall be unlawful for any person, for the purpose of obtaining any controlled substance or marijuana to falsely assume the title of, or represent himself to be, a manufacturer, wholesaler, pharmacist, physician, dentist, veterinarian or other authorized person.

E. It shall be unlawful for any person to make or utter any false or forged prescription or false or forged written order.

F. It shall be unlawful for any person to affix any false or forged label to a package or receptacle containing any controlled substance.

G. This section shall not apply to officers and employees of the United States, of this Commonwealth or of a political subdivision of this Commonwealth acting in the course of their employment, who obtain such drugs for investigative, research or analytical purposes, or to the agents or duly authorized representatives of any pharmaceutical manufacturer who obtain such drugs for investigative, research or analytical purposes and who are acting in the course of their employment; provided that such manufacturer is licensed under the provisions of the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act; and provided further, that such pharmaceutical manufacturer, its agents and duly authorized representatives file with the Board such information as the Board may deem appropriate.

H. Except as otherwise provided in this subsection, any person who shall violate any provision herein shall be guilty of a Class 6 felony.

Whenever any person who has not previously been convicted of any offense under this article or under any statute of the United States or of any state relating to narcotic drugs, marijuana, or stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic drugs, or has not previously had a proceeding against him for violation of such an offense dismissed, or reduced as provided in this section, pleads guilty to or enters a plea of not guilty to the court for violating this section, upon such plea if the facts found by the court would justify a finding of guilt, the court may place him on probation upon terms and conditions.

As a term or condition, the court shall require the accused to be evaluated and enter a treatment and/or education program, if available, such as, in the opinion of the court, may be best suited to the needs of the accused. This program may be located in the judicial circuit in which the charge is brought or in any other judicial circuit as the court may provide. The services shall be provided by a program certified or licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services. The court shall require the person entering such program under the provisions of this section to pay all or part of the costs of the program, including the costs of the screening, evaluation, testing and education, based upon the person's ability to pay unless the person is determined by the court to be indigent.

As a condition of supervised probation, the court shall require the accused to remain drug free during the period of probation and submit to such tests during that period as may be necessary and appropriate to determine if the accused is drug free. Such testing may be conducted by the personnel of any screening, evaluation, and education program to which the person is referred or by the supervising agency.

Unless the accused was fingerprinted at the time of arrest, the court shall order the accused to report to the original arresting law-enforcement agency to submit to fingerprinting.

Upon violation of a term or condition, the court may enter an adjudication of guilt upon the felony and proceed as otherwise provided. Upon fulfillment of the terms and conditions of probation, the court shall find the defendant guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

1977, c. 558; 1979, c. 435; 1992, c. 76; 1997, c. 542; 2009, cc. 813, 840; 2011, cc. 384, 410; 2014, cc. 674, 719.

Unless otherwise specifically authorized by law, any person who, for compensation, knowingly assists another in unlawfully procuring prescription drugs from a pharmacy or other source he knows is not licensed, registered or permitted by the licensing authority of the Commonwealth, any other state or territory of the United States, or the United States, is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor and, upon a second or subsequent conviction, a Class 6 felony.

2004, c. 620.

Any penalty imposed for violation of this article or of the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) shall be in addition to, and not in lieu of, any civil or administrative penalty or sanction authorized by law.

Code 1950, § 54-524.105; 1970, c. 650; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

Repealed by Acts 2020, cc. 740 and 741, cl. 2.

It shall be unlawful for any person to prescribe, administer or dispense any drug except as authorized in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) or in this article. Any person who violates any provision of the Drug Control Act or of this article, for which no penalty is elsewhere specified in this article or in Article 7 (§ 54.1-3466 et seq.) of the Drug Control Act, shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

Code 1950, § 54-524.106; 1970, c. 650; 1973, c. 548; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

Any person who, with the intent to defraud, falsifies any patient record shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

1997, c. 619; 2011, c. 204.

Any person licensed by the State Board of Pharmacy who violates any of the provisions of the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) or of this article, and who is not criminally prosecuted, shall be subject to the monetary penalty provided in this section. If, by a majority vote, the Board shall determine that the respondent is guilty of the violation complained of, the Board shall proceed to determine the amount of the monetary penalty for such violation, which shall not exceed the sum of $1,000 for each violation. Such penalty may be sued for and recovered in the name of the Commonwealth.

Code 1950, § 54-524.107; 1970, c. 650; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1980, c. 678.

No person shall be excused from testifying or from producing books, papers, correspondence, memoranda or other records for the Commonwealth as to any offense alleged to have been committed by another under this article or under the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) by reason of his testimony or other evidence tending to incriminate himself, but the testimony given and evidence so produced by such person on behalf of the Commonwealth when called for by the trial judge or court trying the case, or by the attorney for the Commonwealth, or when summoned by the Commonwealth and sworn as a witness by the court or the clerk and sent before the grand jury, shall be in no case used against him nor shall he be prosecuted as to the offense as to which he testifies. Any person who refuses to testify or produce books, papers, correspondence, memoranda or other records, shall be guilty of a Class 2 misdemeanor.

Code 1950, § 54-524.107:1; 1971, Ex. Sess., c. 170; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1984, c. 667.

In any complaint, information, or indictment, and in any action or proceeding brought for the enforcement of any provision of this article or of the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.), it shall not be necessary to negative any exception, excuse, proviso, or exemption contained in this article or in the Drug Control Act, and the burden of proof of any such exception, excuse, proviso, or exemption shall be upon the defendant.

Code 1950, § 54-524.108; 1970, c. 650; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

A. It is unlawful, except under the direction of a practitioner as defined in § 54.1-3401, for any person deliberately to smell or inhale any drugs or any other noxious chemical substances with the intent to become intoxicated, inebriated, excited, or stupefied or to dull the brain or nervous system.

Any person violating the provisions of this subsection is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

B. It is unlawful for any person, other than one duly licensed, deliberately to cause, invite, or induce any person to smell or inhale any drugs or any other noxious chemical substances with the intent to intoxicate, inebriate, excite, stupefy, or dull the brain or nervous system of such person.

Any person violating the provisions of this subsection is guilty of a Class 2 misdemeanor.

C. For the purposes of this section, "noxious chemical substances" includes fingernail polish and model airplane glue and chemicals containing any ketones, aldehydes, organic acetates, ether, chlorinated hydrocarbons or vapors, fluorinated hydrocarbons or vapors, or hydrogenated fluorocarbons.

Code 1950, § 18.1-70.1; 1968, c. 391; 1969, Ex. Sess., c. 19; 1973, c. 27; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1993, c. 416; 2019, c. 6.

Repealed by Acts 2002, c. 831, cl. 2, effective July 1, 2003.

Repealed by Acts 1994, c. 432.

Repealed by Acts 1979, c. 638.

As used in this article, the term "drug paraphernalia" means all equipment, products, and materials of any kind which are either designed for use or which are intended by the person charged with violating § 18.2-265.3 for use in planting, propagating, cultivating, growing, harvesting, manufacturing, compounding, converting, producing, processing, preparing, strength testing, analyzing, packaging, repackaging, storing, containing, concealing, injecting, ingesting, inhaling, or otherwise introducing into the human body marijuana or a controlled substance. It includes, but is not limited to:

1. Kits intended for use or designed for use in planting, propagating, cultivating, growing or harvesting of marijuana or any species of plant which is a controlled substance or from which a controlled substance can be derived;

2. Kits intended for use or designed for use in manufacturing, compounding, converting, producing, processing, or preparing marijuana or controlled substances;

3. Isomerization devices intended for use or designed for use in increasing the potency of marijuana or any species of plant which is a controlled substance;

4. Testing equipment intended for use or designed for use in identifying or in analyzing the strength or effectiveness of marijuana or controlled substances, other than narcotic testing products used to determine whether a controlled substance contains fentanyl or a fentanyl analog;

5. Scales and balances intended for use or designed for use in weighing or measuring marijuana or controlled substances;

6. Diluents and adulterants, such as quinine hydrochloride, mannitol, or mannite, intended for use or designed for use in cutting controlled substances;

7. Separation gins and sifters intended for use or designed for use in removing twigs and seeds from, or in otherwise cleaning or refining, marijuana;

8. Blenders, bowls, containers, spoons, and mixing devices intended for use or designed for use in compounding controlled substances;

9. Capsules, balloons, envelopes, and other containers intended for use or designed for use in packaging small quantities of marijuana or controlled substances;

10. Containers and other objects intended for use or designed for use in storing or concealing marijuana or controlled substances;

11. Hypodermic syringes, needles, and other objects intended for use or designed for use in parenterally injecting controlled substances into the human body;

12. Objects intended for use or designed for use in ingesting, inhaling, or otherwise introducing marijuana, cocaine, hashish, or hashish oil into the human body, such as:

a. Metal, wooden, acrylic, glass, stone, plastic, or ceramic pipes with or without screens, permanent screens, hashish heads, or punctured metal bowls;

b. Water pipes;

c. Carburetion tubes and devices;

d. Smoking and carburetion masks;

e. Roach clips, meaning objects used to hold burning material, such as a marijuana cigarette, that has become too small or too short to be held in the hand;

f. Miniature cocaine spoons, and cocaine vials;

g. Chamber pipes;

h. Carburetor pipes;

i. Electric pipes;

j. Air-driven pipes;

k. Chillums;

l. Bongs;

m. Ice pipes or chillers.

1981, c. 598; 1983, c. 535; 2019, c. 215.

In determining whether an object is drug paraphernalia, the court may consider, in addition to all other relevant evidence, the following:

1. Constitutionally admissible statements by the accused concerning the use of the object;

2. The proximity of the object to marijuana or controlled substances, which proximity is actually known to the accused;

3. Instructions, oral or written, provided with the object concerning its use;

4. Descriptive materials accompanying the object which explain or depict its use;

5. National and local advertising within the actual knowledge of the accused concerning its use;

6. The manner in which the object is displayed for sale;

7. Whether the accused is a legitimate supplier of like or related items to the community, such as a licensed distributor or dealer of tobacco products;

8. Evidence of the ratio of sales of the objects defined in § 18.2-265.1 to the total sales of the business enterprise;

9. The existence and scope of legitimate uses for the object in the community;

10. Expert testimony concerning its use or the purpose for which it was designed;

11. Relevant evidence of the intent of the accused to deliver it to persons who he knows, or should reasonably know, intend to use the object with an illegal drug. The innocence of an owner, or of anyone in control of the object, as to a direct violation of this article shall not prevent a finding that the object is intended for use or designed for use as drug paraphernalia.

1981, c. 598; 1983, c. 535.

A. Any person who sells or possesses with intent to sell drug paraphernalia, knowing, or under circumstances where one reasonably should know, that it is either designed for use or intended by such person for use to illegally plant, propagate, cultivate, grow, harvest, manufacture, compound, convert, produce, process, prepare, test, analyze, pack, repack, store, contain, conceal, inject, ingest, inhale, or otherwise introduce into the human body marijuana or a controlled substance, shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

B. Any person eighteen years of age or older who violates subsection A hereof by selling drug paraphernalia to a minor who is at least three years junior to the accused in age shall be guilty of a Class 6 felony.

C. Any person eighteen years of age or older who distributes drug paraphernalia to a minor shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

1981, c. 598; 1983, c. 535; 1984, c. 31.

Repealed by Acts 2004, c. 995.

It shall be unlawful for any person to place in any newspaper, magazine, handbill or other publication any advertisement, knowing or under circumstances where one reasonably should know, that the purpose of the advertisement, in whole or in part, is to promote the sale of objects designed or intended by such person for use as drug paraphernalia. A violation of this section shall be punishable as a Class 1 misdemeanor.

1983, c. 535.

As used in this article, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Department" means the Department of State Police.

"Ephedrine or related compounds" means ephedrine and pseudoephedrine base or their salts, isomers, or salts of isomers.

"Pharmacy" means any establishment or institution from which drugs, medicines, or medicinal chemicals are dispensed or offered for sale or on which a sign is displayed bearing the words "apothecary," "druggist," "drugs," "drug store," "drug sundries," "medicine store," "pharmacist," "pharmacy," or "prescriptions filled" or any similar words intended to indicate that the practice of pharmacy is being conducted pursuant to a license issued under Chapter 33 (§ 54.1-3300 et seq.) of Title 54.1.

"Retail distributor" means an entity licensed to conduct business in the Commonwealth that offers for sale to the public at a retail outlet any nonprescription compound, mixture, or preparation containing ephedrine or related compounds.

"System" or "electronic system" means a real-time electronic recordkeeping and monitoring system for the sale of ephedrine or related compounds.

2012, cc. 160, 252.

A. The sale of any product containing ephedrine or related compounds sold by a pharmacy or retail distributor shall be limited to no more than 3.6 grams per day and 9 grams per 30-day period per individual customer. The limits shall apply to the total amount of base ephedrine or related compounds contained in the products and not to the overall weight of the products.

B. Ephedrine or related compounds shall only be displayed for sale behind a store counter that is not accessible to consumers or in a locked case that requires assistance by a store employee for customer access.

C. Any person purchasing, receiving, or otherwise acquiring ephedrine or related compounds shall, prior to taking possession, present photo identification issued by a government or an educational institution.

D. The pharmacy or retail distributor shall maintain a written log or electronic system with the purchaser's name and address, birth date, and signature; the product name and quantity sold; and the date and time of the transaction. Unless exempt under subsection B of § 18.2-265.8 or § 18.2-265.11, the pharmacy or retail distributor shall use the electronic recordkeeping and monitoring system to report all nonprescription sales of any product containing ephedrine or related compounds.

E. The purchaser shall sign the record acknowledging an understanding of the applicable sales limit and that providing false statements or misrepresentations may subject the purchaser to criminal penalties under § 1001 of Title 18 of the United States Code.

F. The pharmacy or retail distributor shall maintain records of all sales required to be entered into the electronic system or written log for a period of two years from the date of the last entry.

G. The provisions of this article do not apply to sales of ephedrine or related compounds pursuant to a valid prescription.

H. Any person who willfully violates this section is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

2012, cc. 160, 252.

A. The Department shall enter into a memorandum of understanding with an appropriate entity to establish the Commonwealth's participation in a real-time electronic recordkeeping and monitoring system for the sale of ephedrine or related compounds. The memorandum of understanding shall include the following:

1. A real-time electronic recordkeeping and monitoring system shall be provided at no charge to the Commonwealth or to participating pharmacies and retail distributors and shall be approved by the Department.

2. The system shall provide, at no charge to participating pharmacies and retail distributors, appropriate training, 24-hour online support, and a toll-free telephone help line that is staffed 24 hours a day.

3. The system shall be able to communicate in real time with similar systems operated in other states and the District of Columbia and similar systems containing information submitted by more than one state.

4. The system shall comply with information exchange standards adopted by the National Information Exchange Model.

5. The system shall include a stop sales alert, which shall be a notification that completion of the sale would result in the seller or purchaser violating the quantity limits set forth in § 18.2-265.7, with an override function that may be used by a pharmacy or retail distributor under the circumstances set forth in § 18.2-265.9 and shall record each instance in which the override function is utilized.

6. The system shall provide for the recording of the following:

a. The date and time of the transaction;

b. The name, address, date of birth, and photo identification number of the purchaser; the type of identification; and the government or educational institution of issuance;

c. The number of packages purchased; the total number of grams of ephedrine or related compounds per package; and the name of the compound, mixture, or preparation containing ephedrine or related compounds; and

d. The signature of the purchaser or unique number connecting the transaction to a paper signature maintained at the retail premises.

7. The system shall ensure that submitted data is retained within the system for at least two years from the date of submission.

B. The Department shall provide a process for a pharmacy or retail distributor to apply for, obtain, and periodically renew an exemption from the requirement to report transactions to the electronic system if the pharmacy or retail distributor lacks broadband access or maintains a sales volume of less than 72 grams of ephedrine or related compounds in a 30-day period.

C. The Superintendent of State Police shall promulgate regulations pursuant to the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) for the implementation of this section. Regulations adopted under this section shall be deemed a customary police function for purposes of subdivision B 6 of § 2.2-4002.

2012, cc. 160, 252.

A. A pharmacy or retail distributor shall not complete the sale if the system generates a stop sales alert unless the individual distributing the ephedrine or related compound has a reasonable fear of imminent bodily harm if the sale is not completed.

B. In the event of a mechanical or electronic interruption of the system, the pharmacy or retail establishment shall maintain a written log of sales of ephedrine or related compounds until the system is restored. The information written in the log shall be transmitted to the system as soon as practicable after the system is restored.

2012, cc. 160, 252.

Any pharmacy or retail distributor that has been granted an exemption from participation in the system pursuant to subsection B of § 18.2-265.8 shall forward to the Department every seven days by fax or electronic means a legible copy of the log required by § 18.2-265.7.

2012, cc. 160, 252.

A. The following entities shall not be required to participate in the electronic system and shall not be required to maintain a written log:

1. Licensed manufacturers that manufacture and lawfully distribute products in the channels of commerce.

2. Wholesalers that lawfully distribute products in the channels of commerce.

3. Inpatient pharmacies of health care facilities licensed in the Commonwealth.

4. Licensed long-term health care facilities.

5. Government-operated health care clinics or departments or centers.

6. Physicians who dispense drugs pursuant to § 54.1-3304.

7. Pharmacies located in correctional facilities.

8. Government-operated or industry-operated medical facilities serving the employees of the Commonwealth or local or federal government.

B. Purchases of ephedrine or related compounds pursuant to a valid prescription are not required to be reported to the system or entered into a written log.

C. The sale of a single package containing no more than 60 milligrams of ephedrine or related compounds to an individual is not required to be reported to the system or entered into a log provided it is an isolated sale.

2012, cc. 160, 252.

The Department or other law-enforcement agency of the Commonwealth or any federal agency conducting a criminal investigation involving the manufacture of methamphetamine consistent with state or federal law may access data, records, and reports regarding the sale of ephedrine or related compounds. In addition, such information may be accessed if relevant to proceedings in any court, investigatory grand jury, or special grand jury that has been impaneled in accordance with the provisions of Chapter 13 (§ 19.2-191 et seq.) of Title 19.2.

The Superintendent of State Police shall promulgate regulations, pursuant to the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.), for the implementation of this section. Regulations adopted under this section shall be deemed a customary police function for purposes of subdivision B 6 of § 2.2-4002.

2012, cc. 160, 252.

All data, records, and reports related to the sale of ephedrine or related compounds to retail customers and any abstracts of such data, records, and reports that are in the possession of the Department pursuant to this article shall be confidential and exempt from the Virginia Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq.) and the Government Data Collection and Dissemination Practices Act (§ 2.2-3800 et seq.).

2012, cc. 160, 252.

The entity operating the system pursuant to the memorandum of understanding with the Department shall not use or disclose the information collected on behalf of the Department from a pharmacy or retail distributor for any purpose other than (i) to ensure compliance with this article or the federal Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005, (ii) to comply with the United States government or a political subdivision thereof for law-enforcement purposes pursuant to state or federal law, or (iii) to facilitate a product recall necessary to protect public health and safety.

2012, cc. 160, 252.

A pharmacy or retail distributor that sells any product containing ephedrine or related compounds shall not use or disclose the information in the system or a written log for any purpose other than (i) to ensure compliance with this article or the federal Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act of 2005, (ii) to comply with the United States government or a political subdivision thereof for law-enforcement purposes pursuant to state or federal law, or (iii) to facilitate a product recall necessary to protect public health and safety. A pharmacy or retail distributor shall report information in the written log or electronic system to law-enforcement personnel upon request, and any pharmacy or retail distributor that in good faith releases such information to federal, state, or local law-enforcement officers, or to any person acting on behalf of such officers, shall be immune from civil liability for the release unless the release constitutes gross negligence or intentional, wanton, or willful misconduct.

2012, cc. 160, 252.

Absent gross negligence, recklessness, or willful misconduct, any pharmacy or retail distributor utilizing the system or written log in compliance with this article shall be immune from civil liability as a result of actions or omissions in carrying out such statutory duties.

2012, cc. 160, 252.

The provisions of Chapter 20.1 (§ 2.2-2005 et seq.) of Title 2.2 shall not apply to this article.

2012, cc. 160, 252.

Any person subject to the recordkeeping and reporting requirements set forth in this article that willfully fails to report nonprescription sales of ephedrine or related compounds is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

2012, cc. 160, 252.

As used in this article, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Dextromethorphan" means the dextrorotatory isomer of 3-methoxy-N-methylmorphinan and its salts.

"Pharmacy" means any establishment or institution from which drugs, medicines, or medicinal chemicals are dispensed or offered for sale or on which a sign is displayed bearing the words "apothecary," "druggist," "drugs," "drug store," "drug sundries," "medicine store," "pharmacist," "pharmacy," "prescriptions filled," or any similar words intended to indicate that the practice of pharmacy is being conducted pursuant to a license issued under Chapter 33 (§ 54.1-3300 et seq.) of Title 54.1.

"Retail distributor" means an entity licensed to conduct business in the Commonwealth that offers for sale to the public at a retail outlet any nonprescription compound, mixture, or preparation containing dextromethorphan.

"Unfinished dextromethorphan" means dextromethorphan in the form of a "bulk drug substance" as defined in § 54.1-3401.

2014, cc. 101, 362.

A. It is unlawful for any pharmacy or retail distributor knowingly or intentionally to sell or distribute any product containing dextromethorphan to a minor.

B. A pharmacy or retail distributor, or its employee or agent, shall not sell or distribute a product containing dextromethorphan unless the purchaser presents a federal, state, or local government-issued document that contains a photograph and the birth date of the purchaser that shows that the purchaser is at least 18 years of age or unless from the purchaser's outward appearance the pharmacy or retail distributor would reasonably presume the purchaser to be 25 years of age or older.

C. It is unlawful for any minor knowingly or intentionally to purchase any product containing dextromethorphan.

D. Any pharmacy or retail distributor, or its employee or agent, that violates subsection A or any minor who violates subsection C is subject to a civil penalty of $25. Any pharmacy or retail distributor, or its employee or agent, that violates subsection B shall receive a notice of noncompliance and, upon any subsequent violation of subsection B, shall be subject to a civil penalty of $25. Such penalty shall be collected by the attorney for the Commonwealth for the locality where the violation occurred, and the proceeds shall be deposited into the Literary Fund.

E. The provisions of this section shall not apply if the product was obtained directly from, or pursuant to, a valid prescription or order of a practitioner while acting in the course of his professional practice, or except as otherwise authorized by the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.).

2014, cc. 101, 362.

Any person who distributes or possesses with the intent to distribute unfinished dextromethorphan who is not registered under § 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. § 321 et seq.) or otherwise authorized by the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) to distribute or possess unfinished dextromethorphan is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor. This section does not apply to a common carrier that receives or possesses unfinished dextromethorphan for the purpose of distributing such unfinished dextromethorphan between persons registered under § 510 of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. § 321 et seq.) or otherwise authorized by the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) to distribute or possess unfinished dextromethorphan.

2014, cc. 101, 362.

It shall be unlawful for any person to drive or operate any motor vehicle, engine or train (i) while such person has a blood alcohol concentration of 0.08 percent or more by weight by volume or 0.08 grams or more per 210 liters of breath as indicated by a chemical test administered as provided in this article, (ii) while such person is under the influence of alcohol, (iii) while such person is under the influence of any narcotic drug or any other self-administered intoxicant or drug of whatsoever nature, or any combination of such drugs, to a degree which impairs his ability to drive or operate any motor vehicle, engine or train safely, (iv) while such person is under the combined influence of alcohol and any drug or drugs to a degree which impairs his ability to drive or operate any motor vehicle, engine or train safely, or (v) while such person has a blood concentration of any of the following substances at a level that is equal to or greater than: (a) 0.02 milligrams of cocaine per liter of blood, (b) 0.1 milligrams of methamphetamine per liter of blood, (c) 0.01 milligrams of phencyclidine per liter of blood, or (d) 0.1 milligrams of 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine per liter of blood. A charge alleging a violation of this section shall support a conviction under clauses (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), or (v).

For the purposes of this article, the term "motor vehicle" includes mopeds, while operated on the public highways of this Commonwealth.

Code 1950, § 18.1-54; 1960, c. 358; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1977, c. 637; 1984, c. 666; 1986, c. 635; 1987, c. 661; 1992, c. 830; 1994, cc. 359, 363; 1996, c. 439; 2005, cc. 616, 845.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person under the age of 21 to operate any motor vehicle after illegally consuming alcohol. Any such person with a blood alcohol concentration of 0.02 percent or more by weight by volume or 0.02 grams or more per 210 liters of breath but less than 0.08 by weight by volume or less than 0.08 grams per 210 liters of breath as indicated by a chemical test administered as provided in this article shall be in violation of this section.

B. A violation of this section is a Class 1 misdemeanor. Punishment shall include (i) forfeiture of such person's license to operate a motor vehicle for a period of one year from the date of conviction and (ii) a mandatory minimum fine of $500 or performance of a mandatory minimum of 50 hours of community service. This suspension period shall be in addition to the suspension period provided under § 46.2-391.2. The penalties and license forfeiture provisions set forth in §§ 16.1-278.9, 18.2-270 and 18.2-271 shall not apply to a violation of this section. Any person convicted of a violation of this section shall be eligible to attend an Alcohol Safety Action Program under the provisions of § 18.2-271.1 and may, in the discretion of the court, be issued a restricted license during the term of license suspension.

C. Notwithstanding §§ 16.1-278.8 and 16.1-278.9, upon adjudicating a juvenile delinquent based upon a violation of this section, the juvenile and domestic relations district court shall order disposition as provided in subsection B.

1994, cc. 359, 363; 1995, c. 31; 2003, c. 605; 2008, c. 729; 2009, c. 660; 2011, cc. 134, 683.

A. Any person who is suspected of a violation of § 18.2-266, 18.2-266.1, subsection B of § 18.2-272, or a similar ordinance shall have the right, if such equipment is available, to have his breath analyzed to determine the probable alcoholic content of his blood. The person shall have the right to observe the process of analysis and to see the blood-alcohol reading on the equipment used to perform the breath test. His breath may be analyzed by any police officer of the Commonwealth, or of any county, city or town, or by any member of a sheriff's department in the normal discharge of his duties.

B. The Department of Forensic Science shall determine the proper method and equipment to be used in analyzing breath samples taken pursuant to this section and shall advise the respective police and sheriff's departments of the same.

C. Any person who has been stopped by a police officer of the Commonwealth, or of any county, city or town, or by any member of a sheriff's department and is suspected by such officer to be guilty of an offense listed in subsection A, shall have the right to refuse to permit his breath to be so analyzed, and his failure to permit such analysis shall not be evidence in any prosecution for an offense listed in subsection A.

D. Whenever the breath sample analysis indicates that alcohol is present in the person's blood, the officer may charge the person with a violation of an offense listed in subsection A. The person so charged shall then be subject to the provisions of §§ 18.2-268.1 through 18.2-268.12, or of a similar ordinance.

E. The results of the breath analysis shall not be admitted into evidence in any prosecution for an offense listed in subsection A, the purpose of this section being to permit a preliminary analysis of the alcoholic content of the blood of a person suspected of having committed an offense listed in subsection A.

F. Police officers or members of any sheriff's department shall, upon stopping any person suspected of having committed an offense listed in subsection A, advise the person of his rights under the provisions of this section. If a police officer or a member of any sheriff's department fails to advise a person of his rights under the provisions of this section, any breath sample obtained pursuant to this section shall not be admissible by the Commonwealth in any motion to suppress for the purpose of determining probable cause.

G. Nothing in this section shall be construed as limiting the provisions of §§ 18.2-268.1 through 18.2-268.12.

Code 1950, § 18.1-54.1; 1970, c. 511; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1979, c. 717; 1985, cc. 355, 609; 1990, c. 825; 1992, c. 830; 1994, cc. 359, 363; 1996, cc. 154, 952; 2004, c. 1013; 2005, cc. 757, 840, 868, 881; 2024, c. 759.

Repealed by Acts 1992, c. 830.

As used in §§ 18.2-268.2 through 18.2-268.12, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:

The phrase "alcohol or drug" means alcohol, a drug or drugs, or any combination of alcohol and a drug or drugs.

The phrase "blood or breath" means either or both.

"Chief police officer" means the sheriff in any county not having a chief of police, the chief of police of any county having a chief of police, the chief of police of the city, or the sergeant or chief of police of the town in which the charge will be heard, or their authorized representatives.

"Department" means the Department of Forensic Science.

"Director" means the Director of the Department of Forensic Science.

"License" means any driver's license as defined in § 18.2-6.

"Ordinance" means a county, city or town ordinance.

1992, c. 830; 2005, cc. 868, 881; 2020, cc. 1227, 1246.

A. Any person, whether licensed by Virginia or not, who operates a motor vehicle upon a highway, as defined in § 46.2-100, in the Commonwealth shall be deemed thereby, as a condition of such operation, to have consented to have samples of his blood, breath, or both blood and breath taken for a chemical test to determine the alcohol, drug, or both alcohol and drug content of his blood, if he is arrested for violation of § 18.2-266, 18.2-266.1, or subsection B of § 18.2-272 or of a similar ordinance within three hours of the alleged offense.

B. Any person so arrested for a violation of clause (i) or (ii) of § 18.2-266 or both, § 18.2-266.1 or subsection B of § 18.2-272 or of a similar ordinance shall submit to a breath test. If the breath test is unavailable or the person is physically unable to submit to the breath test, a blood test shall be given. The accused shall, prior to administration of the test, be advised by the person administering the test that he has the right to observe the process of analysis and to see the blood-alcohol reading on the equipment used to perform the breath test. If the equipment automatically produces a written printout of the breath test result, the printout, or a copy, shall be given to the accused.

C. A person, after having been arrested for a violation of clause (iii), (iv), or (v) of § 18.2-266 or § 18.2-266.1 or subsection B of § 18.2-272 or of a similar ordinance, may be required to submit to a blood test to determine the drug or both drug and alcohol content of his blood. When a person, after having been arrested for a violation of § 18.2-266 (i) or (ii) or both, submits to a breath test in accordance with subsection B or refuses to take or is incapable of taking such a breath test, he may be required to submit to tests to determine the drug or both drug and alcohol content of his blood if the law-enforcement officer has reasonable cause to believe the person was driving under the influence of any drug or combination of drugs, or the combined influence of alcohol and drugs.

