Virginia Law

Professions and Occupations

Subtitle I. General Provisions Relating to Regulatory Boards

Chapter 1. General Provisions.

The right of every person to engage in any lawful profession, trade, or occupation of his choice is clearly protected by both the Constitution of the United States and the Constitution of the Commonwealth of Virginia. The Commonwealth cannot abridge such rights except as a reasonable exercise of its police powers when (i) it is clearly found that such abridgment is necessary for the protection or preservation of the health, safety, and welfare of the public and (ii) any such abridgment is no greater than necessary to protect or preserve the public health, safety, and welfare.

No regulation shall be imposed upon any profession or occupation except for the exclusive purpose of protecting the public interest when:

1. The unregulated practice of the profession or occupation can harm or endanger the health, safety or welfare of the public, and the potential for harm is recognizable and not remote or dependent upon tenuous argument;

2. The practice of the profession or occupation has inherent qualities peculiar to it that distinguish it from ordinary work and labor;

3. The practice of the profession or occupation requires specialized skill or training and the public needs, and will benefit by, assurances of initial and continuing professional and occupational ability; and

4. The public is not effectively protected by other means.

No regulation of a profession or occupation shall conflict with the Constitution of the United States, the Constitution of Virginia, the laws of the United States, or the laws of the Commonwealth of Virginia. Periodically and at least annually, all agencies regulating a profession or occupation shall review such regulations to ensure that no conflict exists.

1979, c. 408, § 54-1.17; 1988, c. 765; 2016, c. 467.

The Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation, formerly known as the Department of Commerce, is continued, and wherever "Department of Commerce" is used in this Code, it shall mean the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation. The Board for Professional and Occupational Regulation, formerly known as the Board of Commerce, is continued, and wherever "Board of Commerce" is used in this Code, it shall mean the Board for Professional and Occupational Regulation.

1993, c. 499.

A copy of examinations given by regulatory and advisory boards within the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation and the Department of Health Professions authorized to conduct examinations of applicants for admission to practice or pursue any profession, vocation, trade, calling, or art shall be kept on file at the office of the secretary of each board. A copy of the examination shall be placed on file within ten days after it is administered, and shall be preserved for at least one year as a public record accessible to any person desiring to examine it during usual business hours. After the expiration of one year from the time the examination is filed, the secretary of the respective board may withdraw and destroy the examination. However, this section shall not be construed or interpreted in a manner to require the filing or release of examinations or other information which would result in compromising the validity or security of future examinations conducted by regulatory or advisory boards of the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation or the Department of Health Professions. In the event any provision of this section results in a conflict with the provisions of § 54.1-108, the provisions of § 54.1-108 shall prevail.

Code 1950, § 54-1; 1952, c. 227; 1959, Ex. Sess., c. 94; 1960, c. 10; 1962, c. 13; 1970, c. 623; 1973, c. 284; 1985, c. 448; 1988, c. 765; 1993, c. 499.

Whenever in this title any regulatory board within the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation or the Department of Health Professions is required to send any mail or notice by certified mail and such mail or notice is sent certified mail, return receipt requested, then any subsequent, identical mail or notice that is sent by any such regulatory board may be sent by regular mail.

2011, c. 566.

A. It shall be unlawful:

1. For any person to procure, or assist another to procure, through theft, fraud or other illegal means, a certificate, license or permit, from any state board, or other body charged by law with the responsibility of examining persons desiring to engage in a regulated business or profession;

2. For any person, other than a member or officer of the board or body, to procure or have in his possession prior to the beginning of an examination, without written authority of a member or officer of the board or body, any question intended to be used by the board or body conducting the examination, or to receive or furnish to any person taking the examination, prior to or during the examination, any written or printed material purporting to be answers to, or aid in answering such questions;

3. For any person to attempt to procure, through theft, fraud or other illegal means, any questions intended to be used by the board or body conducting the examination, or the answers to the questions;

4. For any person to use, disclose or release any questions intended to be used by the board or body conducting the examination, or to release the answers to the questions, beyond the scope specifically authorized by the board or body; or

5. To promise or offer any valuable or other consideration to a person having access to the questions or answers as an inducement to procure for delivery to the promisor, or any other person, a copy or copies of any questions or answers.

If an examination is divided into separate parts, each of the parts shall be deemed an examination for the purposes of this section.

B. Any person violating the provisions of subsection A shall be guilty of a Class 2 misdemeanor.

Code 1950, §§ 54-1.1, 54-1.2; 1988, c. 765; 2012, c. 416.

A. The regulatory boards within the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation and the Department of Health Professions may promulgate regulations specifying additional training or conditions for individuals seeking certification or licensure, or for the renewal of certificates or licenses.

B. The regulatory boards may enter into agreements with other jurisdictions for the recognition of certificates and licenses issued by other jurisdictions.

C. The regulatory boards are authorized to promulgate regulations recognizing licenses or certificates issued by other states, the District of Columbia, or any territory or possession of the United States as full or partial fulfillment of qualifications for licensure or certification in the Commonwealth.

1979, c. 408, § 54-1.28; 1983, c. 569; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 194; 1993, c. 499.

The Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation and the Department of Health Professions may suspend the license, certificate, registration, permit, or authority it has issued any person who submits a check, money draft, or similar instrument for payment of a fee required by statute or regulation that is not honored by the bank or financial institution named. The suspension shall become effective 10 days following delivery by certified mail of written notice of the dishonor and the impending suspension to such person's address. However, such suspension shall only be reported as a suspension and shall not be considered or described as a disciplinary action by the board issuing such suspension. Upon notification of suspension, the person may reinstate the license, certificate, registration, permit, or authority upon payment of the fee and penalties required under statute or regulation. Suspension under this provision shall be exempt from the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.).

1980, c. 433, § 54-1.2:1; 1988, c. 765; 1993, c. 499; 2017, c. 423; 2024, c. 18.

The Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation, the Department of Health Professions, and the Board of Accountancy shall not be authorized to suspend or revoke the license, certificate, registration, permit, or authority it has issued to any person who is in default or delinquent in the payment of a federal-guaranteed or state-guaranteed educational loan or work-conditional scholarship solely on the basis of such default or delinquency.

2018, cc. 170, 381.

An affirmative vote of a majority of those serving on a board who are qualified to vote or those serving on a panel of a health regulatory board convened pursuant to § 54.1-2400 shall be required for any action to suspend or revoke a license, certification, registration, permit, or multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing or to impose a sanction on a licensee. However, an affirmative vote of a majority of a quorum of the regulatory board shall be sufficient for summary suspension pursuant to specific statutory authority.

1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 659; 2004, c. 49; 2017, c. 423.

A. No person who is licensed or certified by the Boards of/for Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology; Counseling; Dentistry; Medicine; Nursing; Optometry; Opticians; Pharmacy; Hearing Aid Specialists; Psychology; or Social Work or who holds a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing issued by the Board of Nursing who renders at any site any health care services within the limits of his license, certification or licensure privilege, voluntarily and without compensation, to any patient of any clinic which is organized in whole or in part for the delivery of health care services without charge or any clinic for the indigent and uninsured that is organized for the delivery of primary health care services as a federally qualified health center designated by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services, shall be liable for any civil damages for any act or omission resulting from the rendering of such services unless the act or omission was the result of his gross negligence or willful misconduct. Additionally, no person who administers, organizes, arranges, or promotes such services shall be liable to patients of clinics described in this section for any civil damages for any act or omission resulting from the rendering of such services unless the act or omission was the result of his or the clinic's gross negligence or willful misconduct.

For purposes of this section, any commissioned or contract medical officers or dentists serving on active duty in the United States armed services and assigned to duty as practicing commissioned or contract medical officers or dentists at any military hospital or medical facility owned and operated by the United States government shall be deemed to be licensed pursuant to this title.

B. For the purposes of Article 5 (§ 2.2-1832 et seq.) of Chapter 18 of Title 2.2, any person rendering such health care services who (i) is registered with the Division of Risk Management and (ii) has no legal or financial interest in the clinic from which the patient is referred shall be deemed an agent of the Commonwealth and to be acting in an authorized governmental capacity with respect to delivery of such health care services. The premium for coverage of such person under the Risk Management Plan shall be paid by the Department of Health.

C. For the purposes of this section and Article 5 (§ 2.2-1832 et seq.) of Chapter 18 of Title 2.2, "delivery of health care services without charge" shall be deemed to include the delivery of dental, medical or other health services when a reasonable minimum fee is charged to cover administrative costs.

1983, c. 25, § 54-1.2:2; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 159; 1992, cc. 414, 706; 1995, cc. 509, 531; 1996, c. 748; 1999, c. 834; 2000, cc. 473, 618, 632; 2004, c. 49; 2010, c. 353; 2017, cc. 57, 415.

The Board of Medicine shall provide to its licensees a full description of the protection from civil liability established pursuant to § 54.1-106. Such description shall explain the coverage available under the Division of Risk Management pursuant to subsection B of § 54.1-106.

2005, c. 134.

All members of regulatory boards shall be citizens of the United States and residents of Virginia. Members shall be appointed by the Governor and may be removed by him as provided in subsection A of § 2.2-108. Any vacancy occurring other than by expiration of terms shall be filled for the unexpired term. Members shall hold office after expiration of their terms until their successors are duly appointed and have qualified. Appointment to fill an unexpired term shall not be considered a full term. All members of regulatory boards appointed by the Governor for terms commencing on or after July 1, 1988, shall be appointed for terms of four years. No member shall serve more than two successive full terms on any regulatory board.

A "citizen member" of a regulatory board shall be a person who (i) is not by training or experience a practitioner of the profession or occupation regulated by the board, (ii) is not the spouse, parent, child, or sibling of such a practitioner, and (iii) has no direct or indirect financial interest, except as a consumer, in the practice of the profession or occupation regulated by the board.

The provisions of this section shall not apply to the Board for Branch Pilots.

1981, c. 447, § 54-1.18:1; 1988, cc. 42, 765.

Official records of the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation or the Department of Health Professions or any board named in this title shall be subject to the disclosure provisions of the Virginia Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq.), except for the following:

1. Examination questions, papers, booklets, and answer sheets, which may be disclosed at the discretion of the board administering or causing to be administered such examinations.

2. Applications for admission to examinations or for licensure, certification, registration, or permitting and the scoring records maintained by any board or by the Departments on individuals or applicants. However, this material may be (i) made available during normal working hours for copying by the subject individual or applicant at his expense at the office of the Department or board that possesses the material or (ii) upon the request of the subject individual or applicant and at his expense, mailed or emailed to such individual or applicant at the address or email address on file with the applicable board or Department.

3. Records of active investigations being conducted by the Departments or any board.

1979, c. 408, § 54-1.41; 1982, c. 207; 1988, c. 765; 1993, c. 499; 2017, c. 423; 2023, cc. 249, 250.

Any person who has been aggrieved by any action of the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation, the Department of Health Professions, the Board for Professional and Occupational Regulation, any regulatory board within the Departments, or any panel of a health regulatory board convened pursuant to § 54.1-2400 shall be entitled to a review of such action. Appeals from such actions shall be in accordance with the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.).

1979, c. 408, § 54-1.19; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 659; 1993, c. 499; 2025, c. 341.

A. Every hearing in a contested case shall be conducted in accordance with the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.). When a hearing officer presides, the regulatory board shall determine whether the hearing officer is to hear the case alone or with a panel of a health regulatory board convened pursuant to § 54.1-2400 or whether the board is to hear the case with the hearing officer.

B. A board member shall disqualify himself and withdraw from any case in which he cannot accord fair and impartial consideration. Any party may request the disqualification of any board member by stating with particularity the grounds upon which it is claimed that fair and impartial consideration cannot be accorded. The remaining members of the board or panel shall determine whether the individual should be disqualified.

1979, c. 408, § 54-1.37; 1986, c. 615; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 659.

A. It is unlawful for any person, partnership, corporation, or other entity to engage in any of the following acts:

1. Practicing a profession or occupation without holding a valid license as required by statute or regulation.

2. Making use of any designation provided by statute or regulation to denote a standard of professional or occupational competence without being duly certified or licensed.

3. Making use of any titles, words, letters, or abbreviations which may reasonably be confused with a designation provided by statute or regulation to denote a standard of professional or occupational competence without being duly certified or licensed.

4. Performing any act or function which is restricted by statute or regulation to persons holding a professional or occupational license or certification, without being duly certified or licensed.

5. Failing to register as a practitioner of a profession or occupation as required by statute or regulation.

6. Materially misrepresenting facts in an application for licensure, certification, or registration.

7. Willfully refusing to furnish a regulatory board information or records required or requested pursuant to statute or regulation.

8. Violating any statute or regulation governing the practice of any profession or occupation regulated pursuant to this title.

9. Refusing to process a request, tendered in accordance with the regulations of the relevant health regulatory board or applicable statutory law, for patient records or prescription dispensing records after the closing of a business or professional practice or the transfer of ownership of a business or professional practice.

B. Any person who willfully engages in any unlawful act enumerated in this section is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor. The third or any subsequent conviction for violating this section during a 36-month period constitutes a Class 6 felony. In addition, any person convicted of any unlawful act enumerated in subdivisions A 1 through 8, for conduct that is within the purview of any regulatory board within the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation, may be ordered by the court to pay restitution in accordance with §§ 19.2-305 through 19.2-305.4.

C. The Director of the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation, or his designee, may issue a notice to any person violating the provisions of subdivisions A 1 through 5 or A 8 to cease and desist such activity.

D. In addition to the criminal penalties provided for in subsection B, the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation or the Department of Health Professions, without compliance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.), shall have the authority to enforce the provisions of subsection A and may institute proceedings in equity to enjoin any person, partnership, corporation or any other entity from engaging in any unlawful act enumerated in this section and to recover a civil penalty of at least $200 but not more than $5,000 per violation, with each unlawful act constituting a separate violation; but in no event shall the civil penalties against any one person, partnership, corporation or other entity exceed $25,000 per year. Such proceedings shall be brought in the name of the Commonwealth by the appropriate Department in the circuit court or general district court of the city or county in which the unlawful act occurred or in which the defendant resides.

E. This section shall not be construed to prohibit or prevent the owner of patient records from (i) retaining copies of his patient records or prescription dispensing records after the closing of a business or professional practice or the transfer of ownership of a business or professional practice or (ii) charging a reasonable fee, in accordance with subsections B2, B3, B4, and B6 of § 8.01-413 or subsection J of § 32.1-127.1:03, for copies of patient records, as applicable under the circumstances.

F. Nothing in this section, nor §§ 13.1-543, 13.1-1102, 54.1-2902, and 54.1-2929, shall be construed to prohibit or prevent any entity of a type listed in § 13.1-542.1 or 13.1-1101.1, which employs or contracts with an individual licensed by a health regulatory board, from (i) practicing or engaging in the practice of a profession or occupation for which such individual is licensed, (ii) providing or rendering professional services related thereto through the licensed individual, or (iii) having a legitimate interest in enforcing the terms of employment or its contract with the licensed individual.

G. This section shall apply, mutatis mutandis, to all persons holding a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing in the Commonwealth of Virginia.

1979, c. 408, § 54-1.20; 1988, c. 765; 1993, cc. 129, 499; 1998, c. 470; 2001, c. 544; 2003, cc. 753, 762; 2004, c. 49; 2005, cc. 398, 642, 697; 2008, c. 358; 2017, c. 457; 2019, cc. 481, 517.

Copies of all records, documents and other papers of the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation and the Department of Health Professions and their regulatory boards which bear the official seal and which are duly certified and authenticated in writing on the face of such documents to be true copies by the custodian thereof and by the person to whom the custodian reports shall be received as evidence with like effect as the original records, documents or other papers in all courts of the Commonwealth.

1988, c. 765; 1993, c. 499.

A. Following the close of any biennium, when the account for any regulatory board within the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation maintained under § 54.1-308 shows that unspent and unencumbered revenue exceeds $100,000 or 20 percent of the total expenses allocated to the regulatory board for the past biennium, whichever is greater, the regulatory board shall (i) distribute all such excess revenue to current regulants and (ii) reduce the fees levied by it for certification, licensure, registration, or permit and renewal thereof so that the fees are sufficient but not excessive to cover expenses.

B. Following the close of any biennium, when the account for any regulatory board within the Department of Health Professions maintained under § 54.1-2505 shows expenses allocated to it for the past biennium to be more than 10 percent greater or less than moneys collected on behalf of the regulatory board, it shall revise the fees levied by it for certification, licensure, registration, or permit and renewal thereof so that the fees are sufficient but not excessive to cover expenses.

C. Nongeneral funds generated by fees collected on behalf of the health regulatory boards and accounted for and deposited into a special fund by the Director of the Department of Health Professions shall be held exclusively to cover the expenses of the health regulatory boards, the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program, and the Department of Health Professions and shall not be transferred to any agency other than the Department of Health Professions, except as provided in §§ 54.1-3011.1 and 54.1-3011.2.

1981, c. 558, § 54-1.28:1; 1988, c. 765; 1993, c. 499; 2006, c. 631; 2009, c. 472; 2017, c. 423; 2019, cc. 517, 697; 2025, c. 341.

The Board of Bar Examiners, the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation and the Department of Health Professions shall submit biennial reports to the Governor and General Assembly on or before November 1 of each even-numbered year. The biennial report shall contain at a minimum the following information for the Board of Bar Examiners and for each board within the two Departments: (i) a summary of the board's fiscal affairs, (ii) a description of the board's activities, (iii) statistical information regarding the administrative hearings and decisions of the board, (iv) a general summary of all complaints received against licensees and the procedures used to resolve the complaints, and (v) a description of any action taken by the board designed to increase public awareness of board operations and to facilitate public participation. The Department of Health Professions shall include, in those portions of its report relating to the Board of Medicine, a compilation of the data required by § 54.1-2910.1.

1985, c. 537, § 54-1.2:3; 1988, c. 765; 1993, c. 499; 1998, c. 744; 2004, c. 650.

Expired.

A. Every applicant for a license, certificate, registration or other authorization to engage in a business, trade, profession or occupation issued by the Commonwealth pursuant to this title, and every applicant for renewal thereof, shall provide on the application either his social security number or control number issued by the Department of Motor Vehicles pursuant to § 46.2-342. An initial application or renewal application which does not include either identifying number shall not be considered or acted upon by the issuing entity, and no refund of any fees paid with the application shall be granted.

B. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection A, a health regulatory board of the Department of Health Professions may issue a temporary license or authorization to practice, effective for not longer than 90 days, to an otherwise qualified applicant for a license, certificate or registration who is a foreign national and cannot provide a social security number or control number at the time of application.

1997, cc. 794, 898; 2003, c. 803.

Notwithstanding any contrary provision of law, any license, permit, certificate, or other document, however styled or denominated, that is related to the practice of any business, profession, or calling and issued under this title to any citizen of the Commonwealth shall be held not to have expired during the period of such person's service outside the United States, in the armed services of the United States or as a member of the diplomatic service of the United States, appointed under the Foreign Service Act of 1946, serving outside the United States and 60 days thereafter. However, no extension granted under this section shall exceed five years from the date of expiration of the document. The provisions of this section shall apply to the spouse of a member of the armed services of the United States if the spouse accompanies the member during periods of service outside of the United States.

For the purposes of this section "service in the armed services of the United States" includes active duty service with the regular Armed Forces of the United States or the National Guard or other reserve component.

2004, c. 975; 2011, cc. 342, 357.

A. Except as provided in this section, the regulatory boards within the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation, the Department of Health Professions, or any board named in this title shall accept the military training, education, or experience of a service member honorably discharged from active military service in the armed forces of the United States, to the extent that such training, education, or experience is substantially equivalent to the requirements established by law and regulations of the respective board for the issuance of any license, permit, certificate, or other document, however styled or denominated, required for the practice of any business, profession, or occupation in the Commonwealth. To the extent that the service member's military training, education, or experience, or portion thereof, is not deemed substantially equivalent, the respective board shall credit whatever portion of the military training, education, or experience that is substantially equivalent toward meeting the requirements for the issuance of the license, permit, certificate, or other document.

The provisions of this subsection shall not apply to the Board of Medicine in the regulation of the practice of medicine or osteopathic medicine. Nor shall this subsection apply to the Board of Dentistry in the regulation of dentists or oral and maxillofacial surgeons.

B. The Board of Medicine may accept a service member's military training, education, or experience as an intern or resident in an approved facility to satisfy the requirement of one year of satisfactory postgraduate training as an intern or resident in a hospital or health care facility, provided the applicant for licensure (i) has been honorably discharged from active military service in the armed forces of the United States, (ii) is a graduate of a Board-approved institution, (iii) has successfully completed all required examinations for licensure, and (iv) applies for licensure within six months of discharge from active military service.

C. The Board of Dentistry may accept the military training, education, or experience of a service member provided the applicant for licensure (i) has been honorably discharged from active military service in the armed forces of the United States, (ii) has been in continuous clinical practice for four of the six years immediately preceding the application for licensure, (iii) holds a diploma or certificate of a dental program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association, and (iv) has successfully completed all required examinations for licensure. Active patient care in the Dental Corps of the United States armed forces, voluntary practice in a public health clinic, or practice in an intern or residency program may be accepted by the Board to satisfy requirements for licensure.

D. Any regulatory board may require the service member to provide such documentation of his training, education, or experience as deemed necessary by the board to determine substantial equivalency.

E. As used in this section, "active military service" means federally funded military duty as (i) a member of the armed forces of the United States on active duty pursuant to Title 10 of the United States Code or (ii) a member of the Virginia National Guard on active duty pursuant to either Title 10 or Title 32 of the United States Code.

2012, c. 524.

A. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary and unless an applicant is found by the board to have engaged in any act that would constitute grounds for disciplinary action, a regulatory board within the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation or the Department of Health Professions or any other board named in this title shall expedite the issuance of a license, permit, certificate, or other document, however styled or denominated, required for the practice of any business, profession, or occupation in the Commonwealth to an applicant whose application has been deemed complete by the board and (i) who holds the same or similar license, permit, certificate, or other document required for the practice of any business, profession, or occupation issued by another jurisdiction; (ii) whose spouse is (a) on federal active duty orders pursuant to Title 10 of the United States Code or (b) a veteran, as that term is defined in § 2.2-2000.1, who has left active-duty service within one year of the submission of an application to a board; and (iii) who accompanies the applicant's spouse to the Commonwealth or an adjoining state or the District of Columbia, if, in the opinion of the board, the requirements for the issuance of the license, permit, certificate, or other document in such other jurisdiction are substantially equivalent to those required in the Commonwealth. A board may waive any requirement relating to experience if the board determines that the documentation provided by the applicant supports such a waiver.

B. If a board is unable to (i) complete the review of the documentation provided by the applicant or (ii) make a final determination regarding substantial equivalency within 20 days of the receipt of a completed application, the board shall issue a temporary license, permit, or certificate, provided the applicant otherwise meets the qualifications set out in subsection A. Any temporary license, permit, or certification issued pursuant to this subsection shall be limited for a period not to exceed 12 months and shall authorize the applicant to engage in the profession or occupation while the board completes its review of the documentation provided by the applicant or the applicant completes any specific requirements that may be required in Virginia that were not required in the jurisdiction in which the applicant holds the license, permit, or certificate.

C. The provisions of this section shall apply regardless of whether a regulatory board has entered into a reciprocal agreement with the other jurisdiction pursuant to subsection B of § 54.1-103.

D. Any regulatory board may require the applicant to provide documentation it deems necessary to make a determination of substantial equivalency.

2012, c. 604; 2014, c. 602; 2016, c. 33; 2020, cc. 28, 35.

Subtitle II. Professions and Occupations Regulated by the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation and Boards within the Department

A regulatory board established to administer a system of certification or licensure as provided in §§ 54.1-310 and 54.1-311, unless otherwise specified by law, shall consist of at least five members. The Board for Professional and Occupational Regulation may recommend to the General Assembly the number of members to be placed on the regulatory board. Two members of each board established hereafter shall be citizen members and the remainder of the members shall be practitioners of the profession or occupation which is being regulated. Citizen members shall participate in all matters except decisions regarding the examination of applicants for licensure or decisions regarding the professional competence of licensees. Terms of the members shall be staggered to ensure a continuing body.

1979, c. 408, § 54-1.27; 1988, c. 765; 1993, c. 499.

A. The powers and duties of regulatory boards shall be as follows:

1. To establish the qualifications of applicants for certification or licensure by any such board, provided that all qualifications shall be necessary to ensure either competence or integrity to engage in such profession or occupation.

2. To examine, or cause to be examined, the qualifications of each applicant for certification or licensure within its particular regulatory system, including when necessary the preparation, administration and grading of examinations.

3. To certify or license qualified applicants as practitioners of the particular profession or occupation regulated by such board.

4. To levy and collect fees for certification or licensure and renewal that are sufficient to cover all expenses for the administration and operation of the regulatory board and a proportionate share of the expenses of the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation and the Board for Professional and Occupational Regulation.

5. To promulgate regulations in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) necessary to assure continued competency, to prevent deceptive or misleading practices by practitioners and to effectively administer the regulatory system administered by the regulatory board. The regulations shall not be in conflict with the purposes and intent of this chapter or of Chapters 1 (§ 54.1-100 et seq.) and 3 (§ 54.1-300 et seq.) of this title.

6. To ensure that inspections are conducted relating to the practice of each practitioner certified or licensed by the regulatory board to ensure that the practitioner is conducting his practice in a competent manner and within the lawful regulations promulgated by the board.

7. To place a regulant on probation or revoke, suspend or fail to renew a certificate or license for just causes as enumerated in regulations of the board. Conditions of probation may include, but not be limited to the successful completion of remedial education or examination.

8. To receive complaints concerning the conduct of any regulant and to take appropriate disciplinary action if warranted.

9. To provide a regulant subject to a disciplinary action with a notice advising the regulant of his right to be heard at an informal fact-finding conference pursuant to § 2.2-4019 of the Administrative Process Act. The notice shall state that if the regulant does not request an informal fact-finding conference within 30 days of receipt of the notice, the board may issue a case decision as defined in § 2.2-4001, with judicial review of the case decision in accordance with § 2.2-4026. If the regulant asserts his right to be heard prior to the board issuing its case decision, the board shall remand the case to an informal fact-finding conference. The notice required by this subdivision shall be sent in a manner that allows for confirmation of delivery or, if agreed to by the parties, through electronic means, provided that the board retains sufficient proof of the electronic delivery, which may be an electronic receipt of delivery, a confirmation that the notice was sent by facsimile, or a certificate of service prepared by the sender confirming the electronic delivery.

10. To promulgate canons of ethics under which the professional activities of regulants shall be conducted.

B. A regulant shall furnish, upon the request of a person to whom the regulant is providing or offering to provide service, satisfactory proof that the regulant (i) is duly licensed, certified, or registered under this subtitle and (ii) has obtained any required bond or insurance to engage in his profession or occupation.

C. As used in this section, "regulant" means any person, firm, corporation, association, partnership, joint venture, or any other legal entity required by this subtitle to be licensed, certified, or registered.

1979, c. 408, § 54-1.28; 1983, c. 569; 1988, c. 765; 1993, c. 499; 2005, c. 383; 2012, c. 769; 2013, cc. 398, 486; 2023, cc. 100, 101.

A. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the regulatory boards within the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation may issue a temporary license or certification to any applicant who holds a comparable license or certification issued by another state, provided (i) the license or certificate is valid, (ii) the applicant is in good standing with the regulatory entity that issued the license or certification, and (iii) the applicant simultaneously submits a completed application for a Virginia license or certification.

B. Any person who receives a temporary license or certification pursuant to this section shall be subject to the jurisdiction of the issuing regulatory board.

C. Any license or certification issued pursuant to this section shall be valid for a period not to exceed 45 days from the date of issuance and may not be renewed.

2010, cc. 260, 280.

A. Any person licensed or certified by a regulatory board who violates any statute or regulation pertaining to that regulatory board who is not criminally prosecuted shall be subject to the monetary penalty provided in this section. If a regulatory board determines that a respondent is guilty of the violation complained of, the board shall determine the amount of the monetary penalty for the violation, which shall not exceed $2,500 for each violation. The penalty may be sued for and recovered in the name of the Commonwealth.

B. Any regulatory board within the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation may adopt a resolution delegating to the Director the authority to enter into consent agreements on behalf of the regulatory board with regulants of the board. Such resolution shall specify the types of violations to which the delegation applies and the maximum monetary penalty that may be imposed in a consent agreement for each regulatory violation. No delegation of authority pursuant to this subsection shall provide for a monetary penalty over $2,500 per regulatory violation.

1979, c. 408, § 54-1.22; 1988, c. 765; 1999, cc. 37, 950; 2001, c. 832; 2005, c. 383.

After a formal fact-finding pursuant to § 2.2-4020 wherein a sanction is imposed to fine, or to suspend, revoke or deny renewal of any license, certificate or registration, the regulatory board or the Department may assess the holder thereof the cost of conducting such fact-finding when the board or Department has final authority to grant such license, certificate or registration, unless the board or Department determines that the offense was inadvertent or done in a good faith belief that such act did not violate a statute or regulation. The cost shall be limited to (i) the reasonable hourly rate for the hearing officer and (ii) the actual cost of recording the proceedings.

1983, c. 401, § 54-1.22:1; 1988, c. 765.

A. An individual with a criminal record may request a predetermination from a regulatory board within the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation or from the Department concerning whether his criminal record would disqualify him from obtaining a license, certificate, registration, or other authority to engage in a particular occupation, trade, or profession in the Commonwealth.

B. The licensing authority shall provide a written determination, indicating whether the individual's criminal record would disqualify him from obtaining the license, certificate, registration, or other authority. Such determination shall be binding unless the individual's criminal record changes after the determination or the individual provides false information.

C. No licensing authority shall require an individual to complete any educational or training requirements prior to submitting a request for predetermination.

2025, c. 505.

A. A person shall not be refused a license, certificate, or registration to practice, pursue, or engage in any regulated occupation or profession solely because of a prior criminal conviction, unless the criminal conviction directly relates to the occupation or profession for which the license, certificate, or registration is sought. A regulatory board shall not use vague or arbitrary terms, including "good moral character" or "moral turpitude" to refuse a license, certificate, or registration.

B. In determining whether a criminal conviction directly relates to an occupation or profession, the regulatory board shall consider the following criteria:

1. The nature and seriousness of the crime;

2. The relationship of the crime to the purpose for requiring a license to engage in the occupation;

3. The extent to which the occupation or profession might offer an opportunity to engage in further criminal activity of the same type as that in which the person had been involved;

4. The relationship of the crime to the ability, capacity, or fitness required to perform the duties and discharge the responsibilities of the occupation or profession;

5. The extent and nature of the person's past criminal activity;

6. The age of the person at the time of the commission of the crime;

7. The amount of time that has elapsed since the person's last involvement in the commission of a crime;

8. The conduct and work activity of the person prior to and following the criminal activity; and

9. Evidence of the person's rehabilitation or rehabilitative effort while incarcerated or following release.

C. A regulatory board may require any applicant for registration, licensure, or certification to submit to fingerprinting and to provide personal descriptive information to be forwarded along with the applicant's fingerprints through the Central Criminal Records Exchange to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the purpose of obtaining criminal history record information regarding such applicant. Such applicant shall pay the cost of the fingerprinting or a criminal records check or both.

The regulatory board may enter into a contract to obtain the fingerprints and descriptive information as required for submission to the Central Criminal Records Exchange in a manner and format approved by the Central Criminal Records Exchange.

The Central Criminal Records Exchange, upon receipt of an applicant's record or notification that no record exists, shall make a report to the regulatory board or its designee, who must belong to a governmental entity. If an applicant is denied a registration, license, or certificate because of the information appearing in his criminal history record, the regulatory board shall notify the applicant in writing of the specific offense or offenses that contributed to such denial, how the criminal history directly relates to the occupation pursuant to subsection B, and how the regulatory board weighed the rehabilitation factors in subsection B when making its decision. The information shall not be disseminated except as provided for in this section.

D. A regulatory board shall consider the criminal information as contained in the applicant's state or national criminal history in lieu of the applicant providing certified copies of such court records in determining whether a criminal conviction directly relates to an occupation or profession or if an applicant is unfit or unsuited to engage in an occupation or profession. The regulatory board may request additional information from the applicant in making such determination.

1979, c. 408, § 54-1.21; 1988, c. 765; 2003, c. 582; 2009, c. 667; 2025, c. 505.

A. The regulatory boards within the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation shall develop regulations to provide a pathway to licensure or certification for individuals with equivalent qualifications from another country. Such regulations shall include the following requirements for issuing such license or certification:

1. Documentation demonstrating the applicant's (i) United States citizenship, (ii) permanent residency, or (iii) valid work visa along with proof that the applicant has submitted a petition for permanent residency status;

2. Methods for awarding partial or full credit toward any training and education requirements; and

3. Satisfactory documentation of the requisite education, training, and proof of licensure in accordance with the regulatory board's standards and requirements, or any other criteria the regulatory board deems necessary to protect the health, safety, and welfare of the public.

Such regulations also may permit the regulatory board's use of professional credential verification services.

B. The regulatory boards within the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation shall ensure that applicants who are licensed in accordance with the regulations promulgated pursuant to this section are subject to the same examination requirements as other applicants for initial licensure in a given profession or occupation.

2025, cc. 150, 153.

A. For purposes of this section,

"Another state" or "other state" means any state, territory, possession, or jurisdiction of the United States.

"Neighboring state" means the District of Columbia, Maryland, North Carolina, Kentucky, Tennessee, or West Virginia.

B. Except as provided in subsection D, the regulatory boards within the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation shall, upon application by an individual, recognize licenses or certificates issued by another state as fulfillment of qualifications for licensure or government certification in the Commonwealth if the following conditions are met:

1. The individual holds a current and valid professional or occupational license or government certification in another state in a profession or occupation with a similar scope of practice, as determined by the board in the Commonwealth;

2. The individual has held the professional or occupational license or government certification in the other state for at least three years;

3. The board in the other state or state of original licensure required the individual to pass an examination and to meet certain standards related to education, training, or experience;

4. There are no pending investigations or unresolved complaints against the individual, and the board in the other state holds the individual in good standing;

5. The individual does not have a disqualifying criminal record as determined by the board in the Commonwealth in accordance with § 54.1-204;

6. No board in another state has imposed discipline on the licensee, except for discipline involving only a financial penalty and no harm to the health or economic well-being of the public; and

7. The individual pays all applicable fees.

C. Except as provided in subsection D, the regulatory boards within the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation shall, upon application by an individual, recognize work experience in another state as fulfillment of qualifications for licensure or government certification in the Commonwealth if the following conditions are met:

1. The individual worked in another state that does not use a professional or occupational license or government certification to regulate a profession or occupation, but the Commonwealth uses a professional or occupational license or government certification to regulate a profession or occupation with a similar scope of practice, as determined by the board;

2. The individual has worked in the profession or occupation for at least three years;

3. The individual passes any examination required by the board of applicants for licensure or certification; and

4. The individual satisfies the conditions outlined in subdivisions B 5, 6, and 7.

D. The Real Estate Appraiser Board, the Real Estate Board, the Board for Waste Management Facility Operators, and the Board for Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators and Onsite Sewage System Professionals shall, upon application by an individual, and without examination, immediately recognize the licenses or certificates issued by a neighboring state as fulfillment of qualifications for licensure in the Commonwealth if the following conditions are met:

1. The individual holds a current and valid professional or occupational license or government certification in a neighboring state in a profession or occupation with a similar scope of practice, as determined by the board in the Commonwealth;

2. There are no pending investigations or unresolved complaints against the individual, and the other state holds the individual in good standing;

3. The individual does not have a disqualifying criminal record as determined by the board in accordance with § 54.1-204; and

4. No other state has imposed discipline on the licensee, except for discipline involving only a financial penalty and no harm to the health or economic well-being of the public.

E. The regulatory boards within the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation may require an individual seeking a professional or occupational licensure or government certification pursuant to this section to pass a jurisprudential examination specific to relevant state laws and administrative rules that regulate such profession or occupation if such an examination is required of other applicants for the same license or certification.

F. This section shall not apply to any professional services, as defined in § 2.2-4301.

2023, cc. 2, 3; 2024, c. 157.

Chapter 3. Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation.

As used in this chapter unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Board" means the Board for Professional and Occupational Regulation.

"Certification" means the process whereby the Department or any regulatory board issues a certificate on behalf of the Commonwealth to a person certifying that he possesses the character and minimum skills to engage properly in his profession or occupation.

"Department" means the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation.

"Director" means the Director of the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation.

"Inspection" means a method of regulation whereby a state agency periodically examines the activities and premises of practitioners of an occupation or profession to ascertain if the practitioner is carrying out his profession or occupation in a manner consistent with the public health, safety and welfare.

"Licensure" means a method of regulation whereby the Commonwealth, through the issuance of a license, authorizes a person possessing the character and minimum skills to engage in the practice of a profession or occupation that is unlawful to practice without a license.

"Registration" means a method of regulation whereby any practitioner of a profession or occupation may be required to submit information concerning the location, nature and operation of his practice.

"Regulatory board" means the Auctioneers Board, Board for Architects, Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, Certified Interior Designers and Landscape Architects, Board for Barbers and Cosmetology, Board for Branch Pilots, Board for Contractors, Board for Hearing Aid Specialists and Opticians, Board for Professional Soil Scientists, Wetland Professionals, and Geologists, Board for Waste Management Facility Operators, Board for Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators and Onsite Sewage System Professionals, Cemetery Board, Real Estate Appraiser Board, Real Estate Board, Fair Housing Board, Virginia Board for Asbestos, Lead, and Home Inspectors, and Common Interest Community Board.

1979, c. 408, § 54-1.18; 1980, c. 757; 1981, c. 132; 1982, c. 538; 1983, cc. 115, 322; 1984, cc. 82, 203; 1985, c. 448; 1987, c. 686; 1988, cc. 354, 716, 765; 1990, cc. 459, 466; 1991, c. 551; 1993, c. 499; 1998, c. 27; 1999, c. 950; 2000, c. 726; 2001, cc. 723, 832; 2002, c. 784; 2003, c. 575; 2007, cc. 892, 924; 2009, cc. 358, 557; 2012, cc. 803, 835.

The Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation within the executive branch is hereby continued. The Department shall be headed by a Director who shall be appointed by the Governor, subject to confirmation by the General Assembly, to serve at the pleasure of the Governor for a term coincident with that of the Governor.

1979, c. 408, § 54-1.30; 1984, c. 720; 1988, c. 765; 1993, c. 499.

The Director of the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation shall be responsible for the supervision of the Department under the direction and control of the Governor and shall exercise such other powers and perform such other duties as the Governor requires.

1979, c. 408, § 54-1.31; 1984, c. 720; 1988, c. 765; 1993, c. 499.

The Director shall have the following general powers:

To employ personnel and assistance necessary for the operation of the Department and the purposes of this chapter.

To make and enter into all contracts and agreements necessary or incidental to the performance of the duties of the Department and the execution of its powers under this chapter, including, but not limited to, contracts with the United States, other states, and agencies and governmental subdivisions of the Commonwealth.

To accept grants from the United States government and agencies and instrumentalities thereof and any other source. To these ends, the Department shall have the power to comply with such conditions and execute such agreements as may be necessary, convenient or desirable.

To do all acts necessary or convenient to carry out the purposes of this subtitle.

1979, c. 408, § 54-1.32; 1988, c. 765.

Each of the regulatory boards within the Department shall be a separate board. All of the administrative functions of the regulatory boards shall be under the direction and supervision of the Director.

In the performance and discharge of his duties with respect to the regulatory boards, the Director shall:

1. Be the secretary of each board;

2. Maintain all records for each board;

3. Collect and account for all fees prescribed to be paid into each board and account for and deposit the moneys so collected into a special fund from which the expenses of the Board, regulatory boards and Department shall be paid;

4. Enforce all statutes and regulations the Director is required to administer;

5. Exercise other powers necessary to function as the sole administrative officer of each of such boards; and

6. Perform any additional administrative functions prescribed by the Board.

1979, c. 408, § 54-1.33; 1984, c. 734; 1988, c. 765.

The Director shall be bonded in accordance with § 2.2-1840.

1979, c. 408, § 54-1.34; 1988, c. 765; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 152.

A. The Director or investigators appointed by him shall be sworn to enforce the statutes and regulations pertaining to the Department, the regulatory boards within Subtitle II (§ 54.1-200 et seq.) of this title, and any of the programs which may be in another title of this Code for which any regulatory board within Subtitle II has enforcement responsibility. The Director or investigators appointed by him shall have the authority to investigate violations of the statutes and regulations that the Director is required to enforce. The Director or investigators appointed by him shall also have the authority to issue summonses for violations of the statutes and regulations governing the unlicensed practice of professions regulated by the Department. In the event a person issued such a summons fails or refuses to discontinue the unlawful acts or refuses to give a written promise to appear at the time and place specified in the summons, the investigator may appear before a magistrate or other issuing authority having jurisdiction to obtain a criminal warrant pursuant to § 19.2-72. In addition, sworn criminal investigators of the Department's Criminal Investigations section shall be statewide conservators of the peace while engaged in the performance of their official duties.

B. All investigators appointed by the Director are vested with the authority to administer oaths or affirmations for the purpose of receiving complaints and conducting investigations of violations of this subtitle, or any regulation promulgated pursuant to authority given by this subtitle or in connection with any investigation conducted on behalf of any regulatory board within this subtitle or a program which may be located in another title in this Code. Such investigators are vested with the authority to obtain, serve and execute any warrant, paper or process issued by any court or magistrate or any regulatory board under the authority of the Director and request and receive criminal history information under the provisions of § 19.2-389.