1992, c. 830; 1993, c. 746; 1994, cc. 359, 363; 1995, c. 23; 2002, c. 748; 2004, c. 1013; 2005, cc. 616, 757, 840.

A. It is unlawful for a person who is arrested for a violation of § 18.2-266 or 18.2-266.1 or subsection B of § 18.2-272 or of a similar ordinance to unreasonably refuse to have samples of his breath taken for chemical tests to determine the alcohol content of his blood as required by § 18.2-268.2, and any person who so unreasonably refuses is guilty of a violation of this subsection, which is punishable as follows:

1. A first violation is a civil offense. For a first offense, the court shall suspend the defendant's privilege to drive for a period of one year. This suspension period is in addition to the suspension period provided under § 46.2-391.2.

2. If a person is found to have violated this subsection and within 10 years prior to the date of the refusal he was found guilty of any of the following: a violation of this section, a violation of § 18.2-266, or a violation of any offense listed in subsection E of § 18.2-270 arising out of separate occurrences or incidents, he is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor. A conviction under this subdivision shall of itself operate to deprive the person of the privilege to drive for a period of three years from the date of the judgment of conviction. This revocation period is in addition to the suspension period provided under § 46.2-391.2.

B. It is unlawful for a person who is arrested for a violation of § 18.2-266 or 18.2-266.1 or subsection B of § 18.2-272 or of a similar ordinance to unreasonably refuse to have samples of his blood taken for chemical tests to determine the alcohol or drug content of his blood as required by § 18.2-268.2 and any person who so unreasonably refuses is guilty of a violation of this subsection, which is a civil offense and is punishable as follows:

1. For a first offense, the court shall suspend the defendant's privilege to drive for a period of one year. This suspension period is in addition to the suspension period provided under § 46.2-391.2.

2. If a person is found to have violated this subsection and within 10 years prior to the date of the refusal he was found guilty of any of the following: a violation of this section, a violation of § 18.2-266, or a violation of any offense listed in subsection E of § 18.2-270 arising out of separate occurrences or incidents, such violation shall of itself operate to deprive the person of the privilege to drive for a period of three years from the date of the judgment. This revocation period is in addition to the suspension period provided under § 46.2-391.2.

C. When a person is arrested for a violation of § 18.2-51.4, 18.2-266, or 18.2-266.1 or subsection B of § 18.2-272 or of a similar ordinance and such person refuses to permit blood or breath or both blood and breath samples to be taken for testing as required by § 18.2-268.2, the arresting officer shall advise the person, from a form provided by the Office of the Executive Secretary of the Supreme Court (i) that a person who operates a motor vehicle upon a highway in the Commonwealth is deemed thereby, as a condition of such operation, to have consented to have samples of his blood and breath taken for chemical tests to determine the alcohol or drug content of his blood, (ii) that a finding of unreasonable refusal to consent may be admitted as evidence at a criminal trial, (iii) that the unreasonable refusal to do so constitutes grounds for the revocation of the privilege of operating a motor vehicle upon the highways of the Commonwealth, (iv) of the civil penalties for unreasonable refusal to have blood or breath or both blood and breath samples taken, and (v) of the criminal penalty for unreasonable refusal to have breath samples taken within 10 years of a prior conviction for driving while intoxicated or unreasonable refusal, which is a Class 1 misdemeanor. The form from which the arresting officer shall advise the person arrested shall contain a brief statement of the law requiring the taking of blood or breath samples, a statement that a finding of unreasonable refusal to consent may be admitted as evidence at a criminal trial, and the penalties for refusal. The Office of the Executive Secretary of the Supreme Court shall make the form available on the Internet and the form shall be considered an official publication of the Commonwealth for the purposes of § 8.01-388.

D. The arresting officer shall, under oath before the magistrate, execute the form and certify (i) that the defendant has refused to permit blood or breath or both blood and breath samples to be taken for testing; (ii) that the officer has read the portion of the form described in subsection C to the arrested person; (iii) that the arrested person, after having had the portion of the form described in subsection C read to him, has refused to permit such sample or samples to be taken; and (iv) how many, if any, violations of this section, § 18.2-266, or any offense described in subsection E of § 18.2-270 the arrested person has been convicted of within the last 10 years. Such sworn certification shall constitute probable cause for the magistrate to issue a warrant or summons charging the person with unreasonable refusal. The magistrate shall attach the executed and sworn advisement form to the warrant or summons. The warrant or summons for a first offense under subsection A or any offense under subsection B shall be executed in the same manner as a criminal warrant or summons. If the person arrested has been taken to a medical facility for treatment or evaluation of his medical condition, the arresting officer may read the advisement form to the person at the medical facility, and issue, on the premises of the medical facility, a summons for a violation of this section in lieu of securing a warrant or summons from the magistrate. The magistrate or arresting officer, as the case may be, shall forward the executed advisement form and warrant or summons to the appropriate court.

E. A defendant who is found guilty of a first offense and whose license is suspended pursuant to subdivision A 1 or B 1 may petition the court 30 days after the date of conviction for a restricted license and the court may, for good cause shown, provide that the defendant is issued a restricted license during the remaining period of suspension, or any portion thereof, for any of the purposes set forth in subsection E of § 18.2-271.1. No restricted license issued pursuant to this subsection shall permit any person to operate a commercial motor vehicle as defined in the Virginia Commercial Driver's License Act (§ 46.2-341.1 et seq.). If the court grants such petition and issues the defendant a restricted license, the court shall order (i) that reinstatement of the defendant's license to drive be conditioned upon (a) the installation of an ignition interlock system on each motor vehicle, as defined in § 46.2-100, owned by or registered to the person, in whole or in part, for a period of time not to exceed the period of license suspension and restriction, not less than six consecutive months without alcohol-related violations of the interlock requirements and (b) the requirement that such person not operate any motor vehicle that is not equipped with such a system for the period of time that the interlock restriction is in effect and (ii) that, as a condition of probation or otherwise, the defendant enter into and successfully complete an alcohol safety action program in the judicial district in which such charge is brought or in any other judicial district upon such terms and conditions as the court may set forth. However, upon motion of a person convicted of any such offense following an assessment of the person conducted by an alcohol safety action program, the court, for good cause, may decline to order participation in such a program if the assessment conducted by the alcohol safety action program indicates that intervention is not appropriate for such person. In no event shall such persons be permitted to enter any such program that is not certified as meeting minimum standards and criteria established by the Commission on the Virginia Alcohol Safety Action Program (VASAP) pursuant to this section and to § 18.2-271.2. The court shall require the person entering such program under the provisions of this section to pay a fee of no less than $250 but no more than $300. A reasonable portion of such fee, as may be determined by the Commission on VASAP, but not to exceed 10 percent, shall be forwarded monthly to be deposited with the State Treasurer for expenditure by the Commission on VASAP, and the balance shall be held in a separate fund for local administration of driver alcohol rehabilitation programs. Upon a positive finding that the defendant is indigent, the court may reduce or waive the fee. In addition to the costs of the proceeding, fees as may reasonably be required of defendants referred for intervention under any such program may be charged.

If the court grants a restricted license to any person pursuant to this section, the court shall order such person to surrender his driver's license to be disposed of in accordance with the provisions of § 46.2-398 and shall forward to the Commissioner of the Department of Motor Vehicles a copy of its order entered pursuant to this subsection. This order shall specifically enumerate the restrictions imposed and contain such information regarding the person to whom such a permit is issued as is reasonably necessary to identify such person. The court shall also provide a copy of its order to such person who may operate a motor vehicle on the order until receipt from the Commissioner of the Department of Motor Vehicles of a restricted license, but only if the order provides for a restricted license for that period. A copy of the order and, after receipt thereof, the restricted license shall be carried at all times by such person while operating a motor vehicle. The period of time during which the person is prohibited from operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock system shall be calculated from the date the person is issued a restricted license by the court; however, such period of time shall be tolled upon the expiration of the restricted license issued by the court until such time as the person is issued a restricted license by the Department of Motor Vehicles. Any person who operates a motor vehicle in violation of any restrictions imposed pursuant to this section shall be guilty of a violation of § 18.2-272. The provisions of subsection F of § 18.2-271.1 shall apply to this subsection mutatis mutandis, except as herein provided.

F. Notwithstanding any other provisions of this section or of § 18.2-271.1, nothing in this section shall permit the court to suspend, reduce, limit, or otherwise modify any disqualification from operating a commercial motor vehicle imposed under the provisions of the Virginia Commercial Driver's License Act (§ 46.2-341.1 et seq.).

1992, c. 830; 1994, cc. 359, 363; 1997, c. 691; 2001, cc. 654, 779; 2004, cc. 985, 1013, 1022; 2004, Sp. Sess. I, c. 2; 2005, cc. 757, 840; 2009, c. 239; 2017, c. 623; 2020, c. 341.

A. Venue for the trial of the warrant or summons shall lie in the court of the county or city in which the offense of driving under the influence of intoxicants or other offense listed in subsection A or B of § 18.2-268.3 is to be tried.

B. The procedure for appeal and trial of any civil offense of § 18.2-268.3 shall be the same as provided by law for misdemeanors; if requested by either party on appeal to the circuit court, trial by jury shall be as provided in Article 4 (§ 19.2-260 et seq.) of Chapter 15 of Title 19.2, and the Commonwealth shall be required to prove its case beyond a reasonable doubt.

C. If the defendant pleads guilty to a violation of § 18.2-266 or 18.2-266.1 or subsection B of § 18.2-272 or of a similar ordinance, the court may dismiss the warrant or summons.

The court shall dispose of the defendant's license in accordance with the provisions of § 46.2-398; however, the defendant's license shall not be returned during any period of suspension imposed under § 46.2-391.2.

1992, c. 830; 1994, cc. 151, 359, 363; 2004, cc. 985, 1013; 2005, cc. 757, 840, 943; 2017, c. 623.

For purposes of this article, only a physician, registered nurse, licensed practical nurse, phlebotomist, graduate laboratory technician or a technician or nurse designated by order of a circuit court acting upon the recommendation of a licensed physician, using soap and water, polyvinylpyrrolidone iodine, pvp iodine, povidone iodine or benzalkonium chloride to cleanse the part of the body from which the blood is taken and using instruments sterilized by the accepted steam sterilizer or some other sterilizer which will not affect the accuracy of the test, or using chemically clean sterile disposable syringes, shall withdraw blood for the purpose of determining its alcohol or drug or both alcohol and drug content. It is a Class 3 misdemeanor to reuse single-use-only needles or syringes. No civil liability shall attach to any person authorized to withdraw blood as a result of the act of withdrawing blood as provided in this section from any person submitting thereto, provided the blood was withdrawn according to recognized medical procedures. However, the person shall not be relieved from liability for negligence in the withdrawing of any blood sample.

No person arrested for a violation of § 18.2-266, 18.2-266.1, or subsection B of § 18.2-272, or a similar ordinance shall be required to execute in favor of any person or corporation a waiver or release of liability in connection with the withdrawal of blood and as a condition precedent to the withdrawal of blood as provided for in this section.

1992, c. 830; 1994, cc. 359, 363; 2004, cc. 150, 440, 1013; 2005, cc. 757, 840.

The blood sample withdrawn pursuant to § 18.2-268.5 shall be placed in vials provided or approved by the Department of Forensic Science. The vials shall be sealed by the person taking the sample or at his direction. The person who seals the vials shall complete the prenumbered certificate of blood withdrawal forms and attach one form to each vial. The completed withdrawal certificate for each vial shall show the name of the accused, the name of the person taking the blood sample, the date and time the blood sample was taken and information identifying the arresting or accompanying officer. The vials shall be placed in a container provided by the Department, and the container shall be sealed to prevent tampering with the vials. The arresting or accompanying officer shall take possession of the container as soon as the vials are placed in the container and sealed, and shall promptly transport or mail the container to the Department.

1992, c. 830; 2001, c. 561; 2003, cc. 933, 936; 2005, cc. 868, 881.

A. Upon receipt of a blood sample forwarded to the Department for analysis pursuant to § 18.2-268.6, the Department shall have it examined for its alcohol or drug or both alcohol and drug content and the Director shall execute a certificate of analysis indicating the name of the accused; the date, time and by whom the blood sample was received and examined; a statement that the seal on the vial had not been broken or otherwise tampered with; a statement that the container and vial were provided or approved by the Department and that the vial was one to which the completed withdrawal certificate was attached; and a statement of the sample's alcohol or drug or both alcohol and drug content. The Director shall remove the withdrawal certificate from the vial and either (i) attach it to the certificate of analysis and state in the certificate of analysis that it was so removed and attached or (ii) electronically scan it into the Department's Laboratory Information Management System and place the original withdrawal certificate in its case-specific file. The certificate of analysis and the withdrawal certificate shall be returned or electronically transmitted to the clerk of the court in which the charge will be heard.

B. After completion of the analysis, the Department shall preserve the remainder of the blood until at least 90 days have lapsed. The accused may, at any time prior to the expiration of such 90-day period, by motion filed before the court in which the charge will be heard, with notice to the Department, request an order directing the Department to transmit the remainder of the blood sample to an independent laboratory retained by the accused for analysis. On motion of the accused, the report of analysis prepared for the remaining blood sample shall be admissible in evidence, provided that the report is duly attested by a person performing such analysis and the independent laboratory that performed the analysis is accredited or certified to conduct forensic blood alcohol/drug testing by one or more of the following: College of American Pathologists (CAP); U.S. Department of Health and Human Services Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA); American Board of Forensic Toxicology (ABFT); or an accrediting body that requires conformance to forensic-specific requirements and that is a signatory to the International Laboratory Accreditation Cooperation (ILAC) Mutual Recognition Arrangement with a scope of accreditation that covers the testing being performed. If no notice of a motion to transmit the remainder of the blood sample is received prior to the expiration of the 90-day period, the Department shall destroy the remainder of the blood sample unless the Commonwealth has filed a written request with the Department to return the remainder of the blood sample to the investigating law-enforcement agency. In such case, the Department shall return the remainder of the blood sample, if not sent to an independent laboratory, to the investigating law-enforcement agency.

C. When a blood sample taken in accordance with the provisions of §§ 18.2-268.2 through 18.2-268.6 is forwarded for analysis to the Department, a report of the test results shall be filed in that office. Upon proper identification of the certificate of withdrawal, the certificate of analysis, with the withdrawal certificate attached, shall, when attested by the Director, be admissible in any court as evidence of the facts therein stated and of the results of such analysis (i) in any criminal proceeding, provided the requirements of subsection A of § 19.2-187.1 have been satisfied and the accused has not objected to the admission of the certificate pursuant to subsection B of § 19.2-187.1, or (ii) in any civil proceeding.

Upon request of the person whose blood was analyzed, the test results shall be made available to him.

The Director may delegate or assign these duties to an employee of the Department.

Payment for withdrawing blood shall not exceed $25, which shall be paid out of the appropriation for criminal charges. If the person whose blood sample was withdrawn is subsequently convicted for a violation of § 18.2-266, 18.2-266.1, or subsection B of § 18.2-272 or of a similar ordinance, or is placed under the purview of a probational, educational, or rehabilitational program as set forth in § 18.2-271.1, the amount charged by the person withdrawing the sample shall be taxed as part of the costs of the criminal case and shall be paid into the general fund of the state treasury.

If the person whose blood sample was withdrawn is subsequently convicted for violation of § 18.2-266, 18.2-266.1, or subsection B of § 18.2-272 or a similar ordinance, a fee of $25 for testing the first blood sample by the Department shall be taxed as part of the costs of the criminal case and shall be paid into the general fund of the state treasury.

1992, c. 830; 1994, cc. 359, 363; 2001, c. 561; 2003, cc. 933, 936; 2004, c. 1013; 2005, cc. 757, 840, 868, 881.

A. To be capable of being considered valid as evidence in a prosecution under § 18.2-266 or 18.2-266.1 or subsection B of § 18.2-272 or a similar ordinance, chemical analysis of a person's breath shall be performed by an individual possessing a valid license to conduct such tests, with a type of equipment and in accordance with methods approved by the Department.

B. The Department shall establish a training program for all individuals who are to administer the breath tests. Upon a person's successful completion of the training program, the Department may license him to conduct breath-test analyses. Such license shall identify the specific types of breath test equipment upon which the individual has successfully completed training. Any individual conducting a breath test under the provisions of § 18.2-268.2 shall issue a certificate which will indicate that the test was conducted in accordance with the Department's specifications, the name of the accused, that prior to administration of the test the accused was advised of his right to observe the process and see the blood alcohol reading on the equipment used to perform the breath test, the date and time the sample was taken from the accused, the sample's alcohol content, and the name of the person who examined the sample. This certificate, when attested by the individual conducting the breath test on equipment maintained by the Department, shall be admissible in any court as evidence of the facts therein stated and of the results of such analysis (i) in any criminal proceeding, provided that the requirements of subsection A of § 19.2-187.1 have been satisfied and the accused has not objected to the admission of the certificate pursuant to subsection B of § 19.2-187.1, or (ii) in any civil proceeding. Any such certificate of analysis purporting to be signed by a person authorized by the Department shall be admissible in evidence without proof of seal or signature of the person whose name is signed to it. A copy of the certificate shall be promptly delivered to the accused. Copies of Department records relating to any breath test conducted pursuant to this section shall be admissible provided such copies are authenticated as true copies either by the custodian thereof or by the person to whom the custodian reports.

Any person qualified to conduct a breath test as provided by this section may administer the breath test or analyze the results.

1992, c. 830; 1994, cc. 359, 363; 1996, cc. 154, 952; 1997, c. 256; 1999, c. 273; 2004, c. 1013; 2005, cc. 757, 840, 868, 881; 2006, c. 101; 2009, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 1, 4; 2017, c. 623.

A. In any trial for a violation of § 18.2-266, 18.2-266.1, or subsection B of § 18.2-272 or a similar ordinance, the admission of the blood or breath test results shall not limit the introduction of any other relevant evidence bearing upon any question at issue before the court, and the court shall, regardless of the result of any blood or breath tests, consider other relevant admissible evidence of the condition of the accused. If the test results indicate the presence of any drug other than alcohol, the test results shall be admissible, except in a prosecution under clause (v) of § 18.2-266, only if other competent evidence has been presented to relate the presence of the drug or drugs to the impairment of the accused's ability to drive or operate any motor vehicle, engine or train safely.

B. The failure of an accused to permit a blood or breath sample to be taken to determine the alcohol or drug content of his blood is not evidence and shall not be subject to comment by the Commonwealth at the trial of the case, except in rebuttal or pursuant to subsection C; nor shall the fact that a blood or breath test had been offered the accused be evidence or the subject of comment by the Commonwealth, except in rebuttal or pursuant to subsection C.

C. Evidence of a finding against the defendant under § 18.2-268.3 for his unreasonable refusal to permit a blood or breath sample to be taken to determine the alcohol or drug content of his blood shall be admissible into evidence, upon the motion of the Commonwealth or the defendant, for the sole purpose of explaining the absence at trial of a chemical test of such sample. When admitted pursuant to this subsection such evidence shall not be considered evidence of the accused's guilt.

D. The court or jury trying the case involving a violation of clause (ii), (iii) or (iv) of § 18.2-266 or § 18.2-266.1, or a similar ordinance shall determine the innocence or guilt of the defendant from all the evidence concerning his condition at the time of the alleged offense.

1992, c. 830; 1994, cc. 359, 363; 2001, c. 654; 2004, c. 1013; 2005, cc. 616, 757, 840.

The steps set forth in §§ 18.2-268.2 through 18.2-268.9 relating to taking, handling, identifying, and disposing of blood or breath samples are procedural and not substantive. Substantial compliance shall be sufficient. Failure to comply with any steps or portions thereof shall not of itself be grounds for finding the defendant not guilty, but shall go to the weight of the evidence and shall be considered with all the evidence in the case; however, the defendant shall have the right to introduce evidence on his own behalf to show noncompliance with the aforesaid procedures or any part thereof, and that as a result his rights were prejudiced.

1992, c. 830; 2003, cc. 933, 936.

The governing bodies of counties, cities and towns are authorized to adopt ordinances paralleling the provisions of §§ 18.2-268.1 through 18.2-268.11.

1992, c. 830.

A. In any prosecution for a violation of § 18.2-36.1 or clause (ii), (iii), or (iv) of § 18.2-266 or any similar ordinance, the amount of alcohol or drugs in the blood of the accused at the time of the alleged offense as indicated by a chemical analysis of a sample of the accused's blood or breath to determine the alcohol or drug content of his blood (i) in accordance with the provisions of §§ 18.2-268.1 through 18.2-268.12 or (ii) performed by the Department of Forensic Science in accordance with the provisions of §§ 18.2-268.5, 18.2-268.6, and 18.2-268.7 on the suspect's whole blood drawn pursuant to a search warrant shall give rise to the following rebuttable presumptions:

1. If there was at that time 0.05 percent or less by weight by volume of alcohol in the accused's blood or 0.05 grams or less per 210 liters of the accused's breath, it shall be presumed that the accused was not under the influence of alcohol intoxicants at the time of the alleged offense;

2. If there was at that time in excess of 0.05 percent but less than 0.08 percent by weight by volume of alcohol in the accused's blood or 0.05 grams but less than 0.08 grams per 210 liters of the accused's breath, such facts shall not give rise to any presumption that the accused was or was not under the influence of alcohol intoxicants at the time of the alleged offense, but such facts may be considered with other competent evidence in determining the guilt or innocence of the accused;

3. If there was at that time 0.08 percent or more by weight by volume of alcohol in the accused's blood or 0.08 grams or more per 210 liters of the accused's breath, it shall be presumed that the accused was under the influence of alcohol intoxicants at the time of the alleged offense; or

4. If there was at that time an amount of the following substances at a level that is equal to or greater than: (i) 0.02 milligrams of cocaine per liter of blood, (ii) 0.1 milligrams of methamphetamine per liter of blood, (iii) 0.01 milligrams of phencyclidine per liter of blood, or (iv) 0.1 milligrams of 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine per liter of blood, it shall be presumed that the accused was under the influence of drugs at the time of the alleged offense to a degree which impairs his ability to drive or operate any motor vehicle, engine or train safely.

B. The provisions of this section shall not apply to and shall not affect any prosecution for a violation of § 46.2-341.24.

Code 1950, § 18.1-57; 1960, c. 358; 1964, c. 240; 1966, c. 636; 1972, c. 757; 1973, c. 459; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1977, c. 638; 1983, c. 504; 1986, c. 635; 1989, cc. 554, 574, 705; 1992, c. 830; 1994, cc. 359, 363; 2005, c. 616; 2017, c. 623.

A. Except as otherwise provided herein, any person violating any provision of § 18.2-266 shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor with a mandatory minimum fine of $250. If the person's blood alcohol level as indicated by the chemical test administered as provided in this article or by any other scientifically reliable chemical test performed on whole blood under circumstances reliably establishing the identity of the person who is the source of the blood and the accuracy of the results (i) was at least 0.15, but not more than 0.20, he shall be confined in jail for an additional mandatory minimum period of five days or, (ii) if the level was more than 0.20, for an additional mandatory minimum period of 10 days.

B. 1. Any person convicted of a second offense committed within less than five years after a prior offense under § 18.2-266 shall upon conviction of the second offense be punished by a mandatory minimum fine of $500 and by confinement in jail for not less than one month nor more than one year. Twenty days of such confinement shall be a mandatory minimum sentence.

2. Any person convicted of a second offense committed within a period of five to 10 years of a prior offense under § 18.2-266 shall upon conviction of the second offense be punished by a mandatory minimum fine of $500 and by confinement in jail for not less than one month. Ten days of such confinement shall be a mandatory minimum sentence.

3. Upon conviction of a second offense within 10 years of a prior offense, if the person's blood alcohol level as indicated by the chemical test administered as provided in this article or by any other scientifically reliable chemical test performed on whole blood under circumstances reliably establishing the identity of the person who is the source of the blood and the accuracy of the results (i) was at least 0.15, but not more than 0.20, he shall be confined in jail for an additional mandatory minimum period of 10 days or, (ii) if the level was more than 0.20, for an additional mandatory minimum period of 20 days. In addition, such person shall be fined a mandatory minimum fine of $500.

C. 1. Any person convicted of three offenses of § 18.2-266 committed within a 10-year period shall upon conviction of the third offense be guilty of a Class 6 felony. The sentence of any person convicted of three offenses of § 18.2-266 committed within a 10-year period shall include a mandatory minimum sentence of 90 days, unless the three offenses were committed within a five-year period, in which case the sentence shall include a mandatory minimum sentence of confinement for six months. In addition, such person shall be fined a mandatory minimum fine of $1,000.

2. A person who has been convicted of § 18.2-36.1, 18.2-36.2, 18.2-51.4, 18.2-51.5, or a felony violation of § 18.2-266 shall upon conviction of a subsequent violation of § 18.2-266 be guilty of a Class 6 felony. The punishment of any person convicted of such a subsequent violation of § 18.2-266 shall include a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment of one year and a mandatory minimum fine of $1,000.

3. The punishment of any person convicted of a fourth or subsequent offense of § 18.2-266 committed within a 10-year period shall, upon conviction, include a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment of one year. In addition, such person shall be fined a mandatory minimum fine of $1,000.

4. The vehicle solely owned and operated by the accused during the commission of a felony violation of § 18.2-266 shall be subject to seizure and forfeiture. After an arrest for a felony violation of § 18.2-266, the Commonwealth may file an information in accordance with § 19.2-386.34.

D. In addition to the penalty otherwise authorized by this section or § 16.1-278.9, any person convicted of a violation of § 18.2-266 committed while transporting a person 17 years of age or younger shall be (i) fined an additional minimum of $500 and not more than $1,000 and (ii) sentenced to a mandatory minimum period of confinement of five days.

E. For the purpose of determining the number of offenses committed by, and the punishment appropriate for, a person under this section, an adult conviction of any person, or finding of guilty in the case of a juvenile, under the following shall be considered a conviction of § 18.2-266: (i) the provisions of § 18.2-36.1 or the substantially similar laws of any other state or of the United States, (ii) the provisions of §§ 18.2-51.4, 18.2-266, former § 18.1-54 (formerly § 18-75), the ordinance of any county, city or town in this Commonwealth or the laws of any other state or of the United States substantially similar to the provisions of § 18.2-51.4, or § 18.2-266, or (iii) the provisions of subsection A of § 46.2-341.24 or the substantially similar laws of any other state or of the United States.

F. Mandatory minimum punishments imposed pursuant to this section shall be cumulative, and mandatory minimum terms of confinement shall be served consecutively. However, in no case shall punishment imposed hereunder exceed the applicable statutory maximum Class 1 misdemeanor term of confinement or fine upon conviction of a first or second offense, or Class 6 felony term of confinement or fine upon conviction of a third or subsequent offense.

Code 1950, § 18.1-58; 1960, c. 358; 1962, c. 302; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1982, c. 301; 1983, c. 504; 1989, c. 705; 1991, cc. 370, 710; 1992, c. 891; 1993, c. 972; 1997, c. 691; 1999, cc. 743, 945, 949, 987; 2000, cc. 784, 956, 958, 980, 982; 2002, c. 759; 2003, cc. 573, 591; 2004, cc. 461, 937, 946, 950, 957, 958, 962; 2006, cc. 82, 314; 2009, c. 229; 2012, cc. 283, 756; 2013, cc. 415, 655; 2014, c. 707.

A. The court shall order any person convicted of a violation of §§ 18.2-36.1, 18.2-51.4, 18.2-266, 18.2-266.1 or § 46.2-341.24 who has been convicted previously of one or more violations of any of those sections or any ordinance, any law of another state, or any law of the United States substantially similar to the provisions of those sections within 10 years of the date of the current offense to pay $50 to the Trauma Center Fund for the purpose of defraying the costs of providing emergency medical care to victims of automobile accidents attributable to alcohol or drug use.

B. There is hereby established in the state treasury a special nonreverting fund to be known as the Trauma Center Fund. The Fund shall consist of any moneys paid into it by virtue of operation of subsection A hereof and any moneys appropriated thereto by the General Assembly and designated for the Fund. Any moneys deposited to or remaining in the Fund during or at the end of each fiscal year or biennium, including interest thereon, shall not revert to the general fund but shall remain in the Fund and be available for allocation in ensuing fiscal years. The Department of Health shall award and administer grants from the Trauma Center Fund to appropriate trauma centers based on the cost to provide emergency medical care to victims of automobile accidents. The Department of Health shall develop, on or before October 1, 2004, written criteria for the awarding of such grants that shall be evaluated and, if necessary, revised on an annual basis.

2004, c. 999.

A. For purposes of this section and § 18.2-270.2:

"Commission" means the Commission on VASAP.

"Department" means the Department of Motor Vehicles.

"Ignition interlock system" means a device that (i) connects a motor vehicle ignition system to an analyzer that measures a driver's blood alcohol content; (ii) prevents a motor vehicle ignition from starting if a driver's blood alcohol content exceeds 0.02 percent; and (iii) is equipped with the ability to perform a rolling retest and to electronically log the blood alcohol content during ignition, attempted ignition, and rolling retest.

"Remote alcohol monitoring device" means an unsupervised mobile testing device with the ability to confirm the location and presence of alcohol in a person and that is capable of scheduled, random, and on-demand tests that provide immediate, or as-requested, results. A testing device may be worn or used by persons ordered by the court to provide measurements of the presence of alcohol in their blood.

"Rolling retest" means a test of the vehicle operator's blood alcohol content required at random intervals during operation of the vehicle, which triggers the sounding of the horn and flashing of lights if (i) the test indicates that the operator has a blood alcohol content which exceeds 0.02 percent or (ii) the operator fails to take the test.

B. In addition to any penalty provided by law for a conviction under § 18.2-51.4 or clauses (i), (ii), or (iv) of § 18.2-266 or a substantially similar ordinance of any county, city, or town, any court of proper jurisdiction shall, as a condition of a restricted license, prohibit an offender from operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with a functioning, certified ignition interlock system for any period of time not to exceed the period of license suspension and restriction, not less than six consecutive months without alcohol-related violations of the interlock requirements. In addition to any penalty provided by law for a conviction under clauses (iii) or (v) of § 18.2-266 or a substantially similar ordinance of any county, city, or town, any court of proper jurisdiction may, for a first offense, as a condition of a restricted license, prohibit an offender from operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with a functioning, certified ignition interlock system for any period of time not to exceed the period of license suspension and restriction, not less than six consecutive months without alcohol-related violations of the interlock requirements. The court shall, as a condition of a restricted license for a conviction under § 18.2-51.4, a second or subsequent offense of § 18.2-266 or a substantially similar ordinance of any county, city, or town, or as a condition of license restoration pursuant to subsection C of § 18.2-271.1 or § 46.2-391, require that such a system be installed on each motor vehicle, as defined in § 46.2-100, owned by or registered to the offender, in whole or in part, for any period of time not less than six consecutive months without alcohol-related violations of the interlock requirements. Such condition shall be in addition to any purposes for which a restricted license may be issued pursuant to § 18.2-271.1. Whenever an ignition interlock system is required, the court may order the installation of an ignition interlock system to commence immediately upon conviction. A fee of $20 to cover court and administrative costs related to the ignition interlock system shall be paid by any such offender to the clerk of the court. The court shall require the offender to install an electronic log device with the ignition interlock system on a vehicle designated by the court to measure the blood alcohol content at each attempted ignition and random rolling retest during operation of the vehicle. The offender shall be enrolled in and supervised by an alcohol safety action program pursuant to § 18.2-271.1 and to conditions established by regulation under § 18.2-270.2 by the Commission during the period for which the court has ordered installation of the ignition interlock system. The offender shall be further required to provide to such program, at least quarterly during the period of court ordered ignition interlock installation, a printout from such electronic log indicating the offender's blood alcohol content during such ignitions, attempted ignitions, and rolling retests, and showing attempts to circumvent or tamper with the equipment. The period of time during which the offender (i) is prohibited from operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock system or (ii) is required to have an ignition interlock system installed on each motor vehicle owned by or registered to the offender, in whole or in part, shall be calculated from the date the offender is issued a restricted license by the court; however, such period of time shall be tolled upon the expiration of the restricted license issued by the court until such time as the person is issued a restricted license by the Department.

C. However, upon motion of an offender, if (i) a conviction was under § 18.2-266 or a substantially similar ordinance of any county, city, or town; (ii) the conviction was for a first offense; (iii) the offender was an adult at the time of the offense; and (iv) the offender's blood alcohol content was less than 0.15, the only restriction of a restricted license that the court shall impose is to prohibit the offender from operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with a functioning, certified ignition interlock system for not less than 12 consecutive months without alcohol-related violations of the interlock requirements.

D. In any case in which the court requires the installation of an ignition interlock system, the court shall order the offender not to operate any motor vehicle that is not equipped with such a system for the period of time that the interlock restriction is in effect. The clerk of the court shall file with the Department of Motor Vehicles a copy of the order, which shall become a part of the offender's operator's license record maintained by the Department. The Department shall issue to the offender for the period during which the interlock restriction is imposed a restricted license which shall appropriately set forth the restrictions required by the court under this subsection and any other restrictions imposed upon the offender's driving privilege, and shall also set forth any exception granted by the court under subsection I.

E. The court may, upon motion of an offender who is ineligible to receive a restricted license in accordance with subsection C, order that the offender (i) use a remote alcohol monitoring device for a period of time coextensive with the period of time of the prohibition imposed under subsection B and (ii) refrain from alcohol consumption during such period of time. Additionally, upon such motion and pursuant to § 18.2-271.1, the court may issue a restricted license to operate a motor vehicle for any purpose to a person who is prohibited from operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with a functioning, certified ignition interlock system when such person is ordered to use a remote alcohol monitoring device pursuant to this subsection and has a functioning, certified ignition interlock system installed on each motor vehicle, as defined in § 46.2-100, owned by or registered to the offender, in whole or in part.

A fee of $20 to cover court and administrative costs related to the remote alcohol monitoring device shall be paid by any such offender to the clerk of the court. The offender shall be enrolled in and supervised by an alcohol safety action program pursuant to § 18.2-271.1 and shall comply with all conditions established by regulation under § 18.2-270.2 by the Commission during the period for which the court has ordered the use of a remote alcohol monitoring device. The offender shall be further required to provide to such program, at least quarterly during the period of time the offender is ordered to use a remote alcohol monitoring device, a copy of the data from such device indicating the offender's blood alcohol content and showing attempts to circumvent or tamper with the device. The period of time during which the offender is required to use a remote alcohol monitoring device shall be calculated from the date the offender is issued a restricted license by the court; however, such period of time shall be tolled upon the expiration of the restricted license issued by the court until such time as the person is issued a restricted license by the Department.

F. The offender shall be ordered to provide the appropriate ASAP program, within 30 days of the effective date of the order of court, proof of the installation of the ignition interlock system, and, if applicable, proof that the offender is using a remote alcohol monitoring device. The Program shall require the offender to have the system and device monitored and calibrated for proper operation at least every 30 days by an entity approved by the Commission under the provisions of § 18.2-270.2 and to demonstrate proof thereof. The offender shall pay the cost of leasing or buying and monitoring and maintaining the ignition interlock system and the remote alcohol monitoring device. Absent good cause shown, the court may revoke the offender's driving privilege for failing to (i) timely install such system or use such device or (ii) have the system or device properly monitored and calibrated.

G. No person shall start or attempt to start a motor vehicle equipped with an ignition interlock system for the purpose of providing an operable motor vehicle to a person who is prohibited under this section from operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock system. No person shall tamper with, or in any way attempt to circumvent the operation of, an ignition interlock system that has been installed in the motor vehicle of a person under this section. Except as authorized in subsection I, no person shall knowingly furnish a motor vehicle not equipped with a functioning ignition interlock system to any person prohibited under subsection B from operating any motor vehicle that is not equipped with such system. A violation of this subsection is punishable as a Class 1 misdemeanor. The venue for the prosecution of a violation of this subsection shall be where the offense occurred or the jurisdiction in which the order entered pursuant to subsection B was entered.

H. No person shall tamper with, or in any way attempt to circumvent the operation of, a remote alcohol monitoring device that an offender is ordered to use under this section. A violation of this subsection is punishable as a Class 1 misdemeanor.

Any person who violates this subsection shall have his restricted license issued pursuant to subsection E, as it shall become effective on July 1, 2021, revoked. The court may, in its discretion and for good cause shown, provide that such person be issued a restricted permit to operate a motor vehicle in accordance with the terms of a restricted license issued pursuant to subsection E of § 18.2-271.1.

I. Any person prohibited from operating a motor vehicle under subsection B may, solely in the course of his employment, operate a motor vehicle that is owned or provided by his employer without installation of an ignition interlock system, if the court expressly permits such operation as a condition of a restricted license at the request of the employer; such person shall not be permitted to operate any other vehicle without a functioning ignition interlock system and, in no event, shall such person be permitted to operate a school bus, school vehicle, or a commercial motor vehicle as defined in § 46.2-341.4. This subsection shall not apply if such employer is an entity wholly or partially owned or controlled by the person otherwise prohibited from operating a vehicle without an ignition interlock system.

J. The Commission shall promulgate such regulations and forms as are necessary to implement the procedures outlined in this section.

1995, c. 486; 1996, c. 841; 1997, c. 691; 1998, cc. 783, 840; 1999, c. 734; 2000, cc. 958, 980; 2004, c. 961; 2007, c. 686; 2008, c. 862; 2012, cc. 141, 570; 2014, c. 707; 2017, c. 499; 2020, cc. 129, 530, 1007.

A. The Executive Director of the Commission on VASAP or his designee shall, pursuant to approval by the Commission, certify ignition interlock systems for use in the Commonwealth and adopt regulations and forms for the installation, maintenance and certification of such ignition interlock systems.

The regulations adopted shall include requirements that ignition interlock systems:

1. Do not impede the safe operation of the vehicle;

2. Minimize opportunities to be bypassed, circumvented or tampered with, and provide evidence thereof;

3. Correlate accurately with established measures of blood alcohol content and be calibrated according to the manufacturer's specifications;

4. Work accurately and reliably in an unsupervised environment;

5. Have the capability to provide an accurate written measure of blood alcohol content for each ignition, attempted ignition, and rolling retest, and record each attempt to circumvent or tamper with the equipment;

6. Minimize inconvenience to other users;

7. Be manufactured or distributed by an entity responsible for installation, user training, service, and maintenance, and meet the safety and operational requirements promulgated by the National Highway Transportation Safety Administration;

8. Operate reliably over the range of motor vehicle environments or motor vehicle manufacturing standards;

9. Be manufactured by an entity which is adequately insured against liability, in an amount established by the Commission, including product liability and installation and maintenance errors;

10. Provide for an electronic log of the driver's experience with the system with an information management system capable of electronically delivering information to the agency supervising the interlock user within 24 hours of the collection of such information from the datalogger; and

11. Provide for a rolling retest of the operator's blood alcohol content.

B. The Executive Director of the Commission on VASAP or his designee shall, pursuant to approval by the Commission, certify remote alcohol monitoring devices for use in the Commonwealth and adopt regulations and forms for the installation, maintenance, and certification of such remote alcohol monitoring devices.

C. Such regulations shall also provide for the establishment of a fund, using a percentage of fees received by the manufacturer or distributor providing ignition interlock services or remote alcohol monitoring devices, to afford persons found by the court to be indigent all or part of the costs of an ignition interlock system or remote alcohol monitoring device.

D. The Commission shall design and adopt a warning label to be affixed to an ignition interlock system or remote alcohol monitoring device upon installation. The warning label shall state that a person tampering with or attempting to circumvent the ignition interlock system or remote alcohol monitoring device is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor and, upon conviction, shall be subject to a fine or incarceration or both.

E. The Commission shall publish a list of certified ignition interlock systems and remote alcohol monitoring devices and shall ensure that such systems and devices are available throughout the Commonwealth. The local alcohol safety action program shall make the list available to eligible offenders, who shall have the responsibility and authority to choose which certified ignition interlock company and certified remote alcohol monitoring company will supply the offender's equipment. A manufacturer or distributor of an ignition interlock system or a remote alcohol monitoring device that seeks to sell or lease the ignition interlock system or remote alcohol monitoring device to persons subject to the provisions of § 18.2-270.1 shall pay the reasonable costs of obtaining the required certification, as set forth by the Commission.

F. A person may not sell or lease or offer to sell or lease an ignition interlock system or a remote alcohol monitoring device to any person subject to the provisions of § 18.2-270.1 unless:

1. The system or device has been certified by the Commission; and

2. The warning label adopted by the Commission is affixed to the system.

G. A manufacturer or distributor of an ignition interlock system or remote alcohol monitoring device shall provide such services as may be required at no cost to the Commonwealth. Such services shall include a toll free, 24-hour telephone number for the users of ignition interlock systems or remote alcohol monitoring devices.

1995, c. 486; 2000, cc. 341, 362; 2020, c. 1007.

A. Except as provided in § 18.2-271.1, the judgment of conviction if for a first offense under § 18.2-266 or for a similar offense under any county, city, or town ordinance, or for a first offense under subsection A of § 46.2-341.24, shall of itself operate to deprive the person so convicted of the privilege to drive or operate any motor vehicle, engine or train in the Commonwealth for a period of one year from the date of such judgment. This suspension period shall be in addition to the suspension period provided under § 46.2-391.2.

B. If a person (i) is tried on a process alleging a second offense of violating § 18.2-266 or subsection A of § 46.2-341.24, or any substantially similar local ordinance, or law of any other jurisdiction, within ten years of a first offense for which the person was convicted, or found guilty in the case of a juvenile, under § 18.2-266 or subsection A of § 46.2-341.24 or any valid local ordinance or any law of any other jurisdiction substantially similar to § 18.2-266 or subsection A of § 46.2-341.24 and (ii) is convicted thereof, such conviction shall of itself operate to deprive the person so convicted of the privilege to drive or operate any motor vehicle, engine or train in the Commonwealth for a period of three years from the date of the judgment of conviction and such person shall have his license revoked as provided in subsection A of § 46.2-391. The court trying such case shall order the surrender of the person's driver's license, to be disposed of in accordance with § 46.2-398, and shall notify such person that his license has been revoked for a period of three years and that the penalty for violating that revocation is as set out in § 46.2-391. This suspension period shall be in addition to the suspension period provided under § 46.2-391.2. Any period of license suspension or revocation imposed pursuant to this section, in any case, shall run consecutively with any period of suspension for failure to permit a blood or breath sample to be taken as required by §§ 18.2-268.1 through 18.2-268.12 or §§ 46.2-341.26:1 through 46.2-341.26:11 or any period of suspension for a previous violation of § 18.2-266, 18.2-266.1, or 46.2-341.24.

C. If a person (i) is tried on a process alleging (a) a felony conviction of § 18.2-266 or (b) a third or subsequent offense of violating § 18.2-266 or subsection A of § 46.2-341.24, or any substantially similar local ordinance, or law of any other jurisdiction, within 10 years of two other offenses for which the person was convicted, or found not innocent in the case of a juvenile, under § 18.2-266 or subsection A of § 46.2-341.24 or any valid local ordinance or any law of any other jurisdiction substantially similar to § 18.2-266 or subsection A of § 46.2-341.24 and (ii) is convicted thereof, such conviction shall of itself operate to deprive the person so convicted of the privilege to drive or operate any motor vehicle, engine or train in the Commonwealth and such person shall not be eligible for participation in a program pursuant to § 18.2-271.1 and shall, upon such conviction, have his license revoked as provided in subsection B of § 46.2-391. The court trying such case shall order the surrender of the person's driver's license, to be disposed of in accordance with § 46.2-398, and shall notify such person that his license has been revoked indefinitely and that the penalty for violating that revocation is as set out in § 46.2-391.

D. Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, the period of license revocation or suspension shall not begin to expire until the person convicted has surrendered his license to the court or to the Department of Motor Vehicles.

E. The provisions of this section shall not apply to, and shall have no effect upon, any disqualification from operating a commercial motor vehicle imposed under the provisions of the Commercial Driver's License Act (§ 46.2-341.1 et seq.).

Code 1950, § 18.1-59; 1960, c. 358; 1962, c. 625; 1964, c. 240; 1972, c. 757; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1982, c. 301; 1983, c. 504; 1984, cc. 623, 673; 1989, c. 705; 1990, c. 949; 1992, cc. 722, 830, 891; 1994, cc. 359, 363; 2000, cc. 956, 982; 2001, c. 739; 2002, c. 873; 2010, c. 521; 2013, cc. 415, 655.

A. Any person convicted of a first or second offense of § 18.2-266, or any ordinance of a county, city, or town similar to the provisions thereof, or provisions of subsection A of § 46.2-341.24, shall be required by court order, as a condition of probation or otherwise, to enter into and successfully complete an alcohol safety action program in the judicial district in which such charge is brought or in any other judicial district upon such terms and conditions as the court may set forth. However, upon motion of a person convicted of any such offense following an assessment of the person conducted by an alcohol safety action program, the court, for good cause, may decline to order participation in such a program if the assessment by the alcohol safety action program indicates that intervention is not appropriate for such person. In no event shall such persons be permitted to enter any such program which is not certified as meeting minimum standards and criteria established by the Commission on the Virginia Alcohol Safety Action Program (VASAP) pursuant to this section and to § 18.2-271.2. However, any person charged with a violation of a first or second offense of § 18.2-266, or any ordinance of a county, city, or town similar to the provisions thereof, or provisions of subsection A of § 46.2-341.24, may, at any time prior to trial, enter into an alcohol safety action program in the judicial district in which such charge is brought or in any other judicial district. Any person who enters into such program prior to trial may pre-qualify with the program to have an ignition interlock system installed on any motor vehicle owned or operated by him. However, no ignition interlock company shall install an ignition interlock system on any such vehicle until a court issues to the person a restricted license with the ignition interlock restriction.

B. The court shall require the person entering such program under the provisions of this section to pay a fee of no less than $250 but no more than $300. A reasonable portion of such fee, as may be determined by the Commission on VASAP, but not to exceed 10 percent, shall be forwarded monthly to be deposited with the State Treasurer for expenditure by the Commission on VASAP, and the balance shall be held in a separate fund for local administration of driver alcohol rehabilitation programs. Upon a positive finding that the defendant is indigent, the court may reduce or waive the fee. In addition to the costs of the proceeding, fees as may reasonably be required of defendants referred for intervention under any such program may be charged.

C. Upon conviction of a violation of § 18.2-266 or any ordinance of a county, city or town similar to the provisions thereof, or subsection A of § 46.2-341.24, the court shall impose the sentence authorized by § 18.2-270 or 46.2-341.28 and the license revocation as authorized by § 18.2-271. In addition, if the conviction was for a second offense committed within less than 10 years after a first such offense, the court shall order that restoration of the person's license to drive be conditioned upon the installation of an ignition interlock system on each motor vehicle, as defined in § 46.2-100, owned by or registered to the person, in whole or in part, for a period of six months beginning at the end of the three year license revocation, unless such a system has already been installed for six months prior to that time pursuant to a restricted license order under subsection E. Upon a finding that a person so convicted is required to participate in the program described herein, the court shall enter the conviction on the warrant, and shall note that the person so convicted has been referred to such program. The court may then proceed to issue an order in accordance with subsection E, if the court finds that the person so convicted is eligible for a restricted license. If the court finds good cause for a person not to participate in such program or subsequently that such person has violated, without good cause, any of the conditions set forth by the court in entering the program, the court shall dispose of the case as if no program had been entered, in which event the revocation provisions of § 46.2-389 and subsection A of § 46.2-391 shall be applicable to the conviction. The court shall, upon final disposition of the case, send a copy of its order to the Commissioner of the Department of Motor Vehicles. If such order provides for the issuance of a restricted license, the Commissioner of the Department of Motor Vehicles, upon receipt thereof, shall issue a restricted license. The period of time during which the person (i) is prohibited from operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock system, (ii) is required to have an ignition interlock system installed on each motor vehicle owned by or registered to the person, in whole or in part, or (iii) is required to use a remote alcohol monitoring device shall be calculated from the date the person is issued a restricted license by the court; however, such period of time shall be tolled upon the expiration of the restricted license issued by the court until such time as the person is issued a restricted license by the Department of Motor Vehicles. Appeals from any such disposition shall be allowed as provided by law. The time within which an appeal may be taken shall be calculated from the date of the final disposition of the case or any motion for rehearing, whichever is later.

D. Any person who has been convicted under the law of another state or the United States of an offense substantially similar to the provisions of § 18.2-266 or subsection A of § 46.2-341.24, and whose privilege to operate a motor vehicle in this Commonwealth is subject to revocation under the provisions of § 46.2-389 and subsection A of § 46.2-391, may petition the general district court of the county or city in which he resides that he be given probation and assigned to a program as provided in subsection A and that, upon entry into such program, he be issued an order in accordance with subsection E. If the court finds that such person would have qualified therefor if he had been convicted in this Commonwealth of a violation of § 18.2-266 or subsection A of § 46.2-341.24, the court may grant the petition and may issue an order in accordance with subsection E as to the period of license suspension or revocation imposed pursuant to § 46.2-389 or subsection A of § 46.2-391. The court (i) shall, as a condition of a restricted license, prohibit such person from operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with a functioning, certified ignition interlock system for a period of time not to exceed the period of license suspension and restriction, not less than six consecutive months without alcohol-related violations of interlock requirements, and (ii) may, upon request of such person and as a condition of a restricted license, require such person to use a remote alcohol monitoring device in accordance with the provisions of subsection E of § 18.2-270.1. Such order shall be conditioned upon the successful completion of a program by the petitioner. If the court subsequently finds that such person has violated any of the conditions set forth by the court, the court shall dispose of the case as if no program had been entered and shall notify the Commissioner, who shall revoke the person's license in accordance with the provisions of § 46.2-389 or subsection A of § 46.2-391. A copy of the order granting the petition or subsequently revoking or suspending such person's license to operate a motor vehicle shall be forthwith sent to the Commissioner of the Department of Motor Vehicles. The period of time during which the person (a) is prohibited from operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock system or (b) is required to use a remote alcohol monitoring device shall be calculated from the date the person is issued a restricted license by the court; however, such period of time shall be tolled upon the expiration of the restricted license issued by the court until such time as the person is issued a restricted license by the Department of Motor Vehicles.

No period of license suspension or revocation shall be imposed pursuant to this subsection which, when considered together with any period of license suspension or revocation previously imposed for the same offense under the law of another state or the United States, results in such person's license being suspended for a period in excess of the maximum periods specified in this subsection.

E. Except as otherwise provided herein, if a person enters a certified program pursuant to this section, and such person's license to operate a motor vehicle, engine, or train in the Commonwealth has been suspended or revoked, or a person's license to operate a motor vehicle, engine, or train in the Commonwealth has been suspended or revoked pursuant to former § 18.2-259.1 or 46.2-390.1, the court may, in its discretion and for good cause shown, provide that such person be issued a restricted permit to operate a motor vehicle for any of the following purposes: (i) travel to and from his place of employment; (ii) travel to and from an alcohol rehabilitation or safety action program; (iii) travel during the hours of such person's employment if the operation of a motor vehicle is a necessary incident of such employment; (iv) travel to and from school if such person is a student, upon proper written verification to the court that such person is enrolled in a continuing program of education; (v) travel for health care services, including medically necessary transportation of an elderly parent or, as designated by the court, any person residing in the person's household with a serious medical problem upon written verification of need by a licensed health professional; (vi) travel necessary to transport a minor child under the care of such person to and from school, day care, and facilities housing medical service providers; (vii) travel to and from court-ordered visitation with a child of such person; (viii) travel to a screening, evaluation, and education program entered pursuant to § 18.2-251 or subsection H of § 18.2-258.1; (ix) travel to and from court appearances in which he is a subpoenaed witness or a party and appointments with his probation officer and to and from any programs required by the court or as a condition of probation; (x) travel to and from a place of religious worship one day per week at a specified time and place; (xi) travel to and from appointments approved by the Division of Child Support Enforcement of the Department of Social Services as a requirement of participation in an administrative or court-ordered intensive case monitoring program for child support for which the participant maintains written proof of the appointment, including written proof of the date and time of the appointment, on his person; (xii) travel to and from jail to serve a sentence when such person has been convicted and sentenced to confinement in jail and pursuant to § 53.1-131.1 the time to be served is on weekends or nonconsecutive days; (xiii) travel to and from the facility that installed or monitors the ignition interlock in the person's vehicle; (xiv) travel to and from a job interview for which he maintains on his person written proof from the prospective employer of the date, time, and location of the job interview; or (xv) travel to and from the offices of the Virginia Employment Commission for the purpose of seeking employment. However, (a) any such person who is eligible to receive a restricted license as provided in subsection C of § 18.2-270.1 or (b) any such person ordered to use a remote alcohol monitoring device pursuant to subsection E of § 18.2-270.1 who has a functioning, certified ignition interlock system as required by law may be issued a restricted permit to operate a motor vehicle for any lawful purpose. No restricted license issued pursuant to this subsection shall permit any person to operate a commercial motor vehicle as defined in the Virginia Commercial Driver's License Act (§ 46.2-341.1 et seq.). The court shall order the surrender of such person's license to operate a motor vehicle to be disposed of in accordance with the provisions of § 46.2-398 and shall forward to the Commissioner of the Department of Motor Vehicles a copy of its order entered pursuant to this subsection, which shall specifically enumerate the restrictions imposed and contain such information regarding the person to whom such a permit is issued as is reasonably necessary to identify such person. The court shall also provide a copy of its order to the person so convicted who may operate a motor vehicle on the order until receipt from the Commissioner of the Department of Motor Vehicles of a restricted license, if the order provides for a restricted license for that time period. A copy of such order and, after receipt thereof, the restricted license shall be carried at all times while operating a motor vehicle. Any person who operates a motor vehicle in violation of any restrictions imposed pursuant to this section is guilty of a violation of § 18.2-272. Such restricted license shall be conditioned upon enrollment within 15 days in, and successful completion of, a program as described in subsection A. No restricted license shall be issued during the first four months of a revocation imposed pursuant to subsection B of § 18.2-271 or subsection A of § 46.2-391 for a second offense of the type described therein committed within 10 years of a first such offense. No restricted license shall be issued during the first year of a revocation imposed pursuant to subsection B of § 18.2-271 or subsection A of § 46.2-391 for a second offense of the type described therein committed within five years of a first such offense. No restricted license shall be issued during any revocation period imposed pursuant to subsection C of § 18.2-271 or subsection B of § 46.2-391. Notwithstanding the provisions of § 46.2-411, the fee charged pursuant to § 46.2-411 for reinstatement of the driver's license of any person whose privilege or license has been suspended or revoked as a result of a violation of § 18.2-266, subsection A of § 46.2-341.24 or of any ordinance of a county, city, or town, or of any federal law or the laws of any other state similar to the provisions of § 18.2-266 or subsection A of § 46.2-341.24 shall be $105. Forty dollars of such reinstatement fee shall be retained by the Department of Motor Vehicles as provided in § 46.2-411, $40 shall be transferred to the Commission on VASAP, and $25 shall be transferred to the Commonwealth Neurotrauma Initiative Trust Fund. Any person who is otherwise eligible to receive a restricted license issued in accordance with this subsection or as otherwise provided by law shall not be required to pay in full his fines and costs, as defined in § 19.2-354.1, before being issued such restricted license.

F. The court shall have jurisdiction over any person entering such program under any provision of this section, or under any provision of § 46.2-392, until such time as the case has been disposed of by either successful completion of the program, or revocation due to ineligibility or violation of a condition or conditions imposed by the court, whichever shall first occur. Revocation proceedings shall be commenced by notice to show cause why the court should not revoke the privilege afforded by this section. Such notice shall be made by first-class mail to the last known address of such person, and shall direct such person to appear before the court in response thereto on a date contained in such notice, which shall not be less than 10 days from the date of mailing of the notice. Failure to appear in response to such notice shall of itself be grounds for revocation of such privilege. Notice of revocation under this subsection shall be sent forthwith to the Commissioner of the Department of Motor Vehicles.

G. For the purposes of this section, any court that has convicted a person of a violation of § 18.2-266, subsection A of § 46.2-341.24, any ordinance of a county, city, or town similar to the provisions of § 18.2-266, or any reckless driving violation under Article 7 (§ 46.2-852 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 46.2 and such person was initially charged with a violation of § 18.2-266, subsection A of § 46.2-341.24, or any ordinance of a county, city, or town similar to the provisions of § 18.2-266 shall have continuing jurisdiction over such person during any period of license revocation related to that conviction, for the limited purposes of (i) referring such person to a certified alcohol safety action program, (ii) providing for a restricted permit for such person in accordance with the provisions of subsection E, and (iii) imposing terms, conditions and limitations for actions taken pursuant to clauses (i) and (ii), whether or not it took either such action at the time of the conviction. This continuing jurisdiction is subject to the limitations of subsection E that provide that no restricted license shall be issued during a revocation imposed pursuant to subsection C of § 18.2-271 or subsection B of § 46.2-391 or during the first four months or first year, whichever is applicable, of the revocation imposed pursuant to subsection B of § 18.2-271 or subsection A of § 46.2-391. The provisions of this subsection shall apply to a person convicted of a violation of § 18.2-266, subsection A of § 46.2-341.24, any ordinance of a county, city, or town similar to the provisions of § 18.2-266, or any reckless driving violation under Article 7 (§ 46.2-852 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 46.2 and such person was initially charged with a violation of § 18.2-266, subsection A of § 46.2-341.24, or any ordinance of a county, city, or town similar to the provisions of § 18.2-266 on, after and at any time prior to July 1, 2003.

H. The State Treasurer, the Commission on VASAP or any city or county is authorized to accept any gifts or bequests of money or property, and any grant, loan, service, payment or property from any source, including the federal government, for the purpose of driver alcohol education. Any such gifts, bequests, grants, loans or payments shall be deposited in the separate fund provided in subsection B.

I. The Commission on VASAP, or any county, city, or town, or any combination thereof, may establish and, if established, shall operate, in accordance with the standards and criteria required by this subsection, alcohol safety action programs in connection with highway safety. Each such program shall operate under the direction of a local independent policy board. Such local independent policy board shall be chosen in accordance with procedures approved and promulgated by the Commission on VASAP. Such procedures shall provide that the board shall endeavor to select one criminal defense attorney who has specialized knowledge in representing persons charged with driving while intoxicated offenses and one local attorney for the Commonwealth to sit on such local independent policy board. Local sitting or retired district court judges who regularly hear or heard cases involving driving under the influence and are familiar with their local alcohol safety action programs may serve on such boards. The Commission on VASAP shall establish minimum standards and criteria for the implementation and operation of such programs and shall establish procedures to certify all such programs to ensure that they meet the minimum standards and criteria stipulated by the Commission. The Commission shall also establish criteria for the administration of such programs for public information activities, for accounting procedures, for the auditing requirements of such programs and for the allocation of funds. Funds paid to the Commonwealth hereunder shall be utilized in the discretion of the Commission on VASAP to offset the costs of state programs and local programs run in conjunction with any county, city or town and costs incurred by the Commission. The Commission shall submit an annual report as to actions taken at the close of each calendar year to the Governor and the General Assembly.

J. Notwithstanding any other provisions of this section or of § 18.2-271, nothing in this section shall permit the court to suspend, reduce, limit, or otherwise modify any disqualification from operating a commercial motor vehicle imposed under the provisions of the Virginia Commercial Driver's License Act (§ 46.2-341.1 et seq.).