C. Any regulatory board within the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation may adopt a resolution delegating to the sworn investigators appointed by the Director pursuant to § 54.1-306, the authority to conduct inspections. After conducting an inspection pursuant to the delegation of inspection authority, an investigator may initiate an investigation based on any act, omission, or condition witnessed by the investigator and offer a consent agreement to the regulant to resolve any violation discovered during the inspection, subject to the provisions of subsection B of § 54.1-202. If a consent agreement is offered pursuant to the delegation of authority authorized by this subsection, it shall not become effective until approved by the Director.

1979, c. 408, § 54-1.39; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 16; 1991, c. 130; 2002, c. 605; 2005, c. 383.

In addition to the authority granted in § 2.2-4022 to issue subpoenas and the right to issue subpoenas granted the several regulatory boards within the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation, the Director or a designated subordinate shall have the right to make an ex parte application to the circuit court for the city or county wherein evidence sought is kept or wherein a licensee does business, for the issuance of a subpoena duces tecum in furtherance of the investigation of a sworn complaint within the jurisdiction of the Department or a regulatory board to request production of any relevant records, documents and physical or other evidence of any person, partnership, association or corporation licensed or regulated by the Department. The court shall be authorized to issue and compel compliance with such a subpoena upon a showing of reasonable cause. Upon determining that reasonable cause exists to believe that evidence may be destroyed or altered, the court may issue a subpoena duces tecum requiring the immediate production of evidence.

1979, c. 408, § 54-1.40; 1988, c. 765; 1993, c. 499.

A. Except as otherwise provided in § 36-96.9 and subsections B and C of this section, any complaint against a regulant for any violation of statutes or regulations pertaining to the regulatory boards within Subtitle II (§ 54.1-200 et seq.) of this title or any of the programs which may be in another title of the Code for which any regulatory board within Subtitle II has enforcement responsibility, in order to be investigated by the Department, shall be made in writing, or otherwise made in accordance with Department procedures, and received by the Department within three years of the act, omission or occurrence giving rise to the violation. Public information obtained from any source by the Director or agency staff may serve as the basis for a written complaint against a regulant.

B. However, where a regulant has materially and willfully misrepresented, concealed or omitted any information and the information so misrepresented, concealed or omitted is material to the establishment of the violation, the complaint may be made at any time within two years after discovery of the misrepresentation, concealment or omission.

C. In cases where criminal charges have been filed involving matters that, if found to be true, would also constitute a violation of the regulations or laws of the regulant's profession enforced by the Department, an investigation may be initiated by the Department at any time within two years following the date such criminal charges are filed.

D. Nothing in this section shall be construed to require the filing of a complaint if the alleged violation of the statute or regulation is discovered during the conduct of an inspection authorized by law, and the acts, omissions, or conditions constituting the alleged violations are witnessed by a sworn investigator appointed by the Director.

1994, c. 581; 2004, c. 297; 2005, c. 383.

The compensation of the Director and the employees within the Department, including the compensation of the members of each board, shall be paid out of the total funds collected and charged to the accounts of the respective boards. The Director shall maintain a separate account for each board showing the moneys collected on its behalf and the expenses allocated to each board.

1979, c. 408, § 54-1.42; 1988, c. 765.

Interest earned on any cash bond held by the Department on behalf of any regulatory board shall be credited to the Department.

1995, c. 43.

There shall be a Board for Professional and Occupational Regulation within the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation. The Board shall consist of nine members appointed by the Governor, subject to confirmation by the General Assembly. Members shall serve for four-year terms and no member shall serve for more than two full successive terms. The chairman of the Board shall be elected annually by the Board.

The Board shall meet at least once each year and on the call of the chairman when he deems additional meetings necessary.

1979, c. 408, §§ 54-1.23, 54-1.24; 1988, c. 765; 1993, c. 499; 2012, c. 522.

A. The Board shall have the following powers and duties:

1. Provide a means of citizen access to the Department.

2. Provide a means of publicizing the policies and programs of the Department in order to educate the public and elicit public support for Department activities.

3. Monitor the policies and activities of the Department and have the right of access to departmental information.

4. Review and comment on the budget for the Department.

5. Advise the Governor, the General Assembly, and the Director on matters relating to the regulation or deregulation of professions and occupations.

6. Promulgate regulations in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) necessary to carry out its responsibilities.

7. Evaluate each profession and occupation in the Commonwealth not otherwise regulated for consideration as to whether such profession or occupation should be regulated and, if so, the degree of regulation that should be imposed. Whenever it determines that the public interest requires that a profession or occupation which is not regulated by law should be regulated, the Board shall recommend to the General Assembly next convened a regulatory system accompanied by comprehensive regulations necessary to conduct the degree of regulation required.

8. Review each profession and occupation regulated by the Department or regulatory boards within the Department, on a periodic basis, to determine whether it is in the public interest that the Department or appropriate regulatory board should (i) continue to regulate such profession or occupation at its current level of regulation, (ii) regulate such profession or occupation at a different level of regulation, or (iii) no longer regulate such profession or occupation. Whenever the Board determines that it is in the public interest for a profession or occupation to be regulated at a different level of regulation than its current level of regulation or to be deregulated, the Board shall make such recommendation to the General Assembly.

B. Upon the regulation of a profession or occupation as set forth in subsection A, the Board shall have the power and duty to promulgate supplemental regulations necessary to effectuate the purposes and intent of this chapter and to establish regulatory boards to administer the system of regulation and the regulations recommended by the Board and approved by the General Assembly.

1979, c. 408, § 54-1.25; 1984, cc. 720, 734; 1988, c. 765; 2025, cc. 94, 107.

A. Any professional or occupational group or organization, any person, or any other interested party that proposes the regulation of any unregulated professional or occupational group shall submit a request to the Board no later than December 1 of any year for analysis and evaluation during the following year.

B. The Board shall review the request only when filed with a statement of support for the proposed regulation signed by at least 10 members of the professional or occupational group for which regulation is being sought or at least 10 individuals who are not members of the professional or occupational group.

C. The request shall include, at a minimum, the following information:

1. A description of the group proposed for regulation, including a list of associations, organizations, and other groups representing the practitioners in the Commonwealth, and an estimate of the number of practitioners in each group;

2. A definition of the problems to be solved by regulation and the reasons why regulation is necessary;

3. The reasons why registration, certification, licensure, or other type of regulation is being proposed and why that regulatory alternative was chosen;

4. The benefit to the public that would result from the proposed regulation;

5. The cost of the proposed regulation; and

6. A description of any anticipated disqualifications on an applicant for certification, licensure, or renewal and how such disqualifications serve public safety or commercial or consumer protection interests.

D. Upon receipt of a request submitted in accordance with the requirements of subsection C, the Board shall conduct an analysis and evaluation of any proposed regulation based on the criteria enumerated in § 54.1-311.

E. The Board may decline to conduct a review only if it:

1. Previously conducted an analysis and evaluation of the proposed regulation of the same professional or occupational group;

2. Issued a report not more than three years prior to the submission of the current proposal to regulate the same professional or occupational group; and

3. Finds that no new information has been submitted in the request that would cause the Board to alter or modify the recommendations made in its earlier report on the proposed regulation of the professional or occupational group.

F. The Board shall submit a report with its findings on whether the public interest requires the requested professional or occupational group be regulated to the House Committee on General Laws, the Senate Committee on General Laws and Technology, and the Joint Commission on Administrative Rules no later than November 1 of the year following the request submission.

2016, c. 467.

A. Whenever the Board determines that a particular profession or occupation should be regulated, or that a different degree of regulation should be imposed on a regulated profession or occupation, it shall consider the following degrees of regulation in the order provided in subdivisions 1 through 5. The Board shall regulate only to the degree necessary to fulfill the need for regulation and only upon approval by the General Assembly.

1. Private civil actions and criminal prosecutions. -- Whenever existing common law and statutory causes of civil action or criminal prohibitions are not sufficient to eradicate existing harm or prevent potential harm, the Board may first consider the recommendation of statutory change to provide more strict causes for civil action and criminal prosecution.

2. Inspection and injunction. -- Whenever current inspection and injunction procedures are not sufficient to eradicate existing harm, the Board may promulgate regulations consistent with the intent of this chapter to provide more adequate inspection procedures and to specify procedures whereby the appropriate regulatory board may enjoin an activity which is detrimental to the public well-being. The Board may recommend to the appropriate agency of the Commonwealth that such procedures be strengthened or it may recommend statutory changes in order to grant to the appropriate state agency the power to provide sufficient inspection and injunction procedures.

3. Registration. -- Whenever it is necessary to determine the impact of the operation of a profession or occupation on the public, the Board may implement a system of registration.

4. Certification. -- When the public requires a substantial basis for relying on the professional services of a practitioner, the Board may implement a system of certification.

5. Licensing. -- Whenever adequate regulation cannot be achieved by means other than licensing, the Board may establish licensing procedures for any particular profession or occupation.

B. In determining the proper degree of regulation, if any, the Board shall determine the following:

1. Whether the practitioner, if unregulated, performs a service for individuals involving a hazard to the public health, safety or welfare.

2. The opinion of a substantial portion of the people who do not practice the particular profession, trade or occupation on the need for regulation.

3. The number of states which have regulatory provisions similar to those proposed.

4. Whether there is sufficient demand for the service for which there is no regulated substitute and this service is required by a substantial portion of the population.

5. Whether the profession or occupation requires high standards of public responsibility, character and performance of each individual engaged in the profession or occupation, as evidenced by established and published codes of ethics.

6. Whether the profession or occupation requires such skill that the public generally is not qualified to select a competent practitioner without some assurance that he has met minimum qualifications.

7. Whether the professional or occupational associations do not adequately protect the public from incompetent, unscrupulous or irresponsible members of the profession or occupation.

8. Whether current laws which pertain to public health, safety and welfare generally are ineffective or inadequate.

9. Whether the characteristics of the profession or occupation make it impractical or impossible to prohibit those practices of the profession or occupation which are detrimental to the public health, safety and welfare.

10. Whether the practitioner performs a service for others which may have a detrimental effect on third parties relying on the expert knowledge of the practitioner.

1979, c. 408, § 54-1.26; 1988, c. 765.

Chapter 4. Architects, Engineers, Surveyors, Landscape Architects and Interior Designers.

Article 1. Architects, Engineers, Surveyors and Landscape Architects.

As used in this chapter unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Architect" means a person who, by reason of his knowledge of the mathematical and physical sciences, and the principles of architecture and architectural design, acquired by professional education, practical experience, or both, is qualified to engage in the practice of architecture and whose competence has been attested by the Board through licensure as an architect.

The "practice of architecture" means any service wherein the principles and methods of architecture are applied, such as consultation, investigation, evaluation, planning and design, and includes the responsible administration of construction contracts, in connection with any private or public buildings, structures or projects, or the related equipment or accessories.

"Board" means the Board for Architects, Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, Certified Interior Designers and Landscape Architects.

"Certified interior designer" means a design professional who meets the criteria of education, experience, and testing in the rendering of interior design services established by the Board through certification as an interior designer.

"Improvements to real property" means any valuable addition or amelioration made to land and generally whatever is erected on or affixed to land which is intended to enhance its value, beauty or utility, or adapt it to new or further purposes. Examples of improvements to real property include, but are not limited to, structures, buildings, machinery, equipment, electrical systems, mechanical systems, roads, and water and wastewater treatment and distribution systems.

"Interior design" by a certified interior designer means any service rendered wherein the principles and methodology of interior design are applied in connection with the identification, research, and creative solution of problems pertaining to the function and quality of the interior environment. Such services relative to interior spaces shall include the preparation of documents for nonload-bearing interior construction, furnishings, fixtures, and equipment in order to enhance and protect the health, safety, and welfare of the public.

"Land surveyor" means a person who, by reason of his knowledge of the several sciences and of the principles of land surveying, and of the planning and design of land developments acquired by practical experience and formal education, is qualified to engage in the practice of land surveying, and whose competence has been attested by the Board through licensure as a land surveyor.

The "practice of land surveying" includes surveying of areas for a determination or correction, a description, the establishment or reestablishment of internal and external land boundaries, or the determination of topography, contours or location of physical improvements, and also includes the planning of land and subdivisions thereof. The term "planning of land and subdivisions thereof" shall include, but not be limited to, the preparation of incidental plans and profiles for roads, streets and sidewalks, grading, drainage on the surface, culverts and erosion control measures, with reference to existing state or local standards.

"Landscape architect" means a person who, by reason of his special knowledge of natural, physical and mathematical sciences, and the principles and methodology of landscape architecture and landscape architectural design acquired by professional education, practical experience, or both, is qualified to engage in the practice of landscape architecture and whose competence has been attested by the Board through licensure as a landscape architect.

The "practice of landscape architecture" by a licensed landscape architect means any service wherein the principles and methodology of landscape architecture are applied in consultation, evaluation, planning (including the preparation and filing of sketches, drawings, plans and specifications) and responsible supervision or administration of contracts relative to projects principally directed at the functional and aesthetic use of land.

"Professional engineer" means a person who is qualified to practice engineering by reason of his special knowledge and use of mathematical, physical and engineering sciences and the principles and methods of engineering analysis and design acquired by engineering education and experience, and whose competence has been attested by the Board through licensure as a professional engineer.

The "practice of engineering" means any service wherein the principles and methods of engineering are applied to, but are not necessarily limited to, the following areas: consultation, investigation, evaluation, planning and design of public or private utilities, structures, machines, equipment, processes, transportation systems and work systems, including responsible administration of construction contracts. The term "practice of engineering" shall not include the service or maintenance of existing electrical or mechanical systems.

"Residential wastewater" means sewage (i) generated by residential or accessory uses, not containing storm water or industrial influent, and having no other toxic, or hazardous constituents not routinely found in residential wastewater flows, or (ii) as certified by a professional engineer.

"Responsible charge" means the direct control and supervision of the practice of architecture, professional engineering, landscape architecture, or land surveying.

1970, c. 671, § 54-17.1; 1974, c. 534; 1980, c. 757; 1982, c. 590; 1984, c. 437; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 512; 1992, cc. 780, 783; 1998, c. 27; 2008, c. 68; 2009, c. 309.

The following shall be exempted from the provisions of this chapter:

1. Practice of professional engineering and land surveying by a licensed architect when such practice is incidental to what may be properly considered an architectural undertaking.

2. Practice of architecture and land surveying by a licensed professional engineer when such practice is incidental to an engineering project.

3. Practice as a professional engineer, architect or landscape architect in this Commonwealth by any person not a resident of and having no established place of business in this Commonwealth, or by any person resident in this Commonwealth whose arrival is recent, provided that such person is otherwise qualified for such professional service in another state or country and qualifies in Virginia and files prior to commencement of such practice an application, with the required fee, for licensure as a professional engineer, architect or landscape architect. The exemption shall continue until the Board has had sufficient time to consider the application and grant or deny licensure or certification.

4. Engaging in the practice of professional engineering as an employee under a licensed professional engineer, engaging in the practice of architecture as an employee under a licensed architect, engaging in the practice of landscape architecture as an employee under a licensed landscape architect, or engaging in the practice of land surveying as an employee under a licensed land surveyor; provided, that such practice shall not include responsible charge of design or supervision.

5. Practice of professional engineering, architecture, landscape architecture, or land surveying solely as an employee of the United States. However, the employee shall not be exempt from other provisions of this chapter if he furnishes advisory service for compensation to the public in connection with engineering, architectural, landscape architecture, or land surveying matters.

6. Practice of architecture or professional engineering by an individual, firm or corporation on property owned or leased by such individual, firm or corporation, unless the public health or safety is involved.

7. Except as provided by regulations promulgated by the State Corporation Commission pursuant to § 56-257.2:1, the practice of engineering solely as an employee of a corporation engaged in interstate commerce, or as an employee of a public service corporation, by rendering such corporation engineering service in connection with its facilities which are subject to regulation by the State Corporation Commission, provided that corporation employees who furnish advisory service to the public in connection with engineering matters other than in connection with such employment shall not be exempt from the provisions of this chapter.

Code 1950, § 54-37; 1968, c. 77; 1980, c. 757; 1988, c. 765; 1992, cc. 595, 780, 783; 2009, c. 309; 2020, c. 822.

A. No license as an architect or professional engineer shall be required pursuant to § 54.1-406 for persons who prepare plans, specifications, documents and designs for the following, provided any such plans, specifications, documents or designs bear the name and address of the author and his occupation:

1. Single- and two-family homes, townhouses and multifamily dwellings, excluding electrical and mechanical systems, not exceeding three stories; or

2. All farm structures used primarily in the production, handling or storage of agricultural products or implements, including, but not limited to, structures used for the handling, processing, housing or storage of crops, feeds, supplies, equipment, animals or poultry; or

3. Buildings and structures classified with respect to use as business (Use Group B) and mercantile (Use Group M), as provided in the Uniform Statewide Building Code and churches with an occupant load of 100 or less, excluding electrical and mechanical systems, where such building or structure does not exceed 5,000 square feet in total net floor area, or three stories; or

4. Buildings and structures classified with respect to use as factory and industrial (Use Group F) and storage (Use Group S) as provided in the Uniform Statewide Building Code, excluding electrical and mechanical systems, where such building or structure does not exceed 15,000 square feet in total net floor area, or three stories; or

5. Additions, remodeling or interior design without a change in occupancy or occupancy load and without modification to the structural system or a change in access or exit patterns or increase in fire hazard; or

6. Electric installations which comply with all applicable codes and which do not exceed 600 volts and 800 amps, where work is designed and performed under the direct supervision of a person licensed as a master's level electrician or Class A electrical contractor by written examination, and where such installation is not contained in any structure exceeding three stories or located in any of the following categories:

a. Use Group A-1 theaters which exceed assembly of 100 persons;

b. Use Group A-4 except churches;

c. Use Group I, institutional buildings, except day care nurseries and clinics without life-support systems; or

7. Plumbing and mechanical systems using packaged mechanical equipment, such as equipment of catalogued standard design which has been coordinated and tested by the manufacturer, which comply with all applicable codes. These mechanical systems shall not exceed gauge pressures of 125 pounds per square inch, other than refrigeration, or temperatures other than flue gas of 300 degrees F (150 degrees C) where such work is designed and performed under the direct supervision of a person licensed as a master's level plumber, master's level heating, air conditioning and ventilating worker, or Class A contractor in those specialties by written examination. In addition, such installation may not be contained in any structure exceeding three stories or located in any structure which is defined as to its use in any of the following categories:

a. Use Group A-1 theaters which exceed assembly of 100 persons;

b. Use Group A-4 except churches;

c. Use Group I, institutional buildings, except day care nurseries and clinics without life-support systems; or

8. The preparation of shop drawings, field drawings and specifications for components by a contractor who will supervise the installation and where the shop drawings and specifications (i) will be reviewed by the licensed professional engineer or architect responsible for the project or (ii) are otherwise exempted; or

9. Buildings, structures, or electrical and mechanical installations which are not otherwise exempted but which are of standard design, provided they bear the certification of a professional engineer or architect registered or licensed in another state, and provided that the design is adapted for the specific location and for conformity with local codes, ordinances and regulations, and is so certified by a professional engineer or architect licensed in Virginia; or

10. Construction by a state agency or political subdivision not exceeding $75,000 in value keyed to the January 1, 1991, Consumer Price Index (CPI) and not otherwise requiring a licensed architect, engineer, or land surveyor by an adopted code and maintenance by that state agency or political subdivision of water distribution, sewage collection, storm drainage systems, sidewalks, streets, curbs, gutters, culverts, and other facilities normally and customarily constructed and maintained by the public works department of the state agency or political subdivision; or

11. Conventional and alternative onsite sewage systems receiving residential wastewater, under the authority of Chapter 6 of Title 32.1, designed by a licensed onsite soil evaluator, which utilize packaged equipment, such as equipment of catalogued standard design that has been coordinated and tested by the manufacturer, and complies with all applicable codes, provided (i) the flow is less than 1,000 gallons per day; and (ii) if a pump is included, (a) it shall not include multiple downhill runs and must terminate at a positive elevational change; (b) the discharge end is open and not pressurized; (c) the static head does not exceed 50 feet; and (d) the force main length does not exceed 500 feet.

B. No person shall be exempt from licensure as an architect or engineer who engages in the preparation of plans, specifications, documents or designs for:

1. Any unique design of structural elements for floors, walls, roofs or foundations; or

2. Any building or structure classified with respect to its use as high hazard (Use Group H).

C. Persons utilizing photogrammetric methods or similar remote sensing technology shall not be required to be licensed as a land surveyor pursuant to subsection B of § 54.1-404 or 54.1-406 to: (i) determine topography or contours, or to depict physical improvements, provided such maps or other documents shall not be used for the design, modification, or construction of improvements to real property or for flood plain determination, or (ii) graphically show existing property lines and boundaries on maps or other documents provided such depicted property lines and boundaries shall only be used for general information.

Any determination of topography or contours, or depiction of physical improvements, utilizing photogrammetric methods or similar remote sensing technology by persons not licensed as a land surveyor pursuant to § 54.1-406 shall not show any property monumentation or property metes and bounds, nor provide any measurement showing the relationship of any physical improvements to any property line or boundary.

Any person not licensed pursuant to subsection B of § 54.1-404 or 54.1-406 preparing documentation pursuant to subsection C of § 54.1-402 shall note the following on such documentation: "Any determination of topography or contours, or any depiction of physical improvements, property lines or boundaries is for general information only and shall not be used for the design, modification, or construction of improvements to real property or for flood plain determination."

D. Terms used in this section, and not otherwise defined in this chapter, shall have the meanings provided in the Uniform Statewide Building Code in effect on July 1, 1982, including any subsequent amendments.

1982, c. 590, § 54-37.1; 1988, cc. 294, 765; 1992, cc. 780, 783; 2005, cc. 359, 440; 2008, c. 68.

Any person engaged in the practice of engineering, architecture, or land surveying as those terms are defined in § 54.1-400 as a regular, full-time, salaried employee of the Commonwealth or any political subdivision of the Commonwealth on March 8, 1992, who remains employed by any state agency or political subdivision shall be exempt until June 30, 2010, from the licensure requirements of § 54.1-406 provided the employee does not furnish advisory service for compensation to the public or as an independent contracting party in this Commonwealth or any political subdivision thereof in connection with engineering, architectural, or land surveying matters. The chief administrative officer of any agency of the Commonwealth or political subdivision thereof employing persons engaged in the practice of engineering, architecture, or land surveying as regular, full-time, salaried employees shall have the authority and responsibility to determine the engineering, architecture, and land surveying positions which have responsible charge of engineering, architectural, or land surveying decisions.

1992, cc. 780, 783; 1994, c. 379.

A. Notwithstanding § 54.1-111, the Board may issue an order requiring any person to cease and desist from (i) practicing or offering to practice as an architect, professional engineer, land surveyor, or landscape architect when such person is not licensed or registered by the Board in accordance with this chapter or (ii) holding himself out as a certified interior designer when such person is not certified or registered by the Board in accordance with this chapter. The order shall be effective upon its entry and shall become final unless such person files an appeal with the Board in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) within 21 days of the date of entry of the order.

B. If the person fails to cease and desist the unlicensed, uncertified, or unregistered activity after entry of an order in accordance with subsection A, the Board may refer the matter for enforcement pursuant to § 54.1-306.

C. Any person engaging in unlicensed, uncertified, or unregistered activity shall be subject to further proceedings before the Board and the Board may impose a civil penalty not to exceed $2,500. Any penalties collected under this section shall be paid to the Literary Fund after deduction of the administrative costs of the Board in furtherance of this section.

D. Nothing contained in this section shall apply to any person engaged in activity exempted from the provisions of this chapter.

2007, c. 618; 2009, c. 309.

This section has more than one version with varying effective dates. To view a complete list of the versions of this section see Table of Contents.

The Board for Architects, Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, Certified Interior Designers and Landscape Architects shall be composed of 15 members as follows: three architects, three professional engineers, three land surveyors, two landscape architects, two certified interior designers, and two nonlegislative citizen members.

Except for the nonlegislative citizen members appointed in accordance with § 54.1-107, Board members shall have actively practiced or taught their professions for at least 10 years prior to their appointments. The terms of Board members shall be four years.

The Board shall elect a president and vice-president from its membership.

Nine Board members, consisting of at least one engineer, one architect, one land surveyor, one landscape architect, one interior designer, and one nonlegislative citizen member, shall constitute a quorum.

Code 1950, §§ 54-19, 54-22, 54-23; 1980, c. 757, § 54-18.1; 1981, c. 447; 1988, cc. 42, 765; 1990, c. 512; 1991, c. 291; 1998, c. 27; 2009, c. 309; 2010, c. 91; 2018, c. 824; 2024, c. 383.

This section has more than one version with varying effective dates. To view a complete list of the versions of this section see Table of Contents.

The Board for Architects, Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, Certified Interior Designers and Landscape Architects shall be composed of 15 members as follows: three architects, three professional engineers, three land surveyors, two landscape architects, two certified interior designers, and two nonlegislative citizen members.

Except for the nonlegislative citizen members appointed in accordance with § 54.1-107, Board members shall have actively practiced or taught their professions for at least 10 years prior to their appointments. The terms of Board members shall be four years.

The Board shall elect a president and vice-president from its membership.

Nine Board members, consisting of two engineers, two architects, two land surveyors, one landscape architect, one interior designer and one nonlegislative citizen member, shall constitute a quorum.

Code 1950, §§ 54-19, 54-22, 54-23; 1980, c. 757, § 54-18.1; 1981, c. 447; 1988, cc. 42, 765; 1990, c. 512; 1991, c. 291; 1998, c. 27; 2009, c. 309; 2010, c. 91; 2018, c. 824.

A. The Board shall promulgate regulations not inconsistent with this chapter governing its own organization, the professional qualifications of applicants, the requirements necessary for passing examinations in whole or in part, the proper conduct of its examinations, the implementation of exemptions from license requirements, and the proper discharge of its duties.

B. The Board may impose different licensure requirements for a limited area of the practice of land surveying for persons who determine topography, contours, or depiction of physical improvements utilizing photogrammetric methods or similar remote sensing technology who are not otherwise exempt pursuant to subsection C of § 54.1-402. Any such requirements shall include reasonable provisions for licensure without examination of persons deemed by the Board to be qualified to provide photogrammetric and remote sensing surveying services.

Any license issued pursuant to this subsection shall be distinctive, reflecting the limited area of the practice of land surveying so authorized, and considered as a land surveyor and the practice of land surveying for the purposes of §§ 13.1-549, 13.1-1111, 54.1-402, 54.1-405, 54.1-406 and 54.1-411. Nothing herein shall be construed to authorize a person issued a limited license pursuant to this subsection to practice beyond such limited area of practice. The establishment of any such limited license shall not prohibit any duly qualified land surveyor licensed pursuant to § 54.1-400 from engaging in any such limited area of practice.

C. The regulations may include a code of professional practice and conduct, the provisions of which shall serve any or all of the following purposes:

1. The protection of the public health, safety and welfare;

2. The maintenance of standards of objectivity, truthfulness and reliability in public statements by professionals;

3. The avoidance by professionals of conflicts of interests;

4. The prohibition of solicitation or acceptance of work by professionals on any basis other than their qualifications for the work offered;

5. The restriction by the professional in the conduct of his professional activity from association with any person engaging in illegal or dishonest activities; or

6. The limitation of professional service to the area of competence of each professional.

Code 1950, § 54-25; 1974, c. 459; 1982, c. 590; 1988, c. 765; 2005, cc. 359, 440.

Repealed by Acts 2010, c. 91, cl. 2.

A. The Board shall promulgate regulations governing continuing education requirements for architects, professional engineers, land surveyors, and landscape architects licensed by the Board. Such regulations shall require the completion of the equivalent of 16 hours per biennium of Board-approved continuing education activities as a prerequisite to the renewal or reinstatement of a license issued to an architect, professional engineer, land surveyor, or landscape architect. The Board shall establish criteria for continuing education activities including, but not limited to (i) content and subject matter; (ii) curriculum; (iii) standards and procedures for the approval of activities, courses, sponsors, and instructors; (iv) methods of instruction for continuing education courses; and (v) the computation of course credit.

B. The Board may grant exemptions or waive or reduce the number of continuing education hours required in cases of certified illness or undue hardship.

2006, c. 683; 2009, c. 309.

This section has more than one version with varying effective dates. To view a complete list of the versions of this section see Table of Contents.

A. The Board shall hold at least one examination each year at times and locations designated by the Board. A license to practice as a professional engineer, an architect, a land surveyor, or a landscape architect shall be issued to every applicant who complies with the requirements of this chapter and the regulations of the Board. A license shall be valid during the life of the holder unless revoked or suspended by the Board. A license holder must register with the Board to practice in the Commonwealth.

B. Notwithstanding the provisions of § 54.1-111, a license holder who has retired from practice may use the designation granted by such license, followed by the word "emeritus," without possessing a current registration from the Board provided (i) the license has not been revoked or suspended by the Board and (ii) the license holder does not practice or offer to practice architecture, engineering, land surveying, or landscape architecture.

Code 1950, § 54-26; 1974, c. 534; 1980, c. 757; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 613; 1994, c. 29; 2009, c. 309; 2010, c. 612; 2024, c. 383.

This section has more than one version with varying effective dates. To view a complete list of the versions of this section see Table of Contents.

A. The Board shall hold at least one examination each year at times and locations designated by the Board. A license to practice as a professional engineer, an architect, a land surveyor, or a landscape architect shall be issued to every applicant who complies with the requirements of this chapter and the regulations of the Board. A license shall be valid during the life of the holder unless revoked or suspended by the Board. A license holder must register with the Board to practice in the Commonwealth. The licenses shall be signed by at least four members of the Board.

B. Notwithstanding the provisions of § 54.1-111, a license holder who has retired from practice may use the designation granted by such license, followed by the word "emeritus," without possessing a current registration from the Board provided (i) the license has not been revoked or suspended by the Board and (ii) the license holder does not practice or offer to practice architecture, engineering, land surveying, or landscape architecture.

Code 1950, § 54-26; 1974, c. 534; 1980, c. 757; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 613; 1994, c. 29; 2009, c. 309; 2010, c. 612.

A. The Board shall adopt regulations establishing work and education experience equivalencies that shall provide an alternative to the requirement of a professional degree in architecture from a program accredited by the National Architectural Accrediting Board (NAAB) pursuant to 18VAC10-20-110. In establishing an alternative pathway to a NAAB-accredited degree, the Board shall require a minimum of 10 years of qualifying work experience, education experience, or combination of work and education experience.

B. In establishing qualifying work and education experience under this section, the Board shall adopt regulations establishing a credit system to account for varying degrees of work and education experience and such credit system shall be based on the applicability of such work or education experience to the practice of architecture.

C. The Board shall develop requirements for applicants seeking licensure to certify work and education experience on an annual basis.

2025, cc. 534, 541.

A. Unless exempted by § 54.1-401, 54.1-402, or 54.1-402.1, a person shall hold a valid license prior to engaging in the practice of architecture or engineering which includes design, consultation, evaluation or analysis and involves proposed or existing improvements to real property.

Unless exempted by § 54.1-401, 54.1-402, or 54.1-402.1, a person shall hold a valid license prior to engaging in the practice of land surveying.

B. Unless exempted by § 54.1-402, any person, partnership, corporation or other entity offering to practice architecture, engineering, or land surveying without being registered or licensed in accordance with the provisions of this chapter, shall be subject to the provisions of § 54.1-111 of this title.

C. Any person, partnership, corporation or other entity which is not licensed or registered to practice in accordance with this chapter and which advertises or promotes through the use of the words "architecture," "engineering" or "land surveying" or any modification or derivative thereof in its name or description of its business activity in a manner that indicates or implies that it practices or offers to practice architecture, engineering or land surveying as defined in this chapter shall be subject to the provisions of § 54.1-111.

D. Notwithstanding these provisions, any state agency or political subdivision of the Commonwealth unable to employ a qualified licensed engineer, architect, or land surveyor to fill a responsible charge position, after reasonable and unsuccessful search, may fill the position with an unlicensed person upon the determination by the chief administrative officer of the agency or political subdivision that the person, by virtue of education, experience, and expertise, can perform the work required of the position.

E. Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, a contractor who is licensed pursuant to the provisions of Chapter 11 (§ 54.1-1100 et seq.) of this title shall not be required to be licensed or registered to practice in accordance with this chapter when bidding upon or negotiating design-build contracts or performing services other than architectural, engineering or land surveying services under a design-build contract. The architectural, engineering or land surveying services offered or rendered in connection with such contracts shall only be rendered by an architect, professional engineer or land surveyor licensed in accordance with this chapter.

1979, c. 408, § 54-26.1; 1982, c. 590; 1984, c. 470; 1988, c. 765; 1992, cc. 780, 783; 1994, c. 784; 1996, c. 329; 2004, c. 191; 2005, cc. 359, 440; 2010, c. 91.

Notwithstanding the provisions of any regulation promulgated by the Board for Architects, Professional Engineers, Land Surveyors, Certified Interior Designers and Landscape Architects, a land surveyor shall not be required by Board regulations to set corner monumentation or perform a boundary survey on any property when (i) corner monumentation has been set or is otherwise required to be set pursuant to the provisions of a local subdivision ordinance as mandated by § 15.2-2240 or subdivision 7 of § 15.2-2241, or where the placing of such monumentation is covered by a surety bond, cash escrow, set-aside letter, letter of credit, or other performance guaranty, or (ii) the purpose of the survey is to determine the location of the physical improvements on the said property only, if the prospective mortgagor or legal agent ordering the survey agrees in writing that such corner monumentation shall not be provided in connection with any such physical improvements survey. The provisions of this section shall apply only to property located within the Counties of Arlington, Fairfax, King George, Loudoun, Prince William, Spotsylvania and Stafford; and the Cities of Alexandria, Fairfax, Falls Church, Fredericksburg, Manassas and Manassas Park.

1986, c. 531, § 54-25.1; 1988, cc. 271, 765; 1998, c. 27.

In addition to the work defined in § 54.1-400, a land surveyor may, for subdivisions, site plans and plans of development only, prepare plats, plans and profiles for roads, storm drainage systems, sanitary sewer extensions, and water line extensions, and may perform other engineering incidental to such work, but excluding the design of pressure hydraulic, structural, mechanical, and electrical systems. The work included in this section shall involve the use and application of standards prescribed by local or state authorities. The land surveyor shall pass an examination given by the Board in addition to that required for the licensing of land surveyors as defined in § 54.1-400. Any land surveyor previously licensed pursuant to subdivision (3) (b) of former § 54-17.1 may continue to do the work herein described without further examination.

Except as provided, nothing contained herein or in the definition of "practice of land surveying" in § 54.1-400 shall be construed to include engineering design and the preparation of plans and specifications for construction.

1970, c. 671, § 54-17.1; 1974, c. 534; 1980, c. 757; 1982, c. 590; 1984, c. 437; 1988, c. 765.

A. Beginning July 1, 2010, a person who engages in the practice of landscape architecture as defined in § 54.1-400 and who holds himself out as a landscape architect shall hold a valid license prior to engaging in such practice. Resulting site plans, plans of development, preliminary plats, drawings, technical reports, and specifications, submitted under the seal, stamp or certification of a licensed landscape architect, shall be accepted for review by local and state authorities, in connection with both public and private projects. However, no landscape architect, unless he is also licensed as a land surveyor, shall provide boundary surveys, plats or descriptions for any purpose, except in conjunction with or under the supervision of an appropriately licensed professional, who shall provide certification, as required. Landscape architects shall only engage in projects which they are qualified to undertake based on education, training, and examination and in accordance with the practice of landscape architecture as defined in § 54.1-400.

Any person who (i) holds a valid certification as a landscape architect issued by the Board on June 30, 2010, and (ii) is a Virginia-certified landscape architect in good standing with the Board, shall be licensed to practice landscape architecture as of July 1, 2010.

B. Nothing contained herein or in the definition of "practice of landscape architecture" or in the definition of "landscape architect" in § 54.1-400 shall be construed to restrict or otherwise affect the right of any architect, professional engineer, land surveyor, nurseryman, landscape designer, landscape contractor, land planner, community planner, landscape gardener, golf course designer, turf maintenance specialist, irrigation designer, horticulturist, arborist, or any other similar person from engaging in their occupation or the practice of their profession or from rendering any service in connection therewith that is not otherwise proscribed.

C. Any person, partnership, corporation, or other entity that is not licensed to practice landscape architecture in accordance with the provisions of this chapter and that advertises or promotes through the use of the words "landscape architecture" or any modification or derivation thereof in its name or description of its business activity in a manner that indicates or implies that it practices or offers to practice landscape architecture as defined in this chapter shall be subject to the provisions of § 54.1-111. Nothing contained herein or in the definitions of "landscape architect" or "practice of landscape architecture" in § 54.1-400 shall be construed to restrict or otherwise affect the right of any person undertaking the occupations or professions referred in subsection B of this section to engage in their occupation, or the practice of their profession, or from rendering any service in connection therewith that is not otherwise proscribed.

D. Any person, partnership, corporation, or other entity offering to practice landscape architecture without being registered or licensed to practice landscape architecture in accordance with the provisions of this chapter, shall be subject to the provisions of § 54.1-111. Nothing contained herein or in the definitions of "landscape architect" and "practice of landscape architecture" in § 54.1-400 shall be construed to restrict or otherwise affect the right of any person undertaking the occupations or professions referenced in subsection B of this section to engage in their occupation, or the practice of their profession, or from rendering any service in connection therewith that is not otherwise proscribed.

1970, c. 671, § 54-17.1; 1974, c. 534; 1980, c. 757; 1982, c. 590; 1984, c. 437; 1988, c. 765; 2000, c. 990; 2006, c. 643; 2009, c. 309.

A. Nothing contained in this chapter or in the regulations of the Board shall be construed to limit the authority of any public official authorized by law to approve plans, specifications or calculations in connection with improvements to real property. This shall include, but shall not be limited to, the authority of officials of local building departments as defined in § 36-97, to require pursuant to the Uniform Statewide Building Code, state statutes, local ordinances, or code requirements that such work be prepared by a person licensed or certified pursuant to this chapter.

B. Any public body authorized by law to require that plans, specifications or calculations be prepared in connection with improvements to real property shall establish a procedure to ensure that such plans, specifications or calculations be prepared by an architect, professional engineer, land surveyor or landscape architect licensed or authorized pursuant to this chapter in any case in which the exemptions contained in §§ 54.1-401, 54.1-402 or § 54.1-402.1 are not applicable.

Drafting of permits, reviewing of plans or inspection of facilities for compliance with an adopted code or standard by any public body or its designated agent shall not require the services of an architect, professional engineer, land surveyor or landscape architect licensed pursuant to this chapter.

1982, c. 590, § 54-37.2; 1988, c. 765; 1992, cc. 780, 783; 1993, c. 662; 2009, c. 309.

Any architect or professional engineer applying for or renewing a business license in any locality in accordance with Chapter 37 (§ 58.1-3700 et seq.) of Title 58.1 shall furnish prior to the issuance or renewal of such license either (i) satisfactory proof that he is duly licensed under the terms of this chapter or (ii) a written statement, supported by an affidavit, that he is not subject to licensure as an architect or professional engineer pursuant to this chapter.

No locality shall issue or renew or allow the issuance or renewal of such license unless the architect or professional engineer has furnished his license number issued pursuant to this chapter or evidence of being exempt from the provisions of this chapter.

2011, c. 79.

A. Nothing contained in this chapter or in the regulations of the Board shall prohibit the practice of architecture, engineering, land surveying, landscape architecture or the offering of the title of certified interior designer by any corporation, partnership, sole proprietorship, limited liability company, or other entity provided such practice or certification is rendered through its officers, principals or employees who are correspondingly licensed or certified. No individual practicing architecture, engineering, land surveying, landscape architecture, or offering the title of certified interior designer under the provisions of this section shall be relieved of responsibility that may exist for services performed by reason of his employment or other relationship with such entity. No such corporation, partnership, sole proprietorship, limited liability company, or other entity, or any affiliate thereof, shall, on its behalf or on behalf of any such licensee or certificate holder, nor any licensee or certificate holder, be prohibited from (i) purchasing or maintaining insurance against any such liability; (ii) entering into any indemnification agreement with respect to any such liability; (iii) receiving indemnification as a result of any such liability; or (iv) limiting liability through contract.

B. Except for professional corporations holding a certificate of authority issued in accordance with § 13.1-549, professional limited liability companies holding a certificate of authority issued in accordance with § 13.1-1111, and sole proprietorships that do not employ other individuals for which licensing is required, any person, corporation, partnership, limited liability company, or other entity offering or rendering the practice of architecture, engineering, land surveying, landscape architecture or offering the title of certified interior designer shall register with the Board. As a condition of registration, the entity shall name at least one licensed architect, professional engineer, land surveyor, landscape architect or certified interior designer for such profession offered or rendered. The person or persons named shall be responsible and have control of the regulated services rendered by the entity.

C. The Board shall adopt regulations governing the registration of persons, corporations, partnerships, limited liability companies, sole proprietors and other entities as required in subsections A and B which:

1. Provide for procedural requirements to obtain and renew registration on a periodic basis;

2. Establish fees for the application and renewal of registration sufficient to cover costs;

3. Assure that regulated services are rendered and controlled by persons authorized to do so; and

4. Ensure that conflicts of interests are disclosed.

1982, c. 590, § 54-37.3; 1983, c. 28; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 574; 2000, c. 763; 2009, c. 309; 2010, cc. 99, 206.

Article 2. Interior Designers.

This chapter shall not be construed to restrict or otherwise affect the right of any uncertified interior designer, architect, engineer, or any other person from rendering any of the services which constitute the practice of interior design; however, no person may hold himself out as, or use the title of, "certified interior designer" unless he has been so certified pursuant to the provisions of this chapter.

1990, c. 512.