1975, c. 601; 1976, cc. 612, 691; 1977, c. 240; 1978, c. 352; 1979, c. 353; 1980, c. 589; 1981, c. 195; 1982, c. 301; 1983, c. 504; 1984, c. 778; 1986, cc. 552, 590; 1987, cc. 465, 663; 1988, cc. 781, 858, 859, 888; 1989, c. 705; 1990, c. 949; 1991, cc. 131, 491; 1992, c. 559; 1993, cc. 527, 919; 1994, cc. 359, 363, 870; 1996, c. 984; 1997, cc. 472, 508; 1998, c. 703; 1999, c. 743; 2000, cc. 958, 970, 980; 2001, cc. 182, 645, 779; 2002, c. 806; 2003, c. 290; 2004, c. 720; 2007, cc. 194, 553; 2009, c. 295; 2010, cc. 446, 682; 2011, c. 592; 2012, cc. 141, 570; 2014, c. 707; 2015, cc. 506, 729; 2017, cc. 499, 701; 2020, c. 1007; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 336, 376; 2023, cc. 561, 562.

A. There is hereby established in the legislative branch of state government the Commission on the Virginia Alcohol Safety Action Program (VASAP). The Commission shall administer and supervise the state system of local alcohol and safety action programs, develop and maintain operation and performance standards for local alcohol and safety action programs, and allocate funding to such programs. The Commission shall have a total membership of 15 members that shall consist of six legislative members and nine nonlegislative citizen members. Members shall be appointed as follows: four current or former members of the House Committee for Courts of Justice, to be appointed by the Speaker of the House of Delegates; two members of the Senate Committee for Courts of Justice, to be appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules; three sitting or retired judges, one each from the circuit, general district and juvenile and domestic relations district courts, who regularly hear or heard cases involving driving under the influence and are familiar with their local alcohol safety action programs, to be appointed by the Chairman of the Committee on District Courts; one director of a local alcohol safety action program to be appointed by the Speaker of the House of Delegates upon consideration of the recommendations of the legislative members of the Commission; one director of a local alcohol safety action program to be appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules upon consideration of the recommendations of the legislative members of the Commission; one representative from the law-enforcement profession, to be appointed by the Speaker of the House and one nonlegislative citizen at large, to be appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules; one representative from the Virginia Department of Motor Vehicles whose duties are substantially related to matters to be addressed by the Commission to be appointed by the Commissioner of the Department of Motor Vehicles, and one representative from the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services whose duties also substantially involve such matters, to be appointed by the Commissioner of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services. Legislative members shall serve terms coincident with their terms of office. In accordance with the staggered terms previously established, nonlegislative citizen members shall serve two-year terms. All members may be reappointed. Appointments to fill vacancies, other than by expiration of a term, shall be made for the unexpired terms. Any appointment to fill a vacancy shall be made in the same manner as the original appointment.

B. The Commission shall meet at least four times each year at such places as it may from time to time designate. A majority of the members shall constitute a quorum. The Commission shall elect a chairman and vice-chairman from among its membership.

The Commission shall be empowered to establish and ensure the maintenance of minimum standards and criteria for program operations and performance, accounting, auditing, public information and administrative procedures for the various local alcohol safety action programs and shall be responsible for overseeing the administration of the statewide VASAP system. Such programs shall be certified by the Commission in accordance with procedures set forth in the Commission on VASAP Certification Manual. The Commission shall also oversee program plans, operations and performance and a system for allocating funds to cover deficits that may occur in the budgets of local programs.

C. The Commission shall appoint and employ and, at its pleasure, remove an executive director and such other persons as it may deem necessary, and determine their duties and fix their salaries or compensation.

D. The Commission shall appoint a Virginia Alcohol Safety Action Program Advisory Board to make recommendations to the Commission regarding its duties and administrative functions. The membership of such Board shall be appointed in the discretion of the Commission and include personnel from (i) local safety action programs, (ii) the State Board of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, community services boards, or behavioral health authorities and (iii) other community mental health services organizations. An assistant attorney general who provides counsel in matters relating to driving under the influence shall also be appointed to the Board.

E. Legislative members of the Commission shall receive compensation as provided in § 30-19.12. Funding for the costs of compensation of legislative members shall be provided by the Commission. All members shall be reimbursed for all reasonable and necessary expenses as provided in §§ 2.2-2813 and 2.2-2825 to be paid out of that portion of moneys paid in VASAP defendant entry fees which is forwarded to the Virginia Alcohol Safety Action Program.

F. The chairman of the Commission shall submit to the Governor and the General Assembly an annual executive summary of the interim activity and work of the Commission no later than the first day of each regular session of the General Assembly. The executive summary shall be submitted as provided in the procedures of the Division of Legislative Automated Systems for the processing of legislative documents and reports and shall be posted on the General Assembly's website.

1986, c. 580; 1988, cc. 781, 859, 888; 1990, cc. 1, 317; 1992, c. 560; 1993, c. 757; 2003, c. 885; 2005, c. 758; 2009, cc. 813, 840; 2018, c. 576.

Repealed by Acts 1999, c. 734.

Every case manager, and any other employee who is designated by the director of any VASAP-certified local alcohol safety action program operated pursuant to this article to provide probation and related services, shall take an oath of office as prescribed in § 49-1, by a person authorized to administer oaths pursuant to § 49-3, before entering the duties of his office.

2001, cc. 380, 396.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, in any criminal case for any violation of Article 7 ( § 46.2-852 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 46.2 where a defendant's license to operate a motor vehicle, engine, or train in the Commonwealth is subject to revocation or suspension and the court orders a defendant, as a condition of probation or otherwise, to enter into and successfully complete an alcohol safety action program in the judicial district in which such charge is brought or in any other judicial district upon such terms and conditions as the court may set forth, the court may, in its discretion and for good cause shown, issue the defendant a restricted license to operate a motor vehicle in accordance with the provisions of subsection E of § 18.2-271.1 where the only restriction of such restricted license that the court shall impose is to prohibit the defendant from operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with a functioning, certified ignition interlock system for a period of not less than six consecutive months without alcohol-related violations of the interlock requirements.

In no event shall a defendant be permitted to enter any such alcohol safety action program that is not certified as meeting minimum standards and criteria established by the Commission on the Virginia Alcohol Safety Action Program (VASAP) pursuant to § 18.2-271.2.

No restricted license issued pursuant to this section shall permit any person to operate a commercial motor vehicle as defined in the Virginia Commercial Driver's License Act (§ 46.2-341.1 et seq.).

The provisions of subsections E and F of § 18.2-271.1 shall apply to this section mutatis mutandis, except as herein provided.

2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 279.

A. Any person who drives or operates any motor vehicle on any highway, as defined in § 46.2-100, in the Commonwealth, or any engine or train in the Commonwealth, during the time for which he was deprived of the right to do so (i) upon conviction of a violation of § 18.2-268.3 or 46.2-341.26:3 or of an offense set forth in subsection E of § 18.2-270, (ii) by § 18.2-271 or 46.2-391.2, (iii) after his license has been revoked pursuant to § 46.2-389 or 46.2-391, or (iv) in violation of the terms of a restricted license issued pursuant to subsection E of § 18.2-271.1, subsection C of § 18.2-270.1, or subsection E of § 18.2-270.1, as it shall become effective on July 1, 2021, is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor except as otherwise provided in § 46.2-391, and is subject to administrative revocation of his driver's license pursuant to §§ 46.2-389 and 46.2-391. Any person convicted of three violations of this section committed within a 10-year period is guilty of a Class 6 felony.

Nothing in this section or § 18.2-266, 18.2-270, or 18.2-271 shall be construed as conflicting with or repealing any ordinance or resolution of any county, city, or town that restricts still further the right of such persons to drive or operate any such vehicle or conveyance.

B. Regardless of compliance with any other restrictions on his privilege to drive or operate a motor vehicle, it shall be a violation of this section for any person whose privilege to drive or operate a motor vehicle has been restricted, suspended or revoked because of a violation of § 18.2-36.1, 18.2-51.4, 18.2-266, 18.2-268.3, 46.2-341.24, or 46.2-341.26:3 or a similar ordinance or law of another state or the United States to drive or operate a motor vehicle on any highway, as defined in § 46.2-100, in the Commonwealth while he has a blood alcohol content of 0.02 percent or more.

Any person suspected of a violation of this subsection shall be entitled to a preliminary breath test in accordance with the provisions of § 18.2-267, shall be deemed to have given his implied consent to have samples of his blood, breath or both taken for analysis pursuant to the provisions of § 18.2-268.2, and, when charged with a violation of this subsection, shall be subject to the provisions of §§ 18.2-268.1 through 18.2-268.12.

C. Any person who drives or operates a motor vehicle on any highway, as defined in § 46.2-100, in the Commonwealth without a certified ignition interlock system as required by § 46.2-391.01 is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor and is subject to administrative revocation of his driver's license pursuant to §§ 46.2-389 and 46.2-391.

D. Any person who drives or operates a motor vehicle who has tampered with, or in any way attempted to circumvent the operation of, a remote alcohol monitoring device that an offender is ordered to use under § 18.2-270.1 is not guilty of a violation of this section but is guilty of a violation of subsection H of § 18.2-270.1.

Code 1950, § 18.1-60; 1960, c. 358; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1988, c. 859; 1991, c. 64; 2004, cc. 948, 1013; 2005, cc. 757, 840; 2006, c. 390; 2007, c. 258; 2009, cc. 71, 255; 2017, c. 623; 2020, cc. 1007, 1019.

The clerk of every court of record and the judge of every court not of record shall, within thirty days after final conviction of any person in his court under the provisions of this article, report the fact thereof and the name, post-office address and street address of such person, together with the license plate number on the vehicle operated by such person to the Commissioner of the Department of Motor Vehicles who shall preserve a record thereof in his office.

Code 1950, § 18.1-61; 1960, c. 358; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

Repealed by Acts 1980, c. 759.

Repealed by Acts 1986, c. 492.

If any person maliciously discharges a firearm within any building when occupied by one or more persons in such a manner as to endanger the life or lives of such person or persons, or maliciously shoots at, or maliciously throws any missile at or against any dwelling house or other building when occupied by one or more persons, whereby the life or lives of any such person or persons may be put in peril, the person so offending is guilty of a Class 4 felony. In the event of the death of any person, resulting from such malicious shooting or throwing, the person so offending is guilty of murder in the second degree. However, if the homicide is willful, deliberate and premeditated, he is guilty of murder in the first degree.

If any such act be done unlawfully, but not maliciously, the person so offending is guilty of a Class 6 felony; and, in the event of the death of any person resulting from such unlawful shooting or throwing, the person so offending is guilty of involuntary manslaughter. If any person willfully discharges a firearm within or shoots at any school building whether occupied or not, he is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

Code 1950, §§ 18.1-66, 18.1-152; 1960, c. 358; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1992, c. 738; 2005, c. 143.

A. If any person willfully discharges or causes to be discharged any firearm in any street in a city or town, or in any place of public business or place of public gathering, and such conduct results in bodily injury to another person, he shall be guilty of a Class 6 felony. If such conduct does not result in bodily injury to another person, he shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

B. If any person willfully discharges or causes to be discharged any firearm upon the buildings and grounds of any public, private or religious elementary, middle or high school, he shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony, unless he is engaged in a program or curriculum sponsored by or conducted with permission of a public, private or religious school.

C. If any person willfully discharges or causes to be discharged any firearm upon any public property within 1,000 feet of the property line of any public, private or religious elementary, middle or high school property he shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony, unless he is engaged in lawful hunting.

D. This section shall not apply to any law-enforcement officer in the performance of his official duties nor to any other person whose said willful act is otherwise justifiable or excusable at law in the protection of his life or property, or is otherwise specifically authorized by law.

E. Nothing in this statute shall preclude the Commonwealth from electing to prosecute under any other applicable provision of law instead of this section.

Code 1950, § 18.1-69; 1960, c. 358; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1992, c. 735; 1999, c. 996; 2001, c. 712; 2005, c. 928.

It shall be unlawful for any person to set or fix in any manner any firearm or other deadly weapon so that it may be discharged or activated by a person coming in contact therewith or with any string, wire, spring, or any other contrivance attached thereto or designed to activate such weapon remotely. Any person violating this section shall be guilty of a Class 6 felony.

Code 1950, § 18.1-69.1; 1966, c. 422; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person to point, hold or brandish any firearm or any air or gas operated weapon or any object similar in appearance, whether capable of being fired or not, in such manner as to reasonably induce fear in the mind of another or hold a firearm or any air or gas operated weapon in a public place in such a manner as to reasonably induce fear in the mind of another of being shot or injured. However, this section shall not apply to any person engaged in excusable or justifiable self-defense. Persons violating the provisions of this section shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor or, if the violation occurs upon any public, private or religious elementary, middle or high school, including buildings and grounds or upon public property within 1,000 feet of such school property, he shall be guilty of a Class 6 felony.

B. Any police officer in the performance of his duty, in making an arrest under the provisions of this section, shall not be civilly liable in damages for injuries or death resulting to the person being arrested if he had reason to believe that the person being arrested was pointing, holding, or brandishing such firearm or air or gas operated weapon, or object that was similar in appearance, with intent to induce fear in the mind of another.

C. For purposes of this section, the word "firearm" means any weapon that will or is designed to or may readily be converted to expel single or multiple projectiles by the action of an explosion of a combustible material. The word "ammunition," as used herein, shall mean a cartridge, pellet, ball, missile or projectile adapted for use in a firearm.

Code 1950, § 18.1-69.2; 1968, c. 513; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1990, cc. 588, 599; 1992, c. 735; 2003, c. 976; 2005, c. 928.

It shall be unlawful for any person to point, hold, or brandish a machete or any weapon, with an exposed blade 12 inches or longer, with the intent of intimidating any person or group of persons and in a manner that reasonably demonstrates that intent. This section shall not apply to any person engaged in excusable or justifiable self-defense. A person who violates this section is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor or, if the violation occurs upon any public, private, or religious elementary, middle, or high school, including buildings and grounds or upon public property within 1,000 feet of such school property, he is guilty of a Class 6 felony.

2006, cc. 844, 895.

If any person carry any gun, pistol, bowie knife, dagger or other dangerous weapon, without good and sufficient reason, to a place of worship while a meeting for religious purposes is being held at such place he shall be guilty of a Class 4 misdemeanor.

Code 1950, § 18.1-241; 1960, c. 358; 1962, c. 411; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

It is unlawful for any person to possess in or transport into any courthouse in this Commonwealth any (i) gun or other weapon designed or intended to propel a missile or projectile of any kind; (ii) frame, receiver, muffler, silencer, missile, projectile, or ammunition designed for use with a dangerous weapon; or (iii) other dangerous weapon, including explosives, stun weapons as defined in § 18.2-308.1, and those weapons specified in subsection A of § 18.2-308. Any such weapon shall be subject to seizure by a law-enforcement officer. A violation of this section is punishable as a Class 1 misdemeanor.

The provisions of this section shall not apply to any police officer, sheriff, law-enforcement agent or official, conservation police officer, conservator of the peace, magistrate, court officer, judge, city or county treasurer, or commissioner or deputy commissioner of the Virginia Workers' Compensation Commission while in the conduct of such person's official duties.

1988, c. 615; 2004, c. 995; 2007, cc. 87, 519; 2012, c. 295; 2017, c. 761.

A. For the purposes of this section, "Capitol Square and the surrounding area" means the grounds, land, real property, and improvements in the City of Richmond bounded by Bank, Governor, Broad, and Ninth Streets, and the sidewalks of Bank Street extending from 50 feet west of the Pocahontas Building entrance to 50 feet east of the entrance of the Capitol of Virginia.

B. It is unlawful for any person to carry any firearm as defined in § 18.2-308.2:2 or explosive material as defined in § 18.2-308.2 within (i) the Capitol of Virginia; (ii) Capitol Square and the surrounding area; (iii) any building owned or leased by the Commonwealth or any agency thereof; or (iv) any office where employees of the Commonwealth or any agency thereof are regularly present for the purpose of performing their official duties.

C. A violation of this section is punishable as a Class 1 misdemeanor. Any firearm or explosive material carried in violation of this section shall be subject to seizure by a law-enforcement officer and forfeited to the Commonwealth and disposed of as provided in § 19.2-386.28.

D. The provisions of this section shall not apply to the following while acting in the conduct of such person's official duties: (i) any law-enforcement officer as defined in § 9.1-101; (ii) any authorized security personnel; (iii) any active military personnel; (iv) any fire marshal appointed pursuant to § 27-30 when such fire marshal has police powers provided by § 27-34.2:1; or (v) any member of a cadet corps who is recognized by a public institution of higher education while such member is participating in an official ceremonial event for the Commonwealth.

E. The provisions of clause (ii) of subsection B shall not apply to (i) any State Police officer who is off-duty or (ii) any retired State Police officer who has participated in annual firearms training and has qualified to the standards required of active law-enforcement officers in the Commonwealth, in accordance with subsection C of § 18.2-308.016.

The provisions of clauses (iii) and (iv) of subsection B shall not apply to (a) any State Police officer who is off-duty; (b) any retired State Police officer who has participated in annual firearms training and has qualified to the standards required of active law-enforcement officers in the Commonwealth, in accordance with subsection C of § 18.2-308.016; (c) any retired law-enforcement officer who has participated in annual firearms training, has qualified pursuant to subsection C of § 18.2-308.016, and is visiting a gun range owned or leased by the Commonwealth; (d) any of the following employees authorized to carry a firearm while acting in the conduct of such employee's official duties: (1) a bail bondsman as defined in § 9.1-185, (2) an employee of the Department of Corrections or a state juvenile correctional facility, (3) an employee of the Department of Conservation and Recreation, or (4) an employee of the Department of Wildlife Resources; (e) any individual carrying a weapon into a courthouse who is exempt under § 18.2-283.1; (f) any property owned or operated by a public institution of higher education; (g) any state park; or (h) any magistrate acting in the conduct of the magistrate's official duties.

F. Notice of the provisions of this section shall be posted conspicuously along the boundary of Capitol Square and the surrounding area and at the public entrance of each location listed in subsection B, and no person shall be convicted of an offense under subsection B if such notice is not posted at such public entrance, unless such person had actual notice of the prohibitions in subsection B.

2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 527, 548; 2023, c. 810.

No person shall sell, barter, exchange, furnish, or dispose of by purchase, gift or in any other manner any toy gun, pistol, rifle or other toy firearm, if the same shall, by action of an explosion of a combustible material, discharge blank or ball charges. Any person violating the provisions of this section shall be guilty of a Class 4 misdemeanor. Each sale of any of the articles hereinbefore specified to any person shall constitute a separate offense.

Nothing in this section shall be construed as preventing the sale of what are commonly known as cap pistols.

Code 1950, § 18.1-347; 1960, c. 348; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 2003, c. 976.

It shall be unlawful for any person to hunt wildlife with a firearm, bow and arrow, slingbow, arrowgun, or crossbow in the Commonwealth while he is (i) under the influence of alcohol; (ii) under the influence of any narcotic drug or any other self-administered intoxicant or drug of whatsoever nature, or any combination of such drugs, to a degree that impairs his ability to hunt with a firearm, bow and arrow, slingbow, arrowgun, or crossbow safely; or (iii) under the combined influence of alcohol and any drug or drugs to a degree that impairs his ability to hunt with a firearm, bow and arrow, slingbow, arrowgun, or crossbow safely. Any person who violates the provisions of this section is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor. Conservation police officers, sheriffs, and all other law-enforcement officers shall enforce the provisions of this section.

Code 1950, § 29-140.1; 1952, c. 96; 1962, c. 469; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1999, c. 543; 2005, c. 507; 2017, c. 530; 2018, cc. 557, 558.

If any person discharges a firearm, crossbow, slingbow, arrowgun, or bow and arrow in or across any road, or within the right-of-way thereof, or in a street of any city or town, he shall, for each offense, be guilty of a Class 4 misdemeanor.

The provisions of this section shall not apply to firing ranges or shooting matches maintained, and supervised or approved, by law-enforcement officers and military personnel in performance of their lawful duties.

Code 1950, § 33.1-349; 1970, c. 322; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1993, c. 322; 1994, c. 18; 2017, c. 530; 2018, cc. 557, 558.

Any person who, while in or on a motor vehicle, intentionally discharges a firearm so as to create the risk of injury or death to another person or thereby cause another person to have a reasonable apprehension of injury or death shall be guilty of a Class 5 felony. Nothing in this section shall apply to a law-enforcement officer in the performance of his duties.

1990, c. 951.

Repealed by Acts 2004, c. 462.

It shall be unlawful for any person to possess or transport into any air carrier airport terminal in the Commonwealth any (i) gun or other weapon designed or intended to propel a missile or projectile of any kind, (ii) frame, receiver, muffler, silencer, missile, projectile or ammunition designed for use with a dangerous weapon, and (iii) any other dangerous weapon, including explosives, stun weapons as defined in § 18.2-308.1, and those weapons specified in subsection A of § 18.2-308. Any such weapon shall be subject to seizure by a law-enforcement officer. A violation of this section is punishable as a Class 1 misdemeanor. Any weapon possessed or transported in violation of this section shall be forfeited to the Commonwealth and disposed of as provided in § 19.2-386.28.

The provisions of this section shall not apply to any police officer, sheriff, law-enforcement agent or official, conservation police officer, conservator of the peace employed by the air carrier airport, or retired law-enforcement officer qualified pursuant to subsection C of § 18.2-308.016, nor shall the provisions of this section apply to any passenger of an airline who, to the extent otherwise permitted by law, transports a lawful firearm, weapon, or ammunition into or out of an air carrier airport terminal for the sole purposes, respectively, of (i) presenting such firearm, weapon, or ammunition to U.S. Customs agents in advance of an international flight, in order to comply with federal law, (ii) checking such firearm, weapon, or ammunition with his luggage, or (iii) retrieving such firearm, weapon, or ammunition from the baggage claim area.

Any other statute, rule, regulation, or ordinance specifically addressing the possession or transportation of weapons in any airport in the Commonwealth shall be invalid, and this section shall control.

2004, c. 894; 2007, cc. 87, 519; 2013, c. 746; 2016, c. 257.

Repealed by Acts 2004, c. 462.

Any person who, while committing a crime of violence as defined in § 18.2-288 (2) or a felony violation of § 18.2-248 or subdivision (a) 2 or 3 of § 18.2-248.1, has in his possession a firearm or knife and is wearing body armor designed to diminish the effect of the impact of a bullet or projectile shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony.

1990, c. 936; 1997, c. 311.

Repealed by Acts 1993, cc. 467, 494.

It shall be unlawful for any person to carry a loaded (a) semi-automatic center-fire rifle or pistol that expels single or multiple projectiles by action of an explosion of a combustible material and is equipped at the time of the offense with a magazine that will hold more than 20 rounds of ammunition or designed by the manufacturer to accommodate a silencer or equipped with a folding stock or (b) shotgun with a magazine that will hold more than seven rounds of the longest ammunition for which it is chambered on or about his person on any public street, road, alley, sidewalk, public right-of-way, or in any public park or any other place of whatever nature that is open to the public in the Cities of Alexandria, Chesapeake, Fairfax, Falls Church, Newport News, Norfolk, Richmond, or Virginia Beach or in the Counties of Arlington, Fairfax, Henrico, Loudoun, or Prince William.

The provisions of this section shall not apply to law-enforcement officers, licensed security guards, military personnel in the performance of their lawful duties, or any person having a valid concealed handgun permit or to any person actually engaged in lawful hunting or lawful recreational shooting activities at an established shooting range or shooting contest. Any person violating the provisions of this section shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

The exemptions set forth in §§ 18.2-308 and 18.2-308.016 shall apply, mutatis mutandis, to the provisions of this section.

1991, c. 570; 1992, c. 790; 2003, c. 976; 2004, c. 995; 2005, c. 160; 2007, c. 813; 2016, c. 257.

A. If a firearm is lost or stolen from a person who lawfully possessed it, then such person shall report the loss or theft to any local law-enforcement agency or the Department of State Police within 48 hours after such person discovers the loss or theft or is informed by a person with personal knowledge of the loss or theft. The law-enforcement agency shall enter such report information into the National Crime Information Center maintained by the Federal Bureau of Investigation. The provisions of this subsection shall not apply to the loss or theft of an antique firearm as defined in § 18.2-308.2:2.

B. A violation of this section is punishable by a civil penalty of not more than $250. The attorney for the county, city, or town in which an alleged violation of this section has occurred is authorized to enforce the provisions of this section and may bring an action to recover the civil penalty, which shall be paid into the local treasury.

C. No person who, in good faith, reports a lost or stolen firearm shall be held criminally or civilly liable for any damages from acts or omissions resulting from the loss or theft. This subsection shall not apply to any person who makes a report in violation of § 18.2-461.

2020, c. 743.

When used in this article:

(1) "Machine gun" applies to any weapon which shoots or is designed to shoot automatically more than one shot, without manual reloading, by a single function of the trigger.

(2) "Crime of violence" applies to and includes any of the following crimes or an attempt to commit any of the same, namely, murder, manslaughter, kidnapping, rape, mayhem, assault with intent to maim, disable, disfigure or kill, robbery, burglary, housebreaking, breaking and entering and larceny.

(3) "Person" applies to and includes firm, partnership, association or corporation.

Code 1950, § 18.1-258; 1960, c. 358; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

Possession or use of a machine gun in the perpetration or attempted perpetration of a crime of violence is hereby declared to be a Class 2 felony.

Code 1950, § 18.1-259; 1960, c. 358; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

Unlawful possession or use of a machine gun for an offensive or aggressive purpose is hereby declared to be a Class 4 felony.

Code 1950, § 18.1-260; 1960, c. 358; 1968, c. 229; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

Possession or use of a machine gun shall be presumed to be for an offensive or aggressive purpose:

(1) When the machine gun is on premises not owned or rented for bona fide permanent residence or business occupancy by the person in whose possession the machine gun may be found;

(2) When the machine gun is in the possession of, or used by, a person who has been convicted of a crime of violence in any court of record, state or federal, of the United States of America, its territories or insular possessions;

(3) When the machine gun has not been registered as required in § 18.2-295; or

(4) When empty or loaded shells which have been or are susceptible of use in the machine gun are found in the immediate vicinity thereof.

Code 1950, § 18.1-261; 1960, c. 358; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

The presence of a machine gun in any room, boat or vehicle shall be prima facie evidence of the possession or use of the machine gun by each person occupying the room, boat, or vehicle where the weapon is found.

Code 1950, § 18.1-262; 1960, c. 358; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

The provisions of this article shall not be applicable to:

(1) The manufacture for, and sale of, machine guns to the armed forces or law-enforcement officers of the United States or of any state or of any political subdivision thereof, or the transportation required for that purpose; and

(2) Machine guns and automatic arms issued to the national guard of Virginia by the United States or such arms used by the United States army or navy or in the hands of troops of the national guards of other states or territories of the United States passing through Virginia, or such arms as may be provided for the officers of the State Police or officers of penal institutions.

Code 1950, § 18.1-263; 1960, c. 358; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

Nothing contained in this article shall prohibit or interfere with:

(1) The possession of a machine gun for scientific purposes, or the possession of a machine gun not usable as a weapon and possessed as a curiosity, ornament, or keepsake; and

(2) The possession of a machine gun for a purpose manifestly not aggressive or offensive.

Provided, however, that possession of such machine guns shall be subject to the provisions of § 18.2-295.

Code 1950, § 18.1-263; 1960, c. 358; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

Every manufacturer or dealer shall keep a register of all machine guns manufactured or handled by him. This register shall show the model and serial number, date of manufacture, sale, loan, gift, delivery or receipt of every machine gun, the name, address, and occupation of the person to whom the machine gun was sold, loaned, given or delivered, or from whom it was received. Upon demand every manufacturer or dealer shall permit any marshal, sheriff or police officer to inspect his entire stock of machine guns, parts, and supplies therefor, and shall produce the register, herein required, for inspection. A violation of any provisions of this section shall be punishable as a Class 3 misdemeanor.

Code 1950, § 18.1-264; 1960, c. 358; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

Every machine gun in this Commonwealth shall be registered with the Department of State Police within twenty-four hours after its acquisition or, in the case of semi-automatic weapons which are converted, modified or otherwise altered to become machine guns, within twenty-four hours of the conversion, modification or alteration. Blanks for registration shall be prepared by the Superintendent of State Police, and furnished upon application. To comply with this section the application as filed shall be notarized and shall show the model and serial number of the gun, the name, address and occupation of the person in possession, and from whom and the purpose for which, the gun was acquired or altered. The Superintendent of State Police shall upon registration required in this section forthwith furnish the registrant with a certificate of registration, which shall be valid as long as the registrant remains the same. Certificates of registration shall be retained by the registrant and produced by him upon demand by any peace officer. Failure to keep or produce such certificate for inspection shall be a Class 3 misdemeanor, and any peace officer, may without warrant, seize the machine gun and apply for its confiscation as provided in § 18.2-296. Upon transferring a registered machine gun, the transferor shall forthwith notify the Superintendent in writing, setting forth the date of transfer and name and address of the transferee. Failure to give the required notification shall constitute a Class 3 misdemeanor. Registration data shall not be subject to inspection by the public.

Code 1950, § 18.1-265; 1960, c. 358; 1972, c. 199; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1978, c. 618; 1988, c. 460.

Warrant to search any house or place and seize any machine gun possessed in violation of this article may issue in the same manner and under the same restrictions as provided by law for stolen property, and any court of record, upon application of the attorney for the Commonwealth, a police officer or conservator of the peace, may order any machine gun, thus or otherwise legally seized, to be confiscated and either destroyed or delivered to a peace officer of the Commonwealth or a political subdivision thereof.

Code 1950, § 18.1-266; 1960, c. 358; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

This article shall be so interpreted and construed as to effectuate its general purpose to make uniform the law of those states which enact it.

Code 1950, § 18.1-267; 1960, c. 358; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

This article may be cited as the "Uniform Machine Gun Act."

Code 1950, § 18.1-268; 1960, c. 358; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

When used in this article:

"Sawed-off shotgun" means any weapon, loaded or unloaded, originally designed as a shoulder weapon, utilizing a self-contained cartridge from which a number of ball shot pellets or projectiles may be fired simultaneously from a smooth or rifled bore by a single function of the firing device and which has a barrel length of less than 18 inches for smooth bore weapons and 16 inches for rifled weapons. Weapons of less than .225 caliber shall not be included.

"Sawed-off rifle" means a rifle of any caliber, loaded or unloaded, which expels a projectile by action of an explosion of a combustible material and is designed as a shoulder weapon with a barrel or barrels length of less than 16 inches or which has been modified to an overall length of less than 26 inches.