At least once each year the Board shall arrange for the National Council for Interior Design Qualification examination or an equivalent examination approved by the Board to be given to qualified applicants for certification as interior designers.

1990, c. 512; 1991, c. 291.

The Board shall issue a certification to practice as a certified interior designer in the Commonwealth to every applicant who shall have complied with the requirements of this chapter and the regulations of the Board. The certificates shall be signed by at least three members of the Board.

The Board shall certify any person who is a graduate of a minimum four-year professional degree program accredited by the Foundation for Interior Design Education Research, an equivalent accrediting organization or a professional program approved by the Board and who has two years of monitored experience in the performance of interior design services and who has taken and passed the examination for certification as a certified interior designer.

The Board, in its discretion, shall determine whether an applicant's professional education and professional experience in the field of interior design are sufficient to establish eligibility for the examination.

The Board, in lieu of all examinations, may accept satisfactory evidence of licensing or certification in another state or country or the District of Columbia where (i) the qualifications for such licensure or certification are equal, in the opinion of the Board, to the qualifications required by the provisions of this chapter as of the date of application and (ii) the applicant is the holder of a license or certificate in good standing. Upon receipt of such satisfactory evidence and provided all other such requirements of this chapter are complied with, a certificate shall be issued to such applicant.

1990, c. 512; 1991, c. 291; 1994, c. 625; 2000, c. 42.

Repealed by Acts 2000, c. 42, cl. 2.

Chapter 5. Asbestos, Lead, and Home Inspection Contractors and Workers.

Article 1. General Provisions.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Accredited asbestos training program" means a training program that has been approved by the Board to provide training for individuals to engage in asbestos abatement, conduct asbestos inspections, prepare management plans, prepare project designs or act as project monitors.

"Accredited lead training program" means a training program that has been approved by the Board to provide training for individuals to engage in lead-based paint activities.

"Asbestos" means the asbestiform varieties of actinolite, amosite, anthophyllite, chrysotile, crocidolite, and tremolite.

"Asbestos analytical laboratory license" means an authorization issued by the Board to perform phase contrast, polarized light, or transmission electron microscopy on material known or suspected to contain asbestos.

"Asbestos contractor's license" means an authorization issued by the Board permitting a person to enter into contracts to perform an asbestos abatement project.

"Asbestos-containing materials" or "ACM" means any material or product which contains more than 1.0 percent asbestos or such other percentage as established by EPA final rule.

"Asbestos inspector's license" means an authorization issued by the Board permitting a person to perform on-site investigations to identify, classify, record, sample, test and prioritize by exposure potential asbestos-containing materials.

"Asbestos management plan" means a program designed to control or abate any potential risk to human health from asbestos.

"Asbestos management planner's license" means an authorization issued by the Board permitting a person to develop or alter an asbestos management plan.

"Asbestos project" or "asbestos abatement project" means an activity involving job set-up for containment, removal, encapsulation, enclosure, encasement, renovation, repair, construction or alteration of an asbestos-containing material. An asbestos project or asbestos abatement project shall not include nonfriable asbestos-containing roofing, flooring and siding materials which when installed, encapsulated or removed do not become friable.

"Asbestos project designer's license" means an authorization issued by the Board permitting a person to design an asbestos abatement project.

"Asbestos project monitor's license" means an authorization issued by the Board permitting a person to monitor an asbestos project, subject to Department regulations.

"Asbestos supervisor" means any person so designated by an asbestos contractor who provides on-site supervision and direction to the workers engaged in asbestos projects.

"Asbestos worker's license" means an authorization issued by the Board permitting an individual to work on an asbestos project.

"Board" means the Virginia Board for Asbestos, Lead, and Home Inspectors.

"Friable" means that the material when dry may be crumbled, pulverized, or reduced to powder by hand pressure and includes previously nonfriable material after such previously nonfriable material becomes damaged to the extent that when dry it may be crumbled, pulverized, or reduced to powder by hand pressure.

"Home inspection" means any inspection of a residential building for compensation conducted by a licensed home inspector. A home inspection shall include a written evaluation of the readily accessible components of a residential building, including heating, cooling, plumbing, and electrical systems; structural components; foundation; roof; masonry structure; exterior and interior components; and other related residential housing components. A home inspection may be limited in scope as provided in a home inspection contract, provided that such contract is not inconsistent with the provisions of this chapter or the regulations of the Board. For purposes of this chapter, residential building energy analysis alone, as defined in § 54.1-1144, shall not be considered a home inspection.

"Home inspector" means a person who meets the criteria of education, experience, and testing required by this chapter and regulations of the Board and who has been licensed by the Board to perform home inspections.

"Lead abatement" means any measure or set of measures designed to permanently eliminate lead-based paint hazards, including lead-contaminated dust or soil.

"Lead-based paint" means paint or other surface coatings that contain lead equal to or in excess of 1.0 milligrams per square centimeter or more than 0.5 percent by weight.

"Lead-based paint activity" means lead inspection, lead risk assessment, lead project design and abatement of lead-based paint and lead-based paint hazards, including lead-contaminated dust and lead-contaminated soil.

"Lead-contaminated soil" means bare soil that contains lead at or in excess of levels identified by the Environmental Protection Agency.

"Lead contractor" means a person who has met the Board's requirements and has been issued a license by the Board to enter into contracts to perform lead abatements.

"Lead inspection" means a surface-by-surface investigation to determine the presence of lead-based paint and the provisions of a report explaining the results of the investigation.

"Lead inspector" means an individual who has been licensed by the Board to conduct lead inspections and abatement clearance testing.

"Lead project design" means any descriptive form written as instructions or drafted as a plan describing the construction or setting up of a lead abatement project area and the work practices to be utilized during the lead abatement project.

"Lead project designer" means an individual who has been licensed by the Board to prepare lead project designs.

"Lead risk assessment" means (i) an on-site investigation to determine the existence, nature, severity and location of lead-based paint hazards and (ii) the provision of a report by the individual or the firm conducting the risk assessment, explaining the results of the investigation and options for reducing lead-based paint hazards.

"Lead risk assessor" means an individual who has been licensed by the Board to conduct lead inspections, lead risk assessments and abatement clearance testing.

"Lead supervisor" means an individual who has been licensed by the Board to supervise lead abatements.

"Lead worker" or "lead abatement worker" means an individual who has been licensed by the Board to perform lead abatement.

"Person" means a corporation, partnership, sole proprietorship, firm, enterprise, franchise, association or any other individual or entity.

"Principal instructor" means the individual who has the primary responsibility for organizing and teaching an accredited asbestos training program, an accredited lead training program, or any combination thereof.

"Residential building" means, for the purposes of home inspection, a structure consisting of one to four dwelling units used or occupied, or intended to be used or occupied, for residential purposes.

"Training manager" means the individual responsible for administering a training program and monitoring the performance of instructors for an accredited asbestos training or accredited lead training program.

1987, c. 579, § 54-145.4; 1988, cc. 765, 802; 1989, c. 397; 1990, cc. 49, 73, 823; 1992, c. 152; 1993, cc. 499, 660; 1994, cc. 185, 911; 1996, cc. 76, 176, 180, 846; 1997, c. 885; 1998, c. 739; 2001, c. 723; 2009, cc. 358, 819; 2012, cc. 803, 835; 2016, cc. 161, 436, 527; 2024, cc. 93, 94.

The Virginia Board for Asbestos, Lead, and Home Inspectors shall be appointed by the Governor and composed of 12 members as follows: (i) one shall be a representative of a Virginia-licensed asbestos contractor, (ii) one shall be a representative of a Virginia-licensed lead contractor, (iii) one shall be either a Virginia-licensed asbestos inspector or project monitor, (iv) one shall be a Virginia-licensed lead risk assessor, (v) one shall be a representative of a Virginia-licensed asbestos analytical laboratory, (vi) one shall be a representative of an asbestos or lead training program, (vii) one shall be a member of the Board for Contractors, (viii) three shall be Virginia-licensed home inspectors, and (ix) two shall be citizen members. After the initial staggering of terms, the terms of members of the Board shall be four years, except that vacancies may be filled for the remainder of the unexpired term. The home inspector members appointed to the Board shall have practiced as a home inspector for at least five consecutive years immediately prior to appointment.

The Board shall meet at least once each year and other such times as it deems necessary. The Board shall elect from its membership a chairman and a vice-chairman to serve for a period of one year. Seven members of the Board shall constitute a quorum. The Board is vested with the powers and duties necessary to execute the purposes of this chapter.

1993, c. 660; 1994, cc. 185, 911; 1996, cc. 180, 846; 1997, c. 885; 2001, c. 723; 2009, cc. 358, 819; 2012, cc. 522, 803, 835; 2016, cc. 161, 436; 2022, cc. 576, 577; 2024, cc. 93, 94.

The Board shall administer and enforce this chapter. The Board shall:

1. Promulgate regulations necessary to carry out the requirements of this chapter in accordance with the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) to include but not be limited to the prescription of fees, procedures, and qualifications for the issuance and renewal of asbestos and lead licenses, and governing conflicts of interest among various categories of asbestos and lead licenses;

2. Approve the criteria for accredited asbestos training programs, accredited lead training programs, training managers, and principal instructors;

3. Approve accredited asbestos training programs, accredited lead training programs, examinations and the grading system for testing applicants for asbestos and lead licensure;

4. Promulgate regulations governing the licensing of and establishing performance criteria applicable to asbestos analytical laboratories;

5. Promulgate regulations governing the functions and duties of project monitors on asbestos projects, circumstances in which project monitors shall be required for asbestos projects, and training requirements for project monitors;

6. Promulgate, in accordance with the Administrative Process Act, regulations necessary to establish procedures and requirements for the: (i) approval of accredited lead training programs, (ii) licensure of individuals and firms to engage in lead-based paint activities, and (iii) establishment of standards for performing lead-based paint activities consistent with the Residential Lead-based Paint Hazard Reduction Act and United States Environmental Protection Agency regulations. If the United States Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has adopted, prior to the promulgation of any related regulations by the Board, any final regulations relating to lead-based paint activities, then the related regulations of the Board shall not be more stringent than the EPA regulations in effect as of the date of such promulgation. In addition, if the EPA shall have outstanding any proposed regulations relating to lead-based paint activities (other than as amendments to existing EPA regulations), as of the date of promulgation of any related regulations by the Board, then the related regulations of the Board shall not be more stringent than the proposed EPA regulations. In the event that the EPA shall adopt any final regulations subsequent to the promulgation by the Board of related regulations, then the Board shall, as soon as practicable, amend its existing regulations so as to be not more stringent than such EPA regulations; and

7. Promulgate regulations for the licensing of home inspectors not inconsistent with this chapter regarding the professional qualifications of home inspectors applicants, the requirements necessary for passing home inspectors examinations, the proper conduct of its examinations, the proper conduct of the home inspectors licensed by the Board, and the proper discharge of its duties

.

1987, c. 579, § 54-145.5; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 397; 1990, cc. 49, 73, 823; 1991, c. 45; 1992, c. 477; 1993, cc. 499, 660; 1994, cc. 185, 911; 1995, cc. 543, 585; 1996, cc. 180, 846; 1997, cc. 649, 885; 1998, c. 739; 2001, c. 723; 2009, cc. 358, 819; 2012, cc. 803, 835; 2016, cc. 161, 436; 2024, cc. 93, 94.

The provisions of this chapter shall not apply to any employer, or any employees of such employer, regulated by the federal Occupational Safety and Health Act, and under the enforcement authority of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration.

1992, c. 52.

The Board, in conjunction with the Departments of General Services, Health, Labor and Industry, Education, and Environmental Quality, shall develop a plan for the implementation of this chapter which specifies the duties of each agency.

1987, c. 579, § 54-145.6; 1988, cc. 765, 802; 1989, c. 397; 1990, cc. 73, 823; 1993, c. 660.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person who does not have an asbestos contractor's license to contract with another person, for compensation, to carry out an asbestos project or to perform any work on an asbestos project. It shall be unlawful for any person who does not have an asbestos project designer's license to develop an asbestos project design. It shall be unlawful for any person who does not have an asbestos inspector's license to conduct an asbestos inspection. It shall be unlawful for any person who does not have an asbestos management planner's license to develop an asbestos management plan. It shall be unlawful for any person who does not have a license as an asbestos project monitor to act as project monitor on an asbestos project.

B. It shall be unlawful for any person who does not possess a valid asbestos analytical laboratory license issued by the Board to communicate the findings of an analysis, verbally or in writing, for a fee, performed on material known or suspected to contain asbestos for the purpose of determining the presence or absence of asbestos.

C. It shall be unlawful for any person who does not possess a license as a lead contractor to contract with another person to perform lead abatement activities or to perform any lead abatement activity or work on a lead abatement project. It shall be unlawful for any person who does not possess a lead supervisor's license to act as a lead supervisor on a lead abatement project. It shall be unlawful for any person who does not possess a lead worker's license to act as a lead worker on a lead abatement project. It shall be unlawful for any person who does not possess a lead project designer's license to develop a lead project design. It shall be unlawful for any person who does not possess a lead inspector's license to conduct a lead inspection. It shall be unlawful for any person who does not possess a lead risk assessor's license to conduct a lead risk assessment. It shall be unlawful for any person who does not possess a lead inspector's or lead risk assessor's license to conduct lead abatement clearance testing.

D. It shall be unlawful for any individual who does not possess a license as a home inspector issued by the Board to perform a home inspection for compensation on a residential building. It shall be unlawful for any individual who does not possess a home inspector license with the new residential structure endorsement to conduct a home inspection for compensation on any new residential structure. For purposes of this chapter, "new residential structure" means a residential structure for which the first conveyance of record title to a purchaser has not occurred, or of which a purchaser has not taken possession, whichever occurs later.

1987, c. 579, § 54-145.7; 1988, cc. 765, 802; 1989, c. 397; 1990, c. 73; 1993, c. 660; 1994, cc. 185, 911; 1995, cc. 543, 585; 1996, cc. 180, 846; 1997, cc. 560, 885; 1998, c. 739; 2004, c. 133; 2009, c. 819; 2015, c. 411; 2016, cc. 161, 436; 2024, cc. 93, 94.

After July 1, 1988, it shall be unlawful for an individual who does not have an asbestos supervisor's license or worker's license to work on an asbestos project. No asbestos supervisor's license or worker's license shall be required for a supervisor or worker in the installation, maintenance, repair or removal of asbestos-containing roofing, flooring or siding material, provided that such supervisor or worker shall satisfy any training requirements promulgated by the Board pursuant to § 54.1-501.

1987, c. 579, § 54-145.8; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 397; 1993, c. 660.

The Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation shall include with every asbestos worker's license a notice, in English and Spanish, containing a summary of the basic worker safety procedures regarding the handling of asbestos and information on how to file a complaint with the Virginia Board for Asbestos, Lead, and Home Inspectors.

2016, c. 252.

To qualify for an asbestos contractor's license, an applicant shall:

1. Except as provided in § 54.1-504, ensure that each of his employees or agents who will come into contact with asbestos or who will be responsible for an asbestos project is licensed as an asbestos supervisor or worker; and

2. Demonstrate to the satisfaction of the Board that the applicant and his employees or agents are familiar with and are capable of complying fully with all applicable requirements, procedures and standards of the United States Environmental Protection Agency, the United States Occupational Safety and Health Administration, the Department of Labor and Industry, and the State Air Pollution Control Board covering any part of an asbestos project.

1987, c. 579, § 54-145.9; 1988, cc. 765, 802; 1989, c. 397; 1993, c. 660; 1996, cc. 180, 846.

Repealed by Acts 1993, c. 660.

Repealed by Acts 1992, c. 477.

Repealed by Acts 1993, c. 660.

Repealed by Acts 1988, c. 802.

Repealed by Acts 1993, c. 660.

A. In an emergency, the Board may, at its discretion, waive the requirement for asbestos contractor's, supervisor's and worker's licenses.

B. Any employer, and any employee of such employer, who conducts an asbestos project on premises owned or leased by such employer shall be exempt from licensure.

C. Notwithstanding the provisions of the Virginia Tort Claims Act (§ 8.01-195.1 et seq.), neither the Commonwealth nor any agency or employee of the Commonwealth shall be subject to any liability as the result of a determination made by the Board hereunder.

D. Nothing in this chapter shall be construed as requiring the licensure of a contractor who contracts to undertake a project, a portion of which constitutes an asbestos or lead abatement project if all of the asbestos or lead abatement work is subcontracted to a person licensed to perform such work in accordance with the provisions of this chapter.

E. This chapter shall not apply to any person who performs lead-based paint activities within residences which they own, unless the residence is occupied by a person or persons other than the owner or the owner's immediate family while these activities are being conducted or a child is residing in the property and has been identified as having an elevated blood-lead level.

1987, c. 579, § 54-145.10:6; 1988, cc. 765, 807; 1989, c. 397; 1993, c. 660; 1996, cc. 180, 846; 1998, c. 739; 2009, c. 819; 2024, cc. 93, 94.

Repealed by Acts 1998, c. 739.

A state agency or a political subdivision shall not award a contract in connection with an asbestos project to a person who does not hold an asbestos contractor's, inspector's, management planner's or project designer's license at the time the bid is submitted unless the general contractor to whom the contract is awarded will be contractually committed to have all asbestos related work performed by its own subcontractors who are appropriately licensed as asbestos contractors, inspectors, management planners or project designers pursuant to this chapter.

1987, c. 579, § 54-145.10:8; 1988, cc. 765, 802; 1989, c. 397; 1990, c. 105; 1996, cc. 180, 846.

Any employer who discriminates against or otherwise penalizes an employee who complains to or cooperates with the Board or any other governmental agency in administering this chapter is subject to the penalties in § 54.1-517.

1987, c. 579, § 54-145.10:9; 1988, c. 765; 1993, cc. 499, 660.

A. The Board may reprimand, fine, suspend or revoke (i) the license of a lead contractor, lead inspector, lead risk assessor, lead project designer, lead supervisor, lead worker, asbestos contractor, asbestos supervisor, asbestos inspector, asbestos analytical laboratory, asbestos management planner, asbestos project designer, asbestos project monitor, asbestos worker, or home inspector or (ii) the approval of an accredited asbestos training program, accredited lead training program, training manager or principal instructor, if the licensee or approved person or program:

1. Fraudulently or deceptively obtains or attempts to obtain a license or approval;

2. Fails at any time to meet the qualifications for a license or approval or to comply with the requirements of this chapter or any regulation adopted by the Board; or

3. Fails to meet any applicable federal or state standard when performing an asbestos project or service or performing lead-based paint activities.

B. The Board may reprimand, fine, suspend or revoke the license of (i) any asbestos contractor who employs or permits an individual without an asbestos supervisor's or worker's license to work on an asbestos project or (ii) any lead contractor who employs or permits an individual without a lead supervisor's or lead worker's license to work on a lead abatement project.

C. The Board may reprimand, fine, suspend or revoke the license of a home inspector.

1987, c. 579, § 54-145.10:10; 1988, cc. 765, 802; 1989, c. 397; 1990, c. 823; 1993, c. 660; 1994, cc. 185, 911; 1996, cc. 180, 846; 1997, c. 885; 1998, c. 739; 2001, c. 723; 2009, cc. 358, 819; 2012, cc. 803, 835; 2016, cc. 161, 436; 2024, cc. 93, 94.

The Board may suspend the license or the approval of any (i) accredited training program, (ii) training manager or (iii) principal instructor of any person holding a license issued by it without a hearing simultaneously with the institution of proceedings for a hearing or an informal fact finding conference, if the relevant board finds that there is a substantial danger to the public health or safety that warrants this action. The Board may meet by telephone conference call when summarily suspending a license or the approval of an accredited training program, training manager or principal instructor if a good faith effort to assemble a quorum of the Board has failed and, in the judgment of a majority of the members of the Board, the continued practice by the licensee or approved individual or training program constitutes a substantial danger to the public health or safety. Institution of proceedings for a hearing or an informal fact finding conference shall be provided simultaneously with the summary suspension. Such hearing or conference shall be scheduled within a reasonable time of the date of the summary suspension. Allegations of violations of this section shall be made in accordance with § 54.1-307.1.

2004, c. 222.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any person who willfully violates any provision of this chapter or any regulation related to licensure or training adopted pursuant to this chapter shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor for the first two violations and a Class 6 felony for a third and each subsequent violation within a three-year period.

In addition, licensed asbestos contractors, asbestos supervisors, asbestos inspectors, asbestos management planners, asbestos project designers, asbestos project monitors, asbestos analytical laboratories and asbestos workers, lead contractors, lead inspectors, lead risk assessors, lead project designers, lead supervisors, lead workers, and accredited asbestos training programs, accredited lead training programs, training managers or principal instructors may be assessed a civil penalty by the Board of not more than $1,000 for an initial violation and $5,000 for each subsequent violation within a three-year period arising from a willful violation of standards established by the Environmental Protection Agency, Occupational Safety and Health Administration, Department of Labor and Industry, or the Divisions of Air Pollution Control and Waste Management of the Department of Environmental Quality in a three-year period.

1987, c. 579, § 54-145.10:11; 1988, cc. 765, 802; 1989, c. 397; 1990, c. 823; 1993, c. 660; 1994, cc. 185, 911; 1996, cc. 180, 846; 1997, c. 885; 1998, c. 739; 2009, c. 819; 2024, cc. 93, 94.

Article 2. Home Inspectors.

Repealed by Acts cc. 161 and 436, cl. 2, effective July 1, 2017.

A. The Board shall issue a license to practice as a home inspector in the Commonwealth to:

1. An individual who holds an unexpired certificate as a home inspector issued prior to June 30, 2017; or

2. An applicant who has successfully:

a. Completed the educational requirements as required by the Board;

b. Completed the experience requirements as required by the Board; and

c. Passed the examination approved by the Board.

B. The Board shall issue a license with the new residential structure endorsement to any applicant who completes a training module developed by the Board in conjunction with the Department of Housing and Community Development based on the International Residential Code component of the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code.

2001, c. 723; 2015, c. 411; 2016, cc. 161, 436.

A. As used in this section:

"Bonding" means connecting metallic systems to establish electrical continuity and conductivity.

"Corrugated stainless steel tubing" or "CSST" means a flexible stainless steel pipe used to supply natural gas or propane in residential, commercial, and industrial structures.

"Grounding" means connecting to the ground or to a conductive body that extends to ground connection.

B. If a home inspector observes the presence of any shade of yellow corrugated stainless steel tubing during a home inspection in a home that was built prior to the adoption of the 2006 Virginia Construction Code, effective May 1, 2008, he shall include that observation in the report along with the following statement: "Manufacturers believe that this product is safer if properly bonded and grounded as required by the manufacturer's installation instructions. Proper bonding and grounding of the product should be determined by a contractor licensed to perform the work in the Commonwealth of Virginia."

2017, c. 805.

Article 3. Mold Inspectors and Remediators.

Repealed by Acts 2012, cc. 803 and 835, cl. 56.

Chapter 5.1. Athlete Agents [Repealed].

Repealed by Acts 1992, c. 282.

Chapter 5.2. Athlete Agents.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Agency contract" means an agreement in which a student-athlete authorizes a person to negotiate or solicit on behalf of the student-athlete a professional sports services contract or endorsement contract.

"Athlete agent" means an individual, whether or not registered under this chapter, who (i) directly or indirectly recruits or solicits a student-athlete to enter into an agency contract or, for compensation, procures employment or offers, promises, attempts, or negotiates to obtain employment for a student-athlete as a professional athlete or member of a professional sports team or organization; (ii) for compensation or in anticipation of compensation related to a student-athlete's participation in athletics (a) serves the student-athlete in an advisory capacity on a matter related to finances, business pursuits, or career management decisions, unless the individual is an employee of an educational institution acting exclusively as an employee of the institution for the benefit of the institution, or (b) manages the business affairs of the student-athlete by providing assistance with bills, payments, contracts, or taxes; (iii) in anticipation of representing a student-athlete for a purpose related to the student-athlete's participation in athletics (a) gives consideration to the student-athlete or another person, (b) serves the student-athlete in an advisory capacity on a matter related to finances, business pursuits, or career management decisions, or (c) manages the business affairs of the student-athlete by providing assistance with bills, payments, contracts, or taxes; or (iv) represents a student-athlete in connection with issues related to name, image, or likeness, including negotiating, securing, obtaining, arranging, and managing name, image, or likeness opportunities. "Athlete agent" does not include an individual who (a) acts solely on behalf of a professional sports team or organization or (b) is a licensed, registered, or certified professional and offers or provides services to a student-athlete customarily provided by members of the profession, unless the individual (1) also recruits or solicits the student-athlete to enter into an agency contract, (2) also, for compensation, procures employment or offers, promises, attempts, or negotiates to obtain employment for the student-athlete as a professional athlete or member of a professional sports team or organization, or (3) receives consideration for providing the services calculated using a different method than for an individual who is not a student-athlete.

"Athletic director" means the individual responsible for administering the overall athletic program of an educational institution or, if an educational institution has separately administered athletic programs for male students and female students, the athletic program for males or the athletic program for females, as appropriate.

"Director" means the Director of the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation.

"Educational institution" means a public or private (i) elementary school, (ii) secondary school, (iii) technical or vocational school, (iv) community college, or (v) institution of higher education.

"Endorsement contract" means an agreement under which a student-athlete is employed or receives consideration to use on behalf of the other party any value that the student-athlete may have because of publicity, reputation, following, or fame obtained because of athletic ability or performance.

"Enrolled" or "enrolls" means registered for courses and attending athletic practice or class.

"Intercollegiate sport" means a sport played at the collegiate level for which eligibility requirements for participation by a student-athlete are established by a national association that promotes or regulates collegiate athletics.

"Interscholastic sport" means a sport played between educational institutions that are not community colleges or institutions of higher education.

"Licensed, registered, or certified professional" means an individual, other than an athlete agent, who is licensed, registered, or certified as an attorney, dealer in securities, financial planner, insurance agent, real estate broker or sales agent, tax consultant, accountant, or member of a profession by the Commonwealth or a nationally recognized organization that licenses, registers, or certifies members of the profession on the basis of experience, education, or testing.

"Person" means an individual, estate, business or nonprofit entity, public corporation, government or governmental subdivision, agency, or instrumentality or other legal entity.

"Professional sports services contract" means an agreement under which an individual is employed as a professional athlete or agrees to render services as a player on a professional sports team or with a professional sports organization.

"Record" means information that is inscribed on a tangible medium or that is stored in an electronic or other medium and is retrievable in perceivable form.

"Recruit or solicit" means an attempt to influence the choice of an athlete agent by a student-athlete or, if the student-athlete is a minor, a parent or guardian of the student-athlete. "Recruit or solicit" does not include giving advice on the selection of a particular agent in a family, coaching, or social situation unless the individual giving the advice does so because of the receipt or anticipated receipt of an economic benefit, directly or indirectly, from the agent.

"Registration" means registration as an athlete agent.

"Sign" means, with present intent to authenticate or adopt a record, (i) to execute or adopt a tangible symbol or (ii) to attach to or logically associate with the record an electronic symbol, sound, or process.

"State" means a state of the United States, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands, or any territory or insular possession subject to the jurisdiction of the United States.

"Student-athlete" means an individual who is eligible to attend an educational institution and engages in, is eligible to engage in, or may be eligible in the future to engage in any interscholastic or intercollegiate sport. "Student-athlete" does not include, for a particular interscholastic or intercollegiate sport, an individual permanently ineligible to participate in that sport.

2020, c. 481; 2022, cc. 510, 638.

A. The Director shall administer and enforce the provisions of this chapter. In addition to the powers and duties otherwise authorized by law, the Director shall have the powers and duties of a regulatory board authorized by § 54.1-202 that are consistent with this chapter and shall have the power and duty to (i) promulgate such regulations in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) as are necessary to implement this chapter, (ii) charge each applicant for registration or renewal of registration a nonrefundable fee subject to the provisions of § 54.1-113, and (iii) issue cease and desist orders and otherwise seek to prevent continuing violations of this chapter.

B. This chapter, and any existing relevant regulations that are consistent with this chapter, shall govern the regulation of athlete agents in the Commonwealth unless and until the Director promulgates new or revised regulations pursuant to subsection A.

C. By acting as an athlete agent in the Commonwealth, a nonresident individual appoints the Secretary of the Commonwealth as the individual's agent for service of process in any civil action in the Commonwealth related to the individual acting as an athlete agent in the Commonwealth.

D. The Director may issue a subpoena for material that is relevant to the administration of this chapter.

2020, c. 481, § 54.1-520.

A. Except as otherwise provided in subsection B, an individual may not act as an athlete agent in the Commonwealth without holding a valid certificate of registration under this chapter.

B. Before being issued a certificate of registration under this chapter, an individual may act as an athlete agent in the Commonwealth for all purposes except signing an agency contract if (i) a student-athlete or another person acting on behalf of the student-athlete initiates communication with the individual and (ii) not later than seven days after an initial act that requires the individual to register as an athlete agent under this chapter, the individual submits an application for registration as an athlete agent in the Commonwealth.

C. An agency contract resulting from conduct in violation of this section is void, and the athlete agent shall return any consideration received under the contract.

2020, c. 481, § 54.1-521.

A. An applicant for registration as an athlete agent shall submit an application for registration to the Director in a form prescribed by the Director. The applicant shall be an individual, and the application shall be signed by the applicant under penalty of perjury and shall contain at least the following:

1. The name and date and place of birth of the applicant and the following contact information for the applicant: (i) the address of the applicant's principal place of business; (ii) work and mobile telephone numbers; and (iii) any means of communicating electronically, including a facsimile number, email address, and personal and business or employer websites;

2. The name of the applicant's business or employer, if applicable, including for each business or employer, its mailing address, telephone number, organization form, and the nature of the business;

3. Each social media account with which the applicant or the applicant's business or employer is affiliated;

4. Each business or occupation in which the applicant engaged within five years before the date of the application, including self-employment and employment by others, and any professional or occupational license, registration, or certification held by the applicant during that time;

5. A description of the applicant's (i) formal training as an athlete agent, (ii) practical experience as an athlete agent, and (iii) educational background relating to the applicant's activities as an athlete agent;

6. The name of each student-athlete for whom the applicant acted as an athlete agent within five years before the date of the application or, if the student-athlete is a minor, the name of the parent or guardian of the student-athlete, together with the student-athlete's sport and last known team;

7. The name and address of each person that (i) is a partner, member, officer, manager, associate, or profit sharer or directly or indirectly holds an equity interest of five percent or greater of the athlete agent's business if it is not a corporation and (ii) is an officer or director of a corporation employing the athlete agent or a shareholder having an interest of five percent or greater in the corporation;

8. A description of the status of any application by the applicant, or any person named under subdivision 7, for a state or federal business, professional, or occupational license, other than as an athlete agent, from a state or federal agency, including any denial, refusal to renew, suspension, withdrawal, or termination of the license and any reprimand or censure related to the license;

9. Whether the applicant, or any person named under subdivision 7, has pleaded guilty or no contest to, has been convicted of, or has charges pending for a crime that would involve moral turpitude or be a felony if committed in the Commonwealth and, if so, identification of (i) the crime, (ii) the law-enforcement agency involved, and (iii) if applicable, the date of the conviction and the fine or penalty imposed;

10. Whether, within 15 years before the date of application, the applicant, or any person named under subdivision 7, has been a defendant or respondent in a civil proceeding, including a proceeding seeking an adjudication of legal incompetence, and, if so, the date and a full explanation of each proceeding;

11. Whether the applicant, or any person named under subdivision 7, has an unsatisfied judgment or a judgment of continuing effect, including alimony or a domestic order in the nature of child support, which is not current at the date of the application;

12. Whether, within 10 years before the date of application, the applicant, or any person named under subdivision 7, was adjudicated bankrupt or was an owner of a business that was adjudicated bankrupt;

13. Whether there has been any administrative or judicial determination that the applicant, or any person named under subdivision 7, made a false, misleading, deceptive, or fraudulent representation;

14. Each instance in which conduct of the applicant, or any person named under subdivision 7, resulted in the imposition of a sanction, suspension, or declaration of ineligibility to participate in an interscholastic or intercollegiate athletic event of a student-athlete or a sanction on an educational institution;

15. Each sanction, suspension, or disciplinary action taken against the applicant, or any person named under subdivision 7, arising out of occupational or professional conduct;

16. Whether there has been a denial of an application for, suspension or revocation of, refusal to renew, or abandonment of, the registration of the applicant, or any person named under subdivision 7, as an athlete agent in any state;

17. Each state in which the applicant currently is registered as an athlete agent or has applied to be registered as an athlete agent;

18. If the applicant is certified or registered by a professional league or players association, (i) the name of the league or association; (ii) the date of certification or registration and the date of expiration of the certification or registration, if any; and (iii) if applicable, the date of any denial of an application for, suspension or revocation of, refusal to renew, withdrawal of, or termination of the certification or registration or any reprimand or censure related to the certification or registration;

19. Whether the applicant is seeking an annual or two-year license; and

20. Any additional information required by the Director.

B. Instead of proceeding under subsection A, an individual registered as an athlete agent in another state may apply for registration as an athlete agent in the Commonwealth by submitting to the Director (i) a copy of the application for registration in the other state; (ii) a statement that identifies any material change in the information on that application or verifies there is no material change in the information, signed under penalty of perjury; and (iii) a copy of the certificate of registration from the other state.

C. The Director shall issue a certificate of registration to an individual who applies for registration under subsection B if the Director determines that (i) the application and registration requirements of the other state are substantially similar to or more restrictive than the requirements in this chapter and (ii) the registration has not been revoked or suspended and no action involving the individual's conduct as an athlete agent is pending against the individual or the individual's registration in any state.

D. For purposes of implementing subsection C, the Director shall (i) cooperate with national organizations concerned with athlete agent issues and agencies in other states that register athlete agents to develop a common registration form and determine which states have laws that are substantially similar to or more restrictive than this chapter and (ii) exchange information, including information related to actions taken against registered athlete agents or their registrations, with those organizations and agencies.

2020, c. 481, § 54.1-522.

A. Except as otherwise provided in subsection B, the Director shall issue a certificate of registration to an applicant for registration who complies with subsection A of § 54.1-529.

B. The Director may refuse to issue a certificate of registration to an applicant for registration under subsection A of § 54.1-529 if the Director determines that the applicant has engaged in conduct that significantly adversely reflects on the applicant's fitness to act as an athlete agent. In making the determination, the Director may consider whether the applicant has (i) pleaded guilty or no contest to, has been convicted of, or has charges pending for a crime that would involve moral turpitude or be a felony if committed in the Commonwealth; (ii) made a materially false, misleading, deceptive, or fraudulent representation in the application or as an athlete agent; (iii) engaged in conduct that would disqualify the applicant from serving in a fiduciary capacity; (iv) engaged in conduct prohibited by § 54.1-538; (v) had a registration as an athlete agent suspended, revoked, or denied in any state; (vi) been refused renewal of registration as an athlete agent in any state; (vii) engaged in conduct resulting in imposition of a sanction, suspension, or declaration of ineligibility to participate in an interscholastic or intercollegiate athletic event of a student-athlete or a sanction on an educational institution; or (viii) engaged in conduct that adversely reflects on the applicant's credibility, honesty, or integrity.

C. In making a determination under subsection B, the Director shall consider (i) how recently the conduct occurred, (ii) the nature of the conduct and the context in which it occurred, and (iii) other relevant conduct of the applicant.

D. An athlete agent registered under subsection A may apply to renew the registration by submitting an application for renewal in a form prescribed by the Director. The applicant shall sign the application for renewal under penalty of perjury and include current information on all matters required in an original application for registration.

E. An athlete agent registered under subsection C of § 54.1-529 may renew the registration by proceeding under subsection D or, if the registration in the other state has been renewed, by submitting to the Director copies of the application for renewal in the other state and the renewed registration from the other state. The Director shall renew the registration if the Director determines (i) the registration requirements of the other state are substantially similar to or more restrictive than the requirements in this chapter and (ii) the renewed registration has not been suspended or revoked and no action involving the individual's conduct as an athlete agent is pending against the individual or the individual's registration in any state.

F. A certificate of registration or renewal of registration under this chapter is valid for one or two years, as indicated in the applicant's application.

2020, c. 481, § 54.1-523.

A. The Director may limit, suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew a registration of an individual registered under subsection A of § 54.1-530 for conduct that would have justified refusal to issue a certificate of registration under subsection B of § 54.1-530.

B. The Director may suspend or revoke the registration of an individual registered under subsection C of § 54.1-529 or renewed under subsection E of § 54.1-530 for any reason for which the Director could have refused to grant or renew registration or for conduct that would justify refusal to issue a certificate of registration under subsection B of § 54.1-530.

2020, c. 481, § 54.1-524.

The Director may issue a temporary certificate of registration as an athlete agent while an application for registration or renewal of registration is pending.

2020, c. 481, § 54.1-525.

An application for registration or renewal of registration as an athlete agent shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable fee for each of the following: (i) an initial application for registration, (ii) an application for registration based on a certificate of registration or its equivalent issued by another state, (iii) an application for renewal of registration, and (iv) an application for renewal of registration based on a renewal of registration or its equivalent in another state.

That fee shall be:

1. For a one-year registration or renewal, in the amount of $700;

2. For a two-year registration or renewal, in the amount of $1,150; or

3. For the fee set forth in subdivision 1 or 2, or both, of this section, a higher or lower fee that the Director determines by regulation is necessary and consistent with § 54.1-113.

2020, c. 481, § 54.1-526.

A. An agency contract shall be in a record signed by the parties.

B. An agency contract shall contain:

1. A statement that the athlete agent is registered as an athlete agent in the Commonwealth and a list of any other states in which the agent is registered as an athlete agent;

2. The amount and method of calculating the consideration to be paid by the student-athlete for services to be provided by the agent under the contract and any other consideration the agent has received or will receive from any other source for entering into the contract or providing the services;

3. The name of any person not listed in the agent's application for registration or renewal of registration which will be compensated because the student-athlete signed the contract;

4. A description of any expenses the student-athlete agrees to reimburse;

5. A description of the services to be provided to the student-athlete;

6. The duration of the contract; and

7. The date of execution.

C. Subject to subsection G, an agency contract shall contain a conspicuous notice in boldface type and in substantially the following form:

"WARNING TO STUDENT-ATHLETE

IF YOU SIGN THIS CONTRACT:

(1) YOU MAY LOSE YOUR ELIGIBILITY TO COMPETE AS A STUDENT-ATHLETE IN YOUR SPORT;

(2) IF YOUR EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTION HAS AN ATHLETIC DIRECTOR, WITHIN 72 HOURS OF SIGNING THIS CONTRACT OR BEFORE THE NEXT SCHEDULED ATHLETIC EVENT IN WHICH YOU PARTICIPATE, WHICHEVER OCCURS FIRST, BOTH YOU AND YOUR ATHLETE AGENT MUST NOTIFY YOUR ATHLETIC DIRECTOR THAT YOU HAVE ENTERED INTO THIS CONTRACT AND PROVIDE THE NAME AND CONTACT INFORMATION OF THE ATHLETE AGENT; AND

(3) YOU MAY CANCEL THIS CONTRACT WITHIN 14 DAYS. HOWEVER, CANCELLATION OF THIS CONTRACT DOES NOT GUARANTEE REINSTATEMENT OF YOUR ELIGIBILITY AS A STUDENT-ATHLETE IN YOUR SPORT."

D. An agency contract shall be accompanied by a separate record signed by the student-athlete or, if the student-athlete is a minor, the parent or guardian of the student-athlete acknowledging that signing the contract may result in the loss of the student-athlete's eligibility to participate in the student-athlete's sport.

E. A student-athlete or, if the student-athlete is a minor, the parent or guardian of the student-athlete may void an agency contract that does not conform to this section. If the contract is voided, any consideration received from the athlete agent under the contract to induce entering into the contract is not required to be returned.

F. At the time an agency contract is executed, the athlete agent shall give the student-athlete or, if the student-athlete is a minor, the parent or guardian of the student-athlete a copy in a record of the contract and the separate acknowledgement required by subsection D.

G. If a student-athlete is a minor, an agency contract shall be signed by the parent or guardian of the student-athlete and the notice required by subsection C shall be revised accordingly.

2020, c. 481, § 54.1-527.

A. For purposes of this section, "communication or attempt to communicate" or any variation thereof means contacting or attempting to contact by an in-person meeting, a record, or any other method that conveys or attempts to convey a message.

B. Not later than 72 hours after entering into an agency contract or before the next scheduled athletic event in which the student-athlete may participate, whichever occurs first, the athlete agent shall give notice in a record of the existence of the contract to the athletic director of the educational institution at which the student-athlete is enrolled or at which the agent has reasonable grounds to believe the student-athlete intends to enroll.

C. Not later than 72 hours after entering into an agency contract or before the next scheduled athletic event in which the student-athlete may participate, whichever occurs first, the student-athlete shall inform the athletic director of the educational institution at which the student-athlete is enrolled that the student-athlete has entered into an agency contract and the name and contact information of the athlete agent.

D. If an athlete agent enters into an agency contract with a student-athlete and the student-athlete subsequently enrolls at an educational institution, the agent shall notify the athletic director of the institution of the existence of the contract not later than 72 hours after the agent knew or should have known the student-athlete enrolled.

E. If an athlete agent has a relationship with a student-athlete before the student-athlete enrolls in an educational institution and receives an athletic scholarship from the institution, the agent shall notify the institution of the relationship not later than 10 days after the enrollment if the agent knows or should have known of the enrollment and (i) the relationship was motivated in whole or in part by the intention of the agent to recruit or solicit the student-athlete to enter an agency contract in the future or (ii) the agent directly or indirectly recruited or solicited the student-athlete to enter an agency contract before the enrollment.