"Crime of violence" applies to and includes any of the following crimes or an attempt to commit any of the same, namely, murder, manslaughter, kidnapping, rape, mayhem, assault with intent to maim, disable, disfigure or kill, robbery, burglary, housebreaking, breaking and entering and larceny.

"Person" applies to and includes firm, partnership, association or corporation.

Code 1950, § 18.1-268.1; 1968, c. 661; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1992, c. 580; 2004, c. 930.

A. Possession or use of a "sawed-off" shotgun or "sawed-off" rifle in the perpetration or attempted perpetration of a crime of violence is a Class 2 felony.

B. Possession or use of a "sawed-off" shotgun or "sawed-off" rifle for any other purpose, except as permitted by this article and official use by those persons permitted possession by § 18.2-303, is a Class 4 felony.

Code 1950, § 18.1-268.2; 1968, c. 661; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1978, c. 710; 1992, c. 580.

Repealed by Acts 1978, c. 710.

The provisions of this article shall not be applicable to:

(1) The manufacture for, and sale of, "sawed-off" shotguns or "sawed-off" rifles to the armed forces or law-enforcement officers of the United States or of any state or of any political subdivision thereof, or the transportation required for that purpose; and

(2) "Sawed-off" shotguns, "sawed-off" rifles and automatic arms issued to the National Guard of Virginia by the United States or such arms used by the United States Army or Navy or in the hands of troops of the national guards of other states or territories of the United States passing through Virginia, or such arms as may be provided for the officers of the State Police or officers of penal institutions.

Code 1950, § 18.1-268.5; 1968, c. 661; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1992, c. 580.

Nothing contained in this article shall prohibit or interfere with the possession of a "sawed-off" shotgun or "sawed-off" rifle for scientific purposes, the possession of a "sawed-off" shotgun or "sawed-off" rifle possessed in compliance with federal law or the possession of a "sawed-off" shotgun or "sawed-off" rifle not usable as a firing weapon and possessed as a curiosity, ornament, or keepsake.

Code 1950, § 18.1-268.5; 1968, c. 661; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1976, c. 351; 1992, c. 580; 1993, c. 449.

Every manufacturer or dealer shall keep a register of all "sawed-off" shotguns and "sawed-off" rifles manufactured or handled by him. This register shall show the model and serial number, date of manufacture, sale, loan, gift, delivery or receipt of every "sawed-off" shotgun and "sawed-off" rifle, the name, address, and occupation of the person to whom the "sawed-off" shotgun or "sawed-off" rifle was sold, loaned, given or delivered, or from whom it was received. Upon demand every manufacturer or dealer shall permit any marshal, sheriff or police officer to inspect his entire stock of "sawed-off" shotguns and "sawed-off" rifles, and "sawed-off" shotgun or "sawed-off" rifle barrels, and shall produce the register, herein required, for inspection. A violation of any provision of this section shall be punishable as a Class 3 misdemeanor.

Code 1950, § 18.1-268.6; 1968, c. 661; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1992, c. 580.

Repealed by Acts 1976, c. 351.

Warrant to search any house or place and seize any "sawed-off" shotgun or "sawed-off" rifle possessed in violation of this article may issue in the same manner and under the same restrictions as provided by law for stolen property, and any court of record, upon application of the attorney for the Commonwealth, a police officer or conservator of the peace, may order any "sawed-off" shotgun or "sawed-off" rifle thus or otherwise legally seized, to be confiscated and either destroyed or delivered to a peace officer of the Commonwealth or a political subdivision thereof.

Code 1950, § 18.1-268.8; 1968, c. 661; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1992, c. 580.

This article may be cited as the "Sawed-Off Shotgun and Sawed-Off Rifle Act."

Code 1950, § 18.1-268.9; 1968, c. 661; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1992, c. 580.

As used in this article, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Ballistic knife" means any knife with a detachable blade that is propelled by a spring-operated mechanism.

"Handgun" means any pistol or revolver or other firearm, except a machine gun, originally designed, made, and intended to fire a projectile by means of an explosion of a combustible material from one or more barrels when held in one hand.

"Law-enforcement officer" means those individuals defined as a law-enforcement officer in § 9.1-101, law-enforcement agents of the armed forces of the United States and the Naval Criminal Investigative Service, and federal agents who are otherwise authorized to carry weapons by federal law. "Law-enforcement officer" also means any sworn full-time law-enforcement officer employed by a law-enforcement agency of the United States or any state or political subdivision thereof, whose duties are substantially similar to those set forth in § 9.1-101.

"Lawfully admitted for permanent residence" means the status of having been lawfully accorded the privilege of residing permanently in the United States as an immigrant in accordance with the immigration laws, such status not having changed.

"Personal knowledge" means knowledge of a fact that a person has himself gained through his own senses, or knowledge that was gained by a law-enforcement officer or prosecutor through the performance of his official duties.

"Spring stick" means a spring-loaded metal stick activated by pushing a button that rapidly and forcefully telescopes the weapon to several times its original length.

2013, c. 746.

A. If any person carries about his person, hidden from common observation, (i) any pistol, revolver, or other weapon designed or intended to propel a missile of any kind by action of an explosion of any combustible material; (ii) any dirk, bowie knife, stiletto knife, ballistic knife, machete, razor, sling bow, spring stick, metal knucks, or blackjack; (iii) any flailing instrument consisting of two or more rigid parts connected in such a manner as to allow them to swing freely, which may be known as a nun chahka, nun chuck, nunchaku, shuriken, or fighting chain; (iv) any disc, of whatever configuration, having at least two points or pointed blades which is designed to be thrown or propelled and which may be known as a throwing star or oriental dart; or (v) any weapon of like kind as those enumerated in this subsection, he is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor. A second violation of this section or a conviction under this section subsequent to any conviction under any substantially similar ordinance of any county, city, or town shall be punishable as a Class 6 felony, and a third or subsequent such violation shall be punishable as a Class 5 felony. For the purpose of this section, a weapon shall be deemed to be hidden from common observation when it is observable but is of such deceptive appearance as to disguise the weapon's true nature. It shall be an affirmative defense to a violation of clause (i) regarding a handgun, that a person had been issued, at the time of the offense, a valid concealed handgun permit.

B. This section shall not apply to any person while in his own place of abode or the curtilage thereof.

C. Except as provided in subsection A of § 18.2-308.012, this section shall not apply to:

1. Any person while in his own place of business;

2. Any law-enforcement officer, or retired law-enforcement officer pursuant to § 18.2-308.016, wherever such law-enforcement officer may travel in the Commonwealth;

3. Any person who is at, or going to or from, an established shooting range, provided that the weapons are unloaded and securely wrapped while being transported;

4. Any regularly enrolled member of a weapons collecting organization who is at, or going to or from, a bona fide weapons exhibition, provided that the weapons are unloaded and securely wrapped while being transported;

5. Any person carrying such weapons between his place of abode and a place of purchase or repair, provided the weapons are unloaded and securely wrapped while being transported;

6. Any person actually engaged in lawful hunting, as authorized by the Board of Wildlife Resources, under inclement weather conditions necessitating temporary protection of his firearm from those conditions, provided that possession of a handgun while engaged in lawful hunting shall not be construed as hunting with a handgun if the person hunting is carrying a valid concealed handgun permit;

7. Any attorney for the Commonwealth or assistant attorney for the Commonwealth, wherever such attorney may travel in the Commonwealth;

8. Any person who may lawfully possess a firearm and is carrying a handgun while in a personal, private motor vehicle or vessel and such handgun is secured in a container or compartment in the vehicle or vessel;

9. Any enrolled participant of a firearms training course who is at, or going to or from, a training location, provided that the weapons are unloaded and securely wrapped while being transported; and

10. Any judge or justice of the Commonwealth, wherever such judge or justice may travel in the Commonwealth.

D. This section shall also not apply to any of the following individuals while in the discharge of their official duties, or while in transit to or from such duties:

1. Carriers of the United States mail;

2. Officers or guards of any state correctional institution;

3. Conservators of the peace, except that a judge or justice of the Commonwealth, an attorney for the Commonwealth, or an assistant attorney for the Commonwealth may carry a concealed handgun pursuant to subdivisions C 7 and 10. However, the following conservators of the peace shall not be permitted to carry a concealed handgun without obtaining a permit as provided in this article: (i) notaries public; (ii) registrars; (iii) drivers, operators, or other persons in charge of any motor vehicle carrier of passengers for hire; or (iv) commissioners in chancery; and

4. Noncustodial employees of the Department of Corrections designated to carry weapons by the Director of the Department of Corrections pursuant to § 53.1-29.

Code 1950, § 18.1-269; 1960, c. 358; 1964, c. 130; 1975, cc. 14, 15, 594; 1976, c. 302; 1978, c. 715; 1979, c. 642; 1980, c. 238; 1981, c. 376; 1982, cc. 71, 553; 1983, c. 529; 1984, cc. 360, 720; 1985, c. 427; 1986, cc. 57, 451, 625, 641; 1987, cc. 592, 707; 1988, cc. 359, 793; 1989, cc. 538, 542; 1990, cc. 640, 648, 825; 1991, c. 637; 1992, cc. 510, 705; 1993, cc. 748, 861; 1994, cc. 375, 697; 1995, c. 829; 1997, cc. 916, 921, 922; 1998, cc. 662, 670, 846, 847; 1999, cc. 628, 666, 679; 2001, cc. 25, 384, 657; 2002, cc. 699, 728, 826; 2004, cc. 355, 423, 462, 876, 885, 900, 901, 903, 905, 926, 995, 1012; 2005, cc. 344, 420, 424, 441, 839; 2006, c. 886; 2007, cc. 87, 272, 408, 455; 2008, cc. 69, 75, 80, 309, 464, 742; 2009, cc. 235, 779, 780; 2010, cc. 387, 433, 576, 586, 602, 677, 700, 709, 740, 741, 754, 841, 863; 2011, cc. 231, 234, 384, 410; 2012, cc. 132, 175, 291, 557, 776; 2013, cc. 559, 746; 2014, cc. 45, 225, 450; 2015, cc. 38, 221, 730; 2016, cc. 257, 589, 672; 2020, cc. 142, 958; 2023, c. 611.

A. The prohibition against carrying a concealed handgun in clause (i) of subsection A of § 18.2-308 shall not apply to a person who has a valid concealed handgun permit issued pursuant to this article. The person issued the permit shall have such permit on his person at all times during which he is carrying a concealed handgun and shall display the permit and a photo identification issued by a government agency of the Commonwealth or by the U.S. Department of Defense or U.S. State Department (passport) upon demand by a law-enforcement officer. A person to whom a nonresident permit is issued shall have such permit on his person at all times when he is carrying a concealed handgun in the Commonwealth and shall display the permit on demand by a law-enforcement officer. A person whose permit is extended due to deployment shall carry with him and display, upon request of a law-enforcement officer, a copy of the documents required by subsection B of § 18.2-308.010.

B. Failure to display the permit and a photo identification upon demand by a law-enforcement officer shall be punishable by a $25 civil penalty, which shall be paid into the state treasury. Any attorney for the Commonwealth of the county or city in which the alleged violation occurred may bring an action to recover the civil penalty. A court may waive such penalty upon presentation to the court of a valid permit and a government-issued photo identification. Any law-enforcement officer may issue a summons for the civil violation of failure to display the concealed handgun permit and photo identification upon demand.

C. The granting of a concealed handgun permit pursuant to this article shall not thereby authorize the possession of any handgun or other weapon on property or in places where such possession is otherwise prohibited by law or is prohibited by the owner of private property.

2013, c. 746.

A. Any person 21 years of age or older may apply in writing to the clerk of the circuit court of the county or city in which he resides, or if he is a member of the United States Armed Forces and stationed outside the Commonwealth, the county or city in which he is domiciled, for a five-year permit to carry a concealed handgun. There shall be no requirement regarding the length of time an applicant has been a resident or domiciliary of the county or city. The application shall be on a form prescribed by the Department of State Police, in consultation with the Supreme Court, requiring only that information necessary to determine eligibility for the permit. Additionally, the application shall request but not require that the applicant provide an email or other electronic address where a notice of permit expiration can be sent pursuant to subsection C of § 18.2-308.010. The applicant shall present one valid form of photo identification issued by a governmental agency of the Commonwealth or by the U.S. Department of Defense or U.S. State Department (passport). No information or documentation other than that which is allowed on the application in accordance with this section may be requested or required by the clerk or the court.

B. The court shall require proof that the applicant has demonstrated competence with a handgun in person and the applicant may demonstrate such competence by one of the following, but no applicant shall be required to submit to any additional demonstration of competence, nor shall any proof of demonstrated competence expire:

1. Completing any hunter education or hunter safety course approved by the Department of Wildlife Resources or a similar agency of another state;

2. Completing any National Rifle Association or United States Concealed Carry Association firearms safety or training course;

3. Completing any firearms safety or training course or class available to the general public offered by a law-enforcement agency, institution of higher education, or private or public institution or organization or firearms training school utilizing instructors certified by the National Rifle Association, the United States Concealed Carry Association, or the Department of Criminal Justice Services;

4. Completing any law-enforcement firearms safety or training course or class offered for security guards, investigators, special deputies, or any division or subdivision of law enforcement or security enforcement;

5. Presenting evidence of equivalent experience with a firearm through participation in organized shooting competition or current military service or proof of an honorable discharge from any branch of the armed services;

6. Obtaining or previously having held a license to carry a firearm in the Commonwealth or a locality thereof, unless such license has been revoked for cause;

7. Completing any in-person firearms training or safety course or class conducted by a state-certified, National Rifle Association-certified, or United States Concealed Carry Association-certified firearms instructor;

8. Completing any governmental police agency firearms training course and qualifying to carry a firearm in the course of normal police duties; or

9. Completing any other firearms training that the court deems adequate.

A photocopy of a certificate of completion of any of the courses or classes; an affidavit from the instructor, school, club, organization, or group that conducted or taught such course or class attesting to the completion of the course or class by the applicant; or a copy of any document that shows completion of the course or class or evidences participation in firearms competition shall constitute evidence of qualification under this subsection.

C. The making of a materially false statement in an application under this article shall constitute perjury, punishable as provided in § 18.2-434.

D. The clerk of court shall withhold from public disclosure the applicant's name and any other information contained in a permit application or any order issuing a concealed handgun permit, except that such information shall not be withheld from any law-enforcement officer acting in the performance of his official duties or from the applicant with respect to his own information. The prohibition on public disclosure of information under this subsection shall not apply to any reference to the issuance of a concealed handgun permit in any order book before July 1, 2008; however, any other concealed handgun records maintained by the clerk shall be withheld from public disclosure.

E. An application is deemed complete when all information required to be furnished by the applicant, including the fee for a concealed handgun permit as set forth in § 18.2-308.03, is delivered to and received by the clerk of court before or concomitant with the conduct of a state or national criminal history records check.

F. For purposes of this section, a member of the United States Armed Forces is domiciled in the county or city where such member claims his home of record with the United States Armed Forces.

2013, cc. 659, 746; 2014, cc. 16, 401, 549; 2017, cc. 99, 237; 2019, c. 624; 2020, cc. 390, 958, 1130; 2023, cc. 93, 94.

A. The clerk shall charge a fee of $10 for the processing of an application or issuing of a permit, including his costs associated with the consultation with law-enforcement agencies. The local law-enforcement agency conducting the background investigation may charge a fee not to exceed $35 to cover the cost of conducting an investigation pursuant to this article. The $35 fee shall include any amount assessed by the U.S. Federal Bureau of Investigation for providing criminal history record information, and the local law-enforcement agency shall forward the amount assessed by the U.S. Federal Bureau of Investigation to the State Police with the fingerprints taken from any nonresident applicant. The State Police may charge a fee not to exceed $5 to cover its costs associated with processing the application. The total amount assessed for processing an application for a permit shall not exceed $50, with such fees to be paid in one sum to the person who receives the application. Payment may be made by any method accepted by that court for payment of other fees or penalties. No payment shall be required until the application is received by the court as a complete application.

B. No fee shall be charged for the issuance of such permit to a person who has retired from service (i) as a magistrate in the Commonwealth; (ii) as a special agent with the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage Control Authority or as a law-enforcement officer with the Department of State Police, the Department of Wildlife Resources, or a sheriff or police department, bureau, or force of any political subdivision of the Commonwealth, after completing 15 years of service or after reaching age 55; (iii) as a law-enforcement officer with the U.S. Federal Bureau of Investigation, Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms, Secret Service Agency, Drug Enforcement Administration, United States Citizenship and Immigration Services, U.S. Customs and Border Protection, Department of State Diplomatic Security Service, U.S. Marshals Service, or Naval Criminal Investigative Service, after completing 15 years of service or after reaching age 55; (iv) as a law-enforcement officer with any police or sheriff's department within the United States, the District of Columbia, or any of the territories of the United States, after completing 15 years of service; (v) as a law-enforcement officer with any combination of the agencies listed in clauses (ii) through (iv), after completing 15 years of service; (vi) as a designated boarding team member or boarding officer of the United States Coast Guard, after completing 15 years of service or after reaching age 55; (vii) as a correctional officer as defined in § 53.1-1, after completing 15 years of service; or (viii) as a probation and parole officer authorized pursuant to § 53.1-143, after completing 15 years of service.

2013, cc. 135, 559, 746; 2015, cc. 38, 730; 2017, c. 241; 2020, c. 958.

A. The clerk of court shall enter on the application the date on which the application and all other information required to be submitted by the applicant is received.

B. Upon receipt of the completed application, the court shall consult with either the sheriff or police department of the county or city and receive a report from the Central Criminal Records Exchange.

C. The court shall issue the permit via United States mail and notify the State Police of the issuance of the permit within 45 days of receipt of the completed application unless it is determined that the applicant is disqualified. Any order denying issuance of the permit shall be in accordance with § 18.2-308.08. If the applicant is later found by the court to be disqualified after a five-year permit has been issued, the permit shall be revoked.

D. A court may authorize the clerk to issue concealed handgun permits, without judicial review, to applicants who have submitted complete applications, for whom the criminal history records check does not indicate a disqualification and, after consulting with either the sheriff or police department of the county or city, about which application there are no outstanding questions or issues. The court clerk shall be immune from suit arising from any acts or omissions relating to the issuance of concealed handgun permits without judicial review pursuant to this section unless the clerk was grossly negligent or engaged in willful misconduct. This section shall not be construed to limit, withdraw, or overturn any defense or immunity already existing in statutory or common law, or to affect any cause of action accruing prior to July 1, 2010.

E. The permit to carry a concealed handgun shall specify only the following information: name, address, date of birth, gender, height, weight, color of hair, color of eyes, and signature of the permittee; the signature of the judge issuing the permit, of the clerk of court who has been authorized to sign such permits by the issuing judge, or of the clerk of court who has been authorized to issue such permits pursuant to subsection D; the date of issuance; and the expiration date. The permit to carry a concealed handgun shall be of a size comparable to a Virginia driver's license, may be laminated or use a similar process to protect the permit, and shall otherwise be of a uniform style prescribed by the Department of State Police.

2013, c. 746; 2017, c. 47.

If the court has not issued the permit or determined that the applicant is disqualified within 45 days of the date of receipt noted on the application, the clerk shall certify on the application that the 45-day period has expired, and mail or send via electronic mail a copy of the certified application to the applicant within five business days of the expiration of the 45-day period. The certified application shall serve as a de facto permit, which shall expire 90 days after issuance, and shall be recognized as a valid concealed handgun permit when presented with a valid government-issued photo identification pursuant to subsection A of § 18.2-308.01, until the court issues a five-year permit or finds the applicant to be disqualified. If the applicant is found to be disqualified after the de facto permit is issued, the applicant shall surrender the de facto permit to the court and the disqualification shall be deemed a denial of the permit and a revocation of the de facto permit.

2013, c. 746.

A. Nonresidents of the Commonwealth 21 years of age or older may apply in writing to the Virginia Department of State Police for a five-year permit to carry a concealed handgun. The applicant shall submit a photocopy of one valid form of photo identification issued by a governmental agency of the applicant's state of residency or by the U.S. Department of Defense or U.S. State Department (passport). Every applicant for a nonresident concealed handgun permit shall also submit two photographs of a type and kind specified by the Department of State Police for inclusion on the permit and shall submit fingerprints on a card provided by the Department of State Police for the purpose of obtaining the applicant's state or national criminal history record. As a condition for issuance of a concealed handgun permit, the applicant shall submit to fingerprinting by his local or state law-enforcement agency and provide personal descriptive information to be forwarded with the fingerprints through the Central Criminal Records Exchange to the U.S. Federal Bureau of Investigation for the purpose of obtaining criminal history record information regarding the applicant and obtaining fingerprint identification information from federal records pursuant to criminal investigations by state and local law-enforcement agencies. The application shall be on a form provided by the Department of State Police, requiring only that information necessary to determine eligibility for the permit. If the permittee is later found by the Department of State Police to be disqualified, the permit shall be revoked and the person shall return the permit after being so notified by the Department of State Police. The permit requirement and restriction provisions of subsection C of § 18.2-308.02 and § 18.2-308.09 shall apply, mutatis mutandis, to the provisions of this subsection.

B. The applicant shall demonstrate competence with a handgun in person by one of the following:

1. Completing a hunter education or hunter safety course approved by the Virginia Department of Wildlife Resources or a similar agency of another state;

2. Completing any National Rifle Association or United States Concealed Carry Association firearms safety or training course;

3. Completing any firearms safety or training course or class available to the general public offered by a law-enforcement agency, institution of higher education, or private or public institution or organization or firearms training school utilizing instructors certified by the National Rifle Association, the United States Concealed Carry Association, or the Department of Criminal Justice Services or a similar agency of another state;

4. Completing any law-enforcement firearms safety or training course or class offered for security guards, investigators, special deputies, or any division or subdivision of law enforcement or security enforcement;

5. Presenting evidence of equivalent experience with a firearm through participation in organized shooting competition approved by the Department of State Police or current military service or proof of an honorable discharge from any branch of the armed services;

6. Obtaining or previously having held a license to carry a firearm in the Commonwealth or a locality thereof, unless such license has been revoked for cause;

7. Completing any in-person firearms training or safety course or class conducted by a state-certified, National Rifle Association-certified, or United States Concealed Carry Association-certified firearms instructor;

8. Completing any governmental police agency firearms training course and qualifying to carry a firearm in the course of normal police duties; or

9. Completing any other firearms training that the Virginia Department of State Police deems adequate.

A photocopy of a certificate of completion of any such course or class; an affidavit from the instructor, school, club, organization, or group that conducted or taught such course or class attesting to the completion of the course or class by the applicant; or a copy of any document that shows completion of the course or class or evidences participation in firearms competition shall satisfy the requirement for demonstration of competence with a handgun.

C. The Department of State Police may charge a fee not to exceed $100 to cover the cost of the background check and issuance of the permit. Any fees collected shall be deposited in a special account to be used to offset the costs of administering the nonresident concealed handgun permit program.

D. The permit to carry a concealed handgun shall contain only the following information: name, address, date of birth, gender, height, weight, color of hair, color of eyes, and photograph of the permittee; the signature of the Superintendent of the Virginia Department of State Police or his designee; the date of issuance; and the expiration date.

E. The Superintendent of the State Police shall promulgate regulations, pursuant to the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.), for the implementation of an application process for obtaining a nonresident concealed handgun permit.

2013, c. 746; 2017, c. 237; 2020, cc. 390, 958, 1130; 2023, cc. 93, 94.

A. An order issuing a concealed handgun permit pursuant to § 18.2-308.04, or the copy of the permit application certified by the clerk as a de facto permit pursuant to § 18.2-308.05, shall be provided to the State Police and the law-enforcement agencies of the county or city by the clerk of the court. The State Police shall enter the permittee's name and description in the Virginia Criminal Information Network so that the permit's existence and current status will be made known to law-enforcement personnel accessing the Network for investigative purposes.

B. The Department of State Police shall enter the name and description of a person issued a nonresident permit pursuant to § 18.2-308.06 in the Virginia Criminal Information Network so that the permit's existence and current status are known to law-enforcement personnel accessing the Network for investigative purposes.

C. The State Police shall withhold from public disclosure permittee information submitted to the State Police for purposes of entry into the Virginia Criminal Information Network, except that such information shall not be withheld from any law-enforcement agency, officer, or authorized agent thereof acting in the performance of official law-enforcement duties when such information is related to an ongoing criminal investigation or prosecution, nor shall such information be withheld from an entity that has a valid contract with any local, state, or federal law-enforcement agency for the purpose of performing official duties of the law-enforcement agency when such information is related to an ongoing criminal investigation or prosecution. However, nothing in this subsection shall be construed to prohibit the release of (i) records by the State Police concerning permits issued to nonresidents of the Commonwealth pursuant to § 18.2-308.06 or (ii) statistical summaries, abstracts, or other records containing information in an aggregate form that does not identify any individual permittees.

2013, c. 746; 2023, c. 279.

A. Only a circuit court judge may deny issuance of a concealed handgun permit to a Virginia resident or domiciliary who has applied for a permit pursuant to § 18.2-308.04. Any order denying issuance of a concealed handgun permit shall state the basis for the denial of the permit, including, if applicable, any reason under § 18.2-308.09 that is the basis of the denial, and the clerk shall provide notice, in writing, upon denial of the application, of the applicant's right to an ore tenus hearing and the requirements for perfecting an appeal of such order.

B. Upon request of the applicant made within 21 days, the court shall place the matter on the docket for an ore tenus hearing. The applicant may be represented by counsel, but counsel shall not be appointed, and the rules of evidence shall apply. The final order of the court shall include the court's findings of fact and conclusions of law.

C. Any person denied a permit to carry a concealed handgun by the circuit court may appeal to the Court of Appeals. Such person shall file a notice of appeal with the clerk of the circuit court noting an appeal to the Court of Appeals and file his opening brief with the Court of Appeals within 60 days of the expiration of the time for requesting an ore tenus hearing, or if an ore tenus hearing is requested, within 60 days of the entry of the final order of the circuit court following the hearing. The opening brief shall be accompanied by a copy of the original papers filed in the circuit court, including a copy of the order of the circuit court denying the permit. The decision of the Court of Appeals or judge shall be final. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, if the decision to deny the permit is reversed upon appeal, taxable costs incurred by the person shall be paid by the Commonwealth.

2013, c. 746; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 489.

The following persons shall be deemed disqualified from obtaining a permit:

1. An individual who is ineligible to possess a firearm pursuant to § 18.2-308.1:1, 18.2-308.1:2, 18.2-308.1:3, 18.2-308.1:6, 18.2-308.1:7, or 18.2-308.1:8 or the substantially similar law of any other state or of the United States.

2. An individual who was ineligible to possess a firearm pursuant to § 18.2-308.1:1 and who was discharged from the custody of the Commissioner pursuant to § 19.2-182.7 less than five years before the date of his application for a concealed handgun permit.

3. An individual who was ineligible to possess a firearm pursuant to § 18.2-308.1:2 and whose competency or capacity was restored pursuant to § 64.2-2012 less than five years before the date of his application for a concealed handgun permit.

4. An individual who was ineligible to possess a firearm under § 18.2-308.1:3 and who was released from commitment less than five years before the date of this application for a concealed handgun permit.

5. An individual who is subject to a restraining order, or to a protective order and prohibited by § 18.2-308.1:4 from purchasing, possessing, or transporting a firearm.

6. An individual who is prohibited by § 18.2-308.2 from possessing or transporting a firearm, except that a restoration order may be obtained in accordance with subsection C of that section.

7. An individual who has been convicted of two or more misdemeanors within the five-year period immediately preceding the application, if one of the misdemeanors was a Class 1 misdemeanor, but the judge shall have the discretion to deny a permit for two or more misdemeanors that are not Class 1. Traffic infractions and misdemeanors set forth in Title 46.2 shall not be considered for purposes of this disqualification.

8. An individual who is addicted to, or is an unlawful user or distributor of, marijuana, synthetic cannabinoids, or any controlled substance.

9. An individual who has been convicted of a violation of § 18.2-266 or a substantially similar local ordinance, or of public drunkenness, or of a substantially similar offense under the laws of any other state, the District of Columbia, the United States, or its territories within the three-year period immediately preceding the application.

10. An alien other than an alien lawfully admitted for permanent residence in the United States.

11. An individual who has been discharged from the armed forces of the United States under dishonorable conditions.

12. An individual who is a fugitive from justice.

13. An individual who the court finds, by a preponderance of the evidence, based on specific acts by the applicant, is likely to use a weapon unlawfully or negligently to endanger others. The sheriff, chief of police, or attorney for the Commonwealth may submit to the court a sworn, written statement indicating that, in the opinion of such sheriff, chief of police, or attorney for the Commonwealth, based upon a disqualifying conviction or upon the specific acts set forth in the statement, the applicant is likely to use a weapon unlawfully or negligently to endanger others. The statement of the sheriff, chief of police, or the attorney for the Commonwealth shall be based upon personal knowledge of such individual or of a deputy sheriff, police officer, or assistant attorney for the Commonwealth of the specific acts, or upon a written statement made under oath before a notary public of a competent person having personal knowledge of the specific acts.

14. An individual who has been convicted of any assault, assault and battery, sexual battery, discharging of a firearm in violation of § 18.2-280 or 18.2-286.1 or brandishing of a firearm in violation of § 18.2-282 within the three-year period immediately preceding the application.

15. An individual who has been convicted of stalking.

16. An individual whose previous convictions or adjudications of delinquency were based on an offense that would have been at the time of conviction a felony if committed by an adult under the laws of any state, the District of Columbia, the United States or its territories. For purposes of this disqualifier, only convictions occurring within 16 years following the later of the date of (i) the conviction or adjudication or (ii) release from any incarceration imposed upon such conviction or adjudication shall be deemed to be "previous convictions." Disqualification under this subdivision shall not apply to an individual with previous adjudications of delinquency who has completed a term of service of no less than two years in the Armed Forces of the United States and, if such person has been discharged from the Armed Forces of the United States, received an honorable discharge.

17. An individual who has a felony charge pending or a charge pending for an offense listed in subdivision 14 or 15.

18. An individual who has received mental health treatment or substance abuse treatment in a residential setting within five years prior to the date of his application for a concealed handgun permit.