F. An athlete agent shall give notice in a record to the athletic director of any educational institution at which a student-athlete is enrolled before the agent communicates or attempts to communicate with (i) the student-athlete or, if the student-athlete is a minor, a parent or guardian of the student-athlete to influence the student-athlete or parent or guardian to enter into an agency contract or (ii) another individual to have that individual influence the student-athlete or, if the student-athlete is a minor, the parent or guardian of the student-athlete to enter into an agency contract.

G. If a communication or attempt to communicate with an athlete agent is initiated by a student-athlete or another individual on behalf of the student-athlete, the agent shall notify in a record the athletic director of any educational institution at which the student-athlete is enrolled. The notification shall be made not later than 10 days after the communication or attempt to communicate.

H. An educational institution that becomes aware of a violation of this chapter by an athlete agent shall notify the Director and any professional league or players association with which the institution is aware the agent is licensed or registered of the violation.

2020, c. 481, § 54.1-528.

A. A student-athlete or, if the student-athlete is a minor, the parent or guardian of the student-athlete may cancel an agency contract by giving notice in a record of cancellation to the athlete agent not later than 14 days after the contract is signed.

B. A student-athlete or, if the student-athlete is a minor, the parent or guardian of the student-athlete may not waive the right to cancel an agency contract.

C. If a student-athlete or, if the student-athlete is a minor, a parent or guardian of the student-athlete cancels an agency contract, the student-athlete or, if the student-athlete is a minor, the parent or guardian of the student-athlete is not required to pay any consideration under the contract or return any consideration received from the athlete agent to influence the student-athlete to enter into the contract.

2020, c. 481, § 54.1-529.

A. An athlete agent shall create and retain for five years records of the following:

1. The name and address of each student-athlete represented by the agent;

2. Each agency contract entered into by the agent; and

3. The direct costs incurred by the agent in the recruitment or solicitation of each student-athlete to enter into an agency contract.

B. Records described in subsection A shall be open to inspection by the Director during normal business hours.

2020, c. 481, § 54.1-530.

An athlete agent may not intentionally:

1. Give a student-athlete or, if the student-athlete is a minor, a parent or guardian of the student-athlete materially false or misleading information or make a materially false promise or representation with the intent to influence the student-athlete or, if the student-athlete is a minor, a parent or guardian of the student-athlete to enter into an agency contract;

2. Furnish anything of value to a student-athlete or another individual, if to do so may result in loss of the student-athlete's eligibility to participate in the student-athlete's sport, unless (i) the agent notifies the athletic director of the educational institution at which the student-athlete is enrolled or at which the agent has reasonable grounds to believe the student-athlete intends to enroll, not later than 72 hours after giving the thing of value and (ii) the student-athlete or, if the student-athlete is a minor, a parent or guardian of the student-athlete acknowledges to the agent in a record that receipt of the thing of value may result in loss of the student-athlete's eligibility to participate in the student-athlete's sport;

3. Initiate contact, directly or indirectly, with a student-athlete or, if the student-athlete is a minor, a parent or guardian of the student-athlete to recruit or solicit the student-athlete or, if the student-athlete is a minor, a parent or guardian of the student-athlete to enter an agency contract unless registered under this chapter;

4. Fail to create, retain, or permit inspection of the records required by § 54.1-537;

5. Fail to register when required by § 54.1-528;

6. Provide materially false or misleading information in an application for registration or renewal of registration;

7. Predate or postdate an agency contract;

8. Fail to notify a student-athlete or, if the student-athlete is a minor, a parent or guardian of the student-athlete before the student-athlete or, if the student-athlete is a minor, a parent or guardian of the student-athlete signs an agency contract for a particular sport that the signing may result in loss of the student-athlete's eligibility to participate in the student-athlete's sport;

9. Encourage another individual to do any of the acts described in subdivisions 1 through 8 on behalf of the agent; or

10. Encourage another individual to assist any other individual in doing any of the acts described in subdivisions 1 through 8 on behalf of the agent.

2020, c. 481, § 54.1-531.

An athlete agent who violates § 54.1-538 is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor and in addition, the Director may suspend the agent's certificate of registration for no more than 12 months.

2020, c. 481, § 54.1-532.

A. An educational institution or student-athlete may bring an action for damages against an athlete agent if the institution or student-athlete is adversely affected by an act or omission of the agent in violation of this chapter. An educational institution or student-athlete is adversely affected by an act or omission of the agent only if, because of the act or omission, the institution or an individual who was a student-athlete at the time of the act or omission and enrolled in the institution (i) is suspended or disqualified from participation in an interscholastic or intercollegiate sports event by or under the rules of a state or national federation or association that promotes or regulates interscholastic or intercollegiate sports or (ii) suffers financial damage.

B. A plaintiff that prevails in an action under this section may recover actual damages, punitive damages, costs, and reasonable attorney fees. An athlete agent found liable under this section forfeits any right of payment for anything of benefit or value provided to the student-athlete and shall refund any consideration paid to the agent by or on behalf of the student-athlete.

C. A violation of this chapter also shall constitute a violation of the Virginia Consumer Protection Act (§ 59.1-196 et seq.).

D. The Director may assess a civil penalty against an athlete agent not to exceed $50,000 for a violation of this chapter.

2020, c. 481, § 54.1-533.

Consideration shall be given to the need to promote uniformity of the law with respect to its subject matter among states that enact substantially similar laws.

2020, c. 481, § 54.1-534.

This chapter modifies, limits, or supersedes the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act, 15 U.S.C. § 7001 et seq., but does not modify, limit, or supersede § 101(c) of that act, 15 U.S.C. § 7001(c), or authorize electronic delivery of any of the notices described in § 103(b) of that act, 15 U.S.C. § 7003(c).

2020, c. 481, § 54.1-535.

Chapter 6. Auctioneers.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Absolute auction" means an auction where at the time of the auction sale the real or personal property to be sold will pass to the highest bidder regardless of the amount of the highest and last bid.

"Auction" means the sale of goods or real estate by means of exchanges between an auctioneer and members of his audience, the exchanges consisting of a series of invitations for offers made by the auctioneer, offers made by members of the audience, and acceptance by the auctioneer of the highest or most favorable offer.

"Auction firm" means any corporation, partnership or entity, except a sole proprietorship, performing any of the acts of an auctioneer as defined in this section.

"Auctioneer" means any person who conducts or offers to conduct an auction.

"Board" means the Auctioneers Board.

"Director" means the Director of the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation.

"Goods" means any chattels, merchandise, real or personal property, or commodities of any form or type which may be lawfully kept or offered for sale.

"Person" means any natural person, association, partnership, or corporation, and the officers, directors, and employees of a corporation.

"Virginia licensed auctioneer" means any auctioneer who meets the requirements for licensure as prescribed by the Board.

1982, c. 538, § 54-824.2; 1983, c. 522; 1986, c. 61; 1988, c. 765; 1991, c. 299; 2003, c. 367.

The provisions of this chapter and the terms "Virginia licensed auctioneer," "auctioneer" or "auction firm," as defined in § 54.1-600, shall not apply to:

1. Any person who auctions his own property, whether owned or leased, provided his regular business is not as an auctioneer;

2. Any person who is acting as a receiver, trustee in bankruptcy, guardian, conservator, administrator, or executor, or any person acting under order of a court;

3. A trustee acting under a trust agreement, deed of trust, or will;

4. An attorney-at-law licensed to practice in the Commonwealth of Virginia acting pursuant to a power of attorney;

5. Sales at auction conducted by or under the direction of any public authority, or pursuant to any judicial order or decree;

6. Sale of livestock at a public livestock market authorized by the Commissioner of Agriculture and Consumer Services;

7. Leaf tobacco sales conducted in accordance with the provisions of former § 3.1-336;

8. Sale at auction of automobiles conducted under the provisions of § 46.2-644.03 or by a motor vehicle dealer licensed under the provisions of Chapter 15 (§ 46.2-1500 et seq.) of Title 46.2;

9. Sale at auction of a particular brand of livestock conducted by an auctioneer of a livestock trade association;

10. Sales conducted by and on behalf of any charitable, religious, civic club, fraternal, or political organization if the person conducting the sale receives no compensation, either directly or indirectly, therefor and has no ownership interest in the merchandise being sold or financial interest in the entity providing such merchandise;

11. Sales, not exceeding one sale per year, conducted by or on behalf of (i) a civic club or (ii) a charitable organization granted tax-exempt status under § 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code; or

12. Sales of collateral, sales conducted to enforce carriers' or warehousemen's liens, bulk sales, sales of goods by a presenting bank following dishonor of a documentary draft, resales of rightfully rejected goods, resales of goods by an aggrieved seller, or other resales conducted pursuant to Titles 8.1A through 8.10 and the Virginia Self-Service Storage Act (§ 55.1-2900 et seq.).

1982, c. 538, § 54-824.3; 1983, cc. 261, 522; 1986, c. 61; 1988, c. 765; 1991, c. 299; 1995, c. 227; 1997, c. 801; 2009, c. 664; 2014, cc. 21, 684.

A. The Auctioneers Board shall be composed of five members as follows: three shall be Virginia licensed auctioneers and two shall be citizen members. Board members shall serve four-year terms.

The Board shall meet at least once each year for the purpose of transacting business. Special meetings of the Board may be held at the discretion of the Director.

B. The Board shall have the following authority and responsibilities:

1. Establish regulations to obtain and retain licensure of auctioneers.

2. Make all case decisions regarding eligibility for initial licensure and renewal thereof.

3. To fine, suspend, deny renewal or revoke for cause, as defined in regulation, any license.

4. To examine auctioneers for licensure.

1982, c. 538, §§ 54-824.4, 54-824.7; 1983, c. 522, § 54-824.9:3; 1988, cc. 42, 765; 1991, c. 299; 2012, c. 522.

A. Unless exempted by § 54.1-601, no person or firm shall sell at auction without being licensed by the Board.

B. Any auctioneer desiring to obtain a license may apply to the Board and shall establish to the satisfaction of the Board that he:

1. Is a resident of Virginia and meets the application fee requirements set by the Board;

2. Is covered by a surety bond, executed by a surety company authorized to do business in this Commonwealth, in a reasonable amount to be fixed by the Board, conditioned upon the faithful and honest conduct of his business or employment;

3. Has successfully completed a course of study at a school of auctioneering which has obtained course approval from the Board or an equivalent course; and

4. Has passed the Virginia Licensed Auctioneer's Examination, administered by the Auctioneers Board.

C. A nonresident of the Commonwealth may be licensed as an auctioneer by meeting one of the following requirements: (i) conform to the provisions of this chapter and regulations of the Board with reference to resident auctioneers or (ii) hold a valid auctioneer's license or certificate in another state with which reciprocity has been established by the Board. Nonresident applicants shall also file with the Board an irrevocable consent that service of process upon the Director is as valid and binding as service of process upon the applicant.

Any process or pleading served upon the Director shall be filed by the Director in his office and a copy thereof immediately forwarded by registered mail to the main office of the auctioneer at the last known address.

1983, c. 522, § 54-824.9:1; 1986, c. 61; 1988, c. 765; 1991, c. 299; 1996, cc. 438, 822; 1997, c. 281; 2010, c. 91.

A. The Board shall promulgate regulations governing continuing education requirements for auctioneers licensed by the Board. Such regulations shall require the completion of the equivalent of at least six hours of Board-approved continuing education courses for any license renewal or reinstatement, except that no continuing education shall be required for any auctioneer licensed by the Board for 25 years or more and who is 70 years of age or older. The Board shall establish criteria for continuing education courses, including but not limited to (i) content and subject matter of continuing education courses; (ii) curriculum of required continuing education courses; (iii) standards and procedures for the approval of courses, course sponsors, and course instructors; (iv) methods of instruction for continuing education courses; and (v) the computation of course credit. Any continuing education courses completed by an auctioneer pursuant to a requirement of the Certified Auctioneers Institute or participation in the educational programs sponsored by the National Auctioneers Association or Virginia Auctioneers Association shall satisfy the continuing education requirement of this section.

B. The Board may grant exemptions or waive or reduce the number of continuing education hours required in cases of certified illness or undue hardship.

2004, c. 956; 2016, c. 504.

Repealed by Acts 1991, c. 299.

An auctioneer may not have a local license tax imposed by any county, city, or town except that in which his office is maintained. If a branch office is maintained elsewhere in Virginia, a local license tax may be imposed by the county, city or town in which the branch office is located, pursuant to §§ 58.1-3707 and 58.1-3709.

1982, c. 538, § 54-824.15; 1988, c. 765.

It shall be unlawful for any person not licensed under the provisions of this chapter to advertise that he is in the auction business or to hold himself out to the public as an auctioneer.

1982, c. 538, § 54-824.19; 1983, c. 522; 1988, c. 765; 1991, c. 299.

A. No advertisements for any auction sale of personal or real property shall contain false, misleading, or deceptive statements, with respect to types or conditions of merchandise offered at auction, why merchandise is being sold, who has ownership, where the merchandise was obtained, or the terms and conditions of the auction and sale.

B. No auctioneer shall advertise an auction sale of real property as "absolute" unless all lots included in the sale meet that criteria.

2003, c. 367.

Chapter 7. Barbers and Cosmetologists.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Barber" means any person who shaves, shapes or trims the beard; cuts, singes, or dyes the hair or applies lotions thereto; applies, treats or massages the face, neck or scalp with oils, creams, lotions, cosmetics, antiseptics, powders, clays or other preparations in connection with shaving, cutting or trimming the hair or beard, and practices barbering for compensation and when such services are not performed for the treatment of disease.

"Barbering" means any one or any combination of the following acts, when done on the human body for compensation and not for the treatment of disease, shaving, shaping and trimming the beard; cutting, singeing, or dyeing the hair or applying lotions thereto; applications, treatment or massages of the face, neck or scalp with oils, creams, lotions, cosmetics, antiseptics, powders, clays, or other preparations in connection with shaving, cutting or trimming the hair or a beard. The term "barbering" shall not apply to the acts described hereinabove when performed by any person in his home if such service is not offered to the public.

"Barber instructor" means any person who has been certified by the Board as having completed an approved curriculum and who meets the competency standards of the Board as an instructor of barbering.

"Barbershop" means any establishment or place of business within which the practice of barbering is engaged in or carried on by one or more barbers.

"Board" means the Board for Barbers and Cosmetology.

"Body-piercer" means any person who for remuneration penetrates the skin of a person to make a hole, mark, or scar, generally permanent in nature.

"Body-piercing" means the act of penetrating the skin of a person to make a hole, mark, or scar, generally permanent in nature.

"Body-piercing salon" means any place in which a fee is charged for the act of penetrating the skin of a person to make a hole, mark, or scar, generally permanent in nature.

"Body-piercing school" means a place or establishment licensed by the Board to accept and train students in body-piercing.

"Cosmetologist" means any person who administers hair removal treatments; administers basic facial treatments to enhance or improve the appearance and care of the skin using lotions, oils, cleansers, or other preparations by manual practices only; manicures or pedicures the nails of any person; arranges, dresses, curls, waves, cuts, shapes, singes, waxes, tweezes, trims, bleaches, colors, relaxes, straightens, or performs similar work, upon human hair, or a wig or hairpiece, by any means, including hands or mechanical or electrical apparatus or appliances unless such acts as adjusting, combing, or brushing prestyled wigs or hairpieces do not alter the prestyled nature of the wig or hairpiece, and practices cosmetology for compensation. The term "cosmetologist" does not include hair braiding upon human hair or a wig or hairpiece.

"Cosmetology" includes the following practices: administering hair removal treatments; administering basic cleansing facial treatments to enhance or improve the appearance and care of the skin, which only includes a cleanse, tone, and application of a mask or moisturizer; manicuring or pedicuring the nails of any person; arranging, dressing, curling, waving, cutting, shaping, singeing, waxing, tweezing, trimming, bleaching, coloring, relaxing, straightening, or similar work, upon human hair, or a wig or hairpiece, by any means, including hands or mechanical or electrical apparatus or appliances, but shall not include hair braiding upon human hair, or a wig or hairpiece, or such acts as adjusting, combing, or brushing prestyled wigs or hairpieces when such acts do not alter the prestyled nature of the wig or hairpiece.

"Cosmetology instructor" means a person who has been certified by the Board as having completed an approved curriculum and who meets the competency standards of the Board as an instructor of cosmetology.

"Cosmetology salon" means any commercial establishment, residence, vehicle or other establishment, place or event wherein cosmetology is offered or practiced on a regular basis for compensation and may include the training of apprentices under regulations of the Board.

"Ear-piercer" means any person who for remuneration penetrates the ear of a person to make a hole, mark, or scar, generally permanent in nature.

"Ear-piercing" means the act of penetrating the ear of a person to make a hole, mark, or scar, generally permanent in nature.

"Ear-piercing salon" means any place in which a fee is charged for the act of penetrating the ear by the aid of needles or any other instrument designed to touch or puncture the skin.

"Ear-piercing school" means a place or establishment licensed by the Board to accept and train students in ear-piercing.

"Esthetician" means a person who engages in the practice of esthetics for compensation.

"Esthetics" includes the following practices of administering cosmetic treatments to enhance or improve the appearance of the skin: cleansing, toning, performing effleurage or other related movements, stimulating, exfoliating, or performing any other similar procedure on the skin of the human body or scalp by means of cosmetic preparations, treatments, or any nonlaser device, whether by electrical, mechanical, or manual means, for care of the skin; applying make-up or eyelashes to any person, tinting or perming eyelashes and eyebrows, and lightening hair on the body except the scalp; and removing unwanted hair from the body of any person by the use of any nonlaser device, by tweezing, or by use of chemical or mechanical means. However, "esthetics" is not a healing art and shall not include any practice, activity, or treatment that constitutes the practice of medicine, osteopathic medicine, or chiropractic. The terms "healing arts,""practice of medicine,""practice of osteopathic medicine," and "practice of chiropractic" shall mean the same as those terms are defined in § 54.1-2900.

"Esthetics instructor" means a licensed esthetician who has been certified by the Board as having completed an approved curriculum and who meets the competency standards of the Board as an instructor of esthetics.

"Esthetics spa" means any commercial establishment, residence, vehicle, or other establishment, place, or event wherein esthetics is offered or practiced on a regular basis for compensation under regulations of the Board.

"Master barber" means a licensed barber who, in addition to the practice of barbering, performs waving, shaping, bleaching, relaxing, or straightening upon human hair; performs similar work on a wig or hairpiece; or performs waxing limited to the scalp.

"Master esthetician" means a licensed esthetician who, in addition to the practice of esthetics, offers to the public for compensation, without the use of laser technology, lymphatic drainage, chemical exfoliation, or microdermabrasion, and who has met such additional requirements as determined by the Board to practice lymphatic drainage, chemical exfoliation with products other than Schedules II through VI controlled substances as defined in the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.), and microdermabrasion of the epidermis.

"Nail care" means manicuring or pedicuring natural nails or performing artificial nail services.

"Nail salon" means any commercial establishment, residence, vehicle or other establishment, place or event wherein nail care is offered or practiced on a regular basis for compensation and may include the training of apprentices under regulations of the Board.

"Nail school" means a place or establishment licensed by the board to accept and train students in nail care.

"Nail technician" means any person who for compensation manicures or pedicures natural nails, or who performs artificial nail services for compensation, or any combination thereof.

"Nail technician instructor" means a licensed nail technician who has been certified by the Board as having completed an approved curriculum and who meets the competency standards of the Board as an instructor of nail care.

"Physical (wax) depilatory" means the wax depilatory product or substance used to remove superfluous hair.

"School of cosmetology" means a place or establishment licensed by the Board to accept and train students and which offers a cosmetology curriculum approved by the Board.

"School of esthetics" means a place or establishment licensed by the Board to accept and train students and which offers an esthetics curriculum approved by the Board.

"Tattoo parlor" means any place in which tattooing is offered or practiced.

"Tattoo school" means a place or establishment licensed by the Board to accept and train students in tattooing.

"Tattooer" means any person who for remuneration practices tattooing.

"Tattooing" means the placing of designs, letters, scrolls, figures, symbols or any other marks upon or under the skin of any person with ink or any other substance, resulting in the permanent coloration of the skin, including permanent make-up or permanent jewelry, by the aid of needles or any other instrument designed to touch or puncture the skin.

"Wax technician" means any person licensed by the Board who removes hair from the hair follicle using a physical (wax) depilatory or by tweezing.

"Wax technician instructor" means a licensed wax technician who has been certified by the Board as having completed an approved curriculum and who meets the competency standards of the Board as an instructor of waxing.

"Waxing" means the temporary removal of superfluous hair from the hair follicle on any area of the human body through the use of a physical (wax) depilatory or by tweezing.

"Waxing salon" means any commercial establishment, residence, vehicle or other establishment, place or event wherein waxing is offered or practiced on a regular basis for compensation and may include the training of apprentices under regulations of the Board.

"Waxing school" means a place or establishment licensed by the Board to accept and train students in waxing.

1962, c. 639, § 1, § 54-83.2; 1966, c. 610; 1973, c. 86; 1974, c. 534; 1988, c. 765; 2000, c. 726; 2002, cc. 797, 869; 2003, c. 600; 2005, c. 829; 2012, cc. 803, 835; 2017, c. 390; 2018, cc. 219, 231, 237, 404; 2025, cc. 102, 308, 322.

The provisions of this chapter shall not apply to:

1. Persons authorized by the laws of the Commonwealth to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathy or chiropractic;

2. Registered nurses licensed to practice in the Commonwealth;

3. Persons employed in state or local penal or correctional institutions, rehabilitation centers, sanatoria, or institutions for care and treatment of individuals with mental illness or intellectual disability, or for care and treatment of geriatric patients, as barbers, cosmetologists, wax technicians, nail technicians, estheticians, barber instructors, cosmetology instructors, wax technician instructors, nail technician instructors, or esthetics instructors who practice only on inmates of or patients in such sanatoria or institutions;

4. Persons licensed as funeral directors or embalmers in the Commonwealth;

5. Gratuitous services as a barber, nail technician, cosmetologist, wax technician, tattooer, body-piercer, ear-piercer, or esthetician;

6. Students enrolled in an approved school taking a course in barbering, nail care, cosmetology, waxing, tattooing, body-piercing, ear-piercing, or esthetics;

7. Persons working in a cosmetology salon whose duties are expressly confined to the blow drying, arranging, dressing, curling, or cleansing of human hair;

8. Apprentices serving in a barbershop, nail salon, waxing salon, cosmetology salon, ear-piercing salon, or esthetics spa licensed by the Board in accordance with the Board's regulations;

9. Schools of barbering, nail care, waxing, or cosmetology in public schools; and

10. Persons whose activities are confined solely to applying make-up, including such activities that are ancillary to applying make-up.

1962, c. 639, § 4, § 54-83.5; 1968, c. 622; 1988, c. 765; 2000, c. 726; 2002, cc. 797, 869; 2003, c. 600; 2005, c. 829; 2012, cc. 476, 507, 803, 835; 2018, c. 404; 2025, cc. 308, 322.

The Board for Barbers and Cosmetology shall be composed of 10 members as follows: two members shall be licensed barbers, one of whom may be an owner or operator of a barber school; two members shall be licensed cosmetologists, at least one of whom shall be a salon owner and one of whom may be an owner or operator of a cosmetology school; one member shall be a licensed nail technician or a licensed cosmetologist engaged primarily in the practice of nail care, each of whom shall have been licensed in their respective professions for at least three years immediately prior to appointment; one member shall be either a licensed tattooer or a licensed body-piercer; two members shall be licensed estheticians, at least one of whom shall be an esthetics salon owner and one of whom may be an owner, operator, or designated representative of a licensed esthetics school; and two citizen members. The terms of Board members shall be four years. No member shall serve for more than two full successive terms. The Board shall elect a chairman and a vice-chairman. A majority of the Board shall constitute a quorum.

1962, c. 639, § 21, § 54-83.22; 1974, c. 534; 1979, c. 327; 1981, c. 447; 1988, cc. 42, 765; 2000, c. 726; 2002, c. 869; 2004, c. 945; 2005, c. 829; 2010, c. 91.

No person shall offer to engage in or engage in barbering, cosmetology, nail care, waxing, tattooing, body-piercing, ear-piercing, or esthetics without a valid license issued by the Board, except as provided in § 54.1-701.

1979, c. 408, § 54-83.22:1; 1988, c. 765; 2000, c. 726; 2002, cc. 797, 869; 2003, c. 600; 2005, c. 829; 2012, cc. 803, 835; 2025, cc. 308, 322.

The Board shall waive the examination requirements for licensure as a wax technician for any individual who (i) makes application for licensure between July 1, 2002, and July 1, 2003; (ii) otherwise complies with Board regulations relating to moral turpitude; and (iii) meets any of the following conditions:

1. Has at least three years of documented work experience as a wax technician that is deemed satisfactory by the Board;

2. Has completed a training program that is deemed satisfactory by the Board; or

3. Holds an unexpired certificate of registration, certification, or license as a wax technician issued to him on the basis of comparable requirements by a proper authority of a state, territory, or possession of the United States or the District of Columbia.

2002, c. 797.

Repealed by Acts 2012, cc. 803 and 835, cl. 54.

The Board shall waive the examination requirements for licensure as an esthetician or master esthetician for any individual who (i) makes application for licensure by July 31, 2009; (ii) otherwise complies with Board regulations relating to moral turpitude; and (iii) meets any of the following conditions:

1. Has at least three years of documented work experience as an esthetician or a master esthetician completed prior to July 1, 2008, that is deemed satisfactory by the Board;

2. Has completed a training program prior to July 1, 2008, that is deemed satisfactory by the Board; or

3. Holds an unexpired certificate of registration, certification, or license as an esthetician or a master esthetician issued to him prior to July 1, 2008, on the basis of comparable requirements by a proper authority of a state, territory, or possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia.

2005, c. 829; 2009, cc. 166, 328.

The Board may issue a temporary license to any person who is eligible for examination. Persons issued a temporary license shall be subject to the regulations of the Board.

The Board shall promulgate regulations consistent with this section to permit individuals to be granted temporary licenses for a specified period of time.

1984, c. 220, § 54-83.22:2; 1988, c. 765; 2000, c. 726.

No individual or entity shall operate a barbershop, cosmetology salon, nail care salon, waxing salon, tattoo parlor, body-piercing salon, ear-piercing salon, or esthetics spa without a valid license issued by the Board.

The provisions of this section shall not apply to a licensed barber, cosmetologist, nail technician, waxing technician, tattooer, body-piercer, ear-piercer, or esthetician who does not have an ownership interest in a licensed barbershop, cosmetology salon, nail care salon, waxing salon, tattoo parlor, body-piercing salon, ear-piercing salon, or esthetics spa in which he is employed.

2000, c. 726; 2002, cc. 797, 869; 2003, c. 600; 2005, c. 829; 2012, cc. 803, 835; 2025, cc. 308, 322.

Except as provided in § 54.1-701, no person, firm, or corporation shall operate or attempt to operate a school of barbering, cosmetology, nail care, waxing, tattooing, body-piercing, ear-piercing, or esthetics unless licensed by the Board pursuant to its regulations.

2000, c. 726; 2002, cc. 797, 869; 2003, c. 600; 2005, c. 829; 2012, cc. 803, 835; 2025, cc. 308, 322.

A. Inspectors and sanitarians of the State Department of Health, or an affiliated local health department, may inspect each barbershop, cosmetology salon, waxing salon, nail care salon, tattoo parlor, body-piercing salon, ear-piercing salon, and esthetics spa in the Commonwealth regularly. Any infractions shall be immediately reported to the Health Department and the Director of the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation for disciplinary action.

B. The Board may inspect barbershops, barber schools, cosmetology salons and schools, waxing salons and schools, nail care salons and schools, tattoo parlors and schools, body-piercing salons and schools, ear-piercing salons and schools, and esthetics spas and schools for compliance with regulations promulgated by the Board.

C. The Board shall specify procedures for enforcement of compliance with the disease control and disclosure requirements of § 18.2-371.3, including unannounced inspections by appropriate personnel.

D. The Board or the Virginia Department of Health, or an affiliated local health department, may regulate the sanitary condition of the personnel, equipment, and premises of tattoo parlors, body-piercing salons, and ear-piercing salons.

1962, c. 639, § 26, § 54-83.27; 1974, c. 534; 1988, c. 765; 1993, c. 499; 2000, c. 726; 2002, cc. 797, 869; 2003, c. 600; 2005, c. 829; 2012, cc. 803, 835; 2025, cc. 308, 322.

A. The Board shall have the discretion to impose different requirements for licensure for the practice of barbering, cosmetology, nail care, waxing, tattooing, body-piercing, ear-piercing, and esthetics.

B. The Board shall issue a license to practice as a master barber in the Commonwealth to:

1. An individual who holds a valid, unexpired license as a barber issued by the Board prior to December 8, 2017; or

2. An applicant who has successfully (i) completed the educational requirements as required by the Board, (ii) completed the experience requirements as required by the Board, and (iii) passed the examination approved by the Board.

C. The Board may develop different classes of ear-piercing licenses.

2000, c. 726; 2002, cc. 797, 869; 2003, c. 600; 2005, c. 829; 2012, cc. 803, 835; 2018, cc. 231, 237; 2025, cc. 308, 322.

The Board shall develop specific training and apprenticeship programs for ear-piercers to ensure safety and competency.

2025, cc. 308, 322.

Chapter 8. Boxing and Wrestling Matches [Repealed].

Repealed by Acts 1998, c. 895.

Chapter 8.1. Boxing and Wrestling Events.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Amateur" means an individual who has never participated in a boxing, martial arts, or professional wrestling event for money, compensation, or reward other than a suitably inscribed memento.

"Boxer" means a person competing in the sport of boxing.

"Boxing" means the contact sport of attack or defense using fists.

"Cable television system" means any facility consisting of a set of closed transmission paths and associated equipment designed to provide video programming to multiple subscribers when subscriber interaction is required to select a specific video program for an access fee established by the cable television system for that specific video program.

"Contractor" means any person who has been recognized by the Director, through a contract pursuant to § 54.1-832, as an appropriate responsible party to provide services to assist the Commonwealth in complying with the provisions of this chapter.

"Department" means the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation or its successor.

"Director" means the Director of the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation.

"Event" means any boxing, martial arts, or professional wrestling show that includes one or more bouts, contests, or matches.

"Exhibition bout" means a bout that is part of any martial arts or professional boxing event in which boxers or martial artists show or display skills without a declared winner.

"Manager" means any person who serves as a representative or agent of a boxer, martial artist, or professional wrestler to arrange for his participation in an event.

"Martial artist" means a person competing in the sport of martial arts.

"Martial arts" or "mixed martial arts" means any of several Asian arts of combat or self-defense, alone or in combination, including aikido, karate, judo, muay thai, or tae kwon do, usually practiced as sport and which may involve the use of striking weapons.

"Matchmaker" means any person who proposes, selects, arranges for, or in any manner procures specific individuals to be contestants in an event.

"Person" means a natural person, corporation, partnership, sole proprietorship, firm, enterprise, franchise, association, or any other entity.

"Professional" means a person who participates or has ever participated for money, compensation, or reward other than a suitably inscribed memento in any boxing, martial arts, or professional wrestling event.

"Professional wrestler" means any professional participating in professional wrestling.

"Professional wrestling" means an event in which contestants incorporate the sport of wrestling into choreographed performances.

"Promote" or "promotion" means to organize, arrange, publicize, or conduct an event or exhibition bout in the Commonwealth.

"Promoter" means any person who undertakes to promote an event or exhibition bout.

"Regulant" means any person required by this chapter to obtain a prior authorization from the Department.

"Sanctioning organization" means an entity approved by the Director pursuant to § 54.1-829.1.

"Trainer," "second," or "cut man" means an individual who undertakes to assure the well-being of a boxer or martial artist by providing instruction or advice concerning techniques or strategies of boxing or martial arts, and who may work in the corner with a boxer or martial artist between the rounds of a match to assure his well-being and provide necessary equipment and advice concerning match participation.

"Wrestler" means any person competing or participating as an opponent in wrestling.

"Wrestling" means any of several styles of physical competition in which individuals attempt to subdue or unbalance an opponent, including Greco-Roman, freestyle, grappling, or submission, usually practiced as a sport.

1998, c. 895; 2005, c. 287; 2015, cc. 216, 264; 2016, c. 756; 2025, cc. 95, 111.

A. No person shall act as a promoter, matchmaker, trainer, boxer, martial artist, or professional wrestler in the Commonwealth without first having obtained authorization for such activity from the Department or sanctioning organization approved by the Director pursuant to § 54.1-829.1 and such authorization remains in full force and effect.

B. No authorization to act as a promoter shall be granted unless the applicant executes and files with the Department a bond, in such penalty as the Department shall determine through regulation, conditioned on the payment of the fees and penalties imposed by this chapter and for the fulfillment of contracts made with professional contestants in accordance with Department regulations. This subsection shall not apply to a promoter applying to conduct an amateur-only event under the authority of a sanctioning organization approved by the Director pursuant to § 54.1-829.1.

C. Each boxer and martial artist shall, and each professional wrestler may, be examined prior to entering the ring by a physician who has held a license to practice medicine for at least three years in any jurisdiction of the United States and who is currently licensed to practice medicine in the Commonwealth. The physician shall be approved by the Director and shall certify in writing that the contestant's physical condition is such that he is physically able to engage in the contest.

D. No event in which boxers or martial artists are contestants shall be conducted without the continuous presence at ringside of a physician who has held a license to practice medicine for at least three years in any jurisdiction of the United States and who is currently licensed to practice medicine in the Commonwealth, and unless an emergency medical services vehicle is at the site of the event.

E. No boxer or martial artist shall participate in any event unless covered by a health insurance policy with minimum coverage in an amount determined by Department regulation.

1998, c. 895; 2007, c. 853; 2015, cc. 216, 264, 502, 503; 2016, c. 756; 2025, cc. 95, 111.

A. No event in which amateur participants compete in martial arts shall be authorized in the Commonwealth unless the amateur event is conducted by a sanctioning organization approved by the Director. Only the results of amateur events conducted by a sanctioning organization in good standing and in compliance with this section shall be recognized for purposes of reporting bout results to a national database or official registry. Every sanctioning organization, insofar as practicable, shall observe and apply the unified rules adopted by the Association of Boxing Commissions. Notwithstanding any other provision of law or regulation, for purposes of amateur martial arts events, weight classes and bout rules governing round length, judging, and scoring shall conform with the Association of Boxing Commissions unified rules.

B. No amateur martial artist shall compete in an event who has:

1. Not attained the age of 18 years;

2. Been knocked out in the 60 days immediately preceding the date of the event;

3. Been technically knocked out in the 30 days preceding the date of the event;

4. Been a contestant in an event consisting of (i) more than six rounds during the 15 days preceding the date of the event or (ii) six or fewer rounds during the seven days preceding the event;

5. Suffered a cerebral hemorrhage or other serious physical injury;

6. Been found to be blind or vision impaired in one or both eyes;

7. Been denied a license or approval to compete by another jurisdiction for medical reasons;

8. Failed to provide negative test results, dated within 180 days preceding the date of the event, for the following: (i) antibodies to the human immunodeficiency virus; (ii) hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg); and (iii) antibodies to the hepatitis C virus; or

9. Failed to provide written certification from a licensed physician, dated within 180 days preceding the date of the event, attesting to the contestant's good physical health and absence of any preexisting conditions or observed abnormalities that would prevent participation in the event. The examination performed by the ringside physician at the event pursuant to clause (ii) of subdivision C 3 shall not satisfy this requirement.

C. For each amateur martial arts event, the sanctioning organization shall:

1. Review the records, experience, and consecutive losses for each amateur martial artist prior to each event to determine, to the extent possible, that contestants scheduled to compete are substantially equal in skills and ability;

2. Verify that each amateur martial artist scheduled to compete is covered by health insurance;

3. Appoint a physician who has held a license to practice medicine for at least three years in any jurisdiction of the United States and who is currently licensed to practice medicine in the Commonwealth to remain at ringside on a continuous basis. Duties of the ringside physician shall include (i) conducting a physical examination of each referee immediately prior to the event to assure his fitness to act in such capacity, (ii) conducting a physical examination and taking a medical history of each amateur martial artist prior to the contestant's entering the ring and certifying the contestant's physical condition, (iii) signaling the referee immediately in the event that an injury is observed, (iv) rendering immediate medical aid to any amateur martial artist injured during an event, and (v) ensuring that all substances in the possession of seconds, trainers, or cut men are appropriate for use on amateur martial artists during the course of the event;

4. Assign a sufficient number of qualified officials, including locker room inspectors, judges, timekeepers, and referees, to protect the health and safety of amateur martial artists and the public. Duties of the referee shall include (i) providing prefight instructions to the contestants; (ii) ensuring that each amateur martial artist is wearing gloves supplied by the sanctioning organization or event promoter that are in new or good condition, weighing between four and six ounces; (iii) exercising supervision over the conduct of the bout and taking immediate corrective action when necessary; (iv) immediately stopping any bout when, in his judgment, one contestant is outclassed by the other, injured, or otherwise unable to continue safely; (v) striving to perform his duties in a manner that does not impede the fair participation of either contestant; (vi) consulting, when he deems appropriate, with the ringside physician on the advisability of stopping the bout if either contestant appears injured or unable to continue; (vii) counting for knockdowns and knockouts, determining fouls and stopping contests, and immediately stopping any bout if one or both contestants are not putting forth their best effort; and (viii) ensuring the health and well-being of the amateur martial artists to the greatest extent possible; and

5. Require a fully equipped emergency medical services vehicle with a currently trained ambulance crew at the site of every amateur event for its entire duration.

D. Any sanctioning organization seeking approval under this section shall make a written application on a form prescribed by the Director. The application shall be accompanied by a fee of $500. The Director shall annually approve sanctioning organizations whose applications satisfactorily demonstrate evidence of standards and operations in place that are at least as rigorous as and limited to those required by this section. Following an informal fact-finding proceeding conducted pursuant to § 2.2-4019, the Director may withdraw his approval of any sanctioning organization that has failed to comply with this section based on (i) the review of the annual report submitted by the sanctioning organization or (ii) review of a complaint received pursuant to subdivision A 8 of § 54.1-201 or § 54.1-307.1.

E. A sanctioning organization seeking approval from the Director shall provide documented evidence (i) of operation as a business for at least the immediately preceding three years; (ii) of at least five years of experience as a sanctioning organization representing at least two different promotions during such five-year period or that the principal officers have at least eight years of experience working as a referee or head official for an established sanctioning organization without adverse financial or disciplinary action in any jurisdiction; (iii) indicating that none of its officers, employees, or agents, directly or indirectly, has any pecuniary interest in, or holds any position with, any business associated with a promoter or otherwise operates for the sole benefit of a single promoter; and (iv) of assurance that events will be conducted in a fair and impartial manner with avoidance of any impropriety or appearance of impropriety.

F. Each approved sanctioning organization shall submit an annual report to the Director on or before February 1, with a summary of the events conducted for the preceding calendar year. The Director may address any operational or compliance issues with the sanctioning organization consistent with and in furtherance of the objectives of this section. The Director shall not intervene in the internal activities of a sanctioning organization except to the extent necessary to prevent or cure violations of this section or any statute governing the persons or activities regulated pursuant to this chapter.

G. The Commonwealth, the Director, the Department, and any employee or representative shall be indemnified and held harmless from any liability resulting from or caused by a sanctioning organization or persons conducting activities on behalf of such regulant.

2015, cc. 216, 264; 2016, c. 756; 2025, cc. 95, 111.

The provisions of this chapter shall not apply to:

1. Amateur wrestling bouts;

2. Amateur exhibition bouts and the amateur participants therein;

3. Engagements involving amateur martial arts that are conducted by or held under the sponsorship of (i) any elementary or secondary school or public or private institution of higher education located in the Commonwealth, (ii) the Department of Corrections involving inmates of any state correctional institution, or (iii) the United States Olympic Committee; or

4. Amateur boxing.

1998, c. 895; 2015, cc. 216, 264; 2016, c. 756; 2025, cc. 95, 111.

The Department shall administer and enforce the provisions of this chapter. In addition to the powers and duties otherwise conferred by law, the Director shall have the powers and duties of a regulatory board as contained in §§ 54.1-201 and 54.1-202, and shall have the power and duty to:

1. Promulgate regulations in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) which implement the federal Professional Boxing Safety Act of 1996 (15 U.S.C. § 6301 et seq.) and protect the public against incompetent, unqualified, unscrupulous or unfit persons engaging in the activities regulated by this chapter.

The regulations shall include requirements for (i) initial authorization and renewal of the authorization; (ii) authorization and conduct of events; (iii) standards of practice for persons arranging, promoting, conducting, supervising, and participating in events; (iv) grounds for disciplinary actions against regulants; (v) records to be kept and maintained by regulants; (vi) the manner in which fees are to be accounted for and submitted to the Department, provided, however, that no gate fee shall be required for amateur-only events conducted by a sanctioning organization approved by the Director pursuant to § 54.1-829.1; and (vii) minimum health coverage for injuries sustained in a boxing or martial arts match. The Department shall have direct oversight of professional events to assure the safety and well-being of boxers, martial artists, and professional wrestlers, except that those portions of an event containing amateur bouts shall be conducted under the oversight of a sanctioning organization. Sanctioning organizations shall have sole responsibility for direct oversight of amateur-only events in which martial artists compete.

2. Charge each applicant for authorization and for renewals of authorization a nonrefundable fee subject to the provisions of § 54.1-113 and subdivision A 4 of § 54.1-201. A sanctioning organization shall be subject to the application fee provisions of subsection D of § 54.1-829.1.

3. Conduct investigations to determine the suitability of applicants for authorization and to determine the regulant's compliance with applicable statutes and regulations.

4. Conduct investigations as to whether monopolies, combinations, or other circumstances exist to restrain matches or exhibition bouts of boxing, martial arts, or professional wrestling anywhere in the Commonwealth. The Attorney General may assist investigations at the request of the Department.