19. An individual not otherwise ineligible pursuant to this article, who, within the three-year period immediately preceding the application for the permit, was found guilty of any criminal offense set forth in Chapter 11 (§ 4.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 4.1, Article 1 (§ 18.2-247 et seq.), or former § 18.2-248.1:1 or of a criminal offense of illegal possession or distribution of marijuana, synthetic cannabinoids, or any controlled substance, under the laws of any state, the District of Columbia, or the United States or its territories.

20. An individual, not otherwise ineligible pursuant to this article, with respect to whom, within the three-year period immediately preceding the application, upon a charge of any criminal offense set forth in Chapter 11 (§ 4.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 4.1, Article 1 (§ 18.2-247 et seq.), or former § 18.2-248.1:1 or upon a charge of illegal possession or distribution of marijuana, synthetic cannabinoids, or any controlled substance under the laws of any state, the District of Columbia, or the United States or its territories, the trial court found that the facts of the case were sufficient for a finding of guilt and disposed of the case pursuant to § 18.2-251 or the substantially similar law of any other state, the District of Columbia, or the United States or its territories.

2013, c. 746; 2014, cc. 674, 719; 2016, cc. 48, 49, 337; 2019, c. 203; 2020, cc. 150, 887, 888, 1173; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 550, 551, 555.

A. 1. Persons who previously have held a concealed handgun permit shall be issued, upon application as provided in § 18.2-308.02, a new five-year permit unless it is found that the applicant is subject to any of the disqualifications set forth in § 18.2-308.09. Persons who previously have been issued a concealed handgun permit pursuant to this article shall not be required to appear in person to apply for a new five-year permit pursuant to this section, and the application for the new permit, including a photocopy of the applicant's valid photo identification, may be submitted via the United States mail. The circuit court that receives the application shall promptly notify an applicant if the application is incomplete or if the fee submitted for the permit pursuant to § 18.2-308.03 is incorrect.

2. If a new five-year permit is issued while an existing permit remains valid, the new five-year permit shall become effective upon the expiration date of the existing permit, provided that the application is received by the court at least 90 days but no more than 180 days prior to the expiration of the existing permit.

3. Any order denying issuance of the new permit shall be in accordance with subsection A of § 18.2-308.08.

B. If a permit holder is a member of the Virginia National Guard, Armed Forces of the United States, or the Armed Forces Reserves of the United States, and his five-year permit expires during an active-duty military deployment outside of the permittee's county or city of residence, such permit shall remain valid for 90 days after the end date of the deployment. In order to establish proof of continued validity of the permit, such a permittee shall carry with him and display, upon request of a law-enforcement officer, a copy of the permittee's deployment orders or other documentation from the permittee's commanding officer that order the permittee to travel outside of his county or city of residence and that indicate the start and end date of such deployment.

C. If the clerk has an electronic system for, and issuance of, concealed handgun permits and such system has the capability of sending electronic notices to permit holders and if a permit holder requests such notice on the concealed handgun application form, the clerk that issued the permit shall notify the permit holder by electronic mail at least 90 days prior to the permit expiration date that the permit will expire. The failure of a clerk to send the notice required by this subsection or the failure of the permit holder to receive such notice shall not extend the validity of the existing permit beyond its expiration date.

2013, c. 746; 2017, cc. 99, 237.

A. The clerk of a circuit court that issued a valid concealed handgun permit shall, upon presentation by the permit holder of the valid permit and written notice of a change of address on a form provided by the Department of State Police, issue a replacement permit specifying the permit holder's new address. The clerk of court shall forward the permit holder's new address of residence to the State Police. The State Police may charge a fee not to exceed $5, and the clerk of court issuing the replacement permit may charge a fee not to exceed $5. The total amount assessed for processing a replacement permit pursuant to this subsection shall not exceed $10, with such fees to be paid in one sum to the person who receives the information for the replacement permit.

B. The clerk of a circuit court that issued a valid concealed handgun permit shall, upon submission of a notarized statement by the permit holder that the permit was lost or destroyed or that the permit holder has undergone a legal name change, issue a replacement permit. The replacement permit shall have the same expiration date as the permit that was lost, destroyed, or issued to the permit holder under a previous name. The clerk shall issue the replacement permit within 10 business days of receiving the notarized statement and may charge a fee not to exceed $5.

2013, c. 746; 2014, cc. 16, 549; 2017, c. 238.

A. Any person permitted to carry a concealed handgun who is under the influence of alcohol or illegal drugs while carrying such handgun in a public place is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor. Conviction of any of the following offenses shall be prima facie evidence, subject to rebuttal, that the person is "under the influence" for purposes of this section: manslaughter in violation of § 18.2-36.1, maiming in violation of § 18.2-51.4, driving while intoxicated in violation of § 18.2-266, public intoxication in violation of § 18.2-388, or driving while intoxicated in violation of § 46.2-341.24. Upon such conviction that court shall revoke the person's permit for a concealed handgun and promptly notify the issuing circuit court. A person convicted of a violation of this subsection shall be ineligible to apply for a concealed handgun permit for a period of five years.

B. No person who carries a concealed handgun onto the premises of any restaurant or club as defined in § 4.1-100 for which a license to sell and serve alcoholic beverages for on-premises consumption has been granted by the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage Control Authority under Title 4.1 may consume an alcoholic beverage while on the premises. A person who carries a concealed handgun onto the premises of such a restaurant or club and consumes alcoholic beverages is guilty of a Class 2 misdemeanor. However, nothing in this subsection shall apply to a federal, state, or local law-enforcement officer.

2013, c. 746; 2015, cc. 38, 730.

A. Any person convicted of an offense that would disqualify that person from obtaining a permit under § 18.2-308.09 or who violates subsection C of § 18.2-308.02 shall forfeit his permit for a concealed handgun and surrender it to the court. Upon receipt by the Central Criminal Records Exchange of a record of the arrest, conviction, or occurrence of any other event that would disqualify a person from obtaining a concealed handgun permit under § 18.2-308.09, the Central Criminal Records Exchange shall notify the court having issued the permit of such disqualifying arrest, conviction, or other event. Upon receipt of such notice of a conviction, the court shall revoke the permit of a person disqualified pursuant to this subsection, and shall promptly notify the State Police and the person whose permit was revoked of the revocation.

B. An individual who has a felony charge pending or a charge pending for an offense listed in subdivision 14 or 15 of § 18.2-308.09, holding a permit for a concealed handgun, may have the permit suspended by the court before which such charge is pending or by the court that issued the permit.

C. The court shall revoke the permit of any individual for whom it would be unlawful to purchase, possess, or transport a firearm under § 18.2-308.1:2 or 18.2-308.1:3, and shall promptly notify the State Police and the person whose permit was revoked of the revocation.

2013, c. 746.

A. A valid concealed handgun or concealed weapon permit or license issued by another state shall authorize the holder of such permit or license who is at least 21 years of age to carry a concealed handgun in the Commonwealth, provided (i) the issuing authority provides the means for instantaneous verification of the validity of all such permits or licenses issued within that state, accessible 24 hours a day if available; (ii) the permit or license holder carries a photo identification issued by a government agency of any state or by the U.S. Department of Defense or U.S. Department of State and displays the permit or license and such identification upon demand by a law-enforcement officer; and (iii) the permit or license holder has not previously had a Virginia concealed handgun permit revoked. The Superintendent of State Police shall enter into agreements for reciprocal recognition with such other states that require an agreement to be in place before such state will recognize a Virginia concealed handgun permit as valid in such state. The Attorney General shall provide the Superintendent with any legal assistance or advice necessary for the Superintendent to perform his duties set forth in this subsection. If the Superintendent determines that another state requires that an agreement for reciprocal recognition be executed by the Attorney General or otherwise formally approved by the Attorney General as a condition of such other state's entering into an agreement for reciprocal recognition, the Attorney General shall (a) execute such agreement or otherwise formally approve such agreement and (b) return to the Superintendent the executed agreement or, in a form deemed acceptable by such other state, documentation of his formal approval of such agreement within 30 days after the Superintendent notifies the Attorney General, in writing, that he is required to execute or otherwise formally approve such agreement.

B. For the purposes of participation in concealed handgun reciprocity agreements with other jurisdictions, the official government-issued law-enforcement identification card issued to an active-duty law-enforcement officer in the Commonwealth who is exempt from obtaining a concealed handgun permit under this article shall be deemed a concealed handgun permit.

2013, c. 746; 2016, cc. 46, 47.

For the purposes of understanding the law relating to the use of deadly and lethal force, the Department of State Police, in consultation with the Supreme Court on the development of the application for a concealed handgun permit under this article, shall include a reference to the Virginia Supreme Court website address or the Virginia Reports on the application.

2013, c. 746.

A. Except as provided in subsection A of § 18.2-308.012, § 18.2-308 shall not apply to:

1. Any State Police officer retired from the Department of State Police, any officer retired from the Division of Capitol Police, any local law-enforcement officer, auxiliary police officer or animal control officer retired from a police department or sheriff's office within the Commonwealth, any special agent retired from the State Corporation Commission or the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage Control Authority, any employee with internal investigations authority designated by the Department of Corrections pursuant to subdivision 11 of § 53.1-10 retired from the Department of Corrections, any conservation police officer retired from the Department of Wildlife Resources, any conservation officer retired from the Department of Conservation and Recreation, any Virginia Marine Police officer retired from the Law Enforcement Division of the Virginia Marine Resources Commission, any campus police officer appointed under Article 3 (§ 23.1-809 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 23.1 retired from a campus police department, any retired member of the enforcement division of the Department of Motor Vehicles appointed pursuant to § 46.2-217, and any retired investigator of the security division of the Virginia Lottery, other than an officer or agent terminated for cause, (i) with a service-related disability; (ii) following at least 10 years of service with any such law-enforcement agency, commission, board, or any combination thereof; (iii) who has reached 55 years of age; or (iv) who is on long-term leave from such law-enforcement agency or board due to a service-related injury, provided such officer carries with him written proof of consultation with and favorable review of the need to carry a concealed handgun issued by the chief law-enforcement officer of the last such agency from which the officer retired or the agency that employs the officer or, in the case of special agents, issued by the State Corporation Commission or the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage Control Authority. A copy of the proof of consultation and favorable review shall be forwarded by the chief, Commission, or Board to the Department of State Police for entry into the Virginia Criminal Information Network. The chief law-enforcement officer shall not without cause withhold such written proof if the retired law-enforcement officer otherwise meets the requirements of this section. An officer set forth in clause (iv) who receives written proof of consultation to carry a concealed handgun shall surrender such proof of consultation upon return to work as a law-enforcement officer or upon termination of employment with the law-enforcement agency. Notice of the surrender shall be forwarded to the Department of State Police for entry into the Virginia Criminal Information Network. However, if such officer retires on disability because of the service-related injury, and would be eligible under clause (i) for written proof of consultation to carry a concealed handgun, he may retain the previously issued written proof of consultation.

2. Any person who is eligible for retirement with at least 20 years of service with a law-enforcement agency, commission, or board mentioned in subdivision 1 who has resigned in good standing from such law-enforcement agency, commission, or board to accept a position covered by a retirement system that is authorized under Title 51.1, provided such person carries with him written proof of consultation with and favorable review of the need to carry a concealed handgun issued by the chief law-enforcement officer of the agency from which he resigned or, in the case of special agents, issued by the State Corporation Commission or the Virginia Alcoholic Beverage Control Authority. A copy of the proof of consultation and favorable review shall be forwarded by the chief, Commission, or Board to the Department of State Police for entry into the Virginia Criminal Information Network. The chief law-enforcement officer shall not without cause withhold such written proof if the law-enforcement officer otherwise meets the requirements of this section.

3. Any State Police officer who is a member of the organized reserve forces of any of the Armed Services of the United States or National Guard, while such officer is called to active military duty, provided such officer carries with him written proof of consultation with and favorable review of the need to carry a concealed handgun issued by the Superintendent of State Police. The proof of consultation and favorable review shall be valid as long as the officer is on active military duty and shall expire when the officer returns to active law-enforcement duty. The issuance of the proof of consultation and favorable review shall be entered into the Virginia Criminal Information Network. The Superintendent of State Police shall not without cause withhold such written proof if the officer is in good standing and is qualified to carry a weapon while on active law-enforcement duty.

4. Any retired or resigned attorney for the Commonwealth or assistant attorney for the Commonwealth who (i) was not terminated for cause and served at least 10 years prior to his retirement or resignation; (ii) during the most recent 12-month period, has met, at his own expense, the standards for qualification in firearms training for active law-enforcement officers in the Commonwealth; (iii) carries with him written proof of consultation with and favorable review of the need to carry a concealed handgun issued by the attorney for the Commonwealth from whose office he retired or resigned; and (iv) meets the requirements of a "qualified retired law enforcement officer" pursuant to the federal Law Enforcement Officers Safety Act of 2004 (18 U.S.C. § 926C). A copy of the proof of consultation and favorable review shall be forwarded by the attorney for the Commonwealth to the Department of State Police for entry into the Virginia Criminal Information Network.

B. For purposes of complying with the federal Law Enforcement Officers Safety Act of 2004, a retired or resigned law-enforcement officer, including a retired or resigned attorney for the Commonwealth or assistant attorney for the Commonwealth, who receives proof of consultation and review pursuant to this section shall have the opportunity to annually participate, at the retired or resigned law-enforcement officer's expense, in the same training and testing to carry firearms as is required of active law-enforcement officers in the Commonwealth. If such retired or resigned law-enforcement officer meets the training and qualification standards, the chief law-enforcement officer shall issue the retired or resigned officer certification, valid one year from the date of issuance, indicating that the retired or resigned officer has met the standards of the agency to carry a firearm.

C. A retired or resigned law-enforcement officer, including a retired or resigned attorney for the Commonwealth or assistant attorney for the Commonwealth, who receives proof of consultation and review pursuant to this section may annually participate and meet the training and qualification standards to carry firearms as is required of active law-enforcement officers in the Commonwealth. If such retired or resigned law-enforcement officer meets the training and qualification standards, the chief law-enforcement officer shall issue the retired or resigned officer certification, valid one year from the date of issuance, indicating that the retired or resigned officer has met the standards of the Commonwealth to carry a firearm. A copy of the certification indicating that the retired or resigned officer has met the standards of the Commonwealth to carry a firearm shall be forwarded by the chief, Commission, Board, or attorney for the Commonwealth to the Department of State Police for entry into the Virginia Criminal Information Network.

D. For all purposes, including for the purpose of applying the reciprocity provisions of § 18.2-308.014, any person granted the privilege to carry a concealed handgun pursuant to this section, while carrying the proof of consultation and favorable review required, shall be deemed to have been issued a concealed handgun permit.

2016, cc. 209, 257, 421; 2017, cc. 101, 243, 689; 2018, c. 669; 2020, c. 958.

A. If any person knowingly possesses any (i) stun weapon as defined in this section; (ii) knife, except a pocket knife having a folding metal blade of less than three inches; or (iii) weapon, including a weapon of like kind, designated in subsection A of § 18.2-308, other than a firearm; upon (a) the property of any child day center or public, private, or religious preschool, elementary, middle, or high school, including buildings and grounds; (b) that portion of any property open to the public and then exclusively used for school-sponsored functions or extracurricular activities while such functions or activities are taking place; or (c) any school bus owned or operated by any such school, he is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

B. If any person knowingly possesses any firearm designed or intended to expel a projectile by action of an explosion of a combustible material while such person is upon (i) the property of any child day center or public, private, or religious preschool, elementary, middle, or high school, including buildings and grounds; (ii) that portion of any property open to the public and then exclusively used for school-sponsored functions or extracurricular activities while such functions or activities are taking place; or (iii) any school bus owned or operated by any such school, he is guilty of a Class 6 felony.

C. If any person knowingly possesses any firearm designed or intended to expel a projectile by action of an explosion of a combustible material within the building of a child day center or public, private, or religious preschool, elementary, middle, or high school and intends to use, or attempts to use, such firearm, or displays such weapon in a threatening manner, such person is guilty of a Class 6 felony and sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment of five years to be served consecutively with any other sentence.

D. The child day center and private or religious preschool provisions of this section (i) shall apply only during the operating hours of such child day center or private or religious preschool and (ii) shall not apply to any person (a) whose residence is on the property of a child day center or a private or religious preschool and (b) who possesses a firearm or other weapon prohibited under this section while in his residence.

E. The exemptions set out in §§ 18.2-308 and 18.2-308.016 shall apply, mutatis mutandis, to the provisions of this section. The provisions of this section shall not apply to (i) persons who possess such weapon or weapons as a part of the school's curriculum or activities; (ii) a person possessing a knife customarily used for food preparation or service and using it for such purpose; (iii) persons who possess such weapon or weapons as a part of any program sponsored or facilitated by either the school or any organization authorized by the school to conduct its programs either on or off the school premises; (iv) any law-enforcement officer, or retired law-enforcement officer qualified pursuant to subsection C of § 18.2-308.016; (v) any person who possesses a knife or blade which he uses customarily in his trade; (vi) a person who possesses an unloaded firearm or a stun weapon that is in a closed container, or a knife having a metal blade, in or upon a motor vehicle, or an unloaded shotgun or rifle in a firearms rack in or upon a motor vehicle; (vii) a person who has a valid concealed handgun permit and possesses a concealed handgun or a stun weapon while in a motor vehicle in a parking lot, traffic circle, or other means of vehicular ingress or egress to the school; (viii) a school security officer authorized to carry a firearm pursuant to § 22.1-280.2:1; or (ix) an armed security officer, licensed pursuant to Article 4 (§ 9.1-138 et seq.) of Chapter 1 of Title 9.1, hired by a child day center or a private or religious school for the protection of students and employees as authorized by such school. For the purposes of this subsection, "weapon" includes a knife having a metal blade of three inches or longer and "closed container" includes a locked vehicle trunk.

F. Nothing in subsection E or any other provision of law shall be construed as providing an exemption to the provisions of this section for a special conservator of the peace appointed pursuant to § 19.2-13, other than the specifically enumerated exemptions that apply to the general population as provided in subsection E.

G. As used in this section:

"Child day center" means a child day center, as defined in § 22.1-289.02, that is licensed in accordance with the provisions of Chapter 14.1 (§ 22.1-289.02 et seq.) of Title 22.1 and is not operated at the residence of the provider or of any of the children.

"Stun weapon" means any device that emits a momentary or pulsed output, which is electrical, audible, optical or electromagnetic in nature and which is designed to temporarily incapacitate a person.

1979, c. 467; 1988, c. 493; 1990, cc. 635, 744; 1991, c. 579; 1992, cc. 727, 735; 1995, c. 511; 1999, cc. 587, 829, 846; 2001, c. 403; 2003, cc. 619, 976; 2004, cc. 128, 461; 2005, cc. 830, 928; 2007, c. 519; 2011, c. 282; 2013, c. 416; 2015, c. 289; 2016, c. 257; 2017, c. 311; 2020, cc. 693, 1037, 1249.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person acquitted by reason of insanity and committed to the custody of the Commissioner of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, pursuant to Chapter 11.1 (§ 19.2-182.2 et seq.) of Title 19.2, on a charge of treason, any felony or any offense punishable as a misdemeanor under Title 54.1 or a Class 1 or Class 2 misdemeanor under this title, except those misdemeanor violations of (i) Article 2 (§ 18.2-266 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of this title, (ii) Article 2 (§ 18.2-415 et seq.) of Chapter 9 of this title, (iii) § 18.2-119, or (iv) an ordinance of any county, city, or town similar to the offenses specified in clause (i), (ii), or (iii), to knowingly and intentionally purchase, possess, or transport any firearm. A violation of this subsection shall be punishable as a Class 1 misdemeanor.

B. Any person so acquitted may, upon discharge from the custody of the Commissioner, petition the general district court in the city or county in which he resides or, if the person is not a resident of the Commonwealth, the general district court of the city or county in which the most recent of the proceedings described in subsection A occurred to restore his right to purchase, possess, or transport a firearm. A copy of the petition shall be mailed or delivered to the attorney for the Commonwealth for the jurisdiction where the petition was filed who shall be entitled to respond and represent the interests of the Commonwealth. The court shall conduct a hearing if requested by either party. If the court determines, after receiving and considering evidence concerning the circumstances regarding the disability referred to in subsection A and the person's criminal history, treatment record, and reputation as developed through character witness statements, testimony, or other character evidence, that the person will not be likely to act in a manner dangerous to public safety and that the granting of the relief would not be contrary to the public interest, the court shall grant the petition. Any person denied relief by the general district court may petition the circuit court for a de novo review of the denial. Upon a grant of relief in any court, the court shall enter a written order granting the petition, in which event the provisions of subsection A do not apply. The clerk of court shall certify and forward forthwith to the Central Criminal Records Exchange, on a form provided by the Exchange, a copy of any such order.

C. As used in this section, "treatment record" shall include copies of health records detailing the petitioner's psychiatric history, which shall include the records pertaining to the commitment or adjudication that is the subject of the request for relief pursuant to this section.

1990, c. 692; 2008, cc. 788, 854, 869; 2009, cc. 813, 840; 2010, c. 781; 2011, c. 775; 2017, c. 516.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person who has been adjudicated (i) legally incompetent pursuant to former § 37.1-128.02 or former § 37.1-134, (ii) mentally incapacitated pursuant to former § 37.1-128.1 or former § 37.1-132, or (iii) incapacitated pursuant to Chapter 20 (§ 64.2-2000 et seq.) of Title 64.2 to purchase, possess, or transport any firearm. A violation of this subsection shall be punishable as a Class 1 misdemeanor.

B. Any person whose competency or capacity has been restored pursuant to former § 37.1-134.1, former § 37.2-1012, or § 64.2-2012 may petition the general district court in the city or county in which he resides or, if the person is not a resident of the Commonwealth, the general district court of the city or county in which the most recent of the proceedings described in subsection A occurred to restore his right to purchase, possess or transport a firearm. A copy of the petition shall be mailed or delivered to the attorney for the Commonwealth for the jurisdiction where the petition was filed who shall be entitled to respond and represent the interests of the Commonwealth. The court shall conduct a hearing if requested by either party. If the court determines, after receiving and considering evidence concerning the circumstances regarding the disability referred to in subsection A and the person's criminal history, treatment record, and reputation as developed through character witness statements, testimony, or other character evidence, that the person will not be likely to act in a manner dangerous to public safety and that the granting of the relief would not be contrary to the public interest, the court shall grant the petition. Any person denied relief by the general district court may petition the circuit court for a de novo review of the denial. Upon a grant of relief in any court, the court shall enter a written order granting the petition, in which event the provisions of subsection A do not apply. The clerk of court shall certify and forward forthwith to the Central Criminal Records Exchange, on a form provided by the Exchange, a copy of any such order.

C. As used in this section, "treatment record" shall include copies of health records detailing the petitioner's psychiatric history, which shall include the records pertaining to the commitment or adjudication that is the subject of the request for relief pursuant to this section.

1994, c. 907; 1997, c. 921; 2004, c. 995; 2011, c. 775; 2017, c. 516.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person (i) involuntarily admitted to a facility or ordered to mandatory outpatient treatment pursuant to § 19.2-169.2; (ii) involuntarily admitted to a facility or ordered to mandatory outpatient treatment as the result of a commitment hearing pursuant to Article 5 (§ 37.2-814 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 37.2, notwithstanding the outcome of any appeal taken pursuant to § 37.2-821; (iii) involuntarily admitted to a facility or ordered to mandatory outpatient treatment as a minor 14 years of age or older as the result of a commitment hearing pursuant to Article 16 (§ 16.1-335 et seq.) of Chapter 11 of Title 16.1, notwithstanding the outcome of any appeal taken pursuant to § 16.1-345.6; (iv) who was the subject of a temporary detention order pursuant to § 37.2-809 and subsequently agreed to voluntary admission pursuant to § 37.2-805; (v) who, as a minor 14 years of age or older, was the subject of a temporary detention order pursuant to § 16.1-340.1 and subsequently agreed to voluntary admission pursuant to § 16.1-338; or (vi) who was found incompetent to stand trial and likely to remain so for the foreseeable future and whose case was disposed of in accordance with § 19.2-169.3, to purchase, possess, or transport a firearm. A violation of this subsection shall be punishable as a Class 1 misdemeanor.

B. Any person prohibited from purchasing, possessing or transporting firearms under this section may, at any time following his release from involuntary admission to a facility, his release from an order of mandatory outpatient treatment, his release from voluntary admission pursuant to § 37.2-805 following the issuance of a temporary detention order, his release from a training center, or his release as provided by § 19.2-169.3, petition the general district court in the city or county in which he resides or, if the person is not a resident of the Commonwealth, the general district court of the city or county in which the most recent of the proceedings described in subsection A occurred to restore his right to purchase, possess, or transport a firearm. A copy of the petition shall be mailed or delivered to the attorney for the Commonwealth for the jurisdiction where the petition was filed who shall be entitled to respond and represent the interests of the Commonwealth. The court shall conduct a hearing if requested by either party. If the court determines, after receiving and considering evidence concerning the circumstances regarding the disabilities referred to in subsection A and the person's criminal history, treatment record, and reputation as developed through character witness statements, testimony, or other character evidence, that the person will not likely act in a manner dangerous to public safety and that granting the relief would not be contrary to the public interest, the court shall grant the petition. Any person denied relief by the general district court may petition the circuit court for a de novo review of the denial. Upon a grant of relief in any court, the court shall enter a written order granting the petition, in which event the provisions of subsection A do not apply. The clerk of court shall certify and forward forthwith to the Central Criminal Records Exchange, on a form provided by the Exchange, a copy of any such order.

C. As used in this section, "treatment record" shall include copies of health records detailing the petitioner's psychiatric history, which shall include the records pertaining to the commitment or adjudication that is the subject of the request for relief pursuant to this section.

1994, c. 907; 2004, c. 995; 2008, cc. 751, 788; 2010, c. 781; 2011, c. 775; 2017, c. 516; 2018, c. 846; 2020, cc. 299, 1121, 1175.

A. It is unlawful for any person who is subject to (i) a protective order entered pursuant to § 16.1-253.1, 16.1-253.4, 16.1-278.2, 16.1-279.1, 19.2-152.8, 19.2-152.9, or 19.2-152.10; (ii) an order issued pursuant to subsection B of § 20-103; (iii) an order entered pursuant to subsection D of § 18.2-60.3; (iv) a preliminary protective order entered pursuant to subsection F of § 16.1-253 where a petition alleging abuse or neglect has been filed; or (v) an order issued by a tribunal of another state, the United States or any of its territories, possessions, or commonwealths, or the District of Columbia pursuant to a statute that is substantially similar to those cited in clauses (i), (ii), (iii), or (iv) to purchase or transport any firearm while the order is in effect. Any person with a concealed handgun permit shall be prohibited from carrying any concealed firearm, and shall surrender his permit to the court entering the order, for the duration of any protective order referred to herein. A violation of this subsection is a Class 1 misdemeanor.

B. In addition to the prohibition set forth in subsection A, it is unlawful for any person who is subject to a protective order entered pursuant to § 16.1-279.1 or 19.2-152.10 or an order issued by a tribunal of another state, the United States or any of its territories, possessions, or commonwealths, or the District of Columbia pursuant to a statute that is substantially similar to § 16.1-279.1 or 19.2-152.10 to knowingly possess any firearm while the order is in effect, provided that for a period of 24 hours after being served with a protective order in accordance with subsection C of § 16.1-279.1 or subsection D of § 19.2-152.10 such person may continue to possess and, notwithstanding the provisions of subsection A, transport any firearm possessed by such person at the time of service for the purposes of surrendering any such firearm to a law-enforcement agency in accordance with subsection C or selling or transferring any such firearm to a dealer as defined in § 18.2-308.2:2 or to any person who is not otherwise prohibited by law from possessing such firearm in accordance with subsection C. A violation of this subsection is a Class 6 felony.

C. Upon issuance of a protective order pursuant to § 16.1-279.1 or 19.2-152.10, the court shall order the person who is subject to the protective order to (i) within 24 hours after being served with a protective order in accordance with subsection C of § 16.1-279.1 or subsection D of § 19.2-152.10 (a) surrender any firearm possessed by such person to a designated local law-enforcement agency, (b) sell or transfer any firearm possessed by such person to a dealer as defined in § 18.2-308.2:2, or (c) sell or transfer any firearm possessed by such person to any person who is not otherwise prohibited by law from possessing such firearm and (ii) within 48 hours after being served with a protective order in accordance with subsection C of § 16.1-279.1 or subsection D of § 19.2-152.10, certify in writing, on a form provided by the Office of the Executive Secretary of the Supreme Court, that such person does not possess any firearms or that all firearms possessed by such person have been surrendered, sold, or transferred and file such certification with the clerk of the court that entered the protective order. The willful failure of any person to certify in writing in accordance with this section that all firearms possessed by such person have been surrendered, sold, or transferred or that such person does not possess any firearms shall constitute contempt of court.

D. The person who is subject to a protective order pursuant to § 16.1-279.1 or 19.2-152.10 shall be provided with the address and hours of operation of a designated local law-enforcement agency and the certification forms when such person is served with a protective order in accordance with subsection C of § 16.1-279.1 or subsection D of § 19.2-152.10.

E. A law-enforcement agency that takes into custody a firearm surrendered to such agency pursuant to subsection C by a person who is subject to a protective order pursuant to § 16.1-279.1 or 19.2-152.10 shall prepare a written receipt containing the name of the person who surrendered the firearm and the manufacturer, model, and serial number of the firearm and provide a copy to such person. Any firearm surrendered to and held by a law-enforcement agency pursuant to subsection C shall be returned by such agency to the person who surrendered the firearm upon the expiration or dissolution of the protective order entered pursuant to § 16.1-279.1 or 19.2-152.10. Such agency shall return the firearm within five days of receiving a written request for the return of the firearm by the person who surrendered the firearm and a copy of the receipt provided to such person by the agency. Prior to returning the firearm to such person, the law-enforcement agency holding the firearm shall confirm that such person is no longer subject to a protective order issued pursuant to § 16.1-279.1 or 19.2-152.10 and is not otherwise prohibited by law from possessing a firearm. A firearm surrendered to a law-enforcement agency pursuant to subsection C may be disposed of in accordance with the provisions of § 15.2-1721 if (i) the person from whom the firearm was seized provides written authorization for such disposal to the agency or (ii) the firearm remains in the possession of the agency more than 120 days after such person is no longer subject to a protective order issued pursuant to § 16.1-279.1 or 19.2-152.10 and such person has not submitted a request in writing for the return of the firearm.

F. Any law-enforcement agency or law-enforcement officer that takes into custody, stores, possesses, or transports a firearm pursuant to this section shall be immune from civil or criminal liability for any damage to or deterioration, loss, or theft of such firearm.

G. The law-enforcement agencies of the counties, cities, and towns within each judicial circuit shall designate, in coordination with each other, and provide to the chief judges of all circuit and district courts within the judicial circuit, one or more local law-enforcement agencies to receive and store firearms pursuant to this section. The law-enforcement agencies shall provide the chief judges with a list that includes the addresses and hours of operation for any law-enforcement agencies so designated that such addresses and hours of operation may be provided to a person served with a protective order in accordance with subsection C of § 16.1-279.1 or subsection D of § 19.2-152.10.

1994, c. 907; 1996, c. 866; 1998, c. 569; 2001, c. 357; 2002, cc. 783, 865; 2004, c. 995; 2011, cc. 373, 402; 2013, c. 759; 2016, cc. 48, 49; 2020, cc. 1221, 1260.

Any person who, within a 36-consecutive-month period, has been convicted of two misdemeanor offenses under Chapter 11 (§ 4.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 4.1, subsection B of former § 18.2-248.1:1, or § 18.2-250 shall be ineligible to purchase or transport a handgun. However, upon expiration of a period of five years from the date of the second conviction and provided the person has not been convicted of any such offense within that period, the ineligibility shall be removed.

1995, c. 577; 2011, cc. 384, 410; 2014, cc. 674, 719; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 550, 551.

It is unlawful for any person who is subject to an emergency substantial risk order or a substantial risk order entered pursuant to § 19.2-152.13 or 19.2-152.14 or an order issued by a tribunal of another state, the United States or any of its territories, possessions, or commonwealths, or the District of Columbia pursuant to a statute that is substantially similar to § 19.2-152.13 or 19.2-152.14 to purchase, possess, or transport any firearm while the order is in effect. Any such person with a concealed handgun permit is prohibited from carrying any concealed firearm while the order is in effect and shall surrender his permit to the court entering the order pursuant to § 19.2-152.13 or 19.2-152.14. A violation of this section is a Class 1 misdemeanor.

2020, cc. 887, 888.

It is unlawful for any person enrolled into the Voluntary Do Not Sell Firearms List pursuant to Chapter 12 (§ 52-50 et seq.) of Title 52 to purchase, possess, or transport a firearm. A violation of this section is punishable as a Class 3 misdemeanor.

2020, c. 1173, § 18.2-308.1:6.

A. Any person who knowingly and intentionally purchases, possesses, or transports any firearm following a misdemeanor conviction for an offense that occurred on or after July 1, 2021, for (i) the offense of assault and battery of a family or household member or (ii) an offense substantially similar to clause (i) under the laws of any other state or of the United States is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

B. For the purposes of this section, "family or household member" means (i) the person's spouse, whether or not he resides in the same home with the person; (ii) the person's former spouse, whether or not he resides in the same home with the person; or (iii) any individual who has a child in common with the person, whether or not the person and that individual have been married or have resided together at any time.

C. Any person prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or transporting a firearm pursuant to subsection A shall be prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or transporting a firearm for three years following the date of the conviction at which point the person convicted of such offense shall no longer be prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or transporting a firearm pursuant to subsection A. Such person shall have his firearms rights restored, unless such person receives another disqualifying conviction, is subject to a protective order that would restrict his rights to carry a firearm, or is otherwise prohibited by law from purchasing, possessing, or transporting a firearm.

2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 555.

A. It shall be unlawful for (i) any person who has been convicted of a felony; (ii) any person adjudicated delinquent as a juvenile 14 years of age or older at the time of the offense of murder in violation of § 18.2-31 or 18.2-32, kidnapping in violation of § 18.2-47, robbery by the threat or presentation of firearms in violation of § 18.2-58, or rape in violation of § 18.2-61; or (iii) any person under the age of 29 who was adjudicated delinquent as a juvenile 14 years of age or older at the time of the offense of a delinquent act which would be a felony if committed by an adult, other than those felonies set forth in clause (ii), whether such conviction or adjudication occurred under the laws of the Commonwealth, or any other state, the District of Columbia, the United States or any territory thereof, to knowingly and intentionally possess or transport any firearm or ammunition for a firearm, any stun weapon as defined by § 18.2-308.1, or any explosive material, or to knowingly and intentionally carry about his person, hidden from common observation, any weapon described in subsection A of § 18.2-308. However, such person may possess in his residence or the curtilage thereof a stun weapon as defined by § 18.2-308.1. Any person who violates this section shall be guilty of a Class 6 felony. However, any person who violates this section by knowingly and intentionally possessing or transporting any firearm and who was previously convicted of a violent felony as defined in § 17.1-805 shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment of five years. Any person who violates this section by knowingly and intentionally possessing or transporting any firearm and who was previously convicted of any other felony within the prior 10 years shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment of two years. The mandatory minimum terms of imprisonment prescribed for violations of this section shall be served consecutively with any other sentence.

B. The prohibitions of subsection A shall not apply to (i) any person who possesses a firearm, ammunition for a firearm, explosive material or other weapon while carrying out his duties as a member of the Armed Forces of the United States or of the National Guard of Virginia or of any other state, (ii) any law-enforcement officer in the performance of his duties, (iii) any person who has been pardoned or whose political disabilities have been removed pursuant to Article V, Section 12 of the Constitution of Virginia provided the Governor, in the document granting the pardon or removing the person's political disabilities, may expressly place conditions upon the reinstatement of the person's right to ship, transport, possess or receive firearms, (iv) any person whose right to possess firearms or ammunition has been restored under the law of another state subject to conditions placed upon the reinstatement of the person's right to ship, transport, possess, or receive firearms by such state, or (v) any person adjudicated delinquent as a juvenile who has completed a term of service of no less than two years in the Armed Forces of the United States and, if such person has been discharged from the Armed Forces of the United States, received an honorable discharge and who is not otherwise prohibited under clause (i) or (ii) of subsection A.

C. Any person prohibited from possessing, transporting, or carrying a firearm, ammunition for a firearm, or a stun weapon under subsection A may petition the circuit court of the jurisdiction in which he resides or, if the person is not a resident of the Commonwealth, the circuit court of any county or city where such person was last convicted of a felony or adjudicated delinquent of a disqualifying offense pursuant to subsection A, for a restoration order that unconditionally authorizes possessing, transporting, or carrying a firearm, ammunition for a firearm, or a stun weapon; however, no person who has been convicted of a felony shall be qualified to petition for such an order unless his civil rights have been restored by the Governor or other appropriate authority. A copy of the petition shall be mailed or delivered to the attorney for the Commonwealth for the jurisdiction where the petition was filed who shall be entitled to respond and represent the interests of the Commonwealth. The court shall conduct a hearing if requested by either party. The court may, in its discretion and for good cause shown, grant such petition and issue a restoration order. Such order shall contain the petitioner's name and date of birth. The clerk shall certify and forward forthwith to the Central Criminal Records Exchange (CCRE), on a form provided by the CCRE, a copy of the order to be accompanied by a complete set of the petitioner's fingerprints. The Department of State Police shall forthwith enter the petitioner's name and description in the CCRE so that the order's existence will be made known to law-enforcement personnel accessing the computerized criminal history records for investigative purposes. The provisions of this section relating to firearms, ammunition for a firearm, and stun weapons shall not apply to any person who has been issued a restoration order pursuant to this subsection.

C1. Any person who was prohibited from possessing, transporting or carrying explosive material under subsection A may possess, transport or carry such explosive material if his right to possess, transport or carry explosive material has been restored pursuant to federal law.

C2. The prohibitions of subsection A shall not prohibit any person other than a person convicted of an act of violence as defined in § 19.2-297.1 or a violent felony as defined in subsection C of § 17.1-805 from possessing, transporting, or carrying (i) antique firearms or (ii) black powder in a quantity not exceeding five pounds if it is intended to be used solely for sporting, recreational, or cultural purposes in antique firearms. For the purposes of this subsection, "antique firearms" means any firearm described in subdivision 3 of the definition of "antique firearm" in subsection F of § 18.2-308.2:2.

D. For the purpose of this section:

"Ammunition for a firearm" means the combination of a cartridge, projectile, primer, or propellant designed for use in a firearm other than an antique firearm as defined in § 18.2-308.2:2.

"Explosive material" means any chemical compound mixture, or device, the primary or common purpose of which is to function by explosion; the term includes, but is not limited to, dynamite and other high explosives, black powder, pellet powder, smokeless gun powder, detonators, blasting caps and detonating cord but shall not include fireworks or permissible fireworks as defined in § 27-95.

1979, c. 474; 1982, c. 515; 1983, c. 233; 1986, cc. 409, 641; 1987, c. 108; 1988, c. 237; 1989, cc. 514, 531; 1993, cc. 468, 926; 1994, cc. 859, 949; 1999, cc. 829, 846; 2001, cc. 811, 854; 2002, c. 362; 2003, c. 110; 2004, cc. 429, 461, 995; 2005, cc. 600, 833; 2007, c. 519; 2008, c. 752; 2009, c. 236; 2010, c. 781; 2015, cc. 200, 767; 2016, c. 337; 2017, c. 767; 2019, c. 203; 2020, cc. 1111, 1112.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person who is not a citizen of the United States or who is not a person lawfully admitted for permanent residence to knowingly and intentionally possess or transport any assault firearm or to knowingly and intentionally carry about his person, hidden from common observation, an assault firearm.

B. It shall be unlawful for any person who is not a citizen of the United States and who is not lawfully present in the United States to knowingly and intentionally possess or transport any firearm or to knowingly and intentionally carry about his person, hidden from common observation, any firearm. A violation of this section shall be punishable as a Class 6 felony.

C. For purposes of this section, "assault firearm" means any semi-automatic center-fire rifle or pistol that expels single or multiple projectiles by action of an explosion of a combustible material and is equipped at the time of the offense with a magazine which will hold more than 20 rounds of ammunition or designed by the manufacturer to accommodate a silencer or equipped with a folding stock.

1993, c. 674; 2003, c. 976; 2004, cc. 347, 995; 2008, c. 408.

Any person who sells, barters, gives, or furnishes, or has in his possession or under his control with the intent of selling, bartering, giving, or furnishing, any firearm to any person he knows is prohibited from possessing or transporting a firearm pursuant to § 18.2-308.1:1, 18.2-308.1:2, or 18.2-308.1:3, subsection B of § 18.2-308.1:4, § 18.2-308.1:6 or 18.2-308.2, subsection B of § 18.2-308.2:01, or § 18.2-308.7 is guilty of a Class 4 felony.

Any person who sells, barters, gives, or furnishes, or has in his possession or under his control with the intent of selling, bartering, giving, or furnishing, any firearm to any person he knows is prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or transporting a firearm pursuant to § 18.2-308.1:7 or 18.2-308.1:8 is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

However, this prohibition shall not be applicable when the person convicted of the felony or misdemeanor, adjudicated delinquent, or acquitted by reason of insanity has (i) been issued a permit pursuant to subsection C of § 18.2-308.2 or been granted relief pursuant to subsection B of § 18.2-308.1:1 or § 18.2-308.1:2 or 18.2-308.1:3; (ii) been pardoned or had his political disabilities removed in accordance with subsection B of § 18.2-308.2; or (iii) obtained a permit to ship, transport, possess, or receive firearms pursuant to the laws of the United States.

1988, c. 327; 1990, c. 692; 1993, cc. 467, 494, 882, 926; 2004, c. 995; 2008, c. 408; 2011, c. 775; 2013, c. 797; 2020, cc. 887, 888, 1173, 1221, 1260; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 555.

A. Any person purchasing from a dealer a firearm as herein defined shall consent in writing, on a form to be provided by the Department of State Police, to have the dealer obtain criminal history record information. Such form shall include only the written consent; the name, birth date, gender, race, citizenship, and social security number and/or any other identification number; the number of firearms by category intended to be sold, rented, traded, or transferred; and answers by the applicant to the following questions: (i) has the applicant been convicted of a felony offense or a misdemeanor offense listed in § 18.2-308.1:8 or found guilty or adjudicated delinquent as a juvenile 14 years of age or older at the time of the offense of a delinquent act that if committed by an adult would be a felony or a misdemeanor listed in § 18.2-308.1:8; (ii) is the applicant subject to a court order restraining the applicant from harassing, stalking, or threatening the applicant's child or intimate partner, or a child of such partner, or is the applicant subject to a protective order; (iii) has the applicant ever been acquitted by reason of insanity and prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or transporting a firearm pursuant to § 18.2-308.1:1 or any substantially similar law of any other jurisdiction, been adjudicated legally incompetent, mentally incapacitated, or adjudicated an incapacitated person and prohibited from purchasing a firearm pursuant to § 18.2-308.1:2 or any substantially similar law of any other jurisdiction, been involuntarily admitted to an inpatient facility or involuntarily ordered to outpatient mental health treatment and prohibited from purchasing a firearm pursuant to § 18.2-308.1:3 or any substantially similar law of any other jurisdiction, or been the subject of a temporary detention order pursuant to § 37.2-809 and subsequently agreed to a voluntary admission pursuant to § 37.2-805; and (iv) is the applicant subject to an emergency substantial risk order or a substantial risk order entered pursuant to § 19.2-152.13 or 19.2-152.14 and prohibited from purchasing, possessing, or transporting a firearm pursuant to § 18.2-308.1:6 or any substantially similar law of any other jurisdiction.

B. 1. No dealer shall sell, rent, trade, or transfer from his inventory any such firearm to any other person who is a resident of Virginia until he has (i) obtained written consent and the other information on the consent form specified in subsection A, and provided the Department of State Police with the name, birth date, gender, race, citizenship, and social security and/or any other identification number and the number of firearms by category intended to be sold, rented, traded, or transferred and (ii) requested criminal history record information by a telephone call to or other communication authorized by the State Police and is authorized by subdivision 2 to complete the sale or other such transfer. To establish personal identification and residence in Virginia for purposes of this section, a dealer must require any prospective purchaser to present one photo-identification form issued by a governmental agency of the Commonwealth or by the United States Department of Defense or a special identification card without a photograph issued pursuant to § 46.2-345.2 that demonstrates that the prospective purchaser resides in Virginia. For the purposes of this section and establishment of residency for firearm purchase, residency of a member of the armed forces shall include both the state in which the member's permanent duty post is located and any nearby state in which the member resides and from which he commutes to the permanent duty post. A member of the armed forces whose photo identification issued by the Department of Defense does not have a Virginia address may establish his Virginia residency with such photo identification and either permanent orders assigning the purchaser to a duty post, including the Pentagon, in Virginia or the purchaser's Leave and Earnings Statement. When the identification presented to a dealer by the prospective purchaser is a driver's license or other photo identification issued by the Department of Motor Vehicles or a special identification card without a photograph issued pursuant to § 46.2-345.2, and such identification form or card contains a date of issue, the dealer shall not, except for a renewed driver's license or other photo identification issued by the Department of Motor Vehicles or a renewed special identification card without a photograph issued pursuant to § 46.2-345.2, sell or otherwise transfer a firearm to the prospective purchaser until 30 days after the date of issue of an original or duplicate driver's license or special identification card without a photograph unless the prospective purchaser also presents a copy of his Virginia Department of Motor Vehicles driver's record showing that the original date of issue of the driver's license was more than 30 days prior to the attempted purchase.

In addition, no dealer shall sell, rent, trade, or transfer from his inventory any assault firearm to any person who is not a citizen of the United States or who is not a person lawfully admitted for permanent residence.

Upon receipt of the request for a criminal history record information check, the State Police shall (a) review its criminal history record information to determine if the buyer or transferee is prohibited from possessing or transporting a firearm by state or federal law, (b) inform the dealer if its record indicates that the buyer or transferee is so prohibited, and (c) provide the dealer with a unique reference number for that inquiry.

2. The State Police shall provide its response to the requesting dealer during the dealer's request or by return call without delay. A dealer who fulfills the requirements of subdivision 1 and is told by the State Police that a response will not be available by the end of the dealer's fifth business day may immediately complete the sale or transfer and shall not be deemed in violation of this section with respect to such sale or transfer.

3. Except as required by subsection D of § 9.1-132, the State Police shall not maintain records longer than 30 days, except for multiple handgun transactions for which records shall be maintained for 12 months, from any dealer's request for a criminal history record information check pertaining to a buyer or transferee who is not found to be prohibited from possessing and transporting a firearm under state or federal law. However, the log on requests made may be maintained for a period of 12 months, and such log shall consist of the name of the purchaser, the dealer identification number, the unique approval number, and the transaction date.

4. On the last day of the week following the sale or transfer of any firearm, the dealer shall mail or deliver the written consent form required by subsection A to the Department of State Police. The State Police shall immediately initiate a search of all available criminal history record information to determine if the purchaser is prohibited from possessing or transporting a firearm under state or federal law. If the search discloses information indicating that the buyer or transferee is so prohibited from possessing or transporting a firearm, the State Police shall inform the chief law-enforcement officer in the jurisdiction where the sale or transfer occurred and the dealer without delay.

5. Notwithstanding any other provisions of this section, rifles and shotguns may be purchased by persons who are citizens of the United States or persons lawfully admitted for permanent residence but residents of other states under the terms of subsections A and B upon furnishing the dealer with one photo-identification form issued by a governmental agency of the person's state of residence and one other form of identification determined to be acceptable by the Department of Criminal Justice Services.

6. For the purposes of this subsection, the phrase "dealer's fifth business day" does not include December 25.

C. No dealer shall sell, rent, trade, or transfer from his inventory any firearm, except when the transaction involves a rifle or a shotgun and can be accomplished pursuant to the provisions of subdivision B 5, to any person who is a dual resident of Virginia and another state pursuant to applicable federal law unless he has first obtained from the Department of State Police a report indicating that a search of all available criminal history record information has not disclosed that the person is prohibited from possessing or transporting a firearm under state or federal law.

To establish personal identification and dual resident eligibility for purposes of this subsection, a dealer shall require any prospective purchaser to present one photo-identification form issued by a governmental agency of the prospective purchaser's state of legal residence and other documentation of dual residence within the Commonwealth. The other documentation of dual residence in the Commonwealth may include (i) evidence of currently paid personal property tax or real estate tax or a current (a) lease, (b) utility or telephone bill, (c) voter registration card, (d) bank check, (e) passport, (f) automobile registration, or (g) hunting or fishing license; (ii) other current identification allowed as evidence of residency by 27 C.F.R. § 178.124 and ATF Ruling 2001-5; or (iii) other documentation of residence determined to be acceptable by the Department of Criminal Justice Services and that corroborates that the prospective purchaser currently resides in Virginia.

D. If any buyer or transferee is denied the right to purchase a firearm under this section, he may exercise his right of access to and review and correction of criminal history record information under § 9.1-132 or institute a civil action as provided in § 9.1-135, provided any such action is initiated within 30 days of such denial.

E. Any dealer who willfully and intentionally requests, obtains, or seeks to obtain criminal history record information under false pretenses, or who willfully and intentionally disseminates or seeks to disseminate criminal history record information except as authorized in this section, shall be guilty of a Class 2 misdemeanor.

F. For purposes of this section:

"Actual buyer" means a person who executes the consent form required in subsection B or C, or other such firearm transaction records as may be required by federal law.

"Antique firearm" means:

1. Any firearm (including any firearm with a matchlock, flintlock, percussion cap, or similar type of ignition system) manufactured in or before 1898;

2. Any replica of any firearm described in subdivision 1 of this definition if such replica (i) is not designed or redesigned for using rimfire or conventional centerfire fixed ammunition or (ii) uses rimfire or conventional centerfire fixed ammunition that is no longer manufactured in the United States and that is not readily available in the ordinary channels of commercial trade;

3. Any muzzle-loading rifle, muzzle-loading shotgun, or muzzle-loading pistol that is designed to use black powder, or a black powder substitute, and that cannot use fixed ammunition. For purposes of this subdivision, the term "antique firearm" shall not include any weapon that incorporates a firearm frame or receiver, any firearm that is converted into a muzzle-loading weapon, or any muzzle-loading weapon that can be readily converted to fire fixed ammunition by replacing the barrel, bolt, breech-block, or any combination thereof; or

4. Any curio or relic as defined in this subsection.

"Assault firearm" means any semi-automatic center-fire rifle or pistol which expels single or multiple projectiles by action of an explosion of a combustible material and is equipped at the time of the offense with a magazine which will hold more than 20 rounds of ammunition or designed by the manufacturer to accommodate a silencer or equipped with a folding stock.

"Curios or relics" means firearms that are of special interest to collectors by reason of some quality other than is associated with firearms intended for sporting use or as offensive or defensive weapons. To be recognized as curios or relics, firearms must fall within one of the following categories:

1. Firearms that were manufactured at least 50 years prior to the current date, which use rimfire or conventional centerfire fixed ammunition that is no longer manufactured in the United States and that is not readily available in the ordinary channels of commercial trade, but not including replicas thereof;

2. Firearms that are certified by the curator of a municipal, state, or federal museum that exhibits firearms to be curios or relics of museum interest; and

3. Any other firearms that derive a substantial part of their monetary value from the fact that they are novel, rare, bizarre, or because of their association with some historical figure, period, or event. Proof of qualification of a particular firearm under this category may be established by evidence of present value and evidence that like firearms are not available except as collectors' items, or that the value of like firearms available in ordinary commercial channels is substantially less.

"Dealer" means any person licensed as a dealer pursuant to 18 U.S.C. § 921 et seq.

"Firearm" means any handgun, shotgun, or rifle that will or is designed to or may readily be converted to expel single or multiple projectiles by action of an explosion of a combustible material.

"Handgun" means any pistol or revolver or other firearm originally designed, made and intended to fire single or multiple projectiles by means of an explosion of a combustible material from one or more barrels when held in one hand.

"Lawfully admitted for permanent residence" means the status of having been lawfully accorded the privilege of residing permanently in the United States as an immigrant in accordance with the immigration laws, such status not having changed.

G. The Department of Criminal Justice Services shall promulgate regulations to ensure the identity, confidentiality, and security of all records and data provided by the Department of State Police pursuant to this section.

H. The provisions of this section shall not apply to (i) transactions between persons who are licensed as firearms importers or collectors, manufacturers or dealers pursuant to 18 U.S.C. § 921 et seq.; (ii) purchases by or sales to any law-enforcement officer or agent of the United States, the Commonwealth or any local government, or any campus police officer appointed under Article 3 (§ 23.1-809 et seq.) of Chapter 8 of Title 23.1; or (iii) antique firearms or curios or relics.

I. The provisions of this section shall not apply to restrict purchase, trade, or transfer of firearms by a resident of Virginia when the resident of Virginia makes such purchase, trade, or transfer in another state, in which case the laws and regulations of that state and the United States governing the purchase, trade, or transfer of firearms shall apply. A National Instant Criminal Background Check System (NICS) check shall be performed prior to such purchase, trade, or transfer of firearms.

J. All licensed firearms dealers shall collect a fee of $2 for every transaction for which a criminal history record information check is required pursuant to this section, except that a fee of $5 shall be collected for every transaction involving an out-of-state resident. Such fee shall be transmitted to the Department of State Police by the last day of the month following the sale for deposit in a special fund for use by the State Police to offset the cost of conducting criminal history record information checks under the provisions of this section.

K. Any person willfully and intentionally making a materially false statement on the consent form required in subsection B or C or on such firearm transaction records as may be required by federal law shall be guilty of a Class 5 felony.

L. Except as provided in § 18.2-308.2:1, any dealer who willfully and intentionally sells, rents, trades, or transfers a firearm in violation of this section shall be guilty of a Class 6 felony.

L1. Any person who attempts to solicit, persuade, encourage, or entice any dealer to transfer or otherwise convey a firearm other than to the actual buyer, as well as any other person who willfully and intentionally aids or abets such person, shall be guilty of a Class 6 felony. This subsection shall not apply to a federal law-enforcement officer or a law-enforcement officer as defined in § 9.1-101, in the performance of his official duties, or other person under his direct supervision.

M. Any person who purchases a firearm with the intent to (i) resell or otherwise provide such firearm to any person who he knows or has reason to believe is ineligible to purchase or otherwise receive from a dealer a firearm for whatever reason or (ii) transport such firearm out of the Commonwealth to be resold or otherwise provided to another person who the transferor knows is ineligible to purchase or otherwise receive a firearm, shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony and sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment of one year. However, if the violation of this subsection involves such a transfer of more than one firearm, the person shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment of five years. The prohibitions of this subsection shall not apply to the purchase of a firearm by a person for the lawful use, possession, or transport thereof, pursuant to § 18.2-308.7, by his child, grandchild, or individual for whom he is the legal guardian if such child, grandchild, or individual is ineligible, solely because of his age, to purchase a firearm.

N. Any person who is ineligible to purchase or otherwise receive or possess a firearm in the Commonwealth who solicits, employs, or assists any person in violating subsection M shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony and shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment of five years.

O. Any mandatory minimum sentence imposed under this section shall be served consecutively with any other sentence.

P. All driver's licenses issued on or after July 1, 1994, shall carry a letter designation indicating whether the driver's license is an original, duplicate, or renewed driver's license.

Q. Prior to selling, renting, trading, or transferring any firearm owned by the dealer but not in his inventory to any other person, a dealer may require such other person to consent to have the dealer obtain criminal history record information to determine if such other person is prohibited from possessing or transporting a firearm by state or federal law. The Department of State Police shall establish policies and procedures in accordance with 28 C.F.R. § 25.6 to permit such determinations to be made by the Department of State Police, and the processes established for making such determinations shall conform to the provisions of this section.

R. Except as provided in subdivisions 1 and 2, it shall be unlawful for any person who is not a licensed firearms dealer to purchase more than one handgun within any 30-day period. For the purposes of this subsection, "purchase" does not include the exchange or replacement of a handgun by a seller for a handgun purchased from such seller by the same person seeking the exchange or replacement within the 30-day period immediately preceding the date of exchange or replacement. A violation of this subsection is punishable as a Class 1 misdemeanor.

1. Purchases in excess of one handgun within a 30-day period may be made upon completion of an enhanced background check, as described in this subsection, by special application to the Department of State Police listing the number and type of handguns to be purchased and transferred for lawful business or personal use, in a collector series, for collections, as a bulk purchase from estate sales, and for similar purposes. Such applications shall be signed under oath by the applicant on forms provided by the Department of State Police, shall state the purpose for the purchase above the limit, and shall require satisfactory proof of residency and identity. Such application shall be in addition to the firearms sales report required by the federal Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF). The Superintendent of State Police shall promulgate regulations, pursuant to the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.), for the implementation of an application process for purchases of handguns above the limit.

Upon being satisfied that these requirements have been met, the Department of State Police shall immediately issue to the applicant a nontransferable certificate, which shall be valid for seven days from the date of issue. The certificate shall be surrendered to the dealer by the prospective purchaser prior to the consummation of such sale and shall be kept on file at the dealer's place of business for inspection as provided in § 54.1-4201 for a period of not less than two years. Upon request of any local law-enforcement agency, and pursuant to its regulations, the Department of State Police may certify such local law-enforcement agency to serve as its agent to receive applications and, upon authorization by the Department of State Police, issue certificates immediately pursuant to this subdivision. Applications and certificates issued under this subdivision shall be maintained as records as provided in subdivision B 3. The Department of State Police shall make available to local law-enforcement agencies all records concerning certificates issued pursuant to this subdivision and all records provided for in subdivision B 3.

2. The provisions of this subsection shall not apply to:

a. A law-enforcement agency;

b. An agency duly authorized to perform law-enforcement duties;

c. A state or local correctional facility;

d. A private security company licensed to do business within the Commonwealth;

e. The purchase of antique firearms;

f. A person whose handgun is stolen or irretrievably lost who deems it essential that such handgun be replaced immediately. Such person may purchase another handgun, even if the person has previously purchased a handgun within a 30-day period, provided that (i) the person provides the firearms dealer with a copy of the official police report or a summary thereof, on forms provided by the Department of State Police, from the law-enforcement agency that took the report of the lost or stolen handgun; (ii) the official police report or summary thereof contains the name and address of the handgun owner, a description of the handgun, the location of the loss or theft, the date of the loss or theft, and the date the loss or theft was reported to the law-enforcement agency; and (iii) the date of the loss or theft as reflected on the official police report or summary thereof occurred within 30 days of the person's attempt to replace the handgun. The firearms dealer shall attach a copy of the official police report or summary thereof to the original copy of the Virginia firearms transaction report completed for the transaction and retain it for the period prescribed by the Department of State Police;

g. A person who trades in a handgun at the same time he makes a handgun purchase and as a part of the same transaction, provided that no more than one transaction of this nature is completed per day;

h. A person who holds a valid Virginia permit to carry a concealed handgun;

i. A person who purchases a handgun in a private sale. For purposes of this subdivision, "private sale" means a purchase from a person who makes occasional sales, exchanges, or purchases of firearms for the enhancement of a personal collection of curios or relics or who sells all or part of such collection of curios and relics; or

j. A law-enforcement officer. For purposes of this subdivision, "law-enforcement officer" means any employee of a police department or sheriff's office that is part of or administered by the Commonwealth or any political subdivision thereof and who is responsible for the prevention and detection of crime and the enforcement of the penal, traffic, or highway laws of the Commonwealth.