5. Exercise jurisdiction over all boxing, martial arts, and professional wrestling conducted within the Commonwealth by any person, except where otherwise exempted.

1998, c. 895; 2010, c. 764; 2012, c. 769; 2015, cc. 216, 264; 2016, c. 756; 2025, cc. 95, 111.

A. The Boxing, Martial Arts, and Professional Wrestling Advisory Board (the Board) is established as an advisory board, within the meaning of § 2.2-2100, in the executive branch of state government to advise the Director on matters relating to boxing, martial arts, and professional wrestling events in the Commonwealth.

B. The Board shall consist of seven members appointed by the Director as follows: one representative of the sport of boxing; one representative of the sport of professional wrestling; one representative of the sport of martial arts; one representative of either the sport of boxing, martial arts, or professional wrestling; one member who is a martial arts instructor who has obtained the rank of black belt or higher; and two citizen members. All members shall be residents of the Commonwealth. All appointments shall be for terms of four years, except that appointments to fill vacancies shall be for the unexpired terms. No person shall be eligible to serve for more than two successive full terms.

C. The Board shall elect its chairman and vice-chairman from among its members. The Board shall meet at least once each year to conduct its business and upon the call of the Director or chair of the Board. Four members shall constitute a quorum.

D. Members of the Board shall receive no compensation for their services, but shall be reimbursed for all reasonable and necessary expenses incurred in the discharge of their duties as provided in § 2.2-2825.

E. Such staff support as is necessary for the conduct of the Board's business shall be furnished by the Department.

2007, c. 853; 2012, c. 522; 2015, cc. 216, 264.

When required in order to comply with applicable federal law, the Department may suspend the license of any person holding a license as a boxer on medical grounds or when there is substantial danger to the public health or safety without a hearing or informal fact-finding conference. Institution of a proceeding for a hearing or conference shall be provided simultaneously with the summary suspension. The hearing or conference shall be scheduled within a reasonable time of the date of the summary suspension. The suspension shall remain in effect only so long as the medical grounds or danger to the public health or safety shall exist.

2002, c. 33.

A. The Director may contract with a private person, firm, corporation or association to provide any or all of the following services on behalf of the Department: examining and recommending licensure, investigating and ensuring that events are conducted in compliance with statutes and regulations, performing clerical duties, collecting fees, maintaining records, developing proposed regulations in accordance with Article 2 (§ 2.2-4006 et seq.) of the Administrative Process Act, and recommending enforcement actions in accordance with Article 3 (§ 2.2-4018 et seq.) of the Administrative Process Act.

B. The Director shall procure any or all of such services in accordance with the provisions of the Virginia Public Procurement Act (§ 2.2-4300 et seq.). Prior to the award of such contract, a proposer shall demonstrate, to the satisfaction of the Director:

1. Personnel and financial resources necessary to carry out the provisions of the contract;

2. Adequate indemnification to protect the Commonwealth and its agencies and instrumentalities from all claims and losses incurred as a result of the contract;

3. Compliance with all applicable federal, state, and local laws;

4. Ability to develop, implement, and maintain the internal operations necessary to carry out the provisions of the contract; and

5. Ability to meet any other qualifications the Director deems appropriate in the procurement process.

C. Any contract awarded in accordance with this section shall not exceed a three-year term, but may be renewed annually upon the approval of the Director. The Director shall be the signatory to the contract on behalf of the Commonwealth.

D. Nothing herein is intended to deprive the contractor or the Commonwealth of the benefits of any law limiting exposure to liability or setting a limit on damages.

E. Nothing herein is intended to deprive the Director of his authority to carry out the requirements of this chapter when no contract is in effect.

1998, c. 895.

A. Each promoter shall furnish to the Department, within two weeks after the completion of each event, a written and verified report on the form provided by the Department showing the number of tickets sold, unsold, and given away and the amount of gross proceeds thereof for such events originating in the Commonwealth, and its total gross receipts from the sale of rights to distribute in any manner such event by any video, telephonic, or other communication method involving the control of electrons or other charge carriers for such live events originating in the Commonwealth. Within the two-week period, the promoter shall pay to the Department a fee of (i) five percent of the first $100,000 of its total gross receipts and (ii) two and one-half percent of the remainder of its total gross receipts. Records of the promoter shall be subject to audit by the Department.

B. Each cable television system or other multichannel video programming service shall report to the Department in writing the name and address of each person from whom it obtains the rights to provide a live event originating in the Commonwealth.

C. The Department shall hold all license fees in a special fund of the state treasury subject to appropriation of the General Assembly. Payments from this fund shall be made to the contractors for their services on behalf of the Commonwealth. No payment shall exceed the balance of the fund. The Department shall draw from the fund to cover any expenses associated with the provisions of this chapter.

1998, c. 895; 2015, cc. 216, 264; 2025, cc. 95, 111.

A. No betting or wagering shall be permitted at an event or exhibition bout before, during, or after the event in the building where the event is held.

B. No person shall participate in a sham or fake boxing or martial arts contest. The Department shall have the authority to order, without a hearing, the person controlling the purse to hold the distribution to contestants, promoters, and trainers pending a public hearing by the Department. The Department shall, simultaneously with the issuance of such order to retain the share or purse, institute proceedings for a hearing to determine whether a sham or fake boxing or martial arts contest has occurred.

C. It shall be a Class 1 misdemeanor for any person to violate this section or any statute or regulation governing the persons or activities regulated pursuant to this chapter.

D. The third or any subsequent conviction for violating any provision of this section during a 36-month period shall constitute a Class 6 felony.

1998, c. 895; 2015, cc. 216, 264; 2016, c. 756; 2025, cc. 95, 111.

Repealed by Acts 2015, cc. 216 and 264, cl. 2, effective October 1, 2015.

Chapter 9. Branch Pilots.

Article 1. Board for Branch Pilots.

For the purposes of this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Board" means the Board for Branch Pilots.

"Branch pilots" means pilots who have qualified and been licensed in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-905.

"Limited branch pilots" means pilots who have qualified and been licensed in accordance with the provisions of § 54.1-909.

"Pilot" means branch pilot and limited branch pilot.

Code 1950, § 54-525; 1988, c. 765.

The Board for Branch Pilots shall consist of nine members to be appointed as follows: the Circuit Court of the City of Hampton shall appoint three persons, only one of whom shall be a branch pilot, and the Circuit Court of the City of Norfolk shall appoint four persons, only two of whom shall be branch pilots, and the Circuit Court of the City of Portsmouth shall appoint two persons, only one of whom shall be a branch pilot. The court which appointed a member may remove him for incapacity, neglect of duty or misconduct and may fill the vacancy.

Four members of the Board shall constitute a quorum. The Board shall appoint a clerk, who shall keep a record of the Board's proceedings.

Code 1950, §§ 54-527, 54-528, 54-530, 54-531; 1978, c. 834; 1988, c. 765.

A. The Board is authorized to promulgate regulations necessary for the proper government and regulation of pilots and to prescribe penalties for the violation of regulations in accordance with the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.). Regulations may include the right to suspend or revoke the branch of any pilot. Such suspension or revocation may be in addition to any other penalty imposed by law for the violation.

Reasonable notice and an opportunity to be heard in accordance with the Administrative Process Act shall be given before the Board shall take any action to revoke or suspend the license of any licensee.

B. The Board may suspend a license of any person without a hearing, simultaneously with the institution of proceedings for a hearing, if it finds that there is substantial danger to the public health or safety which warrants such action. The Board may meet by telephone conference call when summarily suspending a license, if a good faith effort to assemble a quorum of the Board has failed and in the judgment of a majority of the members of the Board, the continued practice of the licensee constitutes a substantial danger to the public health or safety. Institution of proceeding for a hearing shall be provided simultaneously with the summary suspension. The hearing shall be scheduled within a reasonable time of the date of the summary suspension.

C. Before any penalty for violation of the regulations may be imposed, a printed copy of the regulations shall be furnished to each pilot.

Code 1950, § 54-529; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 584.

The Board may decide any controversy between pilots or between a pilot and the master, owner, or consignee of any vessel, which may arise under any law concerning pilots in accordance with the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.). If the decision requires the payment of money, the Board shall enter a judgment therefor on the record of its proceedings. When an authorized officer receives a copy of the judgment, he shall enforce the payment as if it were an execution against the property of the debtor.

Code 1950, §§ 54-533, 54-534; 1988, c. 765.

Nothing in this chapter shall authorize the Board to decide upon the liability of a pilot or his apprentice to any person injured by his negligence or misconduct, or to prevent such person from recovering for any damage occasioned thereby.

Code 1950, § 54-535; 1988, c. 765.

Article 2. Examination and Licensure.

Applicants for examination shall submit to the Board a certificate from the circuit court in the county or city of their residence stating that the applicant is of good character and a resident of the Commonwealth. The applicant shall also submit proof that he has served as an apprentice for five years, including three years as a limited branch pilot. If the Board finds the applicant qualified to act as a branch pilot it shall issue him a license, and he shall thereupon become a state officer, to be known as a branch pilot and shall hold office as such for one year next ensuing. Before he may perform any of the duties of his office he shall give bond before the clerk of the circuit court of the county or city in which he resides in the penalty of $500, conditioned for the faithful performance of his duties and he shall take the oath of office required by § 49-1.

Branch pilots may conduct and pilot any vessel.

Code 1950, §§ 54-536, 54-555; 1988, c. 765.

All licenses issued by the Board shall expire on December 31 of the year in which issued. Every pilot who holds a license as a branch pilot shall appear before the Board every twelve months, and, if the Board deems him qualified, it shall renew his license, which shall continue his term of office for one year following each renewal. Upon each renewal he shall appear before the clerk before whom he originally qualified, and renew his oath of office, but the bond given by him shall remain in force.

Code 1950, §§ 54-537, 54-538; 1988, c. 765.

Upon the application for license as a branch pilot and each renewal thereof, the applicant for license or license renewal shall pay a fee established by the Board pursuant to § 54.1-113.

Code 1950, §§ 54-539, 54-540; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 72.

No state, city, town or county licenses shall be assessed against any branch pilot.

Code 1950, § 54-541; 1988, c. 765.

Any apprentice may apply to the Board for a license as a limited branch pilot. The Board may grant him a license after proper examination if in the opinion of the Board the applicant is qualified. The Board may endorse on the license such limitations as it deems proper, and a limited branch pilot shall perform his duties of piloting and conducting vessels within the limitations imposed by his license.

Code 1950, §§ 54-542, 54-543, 54-556; 1988, c. 765; 2007, cc. 326, 559.

Article 3. Duties and Liabilities of Master, Etc.

The master of every vessel, other than vessels exclusively engaged in the coastwise trade and those made exempt by United States statutes, inward bound from sea to any port in Virginia or any intermediate or other point in Hampton Roads, the Virginia waters of Chesapeake Bay, or in any navigable river in Virginia which flows into Chesapeake Bay or Hampton Roads, shall take the first Virginia pilot that offers his services. Any such vessel outward bound, or bound from one port or point in Virginia to another port or point, shall take the first Virginia pilot that offers his services at the port, point, or place of departure or sailing. Any master refusing to do so shall immediately pay to such pilot full pilotage from the point where the services are offered to the point of destination of the vessel.

Code 1950, § 54-544; 1988, c. 765.

The master, agent or consignee of any vessel requiring a pilot shall give at least two hours' notice of the need for a pilot to the pilot officers.

Code 1950, § 54-547; 1988, c. 765.

No master shall employ any person who is not licensed as a pilot to act as a pilot of his vessel.

Code 1950, § 54-548; 1988, c. 765.

The master of a vessel shall not conceal or obscure or refuse to disclose the name of his vessel when spoken to by a pilot.

Code 1950, § 54-549; 1988, c. 765.

Article 4. Duties, Rights and Powers of Pilots.

Every pilot, or the company to which he belongs, shall keep one sufficient boat of at least thirty feet keel.

Code 1950, § 54-550; 1988, c. 765.

The first pilot who meets a vessel coming in, which his branch entitles him to conduct, shall have the right to take charge of and conduct her into port.

Code 1950, § 54-554; 1988, c. 765.

Any pilot piloting a vessel shall have full discretion as to when the vessel shall be piloted to or from sea, or to or from any port or place within the Commonwealth or situated within any of the waters referred to in § 54.1-910. The pilot's discretion shall be exercised in a reasonable way, with a view to the vessel's safety as well as with a view to the safety of the Commonwealth's waters and ports.

Code 1950, § 54-558; 1988, c. 765.

If any individual whose pilot's license has been suspended is found on board any vessel as a pilot, or offers to conduct any vessel, he may be dismissed from the vessel by any licensed pilot, to whom all the pilotage shall be paid. The Board may proceed against the individual under the provisions of § 54.1-924 as if the individual had never been licensed. An individual whose pilot's license has been suspended may also be proceeded against under § 54.1-111.

Code 1950, § 54-561; 1988, c. 765.

Article 5. Fees and Charges.

The State Corporation Commission shall prescribe and enforce the rates of pilotage and other charges to be observed in the business of pilotage, but before the Commission fixes or prescribes rates or charges it shall give ten days' notice of the time and place of a hearing by publication in a newspaper of general circulation in each of the Cities of Norfolk, Portsmouth and Newport News. For the purpose of determining the fair basis of such rates and charges, the Commission shall, for the two years next preceding, have access to the books and records of the individual pilots who have no organized association, and of any association of pilots who have an organized association whose rates are to be fixed by the Commission, and shall have the same powers given by law in fixing rates and charges of transportation companies.

The Commission shall fix amounts that will be a fair charge for the service rendered. The Commission shall have due regard for necessary operating expenses, maintenance of, depreciation on, and return on investment in properties used and useful in the business of pilotage, and the rates and charges of pilotage at comparable and competing ports of the United States.

When such rates and charges have been fixed and prescribed by the Commission, they shall be the legal rates and charges of pilotage in Virginia, and shall be enforced as provided by law, and the Commission shall have the power to change or alter rates or charges after notice and hearing as provided in this section.

Code 1950, § 54-562; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 10.

From any action of the State Corporation Commission under § 54.1-918, an appeal may be taken by the individual pilots, company or association affected, or by any other person, firm or corporation aggrieved by such action, in the manner prescribed in Article IX, Section 4 of the Constitution of Virginia.

Code 1950, § 54-563; 1971, Ex. Sess., c. 37; 1988, c. 765.

If a pilot is detained on board any seagoing vessel he shall be paid by the master, owner, or consignee of the vessel the rate prescribed by the State Corporation Commission for a day's detention for each day detained. If any pilot is carried beyond the limits of the Commonwealth against his will, he shall be entitled to recover $300 from the master or owner of the vessel upon which he has been carried away.

Code 1950, § 54-564; 1988, c. 765.

If any pilot is permitted to go on board a vessel without being informed of a contagious or infectious disease on board, and is obligated to remain on board, or perform quarantine in consequence thereof he shall be paid for each day's detention in accordance with the rate prescribed for a day's detention by the State Corporation Commission.

Code 1950, § 54-565; 1988, c. 765.

The master and the owner of every vessel shall each be liable to the pilot for his pilotage and other allowances, and also the consignee or supercargo of any vessel not owned by a resident of the Commonwealth. If the consignee or supercargo refuses to become responsible to the pilot for his fees, the master or owner of the vessel shall, before she leaves her port of departure, deposit with some responsible person, subject to the order of the pilot, the amount of the pilotage due him.

Code 1950, § 54-566; 1988, c. 765.

Every pilot shall, if required, produce his branch at the time of demanding his fees, before he shall be entitled to receive the same.

Code 1950, § 54-569; 1988, c. 765.

Article 6. Offenses and Penalties Generally.

No person shall conduct or pilot a vessel to or from sea, or to or from any port or place in Virginia unless he is licensed under this chapter.

Warrants for persons violating this section may be issued by any magistrate, upon the oath of any party complaining, and shall be returnable to the Circuit Court of the City of Norfolk. After a bond hearing held pursuant to Chapter 9 (§ 19.2-119 et seq.) of Title 19.2, the bond shall be returned by the judicial officer to the circuit court of the City of Norfolk, which shall have jurisdiction for trial of such misdemeanor.

Code 1950, § 54-571; 1988, c. 765.

Section 54.1-924 shall not prevent any person from assisting a vessel in distress.

Code 1950, § 54-572; 1988, c. 765.

No pilot shall demand or receive other than the lawful fee for any service. Any pilot who violates this section may be suspended by the Board for up to six months.

Code 1950, § 54-573; 1988, c. 765.

Any person who violates any of the provisions of this chapter shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

1988, c. 765.

Chapter 10. Commercial Driver Training Schools [Repealed].

Repealed by Acts 1990, c. 466.

Chapter 11. Contractors.

Article 1. Regulation of Contractors.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Board" means the Board for Contractors.

"Class A contractors" perform or manage construction, removal, repair, or improvements when (i) the total value referred to in a single contract or project is $150,000 or more, or (ii) the total value of all such construction, removal, repair, or improvements undertaken by such person within any 12-month period is $1 million or more.

"Class B contractors" perform or manage construction, removal, repair, or improvements when (i) the total value referred to in a single contract or project is $30,000 or more, but less than $150,000, or (ii) the total value of all such construction, removal, repair, or improvements undertaken by such person within any 12-month period is $250,000 or more, but less than $1 million.

"Class C contractors" perform or manage construction, removal, repair, or improvements when (i) the total value referred to in a single contract or project is over $1,000 but less than $30,000, or (ii) the total value of all such construction, removal, repair, or improvements undertaken by such person within any 12-month period is less than $250,000. The Board shall require a master tradesmen license as a condition of licensure for electrical, plumbing, and heating, ventilation, and air conditioning contractors.

"Contractor" means any person, that for a fixed price, commission, fee, or percentage undertakes to bid upon, or accepts, or offers to accept, orders or contracts for performing, managing, or superintending in whole or in part, the construction, removal, repair, or improvement of any building or structure permanently annexed to real property owned, controlled, or leased by him or another person or any other improvements to such real property. For purposes of this chapter, "improvement" shall include (i) remediation, cleanup, or containment of premises to remove contaminants or (ii) site work necessary to make certain real property usable for human occupancy according to the guidelines established pursuant to § 32.1-11.7.

"Department" means the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation.

"Designated employee" means the contractor's full-time employee, or a member of the contractor's responsible management, who is at least 18 years of age and who has successfully completed the oral or written examination required by the Board on behalf of the contractor.

"Director" means the Director of the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation.

"Fire sprinkler contractor" means a contractor that provides for the installation, repair, alteration, addition, testing, maintenance, inspection, improvement, or removal of sprinkler systems using water as a means of fire suppression when annexed to real property. "Fire sprinkler contracting" does not include the installation, repair, or maintenance of other types of fire suppression systems.

"Owner-developer" means any person who, for a third party purchaser, orders or supervises the construction, removal, repair, or improvement of any building or structure permanently annexed to real property owned, controlled, or leased by the owner-developer, or any other improvement to such property and who contracts with a person licensed in accordance with this chapter for the work undertaken.

"Person" means any individual, firm, corporation, association, partnership, joint venture, or other legal entity.

"Value" means fair market value. When improvements are performed or supervised by a contractor, the contract price shall be prima facie evidence of value.

Code 1950, § 54-113; 1954, c. 428; 1970, c. 319; 1972, c. 771; 1977, c. 640; 1978, c. 521; 1980, c. 634; 1984, c. 434; 1987, c. 358; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 911; 1992, cc. 330, 713, 715, 812; 1993, cc. 499, 815; 1994, cc. 601, 754; 1995, c. 581; 1997, c. 885; 1998, c. 754; 2005, c. 348; 2010, c. 62; 2016, c. 527; 2019, c. 726; 2025, cc. 127, 133.

A. The provisions of this chapter shall not apply to:

1. Any governmental agency performing work with its own forces;

2. Work bid upon or undertaken for the armed services of the United States under the Armed Services Procurement Act;

3. Work bid upon or undertaken for the United States government on land under the exclusive jurisdiction of the federal government either by statute or deed of cession;

4. Work bid upon or undertaken for the Department of Transportation on the construction, reconstruction, repair, or improvement of any highway or bridge;

5. Any other persons who may be specifically excluded by other laws but only to such an extent as such laws provide;

6. Any material supplier who renders advice concerning use of products sold and who does not provide construction or installation services;

7. Any person who performs or supervises the construction, removal, repair, or improvement of no more than one primary residence owned by him and for his own use during any 24-month period;

8. Any person who performs or supervises the construction, removal, repair, or improvement of a house upon his own real property as a bona fide gift to a member of his immediate family provided such member lives in the house. For purposes of this section, "immediate family" includes one's mother, father, son, daughter, brother, sister, grandchild, grandparent, mother-in-law, and father-in-law;

9. Any person who performs or supervises the repair or improvement of industrial or manufacturing facilities, or a commercial or retail building, for his own use;

10. Any person who performs or supervises the repair or improvement of residential dwelling units owned by him that are subject to the Virginia Residential Landlord and Tenant Act (§ 55.1-1200 et seq.);

11. Any owner-developer, provided that any third-party purchaser is made a third-party beneficiary to the contract between the owner-developer and a licensed contractor whereby the contractor's obligation to perform the contract extends to both the owner-developer and the third party;

12. Work undertaken by students as part of a career and technical education project as defined in § 22.1-228 established by any school board in accordance with Article 5 (§ 22.1-228 et seq.) of Chapter 13 of Title 22.1 for the construction of portable classrooms or single family homes;

13. Any person who performs the removal of building detritus or provides janitorial, cleaning, or sanitizing services incidental to the construction, removal, repair, or improvement of real property;

14. Any person who is performing work directly under the supervision of a licensed contractor and is (i) a student in good standing and enrolled in a public or private institution of higher education, (ii) a student enrolled in a career training or technical education program, or (iii) an apprentice as defined in § 2.2-2043; and

15. Work undertaken by a person providing construction, remodeling, repair, improvement, removal, or demolition valued at $25,000 or less per project on behalf of a properly licensed contractor, provided that such contractor holds a valid license in the (i) residential building, (ii) commercial building, or (iii) home improvement building contractor classification. However, any construction services that require an individual license or certification shall be rendered only by an individual licensed or certified in accordance with this chapter.

All other contractors performing work for any government or for any governmental agency are subject to the provisions of this chapter and are required to be licensed as provided herein.

B. Any person who is exempt from the provisions of this chapter as a result of subdivision A 7, 10, 11, or 12 shall obtain a certificate of occupancy for any building constructed, repaired or improved by him prior to conveying such property to a third-party purchaser, unless such purchaser has acknowledged in writing that no certificate of occupancy has been issued and that such purchaser consents to acquire the property without a certificate of occupancy.

C. Any person who is exempt from the provisions of this chapter as a result of subdivision 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, or 14 of subsection A shall comply with the provisions of the Uniform Statewide Building Code (§ 36-97 et seq.).

D. Any person who violates the provisions of subsection B or C shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor. The third or any subsequent conviction of violating subsection B or C during a 36-month period shall constitute a Class 6 felony.

Code 1950, § 54-141; 1970, c. 319; 1980, c. 634; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 911; 1998, c. 754; 2003, c. 1025; 2004, c. 189; 2005, c. 348; 2007, c. 332; 2016, c. 527; 2017, cc. 132, 135; 2018, c. 767; 2022, c. 149; 2023, cc. 624, 625.

A. The Board for Contractors shall be composed of 16 members as follows: one member shall be a licensed Class A general contractor; the larger part of the business of one member shall be the construction of utilities; the larger part of the business of one member shall be the construction of commercial and industrial buildings; the larger part of the business of one member shall be the construction of single-family residences; the larger part of the business of one member shall be the construction of home improvements; one member shall be a subcontractor as generally regarded in the construction industry; one member shall be in the business of sales of construction materials and supplies; one member shall be a local building official; one member shall be a licensed plumbing contractor; one member shall be a licensed electrical contractor; one member shall be a licensed heating, ventilation and air conditioning contractor; one member shall be a certified elevator mechanic or a licensed elevator contractor; one member shall be a certified water well systems provider; one member shall be a professional engineer licensed in accordance with Chapter 4 (§ 54.1-400 et seq.); and two members shall be nonlegislative citizen members. The terms of the Board members shall be four years.

The Board shall meet at least once each year and at such other times as may be deemed necessary. Annually, the Board shall elect from its membership a chairman and a vice-chairman to serve for a one-year term. Nine members of the Board shall constitute a quorum.

B. The Board shall promulgate regulations not inconsistent with statute necessary for the licensure of contractors and tradesmen and the certification of backflow prevention device workers, and for the relicensure of contractors and tradesmen and for the recertification of backflow prevention device workers, after license or certificate suspension or revocation. The Board shall include in its regulations a requirement that as a condition for initial licensure as a contractor, the designated employee or a member of the responsible management personnel of the contractor shall have successfully completed a Board-approved basic business course, which shall not exceed eight hours of classroom instruction. In addition, the Board shall (i) require a contractor to appropriately classify all workers as employees or independent contractors, as provided by law and (ii) provide that any contractor who is found to have intentionally misclassified any worker is subject to sanction by the Board.

C. The Board may adopt regulations requiring all Class A, B, and C residential contractors, excluding subcontractors to the contracting parties and those who engage in routine maintenance or service contracts, to use legible written contracts including the following terms and conditions:

1. General description of the work to be performed;

2. Fixed price or an estimate of the total cost of the work, the amounts and schedule of progress payments, a listing of specific materials requested by the consumer and the amount of down payment;

3. Estimates of time of commencement and completion of the work; and

4. Contractor's name, address, office telephone number and license or certification number and class.

In transactions involving door-to-door solicitations, the Board may require that a statement of protections be provided by the contractor to the homeowner, consumer or buyer, as the case may be.

D. The Board shall adopt a seal with the words "Board for Contractors, Commonwealth of Virginia." The Director shall have charge, care and custody of the seal.

E. The Director shall maintain a record of the proceedings of the Board.

Code 1950, §§ 54-114, 54-115, 54-119, 54-120, 54-121, 54-123, 54-124; 1954, c. 415; 1970, c. 319; 1977, c. 640; 1979, c. 408; 1980, c. 634; 1981, c. 447; 1988, cc. 42, 765; 1991, c. 659; 1994, c. 895; 1995, c. 771; 1996, cc. 380, 934, 1006; 1997, c. 885; 2006, cc. 454, 475; 2009, cc. 184, 586; 2010, c. 83; 2012, c. 522; 2017, c. 579; 2020, c. 685.

A. No person shall engage in, or offer to engage in, contracting work in the Commonwealth unless he has been licensed under the provisions of this chapter. The Board may waive any provision of this chapter for Habitat for Humanity, its local affiliates or subsidiaries, and any other nonprofit organization exempt from taxation under § 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. § 501(c)(3)) for the purpose of constructing or rehabilitating single-family dwellings that will be given to or sold below the appraised value to low-income persons. Prior to a joint venture engaging in, or offering to engage in, contracting work in the Commonwealth, (i) each contracting party of the joint venture shall be licensed under the provisions of this chapter or (ii) a license shall be obtained in the name of the joint venture under the provisions of this chapter.

B. Except as provided in § 54.1-1117, the issuance of a license under the provisions of this chapter shall not entitle the holder to engage in any activity for which a special license is required by law.

C. When the contracting work is for the purpose of landscape irrigation or the construction of a water well as defined in § 32.1-176.3, the contractor shall be licensed, regardless of the contract amount, as follows:

1. A Class C license is required when the total value referred to in a single contract or project is no more than $10,000, or the total value of all such water well or landscape irrigation contracts undertaken within any 12-month period is no more than $150,000;

2. A Class B license is required when the total value referred to in a single contract is $10,000 or more, but less than $120,000, or the total value of all such water well or landscape irrigation contracts undertaken within any 12-month period is $150,000 or more, but less than $750,000; and

3. A Class A license is required when the total value referred to in a single contract or project is $120,000 or more, or when the total value of all such water well or landscape irrigation contracts undertaken within any 12-month period is $750,000 or more.

D. Notwithstanding the other provisions of this section, an architect or professional engineer who is licensed pursuant to Chapter 4 (§ 54.1-400 et seq.) shall not be required to be licensed or certified to engage in, or offer to engage in, contracting work or operate as an owner-developer in the Commonwealth in accordance with this chapter when bidding upon or negotiating design-build contracts or performing services other than construction services under a design-build contract. However, the construction services offered or rendered in connection with such contracts shall only be rendered by a contractor licensed or certified in accordance with this chapter.

E. Notwithstanding the other provisions of this section, any person licensed under the provisions of Article 4 (§ 9.1-138 et seq.) of Chapter 1 of Title 9.1 as a private security services business shall not be required to be licensed or certified to engage in, or offer to engage in, contracting work in the Commonwealth in accordance with this chapter when bidding upon or performing services to install, service, maintain, design or consult in the design of any electronic security equipment as defined in § 9.1-138 including but not limited to, low voltage cabling, network cabling and computer or systems integration.

F. Notwithstanding any other provisions of this section, persons bidding upon or performing services to design or undertake public works of art commissioned by the Commonwealth; a political subdivision of the Commonwealth, including any county, city, or town; or a nonprofit corporation exempt from taxation under § 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code shall not be required to be licensed or certified in accordance with this chapter. However, the installation of the artwork and related construction services offered or rendered in connection with such commission shall only be rendered by a contractor licensed or certified in accordance with this chapter.

Code 1950, § 54-128; 1972, c. 16; 1980, c. 634; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 911; 1992, c. 713; 1994, cc. 601, 754; 1995, cc. 581, 771; 1997, c. 885; 1998, cc. 271, 754; 1999, cc. 959, 977, 991; 2002, c. 653; 2004, c. 190; 2005, c. 348; 2010, c. 62; 2012, c. 308; 2013, c. 298.

The Director shall keep a register of all applicants showing their date of application, name, qualifications, place of business, place of residence, and whether such application was approved or refused. The books and register of the Board shall be prima facie evidence of all matters recorded therein.

Code 1950, § 54-125; 1977, c. 640; 1980, c. 634; 1988, c. 765.

Repealed by Acts 1991, c. 151.

A. Any person desiring to be licensed as a Class A contractor shall file with the Department a written application on a form prescribed by the Board. The application shall be accompanied by a fee set by the Board pursuant to § 54.1-201. The application shall contain the name, place of employment, and business address of the proposed designated employee, and information on the knowledge, skills, abilities, and financial position of the applicant. The Board shall determine whether the past performance record of the applicant, including his reputation for paying material bills and carrying out other contractual obligations, satisfies the purposes and intent of this chapter. The Board shall also determine whether the applicant has complied with the laws of the Commonwealth pertaining to the domestication of foreign corporations and all other laws affecting those engaged in the practice of contracting as set forth in this chapter.

B. As proof of financial responsibility, the applicant shall demonstrate compliance with the minimum net worth requirement fixed by the Board in regulation by providing either:

1. A financial statement on a form prescribed by the Board, subject to additional verification if the Board determines that sufficient questions or ambiguities exist in the applicant's presentation of financial information; or

2. A balance sheet reviewed by a certified public accountant licensed in accordance with § 54.1-4409.1.

C. In lieu of compliance with subsection B, an applicant may demonstrate financial responsibility by electing to obtain and maintain a bond in the amount of $50,000. Proof of current bond shall come from a corporate surety licensed to do business in the Commonwealth and approved by the Attorney General and shall be filed with the Department.

D. In addition, if the applicant is a sole proprietor, he shall furnish to the Board his name and address. If the applicant is a member of a partnership, he shall furnish to the Board the names and addresses of all of the general partners of the partnership. If the applicant is a member of an association, he shall furnish to the Board the names and addresses of all of the members of the association. If the applicant is a corporation, it shall furnish to the Board the names and addresses of all officers of the corporation. If the applicant is a joint venture, it shall furnish to the Board the names and addresses of (i) each member of the joint venture and (ii) any sole proprietor, general partner of any partnership, member of any association, or officer of any corporation who is a member of the joint venture. The applicant shall thereafter keep the Board advised of any changes in the above information.

E. If the application is satisfactory to the Board, the proposed designated employee shall be required by Board regulations to take an oral or written examination to determine his general knowledge of contracting, including the statutory and regulatory requirements governing contractors in the Commonwealth. If the proposed designated employee successfully completes the examination and the applicant meets or exceeds the other entry criteria established by Board regulations, a Class A contractor license shall be issued to the applicant. The license shall permit the applicant to engage in contracting only so long as the designated employee is in the full-time employment of the contractor or is a member of the contractor's responsible management. No examination shall be required where the licensed Class A contractor changes his form of business entity provided he is in good standing with the Board. In the event the designated employee leaves the full-time employ of the licensed contractor or is no longer a member of the contractor's responsible management, no additional examination shall be required of such designated employee, except in accordance with § 54.1-1110.1, and the contractor shall within 90 days of that departure provide to the Board the name of the new designated employee.

F. The Board may grant a Class A license in any of the following classifications: (i) residential building contractor, (ii) commercial building contractor, (iii) highway/heavy contractor, (iv) electrical contractor, (v) plumbing contractor, (vi) heating, ventilation, and air conditioning contractor, (vii) fire sprinkler contractor, and (viii) specialty contractor.

1980, c. 634, § 54-129.1; 1984, c. 45; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 911; 1992, c. 713; 1994, c. 601; 1996, c. 707; 1998, c. 754; 1999, c. 393; 2003, c. 892; 2005, c. 348; 2007, c. 804; 2013, c. 116; 2017, c. 572; 2019, c. 726.

The Board for Contractors shall consider violations of regulations of the State Board of Health relating to water wells as violations of this chapter, punishable by a fine of not more than $1,000 or suspension or revocation of license. No contractor shall be subject to the monetary penalties provided by this section if he has been assessed a civil penalty for such violation pursuant to § 32.1-27.

1989, c. 241; 1990, c. 911.

A. If the Board finds any person licensed under the provisions of this chapter to be in violation of a statute or regulation involving fraudulent or improper or dishonest conduct as defined in § 54.1-1118, which violation occurred while engaged in a transaction initiated arising from a declared state of emergency as defined in § 44-146.16, the Board shall impose a monetary penalty of up to $10,000 for each such violation.

B. The penalty imposed pursuant to this section shall be in addition to that provided in § 54.1-202.

2014, c. 508.

Repealed by Acts 1990, c. 911, effective January 1, 1991.

A. Any person desiring to be licensed as a Class B contractor shall file with the Department a written application on a form prescribed by the Board. The application shall be accompanied by a fee set by the Board pursuant to § 54.1-201. The application shall contain the name, place of employment, and business address of the proposed designated employee; information on the knowledge, skills, abilities, and financial position of the applicant; and evidence of holding a current local license pursuant to local ordinances adopted pursuant to § 54.1-1117. The Board shall determine whether the past performance record of the applicant, including his reputation for paying material bills and carrying out other contractual obligations, satisfies the purpose and intent of this chapter. The Board shall also determine whether the applicant has complied with the laws of the Commonwealth pertaining to the domestication of foreign corporations and all other laws affecting those engaged in the practice of contracting as set forth in this chapter.

B. As proof of financial responsibility, the applicant shall demonstrate compliance with the minimum net worth requirement fixed by the Board in regulation by providing either:

1. A financial statement on a form prescribed by the Board, subject to additional verification if the Board determines that sufficient questions or ambiguities exist in the applicant's presentation of financial information; or

2. A balance sheet reviewed by a certified public accountant licensed in accordance with § 54.1-4409.1.

C. In lieu of compliance with subsection B, an applicant may demonstrate financial responsibility by electing to obtain and maintain a bond in the amount of $50,000. Proof of current bond shall come from a corporate surety licensed to do business in the Commonwealth and approved by the Attorney General and shall be filed with the Department.

D. In addition, if the applicant is a sole proprietor, he shall furnish to the Board his name and address. If the applicant is a member of a partnership, he shall furnish to the Board the names and addresses of all of the general partners of that partnership. If the applicant is a member of an association, he shall furnish to the Board the names and addresses of all of the members of the association. If the applicant is a corporation, it shall furnish to the Board the name and address of all officers of the corporation. If the applicant is a joint venture, it shall furnish to the Board the names and addresses of (i) each member of the joint venture and (ii) any sole proprietor, general partner of any partnership, member of any association, or officer of any corporation who is a member of the joint venture. The applicant shall thereafter keep the Board advised of any changes in the above information.

E. If the application is satisfactory to the Board, the proposed designated employee shall be required by Board regulations to take an oral or written examination to determine his general knowledge of contracting, including the statutory and regulatory requirements governing contractors in the Commonwealth. If the proposed designated employee successfully completes the examination and the applicant meets or exceeds the other entry criteria established by Board regulations, a Class B contractor license shall be issued to the applicant. The license shall permit the applicant to engage in contracting only so long as the designated employee is in the full-time employment of the contractor and only in the counties, cities, and towns where such person has complied with all local licensing requirements and for the type of work to be performed. No examination shall be required where the licensed Class B contractor changes his form of business entity provided he is in good standing with the Board. In the event the designated employee leaves the full-time employ of the licensed contractor, no additional examination shall be required of such designated employee, except in accordance with § 54.1-1110.1, and the contractor shall within 90 days of that departure provide to the Board the name of the new designated employee.

F. The Board may grant a Class B license in any of the following classifications: (i) residential building contractor, (ii) commercial building contractor, (iii) highway/heavy contractor, (iv) electrical contractor, (v) plumbing contractor, (vi) HVAC contractor, (vii) fire sprinkler contractor, and (viii) specialty contractor.

1980, c. 634, § 54-129.3; 1987, c. 110; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 911; 1994, c. 601; 1996, c. 707; 2003, c. 892; 2013, c. 116; 2017, c. 572; 2019, c. 726.

A. Any Class A contractor licensed in the Commonwealth of Virginia prior to January 1, 1991, and in business on December 31, 1990, shall provide to the Board in writing the name of one full-time employee or member of the contractor's responsible management who is at least 18 years of age and that employee shall be deemed to have fulfilled the requirement for examination in § 54.1-1106, so long as he remains a full-time employee of the contractor or remains a member of the contractor's responsible management. The designated employee shall not be required to take an examination if the Class A contractor changes his form of business entity and is in good standing with the Board. Upon his leaving the employ of the contractor or his leaving as a member of the contractor's responsible management, the contractor shall name another full-time employee or member of the contractor's responsible management in accordance with § 54.1-1106.

Any Class B contractor registered in the Commonwealth prior to January 1, 1991, and in business on December 31, 1990, shall, within its current period of registration, provide on a form prescribed by the Board satisfactory information on the financial position, and knowledge, skills and abilities of the registered firm; and the name of a full-time employee who is at least 18 years of age and that employee shall be deemed to have fulfilled the requirement for examination in § 54.1-1108, so long as he remains a full-time employee of the contractor. The designated employee shall not be required to take an examination if the Class B contractor changes his form of business entity and is in good standing with the Board. If such employee leaves the employ of the contractor, the contractor shall name another full-time employee in accordance with § 54.1-1108.

B. 1. The Board is directed to revise Board regulations to allow multiple individuals from a single firm to sit for the business examination required to be confirmed as the firm's designated employee. The Board shall also review current regulations and procedures pertaining to the time allowed for a change of the designated employee to determine if the current time for replacement is sufficient and practicable.

2. As used in this subsection, "firm" means any business entity recognized under the laws of the Commonwealth of Virginia.

1990, c. 911; 1996, c. 707; 2003, c. 892; 2005, c. 348; 2019, c. 503.

A. Any person desiring to be licensed as a Class C contractor shall file with the Department a written application on a form prescribed by the Board. The application shall be accompanied by a fee set by the Board pursuant to § 54.1-201. The application shall contain information concerning the name, location, nature, and operation of the business, and information demonstrating that the applicant possesses the character and minimum skills to properly engage in the occupation of contracting.

B. The Board may grant a Class C license in any of the following classifications: (i) residential building contractor, (ii) commercial building contractor, (iii) highway/heavy contractor, (iv) electrical contractor, (v) plumbing contractor, (vi) heating, ventilation, and air conditioning contractor, (vii) fire sprinkler contractor, and (viii) specialty contractor.

1995, c. 771; 1997, c. 885; 1998, c. 754; 2003, c. 892; 2013, c. 116; 2019, c. 726.

A. A license or certificate issued pursuant to this chapter shall expire as provided in Board regulations. Application for renewal of a license or certificate may be made as provided by Board regulations. The application shall be accompanied by a fee set by the Board pursuant to § 54.1-201.

B. With respect to a contractor electing continuous bonding under § 54.1-1106 or 54.1-1108, proof of current bond is required in order to renew the license or certificate. The bond shall commence no later than the effective date of the license and shall expire no sooner than the date of expiration of the license or certificate.

Code 1950, § 54-131; 1970, c. 319; 1977, c. 640; 1980, c. 634; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 911; 1995, c. 771; 1996, c. 1014; 2017, c. 572.

The Board shall have the power to require remedial education, suspend, revoke, or deny renewal of the license or certificate of any contractor who is found to be in violation of the statutes or regulations governing the practice of licensed or certified contractors in the Commonwealth.

The Board may suspend, revoke, or deny renewal of an existing license or certificate, or refuse to issue a license or certificate, to any contractor who is shown to have a substantial identity of interest with a contractor whose license or certificate has been revoked or not renewed by the Board. A substantial identity of interest includes but is not limited to (i) a controlling financial interest by the individual or corporate principals of the contractor whose license or certificate has been revoked or nonrenewed, (ii) substantially identical principals or officers, or (iii) the same designated employee as the contractor whose license or certificate has been revoked or not renewed by the Board.

Additionally, the Board may suspend, revoke or deny renewal of an existing license or certificate, or refuse to issue a license or certificate to any contractor who violates the provisions of Chapter 5 (§ 60.2-500 et seq.) of Title 60.2 and Chapter 8 (§ 65.2-800 et seq.) of Title 65.2.

Any person whose license is suspended or revoked by the Board shall not be eligible for a license or certificate under any circumstances or under any name, except as provided by regulations of the Board pursuant to § 54.1-1102.

1980, c. 634, § 54-132.1; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 911; 1992, c. 243; 1995, c. 771; 1996, c. 380.

The Board shall have the power to require remedial education or may require a designated employee to retake the examination required by this chapter, in any case where the conduct of the designated employee, while in the employ of a licensed Class A or Class B contractor, has resulted in any disciplinary action by the Board against such contractor.

1996, c. 707.

A. Any person applying to the building official or any other authority of a county, city, or town in this Commonwealth, charged with the duty of issuing building or other permits for the construction of any building, highway, sewer, or structure, or any removal, grading or improvement shall furnish prior to the issuance of the permit, either (i) satisfactory proof to such official or authority that he is duly licensed or certified under the terms of this chapter to carry out or superintend the same, or (ii) file a written statement that he is not subject to licensure or certification as a contractor or subcontractor pursuant to this chapter. The applicant shall also furnish satisfactory proof that the taxes or license fees required by any county, city, or town have been paid so as to be qualified to bid upon or contract for the work for which the permit has been applied.

It shall be unlawful for the building official or other authority to issue or allow the issuance of such permits unless the applicant has furnished his license or certificate number issued pursuant to this chapter or evidence of being exempt from the provisions of this chapter.

The building official, or other such authority, violating the terms of this section shall be guilty of a Class 3 misdemeanor.

B. Any contractor applying for or renewing a business license in any locality in accordance with Chapter 37 (§ 58.1-3700 et seq.) of Title 58.1 shall furnish prior to the issuance or renewal of such license either (i) satisfactory proof that he is duly licensed or certified under the terms of this chapter or (ii) a written statement, supported by an affidavit, that he is not subject to licensure or certification as a contractor or subcontractor pursuant to this chapter.

No locality shall issue or renew or allow the issuance or renewal of such license unless the contractor has furnished his license or certificate number issued pursuant to this chapter or evidence of being exempt from the provisions of this chapter.

Code 1950, § 54-138; 1970, c. 319; 1980, c. 634; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 911; 1991, c. 151; 1992, c. 713; 1995, c. 771; 1998, c. 754; 2010, cc. 82, 755; 2018, cc. 37, 88.

All architects and engineers preparing plans and specifications for work to be contracted in Virginia shall include in their invitations to the bidder and in their specifications a reference to this chapter so as to convey to the invited bidder prior to the consideration of the bid (i) whether such person is a resident or nonresident of the Commonwealth, (ii) whether the proper license or certificate has been issued to the bidder, and (iii) the information required of the bidder to show evidence of proper licensure or certification under the provisions of this chapter.

Code 1950, § 54-139; 1980, c. 634; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 911; 1995, c. 771.

Before any nonresident person or any foreign corporation bids on any work in this Commonwealth, the nonresident person or foreign corporation, by written power of attorney, shall appoint the Director as his agent upon whom all lawful process against or notice to such nonresident person or foreign corporation may be served, and authorize the Director to enter an appearance on his behalf. Upon the filing of the power of attorney the provisions of §§ 13.1-763 through 13.1-766, with reference to service of process and notice, and judgments, decrees and orders, shall be applicable as to such nonresident person or foreign corporation.

Code 1950, § 54-140; 1970, c. 319; 1980, c. 634; 1988, c. 765.

Any person may file complaints against any contractor licensed or certified pursuant to this chapter. The Director shall investigate complaints and the Board may take appropriate disciplinary action if warranted. Disciplinary proceedings shall be conducted in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.). The Board shall immediately notify the Director and the clerk and building official of each city, county or town in the Commonwealth of its findings in the case of the revocation of a license or certificate, or of the reissuance of a revoked license or certificate.

Code 1950, § 54-133; 1970, c. 319; 1975, c. 421; 1977, c. 640; 1980, c. 634; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 911; 1995, c. 771.

A. The following acts are prohibited and shall constitute the commission of a Class 1 misdemeanor:

1. Contracting for, or bidding upon the construction, removal, repair or improvements to or upon real property owned, controlled or leased by another person without a license or certificate, or without the proper class of license as defined in § 54.1-1100 for the value of work to be performed.

2. Attempting to practice contracting in the Commonwealth, except as provided for in this chapter.

3. Presenting or attempting to use the license or certificate of another.

4. Giving false or forged evidence of any kind to the Board or any member thereof in an application for the issuance or renewal of a license or certificate.

5. Impersonating another or using an expired or revoked license or certificate.

6. Receiving or considering as the awarding authority a bid from anyone whom the awarding authority knows is not properly licensed or certified under this chapter. The awarding authority shall require a bidder to submit his license or certificate number prior to considering a bid.

B. Any person who undertakes work without (i) any valid Virginia contractor's license or certificate when a license or certificate is required by this chapter or (ii) the proper class of license as defined in § 54.1-1100 for the work undertaken, shall be fined an amount not to exceed $500 per day for each day that such person is in violation, in addition to the authorized penalties for the commission of a Class 1 misdemeanor. Any violation of clause (i) of this subsection shall also constitute a prohibited practice in accordance with § 59.1-200, provided that the violation involves a consumer transaction as defined in the Virginia Consumer Protection Act (§ 59.1-196 et seq.), and shall be subject to any and all of the enforcement provisions of the Virginia Consumer Protection Act.

C. A construction contract entered into by a person undertaking work without a valid Virginia contractor's license shall not be enforceable by the unlicensed contractor undertaking the work unless the unlicensed contractor (i) gives substantial performance within the terms of the contract in good faith and (ii) did not have actual knowledge that a license or certificate was required by this chapter to perform the work for which he seeks to recover payment.

Failure to renew a license or certificate issued in accordance with this chapter shall create a rebuttable presumption of actual knowledge of such licensing or certification requirements.

Code 1950, § 54-142; 1956, c. 397; 1970, c. 319; 1980, c. 634; 1985, c. 356; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 911; 1994, c. 79; 1995, c. 771; 1998, c. 691; 2000, c. 33; 2003, cc. 429, 430; 2004, c. 131; 2008, c. 294; 2018, cc. 43, 653.

Any contractor that directly employs or otherwise contracts with a person who is not credentialed by the Board for work requiring a credential under this chapter shall be solely responsible for any monetary penalty or other sanction resulting from the act of employing or contracting with a person who lacks the proper credential based upon such person's failure to obtain or maintain the required credential.

2017, cc. 132, 135.

In any proceeding pursuant to § 54.1-1114, the Board shall consider any written documentation of a violation of the Uniform Statewide Building Code (§ 36-97 et seq.) provided by a local building official as evidence of a violation of such building code. Such written documentation shall not be prima facie evidence of a building code violation.

1993, c. 942.

Repealed by Acts 1993, c. 717.

A. Except as to contractors currently licensed under the provisions of § 54.1-1106, any locality shall have the power and authority to adopt ordinances, not inconsistent with the provisions of this chapter, requiring every person who engages in, or offers to engage in, the business of home improvement or the business of constructing single-family or multi-family dwellings, in such locality, to obtain a license from such locality.

B. The locality adopting ordinances pursuant to this section may require every applicant for such license, other than those currently licensed under the provisions of § 54.1-1106, (i) to furnish evidence of his ability and proficiency; and (ii) to successfully complete an examination to determine his qualifications. The locality may designate or establish an agent or board and establish the procedures for an examination according to the standards set forth in this chapter and in the regulations of the Board for Contractors. Except contractors currently licensed under the provisions of § 54.1-1106, licensure may be refused to any person found not to be qualified. Persons not currently licensed pursuant to § 54.1-1106 may be required to furnish bond in a reasonable penal sum, with reasonable condition, and with surety as the governing body deems necessary. The governing body may provide for the punishment of violations of such ordinances, provided that no such punishment shall exceed that provided for misdemeanors generally.

C. A locality may by ordinance establish a civil penalty that may be assessed when a person or business falsely represents to a customer or prospective customer that such person or business has a valid contractor's license issued pursuant to the provisions of § 54.1-1106. Such civil penalty shall not exceed $2,500.

D. For the purpose of this section the business of home improvement shall mean the contracting for and/or providing labor and material or labor only for repairs, improvements, and additions to residential buildings or structures accessory thereto where any payment of money or other thing of value is required.

1958, c. 522, § 54-145.2; 1964, c. 479; 1970, c. 319; 1972, c. 438; 1977, c. 476; 1979, c. 439; 1980, c. 634; 1988, c. 765; 1994, c. 895; 2012, c. 552.

Article 2. Virginia Contractor Transaction Recovery Act.

As used in this article, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Act" means the Virginia Contractor Transaction Recovery Act.

"Biennium" means a two-year period beginning on July 1 of an even-numbered year and continuing through June 30 of the next even-numbered year.

"Claimant" means any person with an unsatisfied judgment involving residential construction against a regulant, who has filed a verified claim under this Act.

"Fund" means the Virginia Contractor Transaction Recovery Fund.

"Improper or dishonest conduct" includes only the wrongful taking or conversion of money, property or other things of value which involves fraud, material misrepresentation or conduct constituting gross negligence, continued incompetence, or intentional violation of the Uniform Statewide Building Code (§ 36-97 et seq.). The term "improper or dishonest conduct" does not include mere breach of contract.

"Judgment" includes an order of a United States Bankruptcy Court (i) declaring a claim against a regulant who is in bankruptcy to be a "Debt Nondischargeable in Bankruptcy," (ii) extinguishing a claim against a regulant who is in bankruptcy and for which claim no distribution was made from the regulant's bankruptcy estate but excluding any such claim disallowed by order of the bankruptcy court, or (iii) extinguishing a claim against a regulant who is in bankruptcy and for which claim only partial distribution was made from the regulant's bankruptcy estate. An order of dismissal shall not be considered a judgment.

"Regulant" means any individual, person, firm, corporation, association, partnership, joint venture or any other legal entity licensed by the Board for Contractors. "Regulant" shall not include contractors holding only the commercial building contractor classification or individuals licensed or certified in accordance with Article 3 (§ 54.1-1128 et seq.) or Article 4 (§ 54.1-1140 et seq.).

"Verified claim" means a completed application, on a form designed by the Board, the truthfulness of which has been attested to by the claimant before a notary public, along with all required supporting documentation, that has been properly received by the Department in accordance with this chapter.

1980, c. 635, § 54-145.3:1; 1984, c. 270; 1987, c. 555; 1988, cc. 393, 765; 1990, cc. 437, 911; 1994, c. 895; 1995, cc. 771, 784; 1996, cc. 934, 1006; 1997, c. 885; 1999, c. 55; 2013, c. 343; 2015, c. 409.

A. Each initial contractor applicant, at the time of application, shall be assessed $25, which shall be specifically assigned to the Fund. Initial payments may be incorporated in any application fee payment and transferred to the Fund by the Director within 30 days.

All assessments, except initial assessments, for the Fund shall be deposited within three workdays after their receipt by the Director, in one or more federally insured banks, savings and loan associations, or savings banks located in the Commonwealth. Funds deposited in banks, savings institutions, or savings banks, to the extent in excess of insurance afforded by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation or other federal insurance agency, shall be secured under the Virginia Security for Public Deposits Act (§ 2.2-4400 et seq.). The deposit of these funds in federally insured banks, savings and loan associations, or savings banks located in the Commonwealth shall not be considered investment of such funds for purposes of this section. Funds maintained by the Director may be invested in securities that are legal investments for fiduciaries under the provisions of § 64.2-1502.

B. The minimum balance of the Fund shall be $400,000. Whenever the Director determines that the balance of the Fund is or will be less than this minimum balance, the Director shall immediately inform the Board, which shall assess each regulant at the time of his license renewal a sum sufficient to bring the balance of the Fund to an amount of not less than $400,000, when combined with similar assessments of other regulants. No regulant shall be assessed a total amount of more than $50 during any biennium.

Notice to regulants of these assessments shall be by first-class mail, and payment of such assessments shall be made by first-class mail addressed to the Director within 45 days after the mailing of the notice to regulants.

C. If any regulant fails to remit the required assessment mailed in accordance with subsection B within 45 days of such mailing, the Director shall notify such regulant by first-class mail at the latest address of record filed with the Board. If no payment has been received by the Director within 30 days after mailing the second notice, the license of the regulant shall be automatically suspended and shall be restored only upon the actual receipt by the Director of the delinquent assessment.

Interest earned on the deposits constituting the Fund shall be used for administering the Fund. The remainder of this interest may be used for the purposes of providing educational programs about the Uniform Statewide Building Code (§ 36-97 et seq.), for providing education on subjects of benefit to licensees or members of the public relating to contracting, or shall accrue to the Fund.

1980, c. 635, § 54-145.3:2; 1984, c. 270; 1987, c. 555; 1988, c. 765; 1990, cc. 3, 437, 911; 1992, c. 810; 1995, c. 771; 1996, c. 96; 1997, c. 885; 2025, cc. 127, 133.

A. The claimant shall be (i) an individual whose contract with the regulant involved contracting for the claimant's residence located in the Commonwealth or (ii) a property owners' association as defined in § 55.1-1800 whose contract with the regulant involved contracting for improvements to the common areas owned by the association.

The claimant shall not himself be (a) an employee of such judgment debtor, (b) a vendor of such judgment debtor, (c) another licensee, (d) the spouse or child of such judgment debtor or the employee of such spouse or child, or (e) a financial or lending institution or any person whose business involves the construction or development of real property.

B. Whenever any person is awarded a judgment in a court of competent jurisdiction in the Commonwealth or has a judgment entered in conformity with an order confirming an arbitration award from a court of competent jurisdiction in the Commonwealth against any individual or entity that involves improper or dishonest conduct occurring (i) during a period when such individual or entity was a regulant and (ii) in connection with a transaction involving contracting, the claimant may file a verified claim with the Director to obtain a directive ordering payment from the Fund of the amount unpaid upon the judgment, subject to the following conditions:

1. If an action is instituted against a regulant by any person in a court of competent jurisdiction in the Commonwealth, such person shall serve a copy of the complaint upon the Board by certified mail or the equivalent; however, if a person submits a dispute to arbitration against a regulant, such person shall serve upon the Board a copy of the statement of facts and allegations provided to any assigned arbitrator, as well as the name, address, and contact information for any such arbitrator.

2. A copy of any pleading or document filed subsequent to the initial service of process in the action against a regulant shall be provided to the Board. If the dispute is submitted to arbitration, a copy of any document or exhibit subsequently provided to any assigned arbitrator shall be provided to the Board. The claimant shall submit such copies to the Board by certified mail, or the equivalent, upon his receipt of the pleading, document, or exhibit.

3. A verified claim shall be filed with the Director no later than 12 months after the date of entry of the final judgment from which no further right of appeal exists. In addition to a verified claim, if a claimant is granted an order confirming an arbitration award, a verified copy of the decision of any assigned arbitrator, including a statement of reasoning and any findings of fact regarding any improper or dishonest conduct by the regulant shall be filed with the Director no later than 12 months after the date of entry of the judgment entered in conformity with an order from a court of competent jurisdiction in the Commonwealth confirming an arbitration award from which no further right of appeal exists.

4. Prior to submitting the verified claim, the claimant shall:

a. Conduct or make a reasonable attempt to conduct debtor's interrogatories to determine whether the judgment debtor has any assets that may be sold or applied in whole or partial satisfaction of the judgment; and

b. Take all legally available actions for the sale or application of any assets disclosed in the debtor's interrogatories.

C. If the regulant has filed bankruptcy, the claimant shall file a claim with the proper bankruptcy court. If no distribution is made, or the distribution ordered fails to satisfy the claim, the claimant may then file a claim with the Board. The verified claim shall be received by the Board within 12 months of the date of bankruptcy discharge or dismissal. In the event the judgment is silent as to the conduct of the regulant, the Board shall determine (i) whether the conduct of the regulant that gave rise to the claim was improper or dishonest and (ii) what amount, if any, such claimant is entitled to recover from the Fund.

1980, c. 635, § 54-145.3:3; 1984, c. 270; 1987, c. 555; 1988, cc. 393, 765; 1990, cc. 215, 437, 911; 1995, c. 784; 1996, c. 96; 1997, c. 885; 1999, cc. 55, 261; 2013, c. 343; 2015, c. 409; 2023, c. 248.

A. If a contractor who elected continuous bonding under § 54.1-1106 or 54.1-1108 fails to satisfy a judgment awarded by a court of competent jurisdiction for improper or dishonest conduct, the judgment creditor shall have a claim against the surety bond for such damages. In order to recover the amount of any unpaid judgment, up to but not exceeding the maximum liability as set forth in § 54.1-1106 or 54.1-1108, the judgment creditor shall meet the eligibility requirements of subsection A of § 54.1-1120 and bring suit directly on the surety bond no later than 12 months after the judgment becomes final.

B. The liability of such surety shall be limited to actual monetary loss, court costs, and attorney fees assessed against the contractor as part of the underlying judgment. The liability of such surety shall not include any sums representing interest or punitive damages assessed against the contractor.

C. The surety company shall notify the Board when a claim is made against a contractor's bond, when a claim is paid, and when the bond is cancelled. Such notification shall include the amount of claim and the circumstances surrounding the claim. Notification of cancellation shall include the effective date and reason for cancellation. The bond may be cancelled as to future liability by the contractor's surety upon 30 days' notice to the Board.

2017, c. 572.

Upon receipt of the notice of proceedings against the regulant, the Department may cause its own investigation to be conducted pursuant to § 54.1-306.

1987, c. 555, § 54-145.3:3.1; 1988, c. 765; 2013, c. 343.

A. The claimant shall submit the following supporting documentation with the claim:

1. Copies of the contract with the regulant and all written change orders to the contract. If no written contract between the regulant and the claimant is available, the claimant may submit an affidavit attesting to the terms of the agreement, promise, or other contractual obligation;

2. All pleadings or other documents filed with the court from which judgment was obtained;

3. All orders and opinions of the court from which judgment was obtained, including the final judgment order;

4. The transcript of the debtor's interrogatories, if conducted, or if no transcript is available, a sworn affidavit affirming that debtor's interrogatories were conducted, or evidence that debtor's interrogatories were attempted if not conducted; a description of assets of the judgment debtor disclosed in the debtor's interrogatories; and a description of all steps taken for the sale or application of those disclosed assets in whole or partial satisfaction of the judgment, or a statement why no means are legally available for the sale or application of those disclosed assets, or a statement that the value of the disclosed assets is less than the cost of levying upon and selling such assets including reasonable estimates of the fair market value of the disclosed assets and costs of levying upon selling such assets;

5. A statement of the balance of the judgment remaining unpaid at the time the claim is submitted to the Department, and a statement that the claimant agrees to notify the Department of any additional payment that may be received in whole or partial satisfaction of the judgment during the pendency of the claim before the Board; and

6. Any other documentary evidence or exhibits the claimant wishes the Board to consider with the claim.

B. The Department shall promptly consider the verified claim of the claimant administratively. If the claim form is incomplete or not properly notarized, or if all required supporting documentation is not included with the claim, then the Department may provide the claimant with notice of any deficiency and an additional opportunity to submit a corrected verified claim. The burden shall be on the claimant to comply with all claim requirements and to submit the necessary documentation within 12 months of the initial claim submission. Once the Department confirms that the verified claim is complete, it shall present such verified claim, along with a recommendation regarding payment, to the Board for the Board's consideration and shall notify the claimant of the Board's recommendation.

C. The Department's and Board's consideration of the claim shall be based solely on the contents of the verified claim. Neither an informal fact-finding conference pursuant to § 2.2-4019 nor a formal hearing pursuant to § 2.2-4020 shall be required, unless requested by the claimant.

D. A claimant shall not be denied recovery from the Fund due to the fact that order for judgment filed with the verified claim does not contain a specific finding of "improper or dishonest conduct." Any language in the order that supports the conclusion that the court found that the conduct of the regulant meets the definition of "improper or dishonest conduct" in § 54.1-1118 shall be used by the Board to determine eligibility for recovery from the Fund. To the extent the judgment order is silent as to the court's findings on the conduct of the regulant, the Board may determine whether the conduct of the regulant meets the definition of improper or dishonest conduct by substantial evidence in the verified claim.

E. If the Board finds there has been compliance with the required conditions, the Board shall issue a directive ordering payment from the fund to the claimant the amount remaining unpaid on the judgment, subject to the limitations set forth in § 54.1-1123. The claimant shall be notified in writing of the findings of the Board. The Board's findings shall be considered a "case decision" and judicial review of these findings shall be in accordance with § 2.2-4025 of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.). Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Board shall have the right to appeal a decision of any court which is contrary to any distribution recommended or authorized by it.

1980, c. 635, § 54-145.3:4; 1984, c. 270; 1987, c. 555; 1988, c. 765; 2006, c. 723; 2013, c. 343; 2017, c. 572.

A. The maximum claim of one claimant against the Fund based upon an unpaid judgment arising out of the improper or dishonest conduct of one regulant in connection with a single transaction involving contracting is limited to $30,000, including any amount paid from a contractor's surety bond under § 54.1-1120.1, regardless of the amount of the unpaid judgment of the claimant.

B. The aggregate of claims against the Fund based upon unpaid judgments arising out of the improper or dishonest conduct of any one regulant involving contracting, is limited by the Board to $100,000 during any biennium. If a claim has been made against the Fund, and the Board has reason to believe there may be additional claims against the Fund from other transactions involving the same regulant, the Board may withhold any payment(s) from the Fund involving such regulant for a period of not more than one year from the date on which the claimant is awarded in a court of competent jurisdiction in the Commonwealth the final judgment on which his claim against the Fund is based. After this one-year period, if the aggregate of claims against the regulant exceeds $100,000, during a biennium, $100,000 shall be prorated by the Board among the claimants and paid from the Fund, less the amount of any applicable contractor's bond, in proportion to the amounts of their judgments against the regulant remaining unpaid. Claims shall be prorated only after any applicable contractor's bond has been exhausted.

C. Excluded from the amount of any unpaid judgment upon which a claim against the Fund is based shall be any sums representing interest, or punitive damages, or any amounts that do not constitute actual monetary loss to the claimants. Such claim against the Fund may include court costs and attorney fees.

D. If, at any time, the amount of the Fund is insufficient to fully satisfy any claims or claim filed with the Board and authorized by this Act, the Board shall pay such claims, claim, or portion thereof to the claimants in the order that the claims were filed with the Board.

E. Failure of a claimant to comply with the provisions of subdivisions B 1 and 2 and subsection C of § 54.1-1120 and the provisions of § 54.1-1124 shall not be a bar to recovery under this Act if the claimant is otherwise entitled to such recovery.

F. The Board shall have the authority to deny any claim which otherwise appears to meet the requirements of the Act if it finds by clear and convincing evidence that the claimant has presented false information or engaged in collusion to circumvent any of the requirements of the Act.

1980, c. 635, § 54-145.3:5; 1984, c. 270; 1987, cc. 555, 562; 1988, c. 765; 1990, cc. 437, 911; 1997, c. 885; 1999, c. 262; 2005, c. 252; 2015, cc. 409, 710; 2017, c. 572; 2025, cc. 127, 133.

Upon service of the complaint as provided in subdivision B 1 of § 54.1-1120, the Board, the Director, or duly authorized representatives of the Board shall then have the right to request leave of court to intervene.

1980, c. 635, § 54-145.3:6; 1984, c. 270; 1987, c. 555; 1988, c. 765; 2015, c. 409.

A. Subject to the provisions of § 54.1-1123 upon the claimant's execution and delivery to the Director of an assignment to the Board of his rights against the regulant, to the extent he received satisfaction from the Fund, the Director shall pay the claimant from the Fund the amount ordered by the Board.

B. The Board may consider any amount owed to the Board for repayment of the Fund by an applicant for a license under this chapter when determining whether to grant such license.

1980, c. 635, § 54-145.3:7; 1987, c. 555; 1988, c. 765; 1997, c. 885; 2013, c. 343.

Repealed by Acts 2013, c. 343, cl. 2.

This article shall not limit the authority of the Board to take disciplinary action against any regulant for any violation of this title or the regulations of the Board. Full repayment of the amount paid from the Fund on a regulant's account shall not nullify or modify the effect of any disciplinary proceeding against that regulant for any violation.

1980, c. 635, § 54-145.3:9; 1988, c. 765; 1997, c. 885.

Article 3. Tradesmen, Backflow Prevention Device Workers, and Liquefied Petroleum Gas Fitters.

"Backflow prevention device worker" means any individual who engages in, or offers to engage in, the maintenance, repair, testing, or periodic inspection of cross connection control devices, including but not limited to reduced pressure principle backflow preventors, double check-valve assemblies, double-detector check-valve assemblies, pressure type vacuum breaker assemblies, and other such devices designed, installed, and maintained in such a manner so as to prevent the contamination of the potable water supply by the introduction of nonpotable liquids, solids, or gases, thus ensuring that the potable water supply remains unaltered and free from impurities, odor, discoloration, bacteria, and other contaminants which would make the potable water supply unfit or unsafe for consumption and use.

"Board" means the Board for Contractors.

"Liquefied petroleum gas fitter" means any individual who engages in, or offers to engage in, work for the general public for compensation in work that includes the installation, repair, improvement, alterations or removal of piping, liquefied petroleum gas tanks and appliances (excluding hot water heaters, boilers and central heating systems which require a heating, ventilation and air conditioning or plumbing certification) annexed to real property.

"Natural gas fitter provider" means any individual who engages in or offers to engage in work for the general public for compensation in the incidental repair, testing, or removal of natural gas piping or fitting annexed to real property, excluding new installation of gas piping for hot water heaters, boilers, central heating systems, or other natural gas equipment which requires heating, ventilation and air conditioning or plumbing certification.

"Tradesman" means any individual who engages in, or offers to engage in, work for the general public for compensation in the trades of electrical, plumbing and heating, ventilation and air conditioning.

"Water well systems provider" means any individual who is certified by the Board in accordance with this article and who is engaged in drilling, installation, maintenance, or repair of water wells, water well pumps, ground source heat exchangers, and other equipment associated with the construction, removal, or repair of water wells, water well systems, and ground source heat pump exchangers to the point of connection to the ground source heat pump.

1994, c. 895; 1996, cc. 934, 1006; 1997, c. 403; 1999, c. 343; 2005, c. 792; 2011, cc. 743, 744.

A. Beginning July 1, 1995, no individual shall engage in, or offer to engage in, work as a tradesman as defined in § 54.1-1128 unless he has been licensed under the provisions of this article. Individuals shall not be subject to licensure as a tradesman when working under the supervision of a tradesman who is licensed in the specialty for which work is being performed. Individuals holding a license in one specialty shall not be required to have a tradesman license in another specialty when performing work which is incidental to work being performed under their own specialty license.

B. Beginning July 1, 1998, no individual shall present himself as a certified backflow prevention device worker as defined in § 54.1-1128 unless he has been certified under the provisions of this article. Individuals certified as backflow prevention device workers shall not be required to hold any other professional or occupational license or certification; however, nothing in this subsection shall prohibit an individual from holding more than one professional or occupational license or certification. The certification program set forth in this article concerning backflow prevention device workers shall be voluntary and shall not be construed to prevent or affect the practice of backflow prevention device workers by those not certified by the Board, so long as any requirements of the applicable local governing body's programs relating to backflow prevention device workers are met. All local governing bodies shall accept certification by the Board of backflow prevention device workers as proof of experience and training without requiring additional examination.

C. Beginning one year after the effective date of the Board's final regulations, no individual shall engage in, or offer to engage in, work as a liquefied petroleum gas fitter or natural gas fitter provider as defined in § 54.1-1128 unless he has been licensed under the provisions of this article.

D. Beginning July 1, 2007, no individual shall engage in the drilling, installation, maintenance, or repair of a water well or water well system unless a certified water well systems provider is onsite at all times. Until June 30, 2012, any level of certification shall satisfy this requirement. Beginning July 1, 2012, only a certified individual shall engage in the drilling, installation, maintenance, or repair of a water well or water well system and a then certified master water well systems provider shall be available at all times. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to prohibit licensed plumbing tradesman from (i) completing work contained in the applicable plumbing code, or (ii) performing normal maintenance and repair on large-diameter bored or hand-dug water table wells provided such wells are 100 feet or less in depth and the work is being performed for an entity granted tax-exempt status under § 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code.

1994, c. 895; 1996, cc. 934, 1006; 1997, cc. 403, 885; 1999, c. 343; 2000, c. 406; 2005, c. 792; 2008, c. 631.

A. The Board shall establish three levels of certification as follows: (i) trainee, which shall require proof of at least one year of full-time practical experience in the drilling, installation, maintenance, or repair of water wells or water well systems under the supervision of a certified master water well systems provider; (ii) journeyman, which shall require proof of at least three years of practical experience in the drilling, installation, maintenance, or repair of water wells or water well systems under the supervision of a certified master water well systems provider; and (iii) master, which shall require proof of at least six years of practical experience in the drilling, installation, maintenance, or repair of water wells or water well systems, under the supervision of a certified master water well systems provider.

B. A certified water well systems provider, as a condition of renewal or reinstatement and as part of the renewal or reinstatement application, shall certify to the Board that the applicant has completed at least eight hours of continuing education, approved by the Board, in the specialty of technical aspects of water well construction, applicable statutory and regulatory provisions, and business practices related to water well construction. The Board may establish requirements for approval of training instructors, criteria for continuing education, and other regulations it deems necessary to protect the public health, safety or welfare. In addition, the Board may require continuing education for renewal or reinstatement for any individual found to be in violation of the statutes or regulations governing the licensing or certification of water well system providers.

2005, c. 792.

A. Any individual desiring to be licensed as a tradesman, liquefied petroleum gas fitter or natural gas fitter provider, or certified as a backflow prevention device worker or water well systems provider shall file a written application on a form prescribed by the Board. The application shall be accompanied by a fee set by the Board pursuant to § 54.1-201. The application shall contain, at a minimum, the applicant's name, place of employment, and business address; and information on the knowledge, skills, abilities and education or training of the applicant.

If the application is satisfactory to the Board, the applicant shall be required by Board regulations to take an oral or written examination to determine his general knowledge of the trade in which he desires licensure or of backflow prevention devices if he desires voluntary certification unless he is exempt pursuant to § 54.1-1131. If the applicant successfully completes the examination, a license as a tradesman, liquefied petroleum gas fitter, or natural gas fitter provider, or a certificate as a backflow prevention device worker, shall be issued.

B. The Board shall require an applicant for certification as a water well systems provider, unless otherwise exempt, to take an oral or written examination to determine the applicant's general knowledge of water well systems, including relevant statutory and regulatory requirements. If the applicant successfully completes a required examination, a certificate shall be issued.

Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, unless an applicant is found by the Board to have engaged in any act that would constitute grounds for disciplinary action, the Board shall issue a certificate without examination to any applicant who provides satisfactory proof to the Board of having been actively and continuously engaged in water well construction activities immediately prior to July 1, 2007, as follows: (i) at least one year for trainee certification; (ii) at least three years for journeyman certification; and (iii) at least six years for master certification. This subsection shall apply only to individuals who have been employed by a properly licensed water well contractor during such period of active and continuous engagement in water well construction activities.

1994, c. 895; 1996, cc. 934, 1006; 1997, cc. 403, 885; 1999, c. 343; 2003, c. 892; 2005, c. 792.

A. An individual certified or licensed by any one of the following agencies shall not be required to fulfill the examination requirement specified in § 54.1-1130 for a tradesman license:

1. The Board of Housing and Community Development prior to July 1, 1995.

2. Any local governing body prior to July 1, 1978.

3. An apprenticeship program which is approved by the Commissioner of Labor and Industry.

Individuals applying for a tradesman license between July 1, 1995, and July 1, 1998, shall be deemed to have fulfilled the examination requirement if they are able to demonstrate that they have the required number of years of discipline-free experience set forth in Board regulations.

B. Upon satisfactory evidence to the Board, the following individuals shall not be required to fulfill the examination requirement specified in § 54.1-1130 to be certified as a backflow prevention device worker or licensed as a liquefied petroleum gas fitter:

1. Individuals approved, or recognized as having expertise, by a local governing body prior to July 1, 1998, to perform backflow prevention device work;

2. Individuals applying for certification as a backflow prevention device worker between July 1, 1998 and July 1, 1999, who are able to demonstrate that they have the required number of years of discipline-free experience and education or training set forth in Board regulations; or

3. Individuals applying for licensure as a liquefied petroleum gas fitter within one year of the effective date of the Board's final regulations, who are able to demonstrate that they have at least five years' experience as a liquefied petroleum gas fitter.

C. The provisions of this article shall not apply to any individual who is performing work on (i) any ship, boat, barge or other floating vessel or (ii) a single-family residence where the value of the work performed is less than $250 and such individual does not hold himself out to the general public as a tradesman.

D. Individuals applying for a natural gas fitter provider license within one year of the effective date of the Board's final regulations, shall be deemed to have fulfilled the examination requirement if they are able to demonstrate that they have five years' prior experience as a natural gas fitter provider.

E. Individuals applying for a natural gas fitter provider license between July 1, 1999 and July 1, 2004, shall be deemed to have fulfilled the examination requirement if they are able to demonstrate that they have at least five years' experience in an apprenticeship capacity under the direct supervision of a gas fitter.

F. Individuals applying for licensure as a liquefied petroleum gas fitter between July 1, 2000 and July 1, 2005, shall be deemed to have fulfilled the examination requirements if they are able to demonstrate that they have at least five years' experience in an apprenticeship capacity under the direct supervision of a gas fitter.

1994, c. 895; 1995, c. 581; 1996, cc. 934, 1006; 1997, cc. 403, 885; 1999, cc. 343, 817, 833; 2000, c. 406; 2014, c. 734.

A license as a tradesman, liquefied petroleum gas fitter, or natural gas fitter provider, or a certificate as a backflow prevention device worker, issued pursuant to this article shall expire as provided in Board regulations and shall become invalid on that date unless renewed, subject to approval of the Board. A license for a tradesman shall be valid for three years from the date of issuance. Application for renewal of any certificate or license issued pursuant to this article shall be made as provided by Board regulations and shall be accompanied by a fee set by the Board pursuant to § 54.1-201.

1994, c. 895; 1996, cc. 934, 1006; 1997, cc. 403, 885; 1999, c. 343; 2018, c. 750.

The Board may establish in the regulations requirements for continuing education as a prerequisite to renewal of any certificate or license issued under this article. The Board shall require evidence of knowledge of code changes as a prerequisite to renewal of any certificate or license issued under this article. In addition, the Board may require continuing education for any individual who is found to be in violation of the statutes or regulations governing the practice of licensed tradesmen or certificate holders issued under this article.

1994, c. 895; 1996, cc. 934, 1006; 1997, cc. 403, 885; 1999, c. 817.

The Board shall have the power to require remedial education and to suspend, revoke or deny renewal of the certification or license of any individual who is found to be in violation of the statutes or regulations governing the practice of licensed tradesmen, liquefied petroleum gas fitters or natural gas fitter providers or certified backflow prevention device workers in the Commonwealth.

Any building official who finds that an individual is practicing as a tradesman, elevator mechanic, liquefied petroleum gas fitter or natural gas fitter provider without a license as required by this article shall file a report to such effect with the Board. Any water purveyor or building official who finds that an individual is practicing as a backflow prevention device worker without a certificate, if a certificate is required by the locality in which an individual is engaging in backflow prevention device worker activities, shall file a report to such effect with the Board.

Any building official who has reason to believe that (i) a tradesman, liquefied petroleum gas fitter or natural gas fitter provider is performing incompetently as demonstrated by an egregious or repeated violation of the Uniform Statewide Building Code (§ 36-97 et seq.) or (ii) a certified backflow prevention device worker is performing incompetently as demonstrated by an egregious or repeated violation of the standards adopted by the American Society of Sanitary Engineering referenced in the plumbing code adopted by the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code shall file a report to such effect with the Board. Any water purveyor who has reason to believe that a certified backflow prevention device worker is performing incompetently as demonstrated by an egregious or repeated violation of the standards adopted by the American Society of Sanitary Engineering referenced in the plumbing code adopted by the Virginia Uniform Statewide Building Code shall file a report to such effect with the Board and local building official.

1994, c. 895; 1996, cc. 934, 1006; 1997, cc. 403, 885; 1999, c. 343; 2009, cc. 184, 586.

A. Practicing or attempting to practice as a tradesman, liquefied petroleum gas fitter or natural gas fitter provider in the Commonwealth, except as provided for in this article, is prohibited and shall constitute the commission of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

B. No person shall represent himself as a certified backflow prevention device worker unless he has been certified by the Board. Any person engaging or offering to engage in backflow prevention device worker activities within the meaning of this chapter who, through verbal claim, sign, advertisement, or letterhead, represents himself as a certified backflow prevention device worker without holding such a certificate from the Board shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

C. No person shall be entitled to assert the lack of licensure as required by this article as a defense to any action at law or suit in equity if the party who seeks to recover from such person gives substantial performance within the terms of the contract in good faith and without actual knowledge of the licensure requirements of this article.

D. In any locality which requires state certification to engage in backflow prevention device worker activities, no person shall be entitled to assert a lack of certification as a defense to any action at law or suit in equity if the party who seeks to recover from such person gives substantial performance within the terms of the contract in good faith and without actual knowledge of the locality's certification requirements.

1994, c. 895; 1996, cc. 934, 1006; 1997, cc. 403, 885; 1999, cc. 343, 833.

Article 4. Certification of Elevator Mechanics.

As used in this article, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Accessibility mechanic" means an individual who is engaged in erecting, constructing, installing, altering, servicing, repairing, testing or maintaining wheelchair lifts, incline chairlifts, dumbwaiters with a capacity limit of 300 pounds, and private residence elevators, in accordance with the Uniform Statewide Building Code (§ 36-97 et seq.).

"Certified accessibility mechanic" means an individual who is certified by the Board in accordance with this article to engage in work as an accessibility mechanic.

"Elevator mechanic" means an individual who is certified by the Board in accordance with this article to engage in erecting, constructing, installing, altering, servicing, repairing, testing or maintaining elevators, escalators, or related conveyances in accordance with the Uniform Statewide Building Code.

"Limited use/limited application endorsement" means an addition to the certification record of a certified accessibility mechanic authorizing the certificate holder to erect, construct, install, alter, service, repair, test, or maintain limited use/limited application elevators as defined by the Uniform Statewide Building Code.

2004, c. 188; 2007, c. 424; 2009, cc. 184, 586; 2010, cc. 81, 207.

A. No person shall engage in, or offer to engage in, work as an elevator mechanic or accessibility mechanic in the Commonwealth unless he has been certified under the provisions of this article. Individuals shall not be subject to certification as an elevator mechanic or accessibility mechanic when working under the direct and immediate supervision of an elevator mechanic or certified accessibility mechanic who is certified in the specialty for which work is being performed. Individuals certified as elevator mechanics or accessibility mechanics shall not be required to hold any other professional or occupational license or certification; however, nothing in this subsection shall prohibit an individual from holding more than one professional or occupational license or certification.

B. Any individual desiring to be certified as an elevator mechanic or accessibility mechanic shall file a written application on a form prescribed by the Board. The application shall be accompanied by a fee set by the Board pursuant to § 54.1-201. The application shall contain, at a minimum, the applicant's name, place of employment, business address, and information on the knowledge, skills, abilities and education or training of the applicant.

C. Accessibility mechanics desiring to work on limited use/limited application elevators, as defined by the Uniform Statewide Building Code, shall obtain a limited use/limited application endorsement on their certification.

D. Nothing in this article shall be construed to prevent a person who is not certified as an elevator mechanic or accessibility mechanic from performing maintenance that is not related to the operating integrity of an elevator, escalator, or related conveyance.

2004, c. 188; 2007, c. 424; 2010, cc. 81, 207; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 151.

A. The Board shall issue a certificate to practice as an elevator mechanic or certified accessibility mechanic in the Commonwealth to any applicant who has submitted satisfactory evidence that he has successfully:

1. Completed the educational requirements as required by the Board, which shall at a minimum include such requirements as the Board determines will establish minimum competency on the part of the applicant;

2. Completed the experience requirements as required by the Board, which shall at a minimum consist of at least three years in the elevator industry; and

3. Passed an examination offered or approved by the Board.

B. The Board may issue a certificate to practice as an elevator mechanic or a certified accessibility mechanic to any applicant who has completed a training and education program approved by the Board that is equal to or exceeds the requirements established by the Board for all applicants.

2004, c. 188; 2007, c. 424; 2009, cc. 184, 586; 2010, cc. 81, 207.

A. Whenever the Governor declares a state of emergency in accordance with § 44-146.17 or in the event of a work stoppage by elevator mechanics and the Board determines that the number of elevator mechanics is insufficient to meet the demands of the emergency or work stoppage, the Board shall issue an emergency certificate to practice as an elevator mechanic under the following conditions:

1. A contractor licensed under the provisions of this chapter (a) attests to the Board, in a form prescribed by the Board, that an applicant has an acceptable combination of documented experience and education to perform work as an elevator mechanic without direct and immediate supervision of an elevator mechanic and (b) provides such proof thereof as required by the Board; and

2. The applicant attested to the Board by the licensed contractor applies to the Board for emergency certification as an elevator mechanic.

As used in this subsection, "direct and immediate supervision" means proper supervision but does not include line of sight supervision.

B. Each such certification shall be valid for a period of 45 days from the date of issuance and for such geographic areas or such elevators, escalators, or related conveyances as the Board may designate. Such certification shall entitle the certificate holder to engage in work as an elevator mechanic. The Board shall renew such certification as often as necessary to ensure that there is a sufficient number of elevator mechanics to meet the demands of the emergency. No fee shall be charged for application for such certification or any renewal thereof.