1989, c. 745; 1990, cc. 594, 692; 1991, cc. 515, 525, 716; 1992, cc. 637, 872; 1993, cc. 451, 461, 486, 493, 674; 1994, c. 624; 1997, c. 341; 1998, c. 844; 2002, c. 695; 2003, cc. 833, 976; 2004, cc. 354, 461, 837, 904, 922; 2005, cc. 578, 859; 2007, c. 509; 2008, cc. 854, 869; 2009, cc. 813, 840; 2011, c. 235; 2012, cc. 37, 257, 776; 2013, cc. 450, 662, 761, 774, 797; 2015, c. 759; 2016, cc. 697, 727; 2020, cc. 887, 888, 991, 992, 1111, 1112, 1173; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 31, 555; 2023, c. 464.

A. No person, corporation, or proprietorship licensed as a firearms dealer pursuant to 18 U.S.C. § 921 et seq. shall employ any person to act as a seller, whether full-time or part-time, permanent, temporary, paid or unpaid, for the transfer of firearms under § 18.2-308.2:2, if such employee would be prohibited from possessing a firearm under § 18.2-308.1:1, 18.2-308.1:2, or 18.2-308.1:3, subsection B of § 18.2-308.1:4, or § 18.2-308.1:6, 18.2-308.1:7, 18.2-308.1:8, 18.2-308.2, or 18.2-308.2:01, or is an illegal alien, or is prohibited from purchasing or transporting a firearm pursuant to subsection A of § 18.2-308.1:4 or § 18.2-308.1:5.

B. Prior to permitting an applicant to begin employment, the dealer shall obtain a written statement or affirmation from the applicant that he is not disqualified from possessing a firearm and shall submit the applicant's fingerprints and personal descriptive information to the Central Criminal Records Exchange to be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) for the purpose of obtaining national criminal history record information regarding the applicant.

C. Prior to August 1, 2000, the dealer shall obtain written statements or affirmations from persons employed before July 1, 2000, to act as a seller under § 18.2-308.2:2 that they are not disqualified from possessing a firearm. Within five working days of the employee's next birthday, after August 1, 2000, the dealer shall submit the employee's fingerprints and personal descriptive information to the Central Criminal Records Exchange to be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) for the purpose of obtaining national criminal history record information regarding the request.

C1. In lieu of submitting fingerprints pursuant to this section, any dealer holding a valid federal firearms license (FFL) issued by the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (ATF) may submit a sworn and notarized affidavit to the Department of State Police on a form provided by the Department, stating that the dealer has been subjected to a record check prior to the issuance and that the FFL was issued by the ATF. The affidavit may also contain the names of any employees that have been subjected to a record check and approved by the ATF. This exemption shall apply regardless of whether the FFL was issued in the name of the dealer or in the name of the business. The affidavit shall contain the valid FFL number, state the name of each person requesting the exemption, together with each person's identifying information, including their social security number and the following statement: "I hereby swear, under the penalty of perjury, that as a condition of obtaining a federal firearms license, each person requesting an exemption in this affidavit has been subjected to a fingerprint identification check by the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms and the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms subsequently determined that each person satisfied the requirements of 18 U.S.C. § 921 et seq. I understand that any person convicted of making a false statement in this affidavit is guilty of a Class 5 felony and that in addition to any other penalties imposed by law, a conviction under this section shall result in the forfeiture of my federal firearms license."

D. The Department of State Police, upon receipt of an individual's record or notification that no record exists, shall submit an eligibility report to the requesting dealer within 30 days of the applicant beginning his duties for new employees or within 30 days of the applicant's birthday for a person employed prior to July 1, 2000.

E. If any applicant is denied employment because of information appearing on the criminal history record and the applicant disputes the information upon which the denial was based, the Central Criminal Records Exchange shall, upon written request, furnish to the applicant the procedures for obtaining a copy of the criminal history record from the Federal Bureau of Investigation. The information provided to the dealer shall not be disseminated except as provided in this section.

F. The applicant shall bear the cost of obtaining the criminal history record unless the dealer, at his option, decides to pay such cost.

G. Upon receipt of the request for a criminal history record information check, the State Police shall establish a unique number for that firearm seller. Beginning September 1, 2001, the firearm seller's signature, firearm seller's number and the dealer's identification number shall be on all firearm transaction forms. The State Police shall void the firearm seller's number when a disqualifying record is discovered. The State Police may suspend a firearm seller's identification number upon the arrest of the firearm seller for a potentially disqualifying crime.

H. This section shall not restrict the transfer of a firearm at any place other than at a dealership or at any event required to be registered as a gun show.

I. Any person who willfully and intentionally requests, obtains, or seeks to obtain criminal history record information under false pretenses, or who willfully and intentionally disseminates or seeks to disseminate criminal history record information except as authorized by this section and § 18.2-308.2:2, shall be guilty of a Class 2 misdemeanor.

J. Any person willfully and intentionally making a materially false statement on the personal descriptive information required in this section shall be guilty of a Class 5 felony. Any person who offers for transfer any firearm in violation of this section shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor. Any dealer who willfully and knowingly employs or permits a person to act as a firearm seller in violation of this section shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

K. There is no civil liability for any seller for the actions of any purchaser or subsequent transferee of a firearm lawfully transferred pursuant to this section.

L. The provisions of this section requiring a seller's background check shall not apply to a licensed dealer.

M. Any person who willfully and intentionally makes a false statement in the affidavit as set out in subdivision C 1 shall be guilty of a Class 5 felony.

N. For purposes of this section:

"Dealer" means any person, corporation or proprietorship licensed as a dealer pursuant to 18 U.S.C. § 921 et seq.

"Firearm" means any handgun, shotgun, or rifle that will or is designed to or may readily be converted to expel single or multiple projectiles by action of an explosion of a combustible material.

"Place of business" means any place or premises where a dealer may lawfully transfer firearms.

"Seller" means for the purpose of any single sale of a firearm any person who is a dealer or an agent of a dealer, who may lawfully transfer firearms and who actually performs the criminal background check in accordance with the provisions of § 18.2-308.2:2.

"Transfer" means any act performed with intent to sell, rent, barter, or trade or otherwise transfer ownership or permanent possession of a firearm at the place of business of a dealer.

2000, c. 794; 2002, c. 880; 2003, c. 976; 2016, cc. 48, 49; 2020, cc. 887, 888, 1173; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 555.

A. For the purposes of this section:

"Dealer" means any person licensed as a dealer pursuant to 18 U.S.C. § 921 et seq.

"Department" means the Department of State Police.

"Firearm" means any handgun, shotgun, or rifle that will or is designed to or may readily be converted to expel single or multiple projectiles by action of an explosion of a combustible material.

B. A dealer who is receiving by sale, transfer, or trade a firearm from a person who is not a dealer may choose to obtain a verification check from the Department to determine if the firearm has been reported to a law-enforcement agency as lost or stolen. If a dealer chooses to obtain a verification check, the procedures in this section shall be followed.

C. The person selling, transferring, or trading the firearm to the dealer shall present a valid photo identification issued by a state or federal governmental agency and shall consent in writing, on a form to be provided by the Department, to have the dealer obtain a verification check to determine if the firearm has been reported to a law-enforcement agency as lost or stolen. Such form shall include only the written consent; the name, address, birth date, gender, race, and verifiable government identification number on the photo identification presented by the person selling, transferring, or trading the firearm; and the serial number, caliber, make, and, if available, model of the firearm.

D. A dealer shall (i) obtain written consent and identifying information on the consent form specified in subsection C; (ii) provide the Department with the serial number, caliber, make, and, if available, model of the firearm intended to be sold, traded, or transferred to the dealer; (iii) request a verification check by telephone or other manner authorized by the Department; and (iv) receive information from the Department as to whether the firearm has been reported to a law-enforcement agency as lost or stolen.

To establish personal identification and residence for purposes of this section, a dealer shall require a prospective transferee to present one photo-identification form containing a verifiable identification number issued by a governmental agency of the Commonwealth, a similar photo-identification form from another state government or by the U.S. Department of Defense, or other documentation of residence determined acceptable by the Department.

E. Upon receipt of the request for a verification check, the Department shall (i) query firearms databases to determine if the firearm has been reported to a law-enforcement agency as lost or stolen, (ii) inform the dealer if the firearm has been reported to a law-enforcement agency as lost or stolen, and (iii) provide the dealer with a unique response for that inquiry.

The Department shall provide its response to the requesting dealer electronically or by return call without delay. If the verification check discloses that the firearm cannot be lawfully sold, transferred, or traded, the Department shall have until the end of the dealer's next business day to advise the dealer that its records indicate the firearm cannot be lawfully sold, transferred, or traded pursuant to state or federal law.

In the case of electronic failure or other circumstances beyond the control of the Department, the dealer shall be advised immediately of the reason for such delay and be given an estimate of the length of such delay. After such notification, the Department shall, as soon as possible but in no event later than the end of the dealer's next business day, inform the requesting dealer if the firearm cannot be lawfully sold, transferred, or traded pursuant to state or federal law.

F. The Department shall maintain a log of requests made for a period of 12 months from the date the request was made, consisting of the serial number, caliber, make, and, if available, model of the firearm; the dealer identification number; and the transaction date.

G. The dealer shall maintain the consent form for a period of 12 months from the date of the transaction if the firearm is determined to be lost or stolen. If the firearm is determined not to be lost or stolen, the consent form shall be destroyed by the dealer within two weeks from the date of such determination.

H. The Superintendent of State Police shall promulgate regulations to ensure the identity, confidentiality, and security of all records and data provided pursuant to this section.

I. The provisions of this section shall not apply to transactions between persons who are licensed as firearms importers, manufacturers, or dealers pursuant to 18 U.S.C. § 921 et seq.

J. Any person who willfully and intentionally makes a material false statement on the consent form is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

2014, c. 821.

A. No person shall sell a firearm for money, goods, services or anything else of value unless he has obtained verification from a licensed dealer in firearms that information on the prospective purchaser has been submitted for a criminal history record information check as set out in § 18.2-308.2:2 and that a determination has been received from the Department of State Police that the prospective purchaser is not prohibited under state or federal law from possessing a firearm or such sale is specifically exempted by state or federal law. The Department of State Police shall provide a means by which sellers may obtain from designated licensed dealers the approval or denial of firearm transfer requests, based on criminal history record information checks. The processes established shall conform to the provisions of § 18.2-308.2:2, and the definitions and provisions of § 18.2-308.2:2 regarding criminal history record information checks shall apply to this section mutatis mutandis. The designated dealer shall collect and disseminate the fees prescribed in § 18.2-308.2:2 as required by that section. The dealer may charge and retain an additional fee not to exceed $15 for obtaining a criminal history record information check on behalf of a seller.

B. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection A and unless otherwise prohibited by state or federal law, a person may sell a firearm to another person if:

1. The sale of a firearm is to an authorized representative of the Commonwealth or any subdivision thereof as part of an authorized voluntary gun buy-back or give-back program;

2. The sale occurs at a firearms show, as defined in § 54.1-4200, and the seller has received a determination from the Department of State Police that the purchaser is not prohibited under state or federal law from possessing a firearm in accordance with § 54.1-4201.2; or

3. The sale of a firearm is conducted pursuant to § 59.1-148.3, with the exception of a sale conducted pursuant to subsection C of § 59.1-148.3.

C. Any person who willfully and intentionally sells a firearm to another person without obtaining verification in accordance with this section is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

D. Any person who willfully and intentionally purchases a firearm from another person without obtaining verification in accordance with this section is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

2020, cc. 1111, 1112; 2022, c. 270.

A. When used in this section:

"Restricted firearm ammunition" applies to bullets, projectiles or other types of ammunition that are: (i) coated with or contain, in whole or in part, polytetrafluorethylene or a similar product, (ii) commonly known as "KTW" bullets or "French Arcanes," or (iii) any cartridges containing bullets coated with a plastic substance with other than lead or lead alloy cores, jacketed bullets with other than lead or lead alloy cores, or cartridges of which the bullet itself is wholly comprised of a metal or metal alloy other than lead. This definition shall not be construed to include shotgun shells or solid plastic bullets.

B. It shall be unlawful for any person to knowingly use or attempt to use restricted firearm ammunition while committing or attempting to commit a crime. Violation of this section shall constitute a separate and distinct felony and any person found guilty thereof shall be guilty of a Class 5 felony.

1983, c. 602; 1988, c. 530.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person unlawfully in possession of a controlled substance classified in Schedule I or II of the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) of Title 54.1 to simultaneously with knowledge and intent possess any firearm. A violation of this subsection is a Class 6 felony and constitutes a separate and distinct felony.

B. It shall be unlawful for any person unlawfully in possession of a controlled substance classified in Schedule I or II of the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) to simultaneously with knowledge and intent possess any firearm on or about his person. A violation of this subsection is a Class 6 felony and constitutes a separate and distinct felony and any person convicted hereunder shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment of two years. Such punishment shall be separate and apart from, and shall be made to run consecutively with, any punishment received for the commission of the primary felony.

C. It shall be unlawful for any person to possess, use, or attempt to use any pistol, shotgun, rifle, or other firearm or display such weapon in a threatening manner while committing or attempting to commit the illegal manufacture, sale, distribution, or the possession with the intent to manufacture, sell, or distribute a controlled substance classified in Schedule I or Schedule II of the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) or more than one pound of marijuana. A violation of this subsection is a Class 6 felony, and constitutes a separate and distinct felony and any person convicted hereunder shall be sentenced to a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment of five years. Such punishment shall be separate and apart from, and shall be made to run consecutively with, any punishment received for the commission of the primary felony.

1987, c. 285; 1990, c. 625; 1992, c. 707; 1993, c. 831; 1999, cc. 829, 846; 2003, c. 949; 2004, cc. 461, 995; 2011, cc. 384, 410; 2014, cc. 674, 719.

It shall be unlawful for any person to manufacture, import, sell, transfer or possess any plastic firearm. As used in this section, "plastic firearm" means any firearm, including machine guns and sawed-off shotguns as defined in this chapter, containing less than 3.7 ounces of electromagnetically detectable metal in the barrel, slide, cylinder, frame or receiver of which, when subjected to inspection by X-ray machines commonly used at airports, does not generate an image that accurately depicts its shape. A violation of this section shall be punishable as a Class 5 felony.

1989, c. 663; 2004, c. 995.

A. As used in this section:

"Auto sear" means a device, other than a trigger activator, designed for use in converting a semi-automatic firearm to shoot automatically more than one shot, without manual reloading, by a single function of the trigger.

"Trigger activator" means a device designed to allow a semi-automatic firearm to shoot more than one shot with a single pull of the trigger by harnessing the recoil energy of any semi-automatic firearm to which it is affixed so that the trigger resets and continues firing without additional physical manipulation of the trigger by the shooter.

B. It is unlawful for any person to manufacture, import, sell, offer for sale, possess, transfer, or transport an auto sear or a trigger activator in the Commonwealth.

C. A violation of this section is punishable as a Class 6 felony.

D. Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit a person from manufacturing, importing, selling, offering for sale, possessing, receiving, transferring, or transporting any item for which such person is in compliance with the National Firearms Act (26 U.S.C. § 5801 et seq.).

2020, c. 527; 2024, cc. 163, 164.

Repealed by Acts 2009, c. 288, cl. 1.

It shall be unlawful for any person under 18 years of age to knowingly and intentionally possess or transport a handgun or assault firearm anywhere in the Commonwealth. For the purposes of this section, "handgun" means any pistol or revolver or other firearm originally designed, made and intended to fire single or multiple projectiles by means of an explosion of a combustible material from one or more barrels when held in one hand and "assault firearm" means any (i) semi-automatic centerfire rifle or pistol which expels single or multiple projectiles by action of an explosion of a combustible material and is equipped at the time of the offense with a magazine which will hold more than 20 rounds of ammunition or designed by the manufacturer to accommodate a silencer or equipped with a folding stock or (ii) shotgun with a magazine which will hold more than seven rounds of the longest ammunition for which it is chambered. A violation of this section shall be a Class 1 misdemeanor.

This section shall not apply to:

1. Any person (i) while in his home or on his property; (ii) while in the home or on the property of his parent, grandparent, or legal guardian; or (iii) while on the property of another who has provided prior permission, and with the prior permission of his parent or legal guardian if the person has the landowner's written permission on his person while on such property;

2. Any person who, while accompanied by an adult, is at, or going to and from, a lawful shooting range or firearms educational class, provided that the weapons are unloaded while being transported;

3. Any person actually engaged in lawful hunting or going to and from a hunting area or preserve, provided that the weapons are unloaded while being transported; and

4. Any person while carrying out his duties in the Armed Forces of the United States or the National Guard of this Commonwealth or any other state.

1993, cc. 467, 494; 2003, c. 976; 2004, c. 995.

It shall be unlawful for any person to import, sell, possess or transfer the following firearms: the Striker 12, commonly called a "streetsweeper," or any semi-automatic folding stock shotgun of like kind with a spring tension drum magazine capable of holding twelve shotgun shells. A violation of this section shall be punishable as a Class 6 felony.

1993, c. 888.

A. If any person sells, barters, gives or furnishes, or causes to be sold, bartered, given or furnished, to any minor a dirk, switchblade knife or bowie knife, having good cause to believe him to be a minor, such person shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

B. If any person sells, barters, gives or furnishes, or causes to be sold, bartered, given or furnished, to any minor a handgun, having good cause to believe him to be a minor, such person shall be guilty of a Class 6 felony. This subsection shall not apply to any transfer made between family members or for the purpose of engaging in a sporting event or activity.

Code 1950, § 18.1-344; 1960, c. 358; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1992, c. 487; 1993, c. 855.

Repealed by Acts 2004, c. 995.

If any person sells or barters, or exhibits for sale or for barter, or gives or furnishes, or causes to be sold, bartered, given, or furnished, or has in his possession, or under his control, with the intent of selling, bartering, giving, or furnishing, any blackjack, brass or metal knucks, any disc of whatever configuration having at least two points or pointed blades that is designed to be thrown or propelled and that may be known as a throwing star or oriental dart, ballistic knife as defined in § 18.2-307.1, or like weapons, such person is guilty of a Class 4 misdemeanor. The having in one's possession of any such weapon shall be prima facie evidence, except in the case of a conservator of the peace, of his intent to sell, barter, give, or furnish the same.

Code 1950, § 18.1-271; 1960, c. 358; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1985, c. 394; 1988, c. 359; 2013, c. 746; 2022, c. 27.

A. It is unlawful for any person, firm, association, or corporation to intentionally remove, alter, change, destroy, or obliterate in any manner or way or cause to be removed, altered, changed, destroyed, or obliterated in any manner or way the name of the maker, model, manufacturer's or serial number, or any other identification required by federal law on any pistol, shotgun, rifle, machine gun, or any other firearm. A violation of this subsection is a Class 1 misdemeanor.

B. It is unlawful for any person, firm, association, or corporation to knowingly possess any pistol, shotgun, rifle, machine gun, or any other firearm that has a serial number that has been removed, altered, changed, destroyed, or obliterated in any manner. A violation of this subsection is a Class 1 misdemeanor.

C. It is unlawful for any person, firm, association, or corporation to knowingly sell, give, or distribute any pistol, shotgun, rifle, machine gun, or any other firearm that has a serial number that has been removed, altered, changed, destroyed, or obliterated in any manner. A violation of this subsection is a Class 6 felony.

D. The provisions of this section shall not apply to antique firearms as defined in § 18.2-308.2:2.

1975, c. 590; 2024, c. 786.

On a third or subsequent conviction of any offense contained in Article 4 (§ 18.2-279 et seq.), 5 (§ 18.2-288 et seq.), 6 (§ 18.2-299 et seq.), or 7 (§ 18.2-308.1 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2, which would ordinarily be punished as a Class 1 misdemeanor, where it is alleged in the information or indictment on which the person is convicted, that (i) such person has been twice previously convicted of a violation of any Class 1 misdemeanor or felony offense contained in either Article 4, 5, 6, or 7 of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2 or § 18.2-53.1, or of a substantially similar offense under the law of any other jurisdiction of the United States, and (ii) each such violation occurred on a different date, such person is guilty of a Class 6 felony.

1994, c. 731.

If any person maliciously release or cause or procure to be released in any private home, place of business or place of public gathering any tear gas, mustard gas, phosgene gas or other noxious or nauseating gases or mixtures of chemicals designed to, and capable of, producing vile or injurious or nauseating odors or gases, and bodily injury results to any person from such gas or odor, the offending person shall be guilty of a Class 3 felony.

If such act be done unlawfully, but not maliciously, the offending person shall be guilty of a Class 6 felony.

Nothing herein contained shall prevent the use of tear gas or other gases by police officers or other peace officers in the proper performance of their duties, or by any person or persons in the protection of person, life or property.

Code 1950, § 18.1-70; 1960, c. 358; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

It shall be unlawful for any person, or persons, to display, exhibit, handle or use any poisonous or dangerous snake or reptile in such a manner as to endanger the life or health of any person.

Any person violating the provisions of this section shall be guilty of a Class 4 misdemeanor.

Code 1950, § 18.1-72; 1960, c. 358; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

It shall be unlawful for any person to (i) knowingly withhold information from, or knowingly give false information to, any lawfully authorized governmental agent which would reasonably lead to the discovery or location and capture of any animal reasonably identifiable as one that has potentially exposed a human being to rabies; (ii) upon the request of an animal control officer, a law-enforcement officer, or an official of the Department of Health, willfully fail to grant access to any animal owned, harbored, or kept by that person that is suspected of having caused a rabies exposure to a human being; or (iii) upon notice by an animal control officer, a law-enforcement officer, or an official of the Department of Health, willfully fail to comply with a confinement, isolation, or quarantine order.

Any person violating the provisions of this section shall be guilty of a Class 2 misdemeanor.

1989, c. 491; 2010, c. 834.

Any person who knowingly introduces into state waters any snakehead fish of the family Channidae, or knowingly places or causes to be placed into state waters any zebra mussel (Dreissena polymorpha) or the larvae thereof, without a permit from the Director of Wildlife Resources issued pursuant to § 29.1-575 is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

2005, c. 916; 2017, c. 361.

Any parent or other person having custody of a minor child which child shows evidence of need for medical attention as the result of physical injury inflicted by an act of any member of the household, whether the injury was intentional or unintentional, who knowingly fails or refuses to secure prompt and adequate medical attention, or who conspires to prevent the securing of such attention, for such minor child, shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor; provided, however, that any parent or other person having custody of a minor child that is being furnished Christian Science treatment by a duly accredited Christian Science practitioner shall not, for that reason alone, be considered in violation of this section.

Code 1950, § 18.1-74.2; 1966, c. 578; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

Repealed by Acts 1980, c. 173.

Any person who has caused to be dug on his own land or the land of another any well or pit, shall fill such well or pit with earth so that the same shall not be dangerous to human beings, animals or fowls before such well or such pit is abandoned; and any person owning land whereon any such well or pit is located shall in the same manner fill with earth any such well or pit which has been abandoned, provided such person has knowledge of the existence of such well or pit.

But in the case of mining operations in lieu of filling the shaft or pit the owner or operator thereof on ceasing operations in such shaft or pit shall securely fence the same and keep the same at all times thereafter securely fenced.

Any person violating any provision of this section shall be deemed guilty of a Class 3 misdemeanor.

Code 1950, § 18.1-73; 1960, c. 358; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

Every person owning or occupying any land on which there is a well having a diameter greater than six inches and which is more than ten feet deep shall at all times keep the same covered in such a manner as not to be dangerous to human beings, animals or fowls.

Any person violating the provisions of this section shall be guilty of a Class 3 misdemeanor.

Code 1950, § 18.1-74; 1960, c. 358; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

Notwithstanding the provisions of § 18.2-317, the governing body of any county, city or town may adopt ordinances requiring persons owning or occupying any land within such county, city or town on which there is a well having a diameter greater than six inches and which is more than ten feet deep to keep the same covered in such a manner as not to be dangerous to human beings, animals or fowls.

Any such ordinance may specify and require reasonable minimum standards for the construction, installation and maintenance of such covers, including the manner in which any concrete used in connection therewith shall be reinforced, and may prescribe punishment for violations not inconsistent with general law.

Code 1950, § 18.1-74.1; 1962, c. 525; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

It shall be unlawful for any person, firm or corporation to discard, abandon, leave or allow to remain in any place any icebox, refrigerator or other container, device or equipment of any kind with an interior storage area of more than two cubic feet of clear space which is airtight, without first removing the door or doors or hinges from such icebox, refrigerator, container, device or equipment.

This section shall not apply to any icebox, refrigerator, container, device or equipment which is being used for the purpose for which it was originally designed, or is being used for display purposes by any retail or wholesale merchant, or is crated, strapped or locked to such an extent that it is impossible for a child to obtain access to any airtight compartment thereof.

Any violation of the provisions of this section shall be punishable as a Class 3 misdemeanor.

Code 1950, § 18.1-415; 1960, c. 358; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

(a) No person shall sell, offer for sale, or deliver, or offer for delivery, or give away any plastic bag or partial plastic bag intended to enclose freshly cleaned clothing, the length of which totals twenty-five inches or more and the material of which is less than one mil (1/1000 inch) in thickness; unless such plastic bag bears the following warning statement, or a warning statement which the Commissioner of Health has approved as the equivalent thereof:

"WARNING: To avoid danger of suffocation, keep this plastic bag away from babies and children. Do not use this bag in cribs, beds, carriages or playpens."

(b) Such warning statement shall be imprinted in a prominent place on the plastic bag or shall appear on a label securely attached to the bag in a prominent place, and shall be printed in legible type of at least thirty-six point type.

(c) Violators of this section shall be guilty of a Class 3 misdemeanor.

Code 1950, § 18.1-415.1; 1968, c. 340; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

It shall be unlawful for any person to use any X ray, fluoroscope, or other equipment or apparatus employing roentgen rays, in the fitting of shoes or other footwear. This section shall not apply to any licensed physician or surgeon in the practice of his profession. Any person violating the provisions of this section shall be guilty of a Class 3 misdemeanor.

Code 1950, § 18.1-416; 1960, c. 358; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

No person shall spit, expectorate, or deposit any sputum, saliva, mucus, or any form of saliva or sputum upon the floor, stairways, or upon any part of any public building or place where the public assemble, or upon the floor of any part of any public conveyance, or upon any sidewalk abutting on any public street, alley or lane of any town or city.

Any person violating any provision of this section shall be guilty of a Class 4 misdemeanor.

Code 1950, § 32-69; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

Repealed by Acts 1997, c. 391.

If any person cast any dead animal into a road or knowingly permit any dead animal to remain unburied upon his property when offensive to the public or, having in custody any maimed, diseased, disabled or infirm animal, leave it to lie or be in a street, road or public place, he shall be guilty of a Class 3 misdemeanor.

Code 1950, § 32-70.1; 1958, c. 548; 1970, c. 72; 1975, cc. 14, 15.

It shall be unlawful for any person to dispose of a dead body as defined in § 32.1-249 (i) on private property without the written permission of the landowner or (ii) on public property.

A violation of this section shall be punishable as a Class 1 misdemeanor.

1992, c. 883.

Any person who transports, secretes, conceals or alters a dead body, as defined in § 32.1-249, with malicious intent and to prevent detection of an unlawful act or to prevent the detection of the death or the manner or cause of death is guilty of a Class 6 felony.

2007, c. 436.

A. It is unlawful for any person to consume an alcoholic beverage while driving a motor vehicle upon a public highway of the Commonwealth.

B. Unless the driver is delivering alcoholic beverages in accordance with the provisions of § 4.1-212.1, a rebuttable presumption that the driver has consumed an alcoholic beverage in violation of this section shall be created if (i) an open container is located within the passenger area of the motor vehicle, (ii) the alcoholic beverage in the open container has been at least partially removed, and (iii) the appearance, conduct, odor of alcohol, speech, or other physical characteristic of the driver of the motor vehicle may be reasonably associated with the consumption of an alcoholic beverage.

C. For the purposes of this section:

"Open container" means any vessel containing an alcoholic beverage, except the originally sealed manufacturer's container.

"Passenger area" means the area designed to seat the driver of any motor vehicle, any area within the reach of the driver, including an unlocked glove compartment, and the area designed to seat passengers. "Passenger area" does not include the trunk of any passenger vehicle, the area behind the last upright seat of a passenger van, station wagon, hatchback, sport utility vehicle, or any similar vehicle, the living quarters of a motor home, or the passenger area of a motor vehicle designed, maintained, or used primarily for the transportation of persons for compensation, including a bus, taxi, or limousine, while engaged in the transportation of such persons.

D. A violation of this section is punishable as a Class 4 misdemeanor.

1989, c. 343; 2002, c. 890; 2022, cc. 78, 79.

No person shall throw or deposit or cause to be deposited upon any highway any glass bottle, glass, nail, tack, wire, can, or any other substance likely to injure any person or animal, or damage any vehicle upon such highway, nor shall any person throw or deposit or cause to be deposited upon any highway any soil, sand, mud, gravel or other substances so as to create a hazard to the traveling public. Any person who drops, or permits to be dropped or thrown, upon any highway any destructive, hazardous or injurious material shall immediately remove the same or cause it to be removed. Any person removing a wrecked or damaged vehicle from a highway shall remove any glass or other injurious substance dropped upon the highway from such vehicle. Any persons violating the provisions of this section shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

This section shall not apply to the use, by a law-enforcement officer while in the discharge of official duties, of any device designed to deflate tires. The Division of Purchase and Supply shall, pursuant to § 2.2-1112, set minimum standards for such devices and shall give notice of such standards to law-enforcement offices in the Commonwealth. No such device shall be used which does not meet or exceed the standards.

Code 1950, § 33.1-350; 1970, c. 322; 1975, cc. 14, 15; 1997, c. 136.

Repealed by Acts 2019, c. 712, cl. 11, effective October 1, 2019.

A. It is unlawful for any person who is required to register pursuant to § 9.1-901 to use or operate an unmanned aircraft system to knowingly and intentionally (i) follow or contact another person without permission of such person or (ii) capture the images of another person without permission of such person when such images render the person recognizable by his face, likeness, or other distinguishing characteristic.

B. It is unlawful for a respondent of a protective order issued pursuant to § 16.1-279.1 or 19.2-152.10 to knowingly and intentionally use or operate an unmanned aircraft system to follow, contact, or capture images of the petitioner of the protective order or any other individual named in the protective order.

C. A violation of this section is a Class 1 misdemeanor.

2018, cc. 851, 852.