C. The Board may delegate to the Director of the Department the authority to issue such emergency certifications. The Director shall inform the Board of the issuance of any certifications.

2007, c. 424; 2009, cc. 184, 586.

A. Whenever a contractor licensed under the provisions of this chapter demonstrates to the satisfaction of the Board that there is a shortage of elevator mechanics, the Board shall issue temporary certifications under the following conditions:

1. The licensed contractor attests to the Board, in a form prescribed by the Board, that after due diligence, the licensed contractor is unable to find an elevator mechanic from the list of elevator mechanics maintained by the Board to perform elevator work;

2. The applicant has an acceptable combination of documented experience and education to perform work as an elevator mechanic without direct and immediate supervision of an elevator mechanic and provides such proof thereof as required by the Board;

3. The applicant applies for such temporary certification as an elevator mechanic; and

4. The applicant pays an application fee as set by the Board.

As used in this subsection, "direct and immediate supervision" means proper supervision but does not include line of sight supervision.

B. Each such temporary certification shall be valid for a period of up to 45 days from the date of issuance, provided the applicant continues at all times to be employed by the licensed contractor. The Board shall renew such certification as often as necessary to ensure that there is a sufficient number of elevator mechanics to meet the shortage.

C. The Board may delegate to the Director of the Department the authority to issue such temporary certifications or renewals thereof. The Director shall inform the Board of the issuance of any such certifications or renewals.

2009, cc. 184, 586.

A. The Board shall establish in the regulations requirements for continuing education as a prerequisite to renewal of any certificate issued under this article. The Board shall require evidence of knowledge of the Uniform Statewide Building Code changes as a prerequisite to renewal of any certificate issued under this article. In addition, the Board may require continuing education for any individual who is found to be in violation of law or regulations governing the practice of an elevator mechanic certified under this article.

B. An elevator mechanic or a certified accessibility mechanic, as a condition of recertification and as part of the recertification application, shall attest to the Board that he has completed at least eight hours of continuing education, approved by the Board, in the specialty of elevator/escalator contracting. The Board may establish such requirements for approval of training instructors, the criteria for the continuing education and such other regulations to ensure the protection of the public interest. Such criteria shall include approval of curriculum sponsored by national or state professional elevator industry associations approved by the Board.

C. The provisions of this section shall not apply to certifications issued by the Board under § 54.1-1142.1 or 54.1-1142.2.

2004, c. 188; 2007, c. 424; 2009, cc. 184, 586; 2010, cc. 81, 207.

Article 5. Residential Building Energy Analysts.

As used in this article, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Accredited residential building energy analyst training program" means a training program that has been approved by the Board to provide training for individuals to engage in blower door, duct blaster, or similar testing to measure energy efficiency, conduct energy modeling, prepare a residential building energy analysis report, and provide recommendations for improvements with return on investment or third-party verification for nationally accredited energy efficiency programs.

"Licensed residential building energy analyst" means an individual who has successfully completed an accredited residential building energy analyst training program or meets the criteria of experience required by this article and regulations of the Board and who has been licensed by the Board.

"Residential building energy analysis" means (i) an inspection, investigation, or survey of a dwelling or other structure to evaluate, measure, or quantify its energy consumption and efficiency, including lighting, HVAC, electronics, appliances, water heaters, insulation, and water conservation, and (ii) recommendations to reduce energy consumption and improve efficiency of a dwelling or other structure, including lighting, HVAC, electronics, appliances, water heaters, insulation, and water conservation for compensation conducted or made by a licensed residential building energy analyst.

2011, c. 865.

A. No person shall engage in, or offer to engage in, work as a residential building energy analyst in the Commonwealth unless he has been licensed under the provisions of this article.

B. The Board may issue a license to perform residential building energy analysis in the Commonwealth to any applicant who has submitted satisfactory evidence that he has successfully:

1. Completed an accredited residential building energy analyst training program;

2. Completed at least five residential building energy analyses under the supervision of a licensed residential building energy analyst;

3. Remains in good standing with any certifying organization approved by the Board, provided that the requirements for the applicant's class of membership in such association are equal to or exceed the requirements established by the Board for all applicants;

4. Maintains the necessary insurance coverage as determined by the Board; and

5. Demonstrates the financial capability, as determined by the Board, to perform residential building energy analysis.

C. Individuals applying for a license as a residential building energy analyst between July 1, 2011, and July 1, 2012, who submit satisfactory evidence to the Board of having been actively and continuously engaged in residential building energy analysis for the immediately preceding three years shall be licensed by the Board, unless an applicant is found by the Board to have engaged in any act that would constitute grounds for disciplinary action.

2011, c. 865.

The Board shall adopt regulations necessary to establish procedures and requirements for the (i) approval of accredited residential building energy analyst training programs, (ii) licensing of individuals and firms to engage in residential building energy analysis, and (iii) establishment of standards for performing residential building energy analysis consistent with the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency guidelines and recognized by the Energy Star Program.

2011, c. 865.

Article 6. Certification of Automatic Fire Sprinkler Inspectors.

A. No person may perform or offer to perform inspections of automatic fire sprinkler systems in the Commonwealth unless he is certified under the provisions of this section.

B. The Board shall certify as an automatic fire sprinkler inspector any person who receives (i) a Level II or higher Inspection and Testing of Water-Based Systems certificate issued through the National Institute for Certification in Engineering Technologies or (ii) a substantially similar certification from a nationally recognized training program approved by the Board. The Board may suspend or revoke certification as an automatic fire sprinkler inspector for any person that does not maintain a certification required under this subsection.

C. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection A, a person lacking certification under this section but participating in a training or apprenticeship program may perform automatic fire sprinkler inspections so long as (i) such person is accompanied by a certified automatic fire sprinkler inspector and (ii) any required inspection forms are signed by the certified automatic fire sprinkler inspector.

D. This section shall not apply to building officials and technical assistants enforcing the Uniform Statewide Building Code (§ 36-97 et seq.) or fire officials and technical assistants enforcing the Virginia Statewide Fire Prevention Code Act (§ 27-94 et seq.).

2019, c. 726; 2022, c. 340.

The Board shall establish in the regulations requirements for continuing education as a prerequisite to renewal of a certificate issued under this article. The Board shall require evidence of knowledge of changes to the Virginia Statewide Fire Prevention Code as a prerequisite to renewal of any certificate issued under this article. In addition, the Board may require continuing education for any individual who is found to be in violation of law or regulations governing automatic fire sprinkler inspectors certified under this article.

2019, c. 726.

Chapter 12. Cosmetologists [Repealed].

Repealed by Acts 2000, c. 726, cl. 2.

Chapter 13. Employment Agencies [Repealed].

Repealed by Acts 1996, cc. 61 and 179.

Chapter 14. Geologists [Repealed].

Repealed by Acts 2012, cc. 803 and 835, cl. 39.

Chapter 15. Hearing Aid Specialists and Opticians.

Article 1. General Provisions.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Audiologist" means the same as that term is defined in § 54.1-2600.

"Board" means the Board for Hearing Aid Specialists and Opticians.

"Hearing aid" means any wearable instrument or device designed or offered to aid or compensate for impaired human hearing and any parts, attachments, or accessories, including earmolds, but excluding batteries and cords.

"Licensed hearing aid specialist" means any person who is the holder of a hearing aid specialist license issued by the Board for Hearing Aid Specialists and Opticians.

"Licensed optician" means any person who is the holder of an optician license issued by the Board for Hearing Aid Specialists and Opticians.

"Licensed optometrist" means any person authorized by Virginia law to practice optometry.

"Licensed physician" means any person licensed by the Board of Medicine to practice medicine and surgery.

"Optician" means any person not exempted by § 54.1-1506 who prepares or dispenses eyeglasses, spectacles, lenses, or related appurtenances, for the intended wearers or users, on prescriptions from licensed physicians or licensed optometrists, or as duplications or reproductions of previously prepared eyeglasses, spectacles, lenses, or related appurtenances; or who, in accordance with such prescriptions, duplications or reproductions, measures, adapts, fits, and adjusts eyeglasses, spectacles, lenses, or appurtenances, to the human face.

"Over-the-counter hearing aid" means an air-conduction hearing aid that does not require implantation or other surgical intervention and is intended for use by a person age 18 or older to compensate for perceived mild to moderate hearing impairment.

"Practice of audiology" means the same as that term is defined in § 54.1-2600.

"Practice of fitting or dealing in hearing aids" means (i) the measurement of human hearing by means of an audiometer or by any other means solely for the purpose of making selections, adaptations, or sale of hearing aids, (ii) the sale of prescription hearing aids, or (iii) the making of impressions for earmolds for prescription hearing aids. A practitioner, at the request of a physician or a member of a related profession, may make audiograms for the professional's use in consultation with the hard-of-hearing.

"Prescription hearing aid" means a hearing aid that is not an over-the-counter hearing aid.

"Sell" or "sale" means any transfer of title or of the right to use by lease, bailment, or any other contract, excluding wholesale transactions with distributors or practitioners.

"Temporary permit" means a permit issued while an applicant is in training to become a licensed hearing aid specialist.

1970, c. 571, § 54-524.110; 1988, c. 765; 2005, c. 599; 2012, cc. 803, 835; 2018, c. 458; 2023, cc. 273, 274.

A. The Board for Hearing Aid Specialists and Opticians shall consist of 15 members, as follows: four licensed hearing aid specialists, of which at least one shall be licensed as an audiologist by the Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology, six licensed opticians, one otolaryngologist, one ophthalmologist, and three citizen members.

B. One of the citizen members shall be a hearing aid user or a person who has a family member who is or has been a hearing aid user. Each hearing aid specialist and the otolaryngologist shall have at least five years of experience in their respective fields immediately prior to appointment. Each of the opticians shall have at least five years of experience prior to appointment and the ophthalmologist shall have practiced ophthalmology for at least five years prior to appointment.

C. The terms of Board members shall be four years.

D. The Board shall elect a chairman and vice-chairman from its membership.

2012, cc. 803, 835.

A. The appointment of the otolaryngologist member may be made from a list of at least three names submitted to the Governor by the Medical Society of Virginia. The appointment of one of the hearing aid specialist members may be made from a list of at least three names submitted to the Governor by the Speech-Language Hearing Association of Virginia. The appointment of the remaining hearing aid specialist members may be made from a list of at least three names for each vacancy submitted to the Governor by the Virginia Society of Hearing Aid Specialists. Nominations for appointments to regular terms shall be submitted to the Governor on or before June 1 of each year. The Governor may notify the Society or Association, respectively, of any vacancy other than by expiration, and like nominations may be made for the filling of the vacancy. In no case shall the Governor be bound to make any appointment from among the nominees.

B. The appointment of the licensed optician members may be made from a list of at least three names for each vacancy submitted to the Governor by the Opticians Association of Virginia for each appointee who is an optician, and by the Medical Society of Virginia for each appointee who is a physician. Nominations for appointments to regular terms shall be submitted to the Governor on or before June 1 of each year. The Governor may notify the Society or Association, respectively, of any vacancy other than by expiration and like nominations may be made for the filling of the vacancy. In no case shall the Governor be bound to make any appointment from among the nominees.

2012, cc. 803, 835.

Article 2. Hearing Aids and Hearing Aid Specialists.

A. Physicians licensed to practice in Virginia and certified by the American Board of Otolaryngology or eligible for such certification shall not be required to pass an examination as a prerequisite to obtaining a license under this chapter.

B. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit a corporation, partnership, trust, association, or other like organization maintaining an established business address from engaging in the business of selling or offering for sale prescription hearing aids at retail without a license, provided that it employs only licensed practitioners in the direct sale and fitting of prescription hearing aids.

C. Nothing in this chapter shall prohibit any person who does not sell hearing aids or accessories or who is not employed by an organization which sells hearing aids or accessories from engaging in the practice of measuring human hearing for the purpose of selection of hearing aids.

D. Audiologists licensed to practice in Virginia who have earned a doctoral degree in audiology shall not be required to pass an examination as a prerequisite to obtaining a license under this chapter.

1970, c. 571, §§ 54-524.111, 54-524.112; 1974, c. 534; 1986, c. 279; 1988, c. 765; 1996, c. 741; 2018, c. 458; 2023, cc. 273, 274.

Repealed by Acts 2012, cc. 803 and 835, cl. 35.

No person shall engage in the practice of fitting or dealing in prescription hearing aids or display a sign or in any other way advertise or represent himself as a person who practices the fitting or dealing of prescription hearing aids unless he holds a license as provided in this chapter. Nothing in this chapter shall be construed as requiring a licensee to engage in the business of selling over-the-counter hearing aids.

1970, c. 571, § 54-524.111; 1974, c. 534; 1986, c. 279; 1988, c. 765; 2005, c. 599; 2023, cc. 273, 274.

A. Within 30 days of the date of delivery, any purchaser or lessee of a prescription hearing aid shall be entitled to return such hearing aid for any reason, provided that such hearing aid is returned in satisfactory condition. Such purchaser or lessee shall be entitled to a replacement or a refund of all charges paid, less a reasonable charge for medical, audiological, and hearing aid evaluation services provided by the hearing aid specialist.

B. The right of a purchaser or lessee to return a prescription hearing aid and the charges to be imposed upon the return of such hearing aid, as provided in subsection A of this section, shall be explained and given in writing in at least 10-point, bold-faced type to such purchaser or lessee by the hearing aid specialist.

C. The provisions of this section shall be subject to the provisions of the Virginia Consumer Protection Act (§ 59.1-196 et seq.).

1990, c. 584; 2023, cc. 273, 274.

Article 3. Opticians.

The provisions of this chapter shall not apply to:

1. Any licensed physician or licensed optometrist;

2. Any individual, partnership, or corporation engaged in supplying ophthalmic prescriptions and supplies exclusively to licensed physicians, licensed optometrists, licensed opticians, or optical scientists;

3. Any person who does not hold himself out to the public as an "optician," and who works exclusively under the direct supervision and control of a licensed physician or licensed optometrist or licensed optician, and in the same location;

4. The sale of spectacles, eyeglasses, magnifying glasses, goggles, sunglasses, telescopes, or binoculars that are completely preassembled and sold as merchandise; or

5. Any optician who (i) does not regularly practice in Virginia; (ii) holds a current valid license or certificate to practice as an optician in another state, territory, district, or possession of the United States; (iii) volunteers to provide free health care to an underserved area of the Commonwealth under the auspices of a publicly supported all volunteer, nonprofit organization with no paid employees that sponsors the provision of health care to populations of underserved people throughout the world; (iv) files a copy of the license or certificate issued in such other jurisdiction with the Board; (v) notifies the Board, within 15 days prior to the voluntary provision of services of the dates and location of such services; and (vi) acknowledges, in writing, that such licensure exemption shall only be valid, in compliance with the Board's regulations, during the limited period that such free health care is made available through the volunteer, nonprofit organization on the dates and at the location filed with the Board.

1954, c. 237, §§ 54-398.1, 54-398.3; 1974, c. 534; 1988, c. 765, § 54.1-1701; 2002, c. 740; 2012, cc. 803, 835.

No person shall practice or offer to practice as an optician in the Commonwealth unless he holds a license issued under this chapter.

1954, c. 237, § 54-398.3; 1974, c. 534; 1988, c. 765, § 54.1-1704; 2012, cc. 803, 835.

Nothing in this chapter shall authorize an optician, or anyone else not otherwise authorized by law, to make, issue, or alter optical prescriptions, or to practice ocular refraction, orthoptics, or visual training, or to fit contact lenses except on the prescription of an ophthalmologist or optometrist and under his direction, or to advertise or offer to do so in any manner.

1954, c. 237, § 54-398.27; 1964, c. 101; 1988, c. 765, § 54.1-1705; 2012, cc. 803, 835.

Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivisions 7 and 8 of § 54.1-3204, a licensed optician is authorized to prepare and dispense eyeglasses, spectacles, lenses, or related appurtenances, for the intended wearers or users, on prescriptions from licensed physicians or licensed optometrists; duplicate and reproduce previously prepared eyeglasses, spectacles, lenses, or related appurtenances; and, in accordance with such prescriptions, duplications, or reproductions, measure, adapt, fit, and adjust eyeglasses, spectacles, lenses, or appurtenances to the human face. A licensed optician shall not, however, duplicate a contact lens solely from a previously prepared contact lens.

1990, c. 718, § 54.1-1706; 1993, c. 206; 2009, cc. 353, 761; 2012, cc. 803, 835.

Chapter 16. Librarians [Repealed].

Repealed by Acts 1988, c. 716.

Chapter 17. Opticians [Repealed].

Repealed by Acts 2012, cc. 803 and 835, cl. 35.

Chapter 18. Polygraph Examiners.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Course of instruction" means a formal course of instruction in the detection of deception and the verification of truth in an institution approved by the Director.

"Department" means the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation.

"Director" means the Director of the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation.

"Other detection device" or "device" means any mechanical or electronic instrument or device, other than a polygraph, used to test or question individuals for the purpose of detecting deception or verifying truthfulness.

"Person" means any natural person, partnership, association, corporation or trust.

"Polygraph" means any mechanical or electronic instrument or device used to test or question individuals for the purpose of determining truthfulness.

"Polygraph examiner" means any person who uses a polygraph to test or question individuals for the purpose of determining truthfulness.

"Polygraph examiner intern" means any person engaged in the study of polygraphy and the administration of polygraph examinations under the personal supervision and control of a polygraph examiner.

1975, c. 522, § 54-916; 1988, c. 765; 1993, c. 499; 2010, c. 625.

A. All polygraph examiners shall be licensed pursuant to this chapter.

B. All persons who operate any other detection device shall be licensed pursuant to this chapter.

1975, c. 522, § 54-918; 1988, c. 765; 2010, c. 625.

Repealed by Acts 2010, c. 578, cl. 2.

The Department shall administer and enforce the provisions of this chapter. In addition to the powers and duties otherwise conferred by the law, the Director shall have the powers and duties of a regulatory board as contained in §§ 54.1-201 and 54.1-202 and shall have the power and duty to:

1. Promulgate regulations necessary for the reasonable administration of this chapter in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.). Such regulations shall include, but not be limited to, the establishment of minimum qualifications for the operators of polygraphs and other detection devices;

2. Charge each applicant for licensure and for renewals of licensure a nonrefundable fee subject to the provisions of § 54.1-113 and subdivision A 4 of § 54.1-201; and

3. Conduct investigations to determine the suitability of applicants for licensure and to determine the licensee's compliance with applicable statutes and regulations.

2010, cc. 578, 625; 2012, c. 769.

The Director shall promulgate regulations for the approval of schools in which courses of instruction for polygraph examiners and persons who operate other detection devices approved pursuant to § 54.1-1805 are taught.

1975, c. 522, § 54-920; 1988, c. 765; 2010, c. 625.

Each applicant for licensure as a polygraph examiner, each polygraph examiner intern, and each applicant for licensure to operate any other detection device shall submit his fingerprints to the Department on a form provided by the Department.

1975, c. 522, § 54-921; 1988, c. 765; 2010, c. 625.

A. Each polygraph examiner shall use an instrument that records permanently and simultaneously the subject's cardiovascular and respiratory patterns as minimum standards, but such an instrument may record additional physiological changes pertinent to the determination of truthfulness.

B. 1. The use of any other detection device that does not meet the instrumentation requirements set forth in subsection A shall be approved by the Director. The Director shall approve such other detection device only when the data collected by such device is deemed to be reliable and valid in detecting deception or verifying truth, based upon the preponderance of available scientific evidence. The voluntary, written consent of any individual to be tested using a detection device approved pursuant to this subsection shall be obtained prior to the administration of any such test or questioning using the device.

2. Any such approved device shall be subject to regulations promulgated by the Director regarding its use in the Commonwealth.

3. The Director shall establish standards of practice related to the use of any such other detection device approved pursuant to this subsection.

1975, c. 522, § 54-922; 1988, c. 765; 2010, c. 625.

No licensed polygraph operator shall, during a polygraph examination required as a condition of employment, ask any question concerning the sexual activities of the person being examined if the question violates state or federal law. A violation of this section shall constitute grounds for disciplinary action pursuant to § 54.1-1802.1.

1989, c. 693; 2010, c. 578.

Chapter 19. Private Security Services Businesses [Repealed].

Repealed by Acts 1992, c. 578, effective July 1, 1993.

Chapter 20. Public Accountancy [Repealed].

Repealed by Acts 2001, ch. 832, cl. 2.

Chapter 20.1. Real Estate Appraisers.

As used in this chapter, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:

"Appraisal" means an analysis, opinion, or conclusion relating to the nature, quality, value, or utility of specified interests in, or aspects of, identified real estate or identified real property. An appraisal may be classified by subject matter into either a valuation or analysis. A "valuation" is an estimate of the value of real estate or real property. An "analysis" is a study of real estate or real property other than estimating value. The term "appraiser" or "appraisal" may be used only by a person licensed or certified by the Board.

"Appraisal report" means any communications, written or oral, of an appraisal.

"Board" means the Real Estate Appraiser Board.

"Certified general real estate appraiser" means an individual who meets the requirements for licensure that relate to the appraisal of all types of real estate and real property and is licensed as a certified general real estate appraiser. This designation is identified in Title 11, § 1116 (a) of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. § 3345 (a)) as a "state certified real estate appraiser."

"Certified residential real estate appraiser" means an individual who meets the requirements for licensure for the appraisal of (i) all types of real estate and real property that a licensed residential real estate appraiser is permitted to appraise and (ii) such other real estate and real property as the Board, by regulation, may permit.

To the extent permitted by federal law and regulation, a certified residential real estate appraiser shall be considered a state certified real estate appraiser within the meaning of Title 11, § 1116 (a) of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. § 3345 (a)).

"Department" means the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation.

"Director" means the Director of the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation.

"Evaluation" means an opinion of the market value of real property or real estate that may be utilized in connection with a real estate-related financial transaction where an appraisal by a state-certified or state-licensed appraiser is not required by the state or federal financial institution's regulatory agency engaging in, contracting for, or regulating such real estate-related financial transaction or regulating the financial institution or lender engaged in or about to engage in such real estate-related financial transaction. An evaluation is limited in its scope and development to the requirements for evaluations as set forth in the Interagency Appraisal and Evaluation Guidelines promulgated by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency et al. (75 F.R. 77450).

"Federal financial institutions regulatory agencies" means the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System, the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency, the Office of Thrift Supervision, the National Credit Union Administration, the Resolution Trust Corporation, the Federal National Mortgage Association, and the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation.

"Federally related transaction" means any real estate-related financial transaction which:

1. A federal financial institutions regulatory agency engages in, contracts for or regulates; and

2. Requires the services of an appraiser.

"General real estate appraisal" means an appraisal conducted by an individual licensed as a certified general real estate appraiser.

"Licensed residential real estate appraiser" means an individual who meets the requirements for licensure for the appraisal of any residential real estate or real property of one to four family residential units as the Board, by regulation, may permit, and such other real estate and real property as the Board, by regulation, may permit.

This designation is identified in Title 11, § 1116 (c) of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. § 3345 (c)) as a "state-licensed appraiser."

"Real estate" means an identified parcel or tract of land, including improvements thereon, if any.

"Real estate-related financial transaction" means any transaction involving:

1. The sale, lease, purchase, investment in or exchange of real property, including interests in property, or the financing thereof;

2. The refinancing of real property or interests in real property; or

3. The use of real property or interests in real property as security for a loan or investment, including mortgage-backed securities.

"Real property" means one or more defined interests, benefits or rights inherent in the ownership of real estate.

"Regulation" means any regulations promulgated by the Real Estate Appraiser Board pursuant to the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.).

"Residential real estate appraisal" means an appraisal conducted by a licensed residential real estate appraiser or a certified residential real estate appraiser.

1990, c. 459; 1995, c. 327; 2018, c. 644.

A. The provisions of this chapter shall not apply to:

1. A real estate broker or salesperson licensed in the Commonwealth who, in the ordinary course of business, provides a valuation or analysis of real estate for a fee; however, such person shall not hold himself out as a real estate appraiser, and the valuation shall not be referred to as an appraisal and shall not be used in lieu of an appraisal performed by a licensed appraiser.

2. An officer or employee of the United States of America, or of the Commonwealth or a political subdivision thereof, where the employee or officer is performing his official duties, provided that such individual does not furnish advisory service for compensation to the public or act as an independent contracting party in the Commonwealth or any political subdivision thereof in connection with the appraisal of real estate or real property.

3. Any person who, in the ordinary course of business, provides consulting services or consultative brokerage for a fee, which services may include a valuation or analysis of real estate or standing or severed timber; provided such consulting services or consultative brokerage shall not be referred to as an appraisal and shall not be used in connection with obtaining a loan to finance or refinance real property or standing or severed timber or in connection with any federally related transaction.

4. Any person who, in the regular course of business, provides services to his employer, which services may include a valuation or analysis of real estate, provided such services shall not be referred to as an appraisal and shall not be used in lieu of an appraisal performed by an appraiser licensed hereunder.

5. Any person, including (i) a licensed residential real estate appraiser, certified residential real estate appraiser, or certified general real estate appraiser or (ii) an employee of a financial institution or lender, who provides an evaluation of real estate or real property in connection with a real estate-related financial transaction where an appraisal by a state-certified or state-licensed appraiser is not required by the state or federal financial institution's regulatory agency engaging in, contracting for or regulating such real estate-related financial transaction or regulating the financial institution or lender engaged in or about to engage in such real estate-related financial transaction. The evaluations provided by such persons shall comply with any standards imposed by the state or federal financial institution's or lender's regulatory agencies for evaluations prepared by nonstate-certified or nonstate-licensed appraisers.

B. Nothing contained herein shall proscribe the powers of a judge to determine who may qualify as an expert witness to testify in any legal proceeding.

1990, c. 459; 1992, c. 68; 1995, c. 327; 1999, c. 259; 2017, cc. 258, 269.

A. After December 31, 1992, except as provided in § 54.1-2010 and in subsections C and E of this section, it shall be unlawful to engage in the appraisal of real estate or real property for compensation or valuable consideration in this Commonwealth without first obtaining a real estate appraiser's license in accordance with Board regulations promulgated pursuant to the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.).

B. After December 31, 1992, except as provided in § 54.1-2010, it shall be unlawful for any person who is not licensed pursuant to this chapter to perform an appraisal in connection with a federally related transaction.

C. Notwithstanding subsections A and B of this section, an individual who is not a licensed residential real estate appraiser, a certified residential real estate appraiser, or a certified general real estate appraiser may assist in the preparation of and sign an appraisal if:

1. The assistant is under the direct supervision of a licensed residential real estate appraiser, a certified residential real estate appraiser, or a certified general real estate appraiser; and

2. The appraisal is reviewed, attested to be accurate and complete, and signed by such licensed residential real estate appraiser, certified residential real estate appraiser, or certified general real estate appraiser in accordance with this chapter.

D. This chapter shall not prevent or affect the practice of any profession or trade for which licensing, certification, or registration is required under any other Virginia law.

E. A corporation, partnership, or other business entity may provide appraisal services if each appraisal is prepared and signed by an individual licensed in accordance with this chapter and such corporation, partnership, or other business entity has registered with the Board. However, any appraisal management company that is required to be licensed under § 54.1-2021.1 shall not be required to have an additional license under this section.

F. An appraiser engaged by an appraisal management company to perform appraisal services shall disclose the actual fee paid to the appraiser by the appraisal management company as part of the appraisal report. The disclosure of such fee shall not be prohibited by the appraisal management company as otherwise provided in § 54.1-2022.

1990, c. 459; 1992, c. 338; 2012, c. 405.

A. The Real Estate Appraiser Board shall be composed of 10 members as follows: (i) six members shall be licensed as real estate appraisers, provided that, at all times, at least two of the appraiser members on the Board shall be certified general real estate appraisers and one shall be a certified residential real estate appraiser, and provided further, that all six appraiser members have been licensed for a period of at least five years prior to their appointment; (ii) one member shall be an officer or employee familiar with mortgage lending of a financial institution as defined in § 6.2-100 or an affiliate or subsidiary thereof; (iii) one member shall be an officer or employee of an appraisal management company; and (iv) two members shall be citizen members. The terms of Board members shall be four years.

The appointment of appraiser members may be made from lists of at least three names each, submitted by Virginia affiliates of professional appraisal organizations that are members of the Appraisal Foundation. The appointment of the bank or savings institution member may be made from lists of at least three names each, submitted by the Virginia Bankers Association and the Virginia Association of Community Banks. The appointment of the appraisal management company member may be made from lists of at least three names each, submitted by the Virginia Bankers Association. Nominations for appointments to regular terms shall be submitted to the Governor on or before June 1 of each year. The Governor may notify the above organizations of any vacancy other than by expiration and like nominations may be made for the filling of the vacancy. In no case shall the Governor be bound to make any appointment from among the nominees.

Notwithstanding § 54.1-200, all members of the Board, including the citizen members, shall be eligible to participate in all matters, including decisions regarding the examination of applicants for licensure and decisions regarding the professional competence of licensees.

The Board shall elect a chairman and a vice-chairman from its membership, provided that the chairman shall be an appraiser member.

The Board shall meet at least once each year, and additional meetings may be called by the chairman or, if the chairman is incapacitated, by the vice-chairman, as deemed necessary.

The Board shall adopt a seal by which it shall authenticate its proceedings.

B. As soon as practicable, the Board shall determine the anticipated availability of licensed and certified appraisers to perform appraisals in Virginia. If, at any time, the Board determines that there is, or will be, a scarcity of certified general real estate appraisers, certified residential real estate appraisers, or licensed residential real estate appraisers to perform appraisals in connection with federally related transactions in any part of Virginia that leads, or will lead, to significant delays in the performance of such appraisals, the Board, subject to federal approval, shall extend the effective date of the licensing requirements of this chapter to the extent permitted under any temporary waiver granted under the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act of 1989, as amended (12 U.S.C. § 3301 et seq.).

1990, c. 459; 1992, c. 68; 1999, cc. 208, 505; 2010, c. 91; 2012, cc. 405, 522.

The Board shall have all of the powers of a regulatory board under Chapter 2 (§ 54.1-200 et seq.). The Board may do all things necessary and convenient for carrying into effect the provisions of this chapter, Chapter 20.2 (§ 54.1-2020 et seq.), and all things required or expected of a state appraiser certifying and licensing agency under Title 11 of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. § 3331 et seq.). The Board shall promulgate necessary regulations.

The Board shall include in its regulations educational and experience requirements as conditions for licensure, provisions for the supervision of appraiser practices, provisions for the enforcement of standards of professional appraiser practice, and provisions for the disposition of referrals of improper appraiser conduct from any person or any federal agency or instrumentality. This paragraph shall not be construed to limit the powers and authority of the Board.

The Board may set different education and experience requirements for licensed residential real estate appraisers, certified residential real estate appraisers, and certified general real estate appraisers. All applicants for licensure under this chapter shall meet applicable educational and experience requirements prior to licensure.

Applicants for licensure as a certified residential real estate appraiser or a certified general real estate appraiser shall successfully complete an examination administered or approved by the Board prior to licensure. The Board may set different examination requirements for certified residential real estate appraisers and certified general real estate appraisers. The Board may require that licensed residential real estate appraisers successfully complete an examination administered or approved by the Board prior to licensure or prior to the renewal of an initial license.

All regulations established by the Board shall satisfy any minimum criteria that are necessary in order that the federal financial institution's regulatory agencies recognize and accept licenses for licensed residential real estate appraisers, certified residential real estate appraisers, certified general real estate appraisers, and appraisal management companies issued by the Board.

1990, c. 459; 1992, c. 68; 1993, c. 539; 2010, c. 91; 2014, c. 210.

Expired.

A. For purposes of this section:

"Appraisal Foundation" means the foundation incorporated as an Illinois Not for Profit Corporation on November 30, 1987, to establish and improve uniform appraisal standards by defining, issuing, and promoting such standards.

"Appraiser Qualifications Board" means the board created by the Appraisal Foundation to (i) establish appropriate criteria for the certification and recertification of qualified appraisers by defining, issuing, and promoting such qualification criteria; (ii) disseminate such qualification criteria to states, governmental entities, and others; and (iii) develop or assist in the development of appropriate examinations for qualified appraisers.

"Certified Residential PAREA Program" or "Licensed Residential PAREA Program" means a Practical Applications of Real Estate Appraisal experience training program approved by the Appraiser Qualifications Board that utilizes simulated experience training and serves as an alternative to the traditional supervisor and trainee method of achieving appraisal experience.

B. The Board shall accept evidence of the successful completion of a Licensed Residential PAREA Program or a Certified Residential PAREA Program to satisfy the experience requirements established in Board regulations promulgated pursuant to § 54.1-2013 as a condition of licensure as a licensed residential real estate appraiser, certified residential real estate appraiser, or certified general real estate appraiser.

C. Applicants completing a Licensed Residential PAREA Program shall receive credit for:

1. One-hundred percent of the experience required by Board regulations as a condition of licensure as a licensed residential real estate appraiser;

2. Sixty-seven percent of the experience required by Board regulations as a condition of licensure as a certified residential real estate appraiser; or

3. Thirty-three percent of the experience required by Board regulations as a condition of licensure as a certified general real estate appraiser.

D. Applicants completing a Certified Residential PAREA Program shall receive credit for:

1. One-hundred percent of the experience required by Board regulations as a condition of licensure as a licensed residential real estate appraiser or certified residential real estate appraiser; or

2. Fifty percent of the experience required by Board regulations as a condition of licensure as a certified general real estate appraiser.

2023, c. 106.

The Board may establish in regulations requirements for continuing education as a prerequisite to renewal of a license issued under this chapter. If the Board requires continuing education, the requirements shall include a minimum of two hours of fair housing or appraisal bias courses.

1990, c. 459; 2022, c. 118.

In addition to all other authority to issue subpoenas, the Board or its designees shall have the authority to subpoena the records of any bank, savings institution, or credit union relating to real estate appraisals.

1990, c. 459.

A. The Board may establish in regulations other categories of licensure, as well as the conditions required for such licensure, in order to safeguard the public interest or as may be required to satisfy any additional qualification criteria adopted by any federal agency or instrumentality.

B. Unless expressly prohibited by federal law or regulation, an individual who is certified or licensed as a real estate appraiser in another jurisdiction may obtain a Virginia real estate appraiser's license if (i) the Board determines that the requirements for certification or licensure, as the case may be, in such jurisdiction are substantially equivalent to the requirements for licensure under this chapter, and (ii) the applicant meets such other requirements as may be established by the Board.

C. In accordance with Title 11, § 1122 (a) of the Financial Institutions Reform, Recovery and Enforcement Act of 1989 (12 U.S.C. § 3351 (a)), the Board shall adopt regulations that provide for temporary practice in Virginia by appraisers licensed or certified by another state.

1990, c. 459.

An individual who is not licensed by the Board as a certified general real estate appraiser, a certified residential real estate appraiser, or a licensed residential real estate appraiser shall not represent himself as being so licensed or use in connection with his name or place of business the term "real estate appraiser," "general real estate appraiser," "certified general real estate appraiser," "licensed residential real estate appraiser," "certified residential real estate appraiser," "state certified real estate appraiser," "state licensed real estate appraiser," or any words, letters, abbreviations, or insignia indicating or implying that he is licensed as a certified general real estate appraiser, a licensed residential real estate appraiser, or a certified residential real estate appraiser in this Commonwealth.

Each licensed residential real estate appraiser, certified residential real estate appraiser, and certified general real estate appraiser shall comply with the standards of professional appraisal practice and code of ethics adopted by the Board and shall authenticate all written appraisal reports with his signature, license designation and license number.

All appraisal reports rendered in connection with federally related transactions shall be written.

1990, c. 459; 1999, c. 57.

A. Any evaluation, as defined in § 54.1-2009, shall contain the statement: "This is not an appraisal performed in accordance with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice."

B. The evaluation report may be prepared in any reporting format, provided that (i) the reporting format meets the requirements as set forth in the Interagency Appraisal and Evaluation Guidelines promulgated by the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency et al. (75 F.R. 77450) and (ii) the evaluation report contains sufficient information in clear and understandable language to allow a person to understand the opinion of the market value of real property or real estate.

2018, c. 644.

A roster showing the names and addresses of all licensed residential real estate appraisers, certified residential real estate appraisers, and certified general real estate appraisers shall be published annually and made available to all interested parties at a cost, as determined by the Director.

1990, c. 459.

A. Every nonresident applicant shall file with the Board an irrevocable consent that suits and actions may be commenced against such applicant in the proper court of any county or city of this Commonwealth in which a cause of action may arise or in which the plaintiff may reside, by the service of any process or pleading authorized by the laws of this Commonwealth on the Director of the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation. The consent shall stipulate that such service of process or pleadings on the Director shall be taken and held in all courts to be as valid and binding as if due service has been made upon the applicant in the Commonwealth of Virginia.

B. Any process or pleading served upon the Director shall be filed by the Director in his office and a copy thereof immediately forwarded by registered mail to the main office of the licensee at the last known address.

1990, c. 459; 1993, c. 499.

Chapter 20.2. Real Estate Appraisal Management Companies.

A. As used in this chapter, unless the context clearly requires otherwise:

"Appraisal management company" means a person or entity that (i) provides appraisal management services to creditors or to secondary mortgage market participants, including affiliates; (ii) provides such services in connection with valuing a consumer's principal dwelling as security for a consumer credit transaction or incorporating such transactions into securitizations; and (iii) within a 12-month calendar year, oversees an appraiser panel of more than 15 state-certified or state-licensed appraisers in a state or 25 or more state-certified or state-licensed appraisers in two or more states. "Appraisal management company" does not include a department or division of an entity that provides appraisal management services only to that entity.

"Appraisal management services" means one or more of the following: (i) recruiting, selecting, and retaining appraisers; (ii) contracting with state-certified or state-licensed appraisers to perform appraisal assignments; (iii) managing the process of having an appraisal performed, including providing administrative services such as receiving appraisal orders and appraisal reports, submitting completed appraisal reports to creditors and secondary mortgage market participants, collecting fees from creditors and secondary mortgage market participants for services provided, and paying appraisers for services performed; and (iv) reviewing and verifying the work of appraisers.

"Appraisal services" means acting as an appraiser to provide an appraisal or appraisal review.

"Appraiser" means a person licensed or certified under § 54.1-2017 and as otherwise provided in Chapter 20.1 (§ 54.1-2009 et seq.).

"Appraiser panel" means a network, list, or roster of licensed or certified appraisers approved by an appraisal management company to perform appraisals as independent contractors for the appraisal management company. Appraisers on an appraisal management company's appraiser panel include both appraisers accepted by the appraisal management company for consideration for future appraisal assignments in covered transactions or for secondary mortgage market participants in connection with covered transactions and appraisers engaged by the appraisal management company to perform one or more appraisals in covered transactions or for secondary mortgage market participants in connection with covered transactions. An appraiser is an independent contractor for purposes of this chapter if the appraiser is treated as an independent contractor by the appraisal management company for purposes of federal income taxation.

"Board" means the Virginia Real Estate Appraiser Board.

"Employee" means an individual who has an employment relationship acknowledged by both the individual and the company and is treated as an employee for purposes of compliance with federal income tax laws.

"Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice" means the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice adopted by the Appraisal Standards Board of the Appraisal Foundation.

B. The definitions contained in § 54.1-2009 shall be applicable except to the extent inconsistent with the definitions contained in this chapter.

2010, c. 508; 2012, c. 405; 2018, cc. 229, 230.

The provisions of this chapter shall not apply to:

1. Any agency of the federal government or any agency of the Commonwealth or local government;

2. Any person or entity that exclusively employs persons on an employer and employee basis for the performance of appraisal services;

3. Any person or entity licensed pursuant to § 54.1-2017 that has as its primary business the performance of appraisal services in the Commonwealth in accordance with Chapter 20.1 (§ 54.1-2009 et seq.) and with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice;

4. Any person or entity licensed pursuant to § 54.1-2017 that has as its primary business the performance of appraisal services in the Commonwealth but that in the normal course of business enters into an agreement with an independent contract appraiser for the performance of appraisal services that the contracting entity cannot complete either because of the location or type of property in question;

5. Any licensed real estate broker performing activities in accordance with Chapter 21 (§ 54.1-2100 et seq.);

6. Any officer or employee of an exempt entity described in this chapter when acting in the scope of employment for the exempt entity;

7. An appraisal management company that is a subsidiary owned and controlled by a financial institution that is subject to appraisal independence standards at least as stringent as those under the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. § 1601 et seq.); or

8. A department or unit within a financial institution that is subject to direct regulation by an agency of the United States government that is a member of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council or its successor, or to regulation by an agency of this state, that receives a request for the performance of an appraisal from one employee of the financial institution, and another employee of the same financial institution assigns the request for the appraisal to an appraiser that is an independent contractor to the institution, except that an appraisal management company that is a wholly owned subsidiary of a financial institution shall not be considered a department or unit within a financial institution for the purposes of this subdivision.

2010, c. 508; 2012, c. 405.

A. No person shall engage in business as an appraisal management company without a license issued by the Board.

B. The Board may issue a license to do business as an appraisal management company in the Commonwealth to any applicant who has submitted a complete application and provides satisfactory evidence that he has successfully:

1. Completed all requirements established by the Board that are consistent with this chapter and are reasonably necessary to implement, administer, and enforce the provisions of this chapter; and

2. Certified to the Board the following information, and such other information as may be reasonably required by the Board, regarding the person or entity seeking licensure:

a. The name of the person or entity;

b. The business address of the person or entity;

c. Phone contact information for the person or entity, and email address;

d. If the entity is not an entity domiciled in the Commonwealth, the name and contact information for the entity's agent for service of process in the Commonwealth;

e. If the entity is not an entity domiciled in the Commonwealth, proof that the entity is properly and currently registered with the Virginia State Corporation Commission;

f. The name, address, and contact information for any person or any entity that owns 10 percent or more of the appraisal management company;

g. The name, address, and contact information for a responsible person for the appraisal management company located in the Commonwealth, who shall be a person or entity licensed under Chapter 20.1 (§ 54.1-2009 et seq.);

h. That any person or entity that owns any part of the appraisal management company has never had a license to act as an appraiser refused, denied, canceled, surrendered in lieu of revocation, or revoked by the Commonwealth or any other state;

i. That the entity has a system in place to review the work of all appraisers that may perform appraisal services for the appraisal management company on a periodic basis to ensure that the appraisal services are being conducted in accordance with the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice;

j. That the entity maintains a detailed record of the following: (i) each request for an appraisal service that the appraisal management company receives; (ii) the name of each independent appraiser that performs the appraisal; (iii) the physical address or legal identification of the subject property; (iv) the name of the appraisal management company's client for the appraisal; (v) the amount paid to the appraiser; and (vi) the amount paid to the appraisal management company; and

k. That the entity has a system in place to ensure compliance with § 129E of the Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. § 1601 et seq.).

C. Any person that owns 10 percent or more of an appraisal management company and any controlling person of an appraisal management company seeking to be licensed pursuant to this chapter shall be of good moral character, as determined by the Board, and shall submit to a background investigation, as determined by the Board.

D. In addition to the filing fee, each applicant for licensure shall post either a bond or a letter of credit as follows:

1. If a bond is posted, the bond shall (i) be in the amount of $100,000 or any other amount as set by regulation of the Board, (ii) be in a form prescribed by regulation of the Board, and (iii) accrue to the Commonwealth for the benefit of (a) a claimant against the licensee to secure the faithful performance of the licensee's obligations under this chapter or (b) an appraiser who has performed an appraisal for the licensee for which the appraiser has not been paid. The aggregate liability of the surety shall not exceed the principal sum of the bond. A party having a claim against the licensee may bring suit directly on the surety bond. When a claimant or an appraiser is awarded a final judgment in a court of competent jurisdiction against a licensee of this section for the licensee's failure to faithfully perform its obligations under this chapter or failure to pay an appraiser who performed an appraisal, the claimant or the appraiser may file a claim with the Board for a directive ordering payment from the bond issuer of the amount of the judgment, court costs and reasonable attorney fees as awarded by the court. Such claim shall be filed with the Board no later than 12 months after the judgment becomes final. Upon receipt of the claim against the licensee, the Board may cause its own investigation to be conducted. The amount of the bond shall be restored by the licensee to the full amount required within 15 days after the payment of any claim on the bond. If the licensee fails to restore the full amount of the bond, the Board shall immediately revoke the license of the licensee whose conduct resulted in payment from the bond.

2. If a letter of credit is posted, the letter of credit shall (i) be in the amount of $100,000 or any other amount as set by regulation of the Board, (ii) be irrevocable and in a form approved by the Board, payable to the Department of Professional Occupational Regulation, and (iii) be for the use and the benefit of (a) a claimant against the licensee to secure the faithful performance of the licensee's obligations under this chapter or (b) an appraiser who has performed an appraisal for the licensee for which the appraiser has not been paid. The aggregate liability on the letter of credit shall not exceed the principal sum of the letter of credit. When a claimant or an appraiser is awarded a final judgment in a court of competent jurisdiction against a licensee of this section for the licensee's failure to faithfully perform its obligations under this chapter or failure to pay an appraiser who performed an appraisal, the claimant or the appraiser may file a claim with the Board for a directive ordering payment from the issuer of the letter of credit of the amount of the judgment, court costs and reasonable attorney fees as awarded by the court. Such claim shall be filed with the Board no later than 12 months after the judgment becomes final. Upon receipt of the claim against the licensee, the Board may cause its own investigation to be conducted. Upon a draw against a letter of credit, the licensee shall provide a new letter of credit in the amount required by this subdivision within 15 days after payment of any claim on the letter of credit. If the licensee fails to restore the full amount of the letter of credit, the Board shall immediately revoke the license of the licensee whose conduct resulted in payment from the bond.

2012, c. 405; 2014, c. 210; 2018, cc. 229, 230.

A. An appraisal management company shall not enter into any contracts or agreements with an independent appraiser for the performance of real estate appraisal services unless the independent appraiser is licensed to provide that service under § 54.1-2017 and as otherwise provided in Chapter 20.1 (§ 54.1-2009 et seq.).

B. The appraisal management company shall not prohibit an appraiser from disclosing in the appraisal report the actual fees charged by an appraiser for appraisal services, and shall otherwise comply with any applicable requirements of federal law including the requirements of the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development.

C. No employee, director, officer, or agent of an appraisal management company shall influence or attempt to influence the development, reporting, result, or review of a real estate appraisal through coercion, extortion, collusion, compensation, inducement, intimidation, bribery, or in any other manner, including:

1. Withholding or threatening to withhold timely payment for a real estate appraisal report;

2. Withholding or threatening to withhold future business from a real estate appraiser or demoting or terminating or threatening to demote or terminate a real estate appraiser;

3. Expressly or impliedly promising future business, promotions, or increased compensation for a real estate appraiser;

4. Conditioning the ordering of a real estate appraisal report or the payment of a real estate appraisal fee, salary, or bonus on the opinion, conclusion, or valuation to be reached or on a preliminary estimate requested from a real estate appraiser;

5. Requesting or requiring that a real estate appraiser provide an estimated, predetermined, or desired valuation in a real estate appraisal report or provide estimated values or comparable sales at any time before the appraiser's completion of the appraisal report;

6. Providing to a real estate appraiser an anticipated, estimated, encouraged, or desired value for a subject property or a proposed or targeted amount to be loaned to the borrower. However, a real estate appraiser may be provided with a copy of the sales contract for purchase transactions;

7. Allowing the removal of a real estate appraiser from a list of qualified appraisers used by any entity without prior written notice to the appraiser. The notice shall include written evidence of the appraiser's illegal conduct, substandard performance, or otherwise improper or unprofessional behavior or any violation of the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice or licensing standards for appraisers in the Commonwealth; or

8. Any other act or practice that impairs or attempts to impair a real estate appraiser's independence, objectivity, or impartiality.

D. The appraisal management company shall not engage in any of the following:

1. Requesting or requiring a real estate appraiser to collect a fee from the borrower, homeowner, or any other person in the provision of real estate appraisal services;

2. Altering, modifying, or otherwise changing a completed appraisal report submitted by an independent appraiser without the appraiser's written knowledge and consent;

3. Use an appraisal report submitted by an independent appraiser for any other transaction, purpose or use other than for that which the appraisal was prepared; however, nothing in this section shall be construed as prohibiting an appraisal management company from providing a copy of the appraisal to a federal or state agency in the normal course of business or when providing a copy of the appraisal is otherwise required by law;

4. Requesting or requiring an appraiser to sign any indemnification agreement that would require the appraiser to defend and hold harmless the appraisal management company or any of its agents, employees or independent contractors for any liability, damage, losses, or claims arising out of the services performed by the appraisal management company or its agents, employees or independent contractors and not the services performed by the appraiser; or

5. Requesting or requiring an appraiser to provide the company with the appraiser's digital signature or seal.

E. Nothing in this section shall be construed as prohibiting an appraisal management company from requesting that a real estate appraiser:

1. Consider additional appropriate property information;

2. Provide further detail, substantiation, or explanation for the real estate appraiser's value conclusion; or

3. Correct errors in the real estate appraisal report.

2010, c. 508; 2012, c. 405; 2013, c. 353.

A. An appraisal management company shall compensate appraisers in compliance with § 129E(i) of the federal Truth in Lending Act (15 U.S.C. § 1601 et seq.) and regulations promulgated thereunder.

B. Except in the case of breach of contract or noncompliance with the conditions of the engagement or performance of services that violates the Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice, an appraisal management company shall compensate the appraiser within 30 days of the initial delivery by the appraiser of the completed appraisal report.

2015, c. 422; 2017, c. 666.

In addition to the powers vested in the Board, in any action brought under this chapter, if a court finds that a person has willfully engaged in an act or practice in violation of this chapter, the Attorney General, the attorney for the Commonwealth, or the attorney for the locality may recover for the Literary Fund, upon petition to the court, a civil penalty of not more than $10,000 per violation. For purposes of this section, prima facie evidence of a willful violation may be shown when the Attorney General, the attorney for the Commonwealth, or the attorney for the locality notifies the alleged violator by certified mail that an act or practice is a violation of this chapter and the alleged violator, after receipt of the notice, continues to engage in the act or practice.

Violations of this chapter shall constitute separate and distinct offenses. If the acts or activities violating this chapter also violate another provision of law, an action brought under this chapter shall not prohibit or bar any prosecution or proceeding under such other provision or the imposition or any penalties provided for thereby.

2010, c. 508; 2012, c. 405.

Chapter 21. Real Estate Brokers, Sales Persons and Rental Location Agents.

Article 1. Regulation of Real Estate Brokers, Salespersons and Rental Location Agents.

As used in this chapter:

"Branch office" means any place of business of a principal broker in the Commonwealth that is not his primary place of business.

"Distance learning" means instruction delivered by an approved provider through a medium other than a classroom setting. Such courses shall be those offered by an accredited institution of higher education, high school offering adult distributive education courses, other school or educational institution, or real estate professional association or related entities.

"Place of business" means a location where the principal broker, or individuals or business entities employed by or affiliated as an independent contractor with the principal broker, regularly transacts the business of a real estate broker or salesperson. The primary place of business is the physical address provided on the firm license application form submitted to the Real Estate Board.

"Real estate broker" means any individual or business entity, including a partnership, association, corporation, or limited liability company, who, for compensation or valuable consideration, (i) sells or offers for sale, buys or offers to buy, or negotiates the purchase or sale or exchange of real estate, including units or interest in condominiums, cooperative interest as defined in § 55.1-2100, or time-shares in a time-share program even though they may be deemed to be securities; (ii) leases or offers to lease, or rents or offers for rent, any real estate or the improvements thereon for others; or (iii) sells or offers to sell, buys or offers to buy, negotiates, or otherwise deals in real estate contracts, including assignable contracts, on two or more occasions in any 12-month period.

"Real estate salesperson" means any individual or business entity who is employed either directly or indirectly by, or affiliated as an independent contractor with, a real estate broker to perform the duties of a real estate broker for compensation or valuable consideration.

"Real estate team" means two or more individuals, one or more of whom is a real estate salesperson or broker, who (i) work together as a unit within the same brokerage firm, (ii) represent themselves to the public as working together as one unit, and (iii) designate themselves by a fictitious name.

"Supervising broker" means a real estate broker who has been designated by a principal broker to supervise the provision of real estate brokerage services by associate brokers and salespersons assigned to a branch office or a real estate team.

Code 1950, § 54-730; 1974, c. 409; 1982, c. 440; 1984, c. 283; 1988, c. 765; 1996, c. 993; 2001, c. 548; 2007, c. 809; 2018, cc. 223, 224; 2024, cc. 327, 352, 459, 621.

Repealed by Acts 2024, cc. 459 and 621, cl. 2, effective July 1, 2024.

Notwithstanding any rule of court to the contrary, any person licensed under this chapter may prepare written contracts for the sale, purchase, option, exchange, or rental of real estate, provided that the preparation of such contracts is incidental to a real estate transaction in which the licensee (i) is involved and (ii) does not charge a separate fee for preparing the contracts.

If a party to a real estate transaction requests translation of a contract or other real estate document from the English language to another language, a licensee may assist such party in obtaining a translator or may refer such party to an electronic translation service. The licensee shall not charge a fee for such assistance or referral. In doing so, the licensee shall not be deemed to have breached any of his obligations under this chapter or otherwise become liable for any inaccuracies in the translation.

1997, cc. 200, 231; 2018, cc. 39, 87.

Repealed by Acts 1992, c. 84.

A. The provisions of this chapter shall not apply to:

1. Any person, partnership, association, corporation, entity, or their regular employees, who as owner or lessor perform any of the acts enumerated in § 54.1-2100 with reference to property owned or leased by them, where the acts are performed in the regular course of or incident to the management of the property and the investment therein. For property governed by the Virginia Real Estate Time-Share Act (§ 55.1-2200 et seq.), the term "owner" for purposes of this subdivision shall include affiliated entities, provided that (i) the owner has a controlling interest in the affiliated entity or (ii) the affiliated entity and the owner have a common parent company;

2. Any person acting without compensation as attorney-in-fact under a power of attorney issued by a property owner solely for the purpose of authorizing the final performance required of such owner under a contract for the sale, lease, purchase, or exchange of real estate;

3. Service rendered by an attorney-at-law in the performance of his duties as such;

4. A person acting as a receiver, trustee in bankruptcy, administrator, or executor, or any person selling real estate under order of any court;

5. A trustee acting under a trust agreement, deed of trust, or will, or the regular salaried employees thereof;

6. Any corporation managing rental housing when the officers, directors, and members in the ownership corporation and the management corporation are the same and the management corporation manages no other property for other persons, partnerships, associations, or corporations;

7. Any existing tenant of a residential dwelling unit who refers a prospective tenant to the owner of the unit or to the owner's duly authorized agent or employee and for the referral receives, or is offered, a referral fee from the owner, agent, or employee;

8. Any auctioneer licensed in accordance with Chapter 6 (§ 54.1-600 et seq.) selling real estate at public auction when employed for such purpose by the owner of the real estate and provided the bidding at such auction is held open for no longer than 48 hours. An auctioneer shall not advertise that he is authorized to sell real estate. An auctioneer may advertise for sale at public auction any real estate when employed to do so as herein provided, and may advertise that he is authorized to auction real estate at public auction;

9. [Expired.]

10. Any person who is licensed and is in good standing as a real estate broker or salesperson in another state, and who assists a prospective purchaser, tenant, optionee, or licensee located in another state to purchase, lease, option, or license an interest in commercial real estate, as defined in § 55.1-1100, in the Commonwealth. Such real estate licensee from another state may be compensated by a real estate broker in the Commonwealth. Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to permit any person not licensed and in good standing as a real estate broker or salesperson in the Commonwealth to otherwise act as a real estate broker or salesperson under this chapter.

B. The provisions of this chapter shall not prohibit the selling of real estate (i) by an attorney-at-law in the performance of his duties as such, (ii) by a receiver, trustee in bankruptcy, administrator, executor, or special commissioner, or any person selling real estate under order of court, or (iii) by a trustee acting under the trust agreement, deed of trust, or will, or the regular salaried employees thereof.

C. The provisions of this chapter shall not apply to any person employed by a licensed real estate broker for and on behalf of the owner of any real estate or the improvements thereon that the licensed broker has contracted to manage for the owner if the actions of such employee are limited to (i) exhibiting residential units on such real estate to prospective tenants, if the employee is employed on the premises of such real estate; (ii) providing prospective tenants with factual information about the rental of residential real estate; (iii) accepting applications for the rental of such real estate; (iv) accepting and signing broker-approved rental agreements, state or federal required disclosures, and any documents required for compliance with Chapter 5.1 (§ 36-96.1 et seq.) of Title 36 related to such rental transaction; and (v) accepting security deposits, periodic rent, and other payments as contracted for in the rental agreement for such real estate. Such deposits and rent shall be made payable to the owner or the broker employed by such owner. The employee shall not negotiate the amounts of such security deposits, periodic rent, or other payments contracted for in the rental agreement and shall not negotiate any rental agreements on behalf of such owner or broker.

D. A licensee of the Board shall comply with the Board's regulations, notwithstanding the fact that the licensee would be otherwise exempt from licensure under subsection A. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to require a person to be licensed in accordance with this chapter if he would be otherwise exempt from such licensure.

E. An attorney-at-law referring a client to a licensee shall not be entitled to receive any compensation from a listing firm or offered by a common source information company to cooperating brokers, unless the attorney is also licensed under this chapter as a real estate broker or salesperson.

Code 1950, § 54-734; 1972, c. 324; 1973, cc. 487, 527; 1975, c. 238; 1980, c. 127; 1982, cc. 633, 682; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 84; 1993, cc. 816, 899; 1995, c. 227; 1998, cc. 261, 262; 2001, Sp. Sess. I, c. 9; 2009, cc. 88, 262; 2015, cc. 24, 272; 2024, cc. 459, 621; 2025, cc. 463, 466.

The Real Estate Board shall be composed of nine members as follows: seven members who have been actively engaged as licensed real estate brokers or salespersons for at least seven consecutive years before their appointment and two citizen members. Of the members licensed as real estate brokers or salespersons, (i) at least one shall have proficiency and experience in the area of residential property management and (ii) each shall have acknowledged ability in the profession as evidenced by possessing at least one of the following qualifications: (a) experience in real estate credentialing or certification, (b) certification by the Board as a real estate instructor, or (c) training or experience in the adjudication of other real estate licensees. The terms of Board members shall be four years.

The Board shall elect a chairman from its membership.

The Board shall adopt a seal by which it shall authenticate its proceedings.

Code 1950, §§ 54-737, 54-738, 54-739, 54-744; 1956, c. 145; 1981, c. 447; 1984, c. 201; 1985, c. 448; 1988, cc. 42, 765; 1992, c. 809; 2010, c. 91; 2025, cc. 609, 654.

A. The Board may do all things necessary and convenient for carrying into effect the provisions of this chapter and may promulgate necessary regulations.

B. The Board shall adopt regulations establishing minimum educational requirements as conditions for licensure. Board regulations relating to initial licensure shall include the following requirements:

1. Every applicant for an initial license as a real estate salesperson shall have:

a. At a minimum, a high school diploma or its equivalent; and

b. Completed a course in the principles of real estate that carried an academic credit of at least four semester hours, but not less than 60 hours of classroom, correspondence, or other distance learning instruction, offered by an accredited institution of higher education, high school offering adult distributive education courses, or other school or educational institution offering an equivalent course.

2. Every applicant for an initial license as a real estate broker shall have:

a. At a minimum, a high school diploma or its equivalent; and

b. Completed not less than 12 semester hours of classroom or correspondence or other distance learning instruction in real estate courses offered by an accredited institution of higher education or other school or educational institution offering equivalent courses.

3. Every applicant for a license by reciprocity as a real estate salesperson or real estate broker shall have:

a. Completed a course in the principles of real estate that is comparable in content and duration and scope to that required in subdivision 1 or 12 semester hours of classroom or correspondence or other distance learning instruction in real estate courses that are comparable in content and duration and scope to that required in subdivision 2; and

b. If currently licensed by another state as a real estate salesperson or broker, passed Virginia's examination.

C. The Board may waive any requirement under the regulations relating to education or experience when the broker or salesperson is found to have education or experience equivalent to that required. No regulation imposing educational requirements for initial licensure beyond those specified by law shall apply to any person who was licensed prior to July 1, 1975, and who has been continuously licensed since that time, except that licensure as a salesperson prior to such time shall not exempt a salesperson who seeks to be licensed as a broker from the educational requirements established for brokers.

D. The Board shall establish criteria to ensure that prelicensure and broker licensure courses meet the standards of quality deemed by the Board to be necessary to protect the public interests. For correspondence and other distance learning instruction offered by an approved provider, such criteria may include appropriate testing procedures. The Board may establish procedures to ensure the quality of the courses.

Noncollegiate institutions shall not be authorized to grant collegiate semester hours for academic credit.

The specific content of the real estate courses shall be in real estate brokerage, real estate finance, real estate appraisal, real estate law, and such related subjects as are approved by the Board.

E. The Board may establish criteria delineating the permitted activities of unlicensed individuals employed by, or affiliated as an independent contractor with, real estate licensees or under the supervision of a real estate broker.

F. The Board may take a disciplinary case against a licensee under advisement, defer a finding in such case, and dismiss such action upon terms and conditions set by the Board.

G. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Board shall not charge a fee to a licensee for the transfer of such licensee between offices within a licensed real estate firm, including from such firm's primary place of business to one of its branch offices, or from a branch office to another branch office under the same primary place of business.

Code 1950, § 54-740; 1974, c. 663; 1977, c. 3; 1980, c. 571; 1981, c. 117; 1984, cc. 201, 283; 1985, c. 116; 1988, cc. 9, 765; 1989, c. 244; 1991, c. 576; 1992, cc. 65, 446, 624, 717; 1995, c. 125; 1996, cc. 890, 903; 1997, c. 389; 1998, c. 268; 2000, c. 759; 2003, cc. 998, 1027; 2006, cc. 61, 627; 2007, c. 809; 2010, cc. 373, 637; 2012, c. 750; 2016, c. 334; 2019, cc. 179, 395; 2025, cc. 122, 129.

A. The Board shall establish guidelines for a post-license educational curriculum of at least 30 hours of classroom, or correspondence or other distance learning, instruction, in specified areas, which shall be required of all salespersons within the initial year of licensure. Failure of a new licensee to complete the 30-hour post-licensure curriculum within one year from the last day of the month in which his license was issued shall result in the license being placed on inactive status by the Board until the curriculum has been completed.

B. To establish the guidelines required by this section, the Board shall establish an industry advisory group composed of representatives of the practices of (i) residential real estate, (ii) commercial real estate, and (iii) property management. The industry advisory group shall consist of licensed real estate salespersons and real estate brokers who shall be appointed by and shall meet at the direction of the Board to update the guidelines. The Board shall review and may approve educational curricula developed by an approved school or other provider of real estate education authorized by this chapter. The industry advisory group shall serve at no cost to the Board.

C. The curricula for new licensees shall include topics that new licensees need to know in their practices, including contract writing, handling customer deposits, listing property, leasing property, agency, current industry issues and trends, flood hazard areas and the National Flood Insurance Program, property owners' and condominium association law, landlord-tenant law, Board regulations, real estate-related finance, and such other topics as designated by the Board. The post-licensure education requirements of this section for new licensees shall be in lieu of the continuing education requirements otherwise specified in this chapter and Board regulations.

2007, c. 809; 2011, c. 461; 2015, c. 692; 2018, cc. 60, 86.

A. The Board may regulate any school that is established to offer real estate courses except such schools as are regulated by another state agency. Such authority shall include, but not be limited to, qualification of instructors, approval of course curricula, and requirement that such schools submit evidence of financial responsibility to ensure that these schools protect the public health, safety, and welfare.

B. Board regulations shall include a procedure for processing applications of educational institutions, real estate professional associations, or related entities, to provide continuing education courses, which procedure, at a minimum, shall (i) provide for a broad range of subject matters suitable for the continuing education of licensed professionals in a multifamily residential and commercial office, as well as single-family residential, sales, leasing and property management; (ii) acknowledge, in writing, receipt of such applications within 10 calendar days after receipt; and (iii) provide written notification to the applicant, within 75 calendar days of receipt of the application, whether the application has been approved or disapproved, and if disapproved, the reasons therefor. In addition, the Board shall prepare a comprehensive listing of courses, pre-approved by the Board, related to the professional competency requirements for the multifamily residential and commercial office industries.

Board regulations shall include criteria for evaluating and approving continuing education course credits and for awarding credit hours for such courses, as well as procedures for ensuring the quality of real estate courses. The Board shall approve recommended course titles, content, and hours of continuing education credit developed and published by national professional real estate trade associations, unless the Board determines in writing that such titles, content, or credit hours should not be approved and specifies the reasons therefor.

2007, c. 809.

A. Board regulations shall include educational requirements as a condition for relicensure of brokers and salespersons to whom active licenses have been issued by the Board beyond those now specified by law as conditions for licensure.

1. Brokers to whom active licenses have been issued by the Board shall be required to satisfactorily complete courses of not less than 24 hours of classroom or correspondence or other distance learning instruction during each licensing term. Of the total 24 hours, the curriculum shall consist of:

a. A minimum of 11 required hours to include at least three hours of ethics and standards of conduct, two hours of fair housing, two hours of legal updates and emerging trends including flood hazard areas and the National Flood Insurance Program, two hours of real estate agency, and two hours of real estate contracts;

b. A minimum of eight hours of courses relating to supervision and management of real estate agents and the management of real estate brokerage firms as are approved by the Board, two hours of which shall include an overview of the broker supervision requirements under this chapter and the Board regulations; and

c. Five hours of general elective courses as are approved by the Board.

The Board may, on a year-by-year basis, adjust the required hours and course topics specified in this subdivision for the next succeeding year, applicable to a licensee in the next renewal period for his license, including the addition of topics deemed by the Board to be essential. Such designation or adjustment by the Board shall be made prior to September 1 of any given calendar year. The action of the Board in making such adjustment shall be subject to § 2.2-4012.1.

The fair housing requirements shall include an update on current cases and administrative decisions under fair housing laws. If the licensee submits a notarized affidavit to the Board that certifies that he does not practice residential real estate and shall not do so during the licensing term, training in fair housing shall not be required; instead, such licensee shall receive training in other applicable federal and state discrimination laws and regulations.

2. Salespersons to whom active licenses have been issued by the Board shall be required to satisfactorily complete courses of not less than 16 hours of classroom or correspondence or other distance learning instruction during each licensing term. Of the total 16 hours, the curriculum shall consist of:

a. A minimum of 11 required hours to include at least three hours of ethics and standards of conduct, two hours of fair housing, two hours of legal updates and emerging trends including flood hazard areas and the National Flood Insurance Program, two hours of real estate agency, and two hours of real estate contracts; and

b. Five hours of general elective courses as are approved by the Board.

The Board may, on a year-by-year basis, readjust the required hours and course topics specified in this subdivision for the next succeeding year, applicable to a licensee in the next renewal period for his license, including the addition of topics deemed by the Board to be essential. Such designation or adjustment by the Board shall be made prior to September 1 of any given calendar year. The action of the Board in making such adjustment shall be subject to § 2.2-4012.1.

3. The Board shall approve a continuing education curriculum of not less than three hours, and as of July 1, 2012, every applicant for relicensure as an active broker or salesperson shall complete at a minimum one three-hour continuing education course on the changes to residential standard agency effective as of July 1, 2011, to Article 3 (§ 54.1-2130 et seq.) prior to renewal or reinstatement of his license. If the licensee submits a notarized affidavit to the Board that certifies that he does not practice residential real estate and shall not do so during the licensing term, training in residential representation shall not be required. A licensee who takes one three-hour continuing education class on residential representation shall satisfy the requirements for continuing education and may, but shall not be required to, take any further continuing education on residential standard agency.

The fair housing requirements shall include an update on current cases and administrative decisions under fair housing laws. If the licensee submits a notarized affidavit to the Board that certifies that he does not practice residential real estate and shall not do so during the licensing term, training in fair housing shall not be required; instead, such licensee shall receive training in other applicable federal and state discrimination laws and regulations.

4. For correspondence and other distance learning instruction offered by an approved provider, the Board shall establish the appropriate testing procedures to verify completion of the course and require the licensee to file a notarized affidavit certifying compliance with the course requirements. The Board may establish procedures to ensure the quality of the courses. The Board shall not require testing for continuing education courses completed through classroom instruction.

B. Every applicant for relicensure as an active salesperson or broker shall complete the continuing education requirements prior to each renewal or reinstatement of his license. The continuing education requirement shall also apply to inactive licensees who make application for an active license. Notwithstanding this requirement, military personnel called to active duty in the armed forces of the United States may complete the required continuing education within six months of their release from active duty.

C. The Board shall establish procedures for the carryover of continuing education credits completed by licensees from the licensee's current license period to the licensee's next renewal period.

D. The Board may grant exemptions or waive or reduce the number of continuing education hours required in cases of certified illness or undue hardship as demonstrated to the Board.

2007, c. 809; 2011, c. 461; 2012, c. 750; 2015, c. 692; 2016, c. 334; 2018, cc. 60, 86; 2024, cc. 29, 120.

A. Board regulations shall include remedial educational requirements for any salesperson or broker who has been inactive for more than three years. The regulations shall require the applicant to meet the educational requirements for a salesperson or broker in effect at the time either becomes active.

B. When the license has been inactive for more than three years, the Board may waive the educational requirements for reactivation of a license under the following conditions: (i) during the time the license has been inactive, the holder of such inactive license has been engaged in an occupation whereby the knowledge of real estate would be retained or (ii) the holder of such license is a member or the spouse of a member of the armed forces of the United States who has been permanently assigned outside Virginia for a portion of the time the license has been inactive, and the holder of the inactive license remained current in the field of real estate and demonstrates this fact to the satisfaction of the Board.

C. The Board or its agent shall require proof of identity prior to an applicant taking the state examination.

2007, c. 809.

In addition to the provisions of §§ 54.1-2105.01 through 54.1-2105.04, the Board shall:

1. Develop a residential property disclosure statement form for use in accordance with the provisions of the Virginia Residential Property Disclosure Act (§ 55.1-700 et seq.) and maintain such statement on its website. The Board shall also develop and maintain on its website a one-page form to be signed by the parties acknowledging that the purchaser has been advised of the disclosures listed in the residential property disclosure statement located on the Board's website; and

2. Inform licensed brokers, in a manner deemed appropriate by the Board, of the broker's requirement, pursuant to § 54.1-2109, to designate another licensed broker to carry on the business for up to 180 days for the sole purpose of concluding the business of such designating broker in the event of the designating broker's death or disability.

1993, c. 958; 2000, c. 759; 2007, cc. 265, 809; 2008, cc. 851, 871; 2011, c. 461; 2014, cc. 24, 705; 2018, cc. 60, 86; 2020, c. 749; 2022, c. 725.

A. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Board may issue an order requiring any person to cease and desist from acting as a real estate broker or salesperson when such person is not licensed by the Board in accordance with this chapter. The order shall be effective upon its entry and shall become final unless such person files an appeal with the Board in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) within 21 days of the date of entry of the order.

B. If the person fails to cease and desist the unlicensed activity after entry of an order in accordance with subsection A, the Board may refer the matter for enforcement pursuant to § 54.1-306.

C. Any person engaging in unlicensed activity shall be subject to further proceedings before the Board and the Board may impose a civil penalty not to exceed $1,000 for any real estate transaction or the compensation received from any such real estate transaction, whichever is greater. Any penalties collected under this section shall be paid to the Literary Fund after deduction of the administrative costs of the Board in furtherance of this section.

2005, c. 437.

Repealed by Acts 1996, c. 993.

A. No business entity, other than a sole proprietorship, shall act, offer to act, or advertise to act, as a real estate firm without a real estate firm license from the Board. Such firm may be granted a license in a fictitious name. No business entity shall be granted a firm license unless (i) every managing member of a limited liability company, officer of a corporation, partner within a partnership, or associate within an association who actively participates in the firm brokerage business holds a license as a real estate broker; and (ii) every employee or independent contractor who acts as a salesperson for such business entity holds a license as a real estate salesperson or broker. An individual holding a broker's license may operate a real estate brokerage firm which he owns as a sole proprietorship without any further licensure by the Board, although such individual shall not operate the brokerage firm in a fictitious name. However, nothing herein shall be construed to prohibit a broker operating a brokerage firm from having a business entity separate from the brokerage firm for such broker's own real estate business, provided that such separate business entity otherwise complies with this section. A non-broker-owned sole proprietorship shall obtain a license from the Board.

B. No individual shall act as a broker without a real estate broker's license from the Board. An individual who holds a broker's license may act as a salesperson for another broker. A broker may be an owner, member, or officer of a business entity salesperson as defined in subsection C.

C. No individual shall act as a salesperson without a salesperson's license from the Board. A business entity may act as a salesperson with a separate business entity salesperson's license from the Board. No business entity shall be granted a business entity salesperson's license unless every owner or officer who actively participates in the brokerage business of such entity holds a license as a salesperson or broker from the Board. The Board shall establish standards in its regulations for the names of business entity salespersons when more than one licensee is an owner or officer.

D. No group of individuals consisting of one or more real estate brokers or real estate salespersons, or a combination thereof, shall act as a real estate team without first obtaining a business entity salesperson's license from the Board. A real estate team may hire one or more unlicensed assistants, as employees or independent contractors, as otherwise provided by law.

E. If any principal broker maintains more than one place of business within the Commonwealth, such principal broker shall be required to obtain a branch office license from the Board for each additional place of business maintained other than his primary place of business noted on the firm license application. A copy of the branch office license shall be kept on the premises of the branch office. No branch office license shall be required for (i) a location that the principal broker, or those employed by or affiliated as an independent contractor with the principal broker, does not own, lease, or maintain exclusive access to, maintenance of, and control of, unless it is held out to the public as a location where such persons or entities are regularly engaging in the activities of a real estate broker or salesperson; (ii) a motor vehicle or watercraft; (iii) a place that is solely devoted to advertising real estate matters of a general nature or to making a real estate broker's business name generally known such as a trade show or expo; (iv) a residence, unless it is held out to the public as a location where the principal broker, or those employed by or affiliated as an independent contractor with the principal broker, is regularly engaging in the activities of a real estate broker or salesperson; (v) a post office box, mail drop location, or other similar facility; or (vi) a public location such as a coffee shop or restaurant.

1996, c. 993; 1998, c. 265; 1999, cc. 82, 105; 2008, c. 319; 2012, c. 750; 2018, cc. 223, 224; 2019, cc. 179, 395; 2024, cc. 327, 352.

When submitting a renewal of any firm or sole proprietorship license, the principal broker or supervising broker of the firm shall certify that he has audited or has caused to be audited the operations, policies, and procedures of the firm to assure compliance with the provisions of this chapter and with regulations adopted by the Board. Such audit shall be conducted at least once during each term of licensure, and the completed audit form developed by the Board, signed by the principal or supervising broker, shall be kept on the premises of the firm or sole proprietorship and shall be produced for inspection or copying upon request by an authorized agent of the Board.

2012, c. 750.

Repealed by Acts 2024, cc. 459 and 621, cl. 2, effective July 1, 2024.

No licensee or any agent of the licensee shall divert or misuse any funds held in escrow or otherwise held by him for another. Where escrow funds or other funds are held by the licensee or his agents and the Real Estate Board or its agents have reason to believe that the licensee is not able to adequately protect the interests of persons involved, or his conduct threatens their interests, the Board shall file a petition with any court of record having equity jurisdiction over the licensee or any of the funds held by him stating the facts upon which it relies. The court may temporarily enjoin further activity by the licensee and take such further action as shall be necessary to conserve, protect and disburse the funds involved, including the appointment of a receiver. If a receiver is appointed his expenses and a reasonable fee as determined by the court shall be paid by the licensee. If the court finds him unable to make such payment, the Board shall determine whether the expenses and fees shall be paid from the Virginia Real Estate Transaction Recovery Fund or from funds received by the Board. Such determination shall be made within thirty days of the Board's receipt of the court-approved receiver invoices. If the court finds that the licensee was without fault and that he is found not to have violated any provisions of this chapter or of the regulations of the Board, then the receiver's expenses and fees shall be paid by the Board. Such payments shall be paid from funds received by the Board.

1973, c. 487, § 54-764.5; 1988, c. 765; 1997, c. 82; 1998, c. 29.

A. Notwithstanding any other provision of law:

1. If a licensed real estate broker or an agent of such licensee is holding escrow funds for the owner of real property and such property is foreclosed upon, the licensee or agent shall have the right to file an interpleader action pursuant to § 16.1-77.

2. If a single-family residential dwelling unit is foreclosed upon, and at the date of the foreclosure sale there is a real estate purchase contract to buy such property and such contract provides that the earnest money deposit held in escrow by a licensee shall be paid to a party to the contract in the event of a termination of the real estate purchase contract, the foreclosure shall be deemed a termination of the real estate purchase contract and the licensee or an agent of the licensee may, absent any default on the part of the purchaser, disburse the earnest money deposit to the purchaser pursuant to such provisions of the real estate purchase contract without further consent from, or notice to, the parties.

3. If a single-family residential dwelling unit is foreclosed upon and there is a tenant in the dwelling unit on the date of the foreclosure sale and the landlord is holding a security deposit of the tenant, the landlord shall handle the security deposit in accordance with applicable law, which requires the holder of the landlord's interest in the dwelling unit at the time of termination of tenancy to return any security deposit and any accrued interest that is duly owed to the tenant, whether or not such security deposit is transferred with the landlord's interest by law or equity, and regardless of any contractual agreements between the original landlord and his successors in interest. Nothing herein shall be construed to prevent the landlord from making lawful deductions from the security deposit in accordance with applicable law.

4. If a single-family residential dwelling unit is foreclosed upon pursuant to § 55.1-1237 and there is a tenant in such dwelling unit on the date of the foreclosure sale, the successor in interest who acquires the dwelling unit at the foreclosure sale shall assume such interest subject to the following:

a. If the successor in interest acquires the dwelling unit for the purpose of occupying such unit as his primary residence, the successor in interest shall provide written notice to the tenant, in accordance with the provisions of § 55.1-1202, notifying the tenant that the rental agreement is terminated and that the tenant must vacate the dwelling unit on a date not less than 90 days after the date of such written notice.

b. If the successor in interest acquires the dwelling unit for any other purpose, the successor in interest shall acquire the dwelling unit subject to the rental agreement and the tenant shall be permitted to occupy the dwelling unit for the remaining term of the lease, provided, however, that the successor in interest may terminate the rental agreement pursuant to § 55.1-1245 or the terms of the rental agreement. The successor in interest shall provide written notice of such termination to the tenant in accordance with the provisions of § 55.1-1202.

If rent is paid to a real estate licensee acting on behalf of the landlord as a managing agent, such property management agreement having been entered into prior to and in effect at the time of the foreclosure sale, the managing agent may collect the rent and shall place it into an escrow account by the end of the fifth business banking day following receipt.

5. If a single-family residential dwelling unit is foreclosed upon, and at the date of the foreclosure sale there is a written property management agreement between a landlord and a real estate licensee licensed pursuant to the provisions of § 54.1-2106.1, the foreclosure shall convert the property management agreement into a month-to-month agreement between the successor landlord and the real estate licensee acting as a managing agent, except in the event that the terms of the original property management agreement between the landlord and the real estate licensee acting as a managing agent require an earlier termination date. Unless altered by the parties, the terms of the original property management agreement that existed between the landlord and the real estate licensee acting as a managing agent shall govern the agreement between the successor landlord and the real estate licensee acting as a managing agent. The property management agreement may be terminated by either party upon provision of written notice to the other party at least 30 days prior to the intended termination date. Any funds received or held by the real estate licensee acting as a managing agent shall be disbursed only in accordance with the terms of the property management agreement or as otherwise provided by law.

B. Notwithstanding any other provision of law:

1. Any rent paid to a real estate licensee acting on behalf of a landlord client in connection with the lease shall be placed in an escrow account by the end of the fifth business banking day following receipt, regardless of when received, unless otherwise agreed to in writing by the principals to a lease transaction.

2. Any security deposits paid to a real estate licensee acting on behalf of a landlord client in connection with the lease shall be placed in an escrow account by the end of the fifth business banking day following receipt, unless otherwise agreed to in writing by the principals to a lease transaction.

3. Any application deposit as defined by § 55.1-1200 paid by a prospective tenant for the purpose of being considered as a tenant for a dwelling unit to a real estate licensee acting on behalf of a landlord client shall be placed in escrow by the end of the fifth business banking day following approval of the rental application by the landlord, unless otherwise agreed to in writing by the principals to a lease transaction.

4. Such funds shall remain in an escrow account until disbursed in accordance with the terms of the lease, the property management agreement, or the applicable statutory provisions, as applicable.

5. Except in the event of foreclosure, if a real estate licensee acting on behalf of a landlord client as a managing agent elects to terminate the property management agreement, the licensee may transfer any funds held in escrow by the licensee on behalf of the landlord client to the landlord client without his consent, provided that the real estate licensee provides written notice to each tenant that the funds have been so transferred. In the event of foreclosure, a real estate licensee shall not transfer any funds to a landlord client whose property has been foreclosed upon.

6. A real estate licensee acting on behalf of a landlord client as a managing agent who complies with the provisions of this section shall have immunity from any liability for such compliance, in the absence of gross negligence or intentional misconduct.

2010, c. 181; 2013, c. 489; 2017, cc. 67, 394; 2020, c. 1014; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 426.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, for purchase transactions:

1. Upon the ratification of a contract, an earnest money deposit received by the principal broker or supervising broker, or an agent of such principal broker or supervising broker, that is to be held in the firm's escrow account shall be placed in such escrow account by the end of the fifth business banking day following ratification, unless otherwise agreed to in writing by the principals to the transaction, and shall remain in that account until the transaction has been consummated or terminated.

2. If a principal broker or supervising broker, or an agent of such principal broker or supervising broker, receives an earnest money deposit that will not be held in the firm's escrow account, the principal broker or supervising broker shall ensure that the earnest money deposit is delivered to the escrow agent named in the contract by the end of the fifth business banking day following receipt of the deposit, unless otherwise agreed to in writing by the principals to the transaction.

3. In the event that the transaction is not consummated, the principal broker or supervising broker shall hold such funds in escrow until (i) all principals to the transaction have agreed in a written agreement as to their disposition, upon which the funds shall be returned to the agreed-upon principal as provided in such written agreement; (ii) a court of competent jurisdiction orders such disbursement of the funds; (iii) the funds are successfully interpleaded into a court of competent jurisdiction pursuant to this section; or (iv) the broker releases the funds to the principal to the transaction who is entitled to receive them in accordance with the clear and explicit terms of the contract that established the earnest money deposit.

At the option of a broker, written notice may be sent by the broker that release of such funds shall be made unless a written protest is received from the principal who is not receiving the funds by such broker within 15 calendar days of the date of such notice. Notice of a disbursement shall be given to the parties to the transaction in accordance with the contract, but if the contract does not specify a method of delivery, one of the following methods complies with this section: (a) hand delivery; (b) United States mail, postage prepaid, provided that the sender retains sufficient proof of mailing, which may be either a United States postal certificate of mailing or a certificate of service prepared by the sender confirming such mailing; (c) electronic means, provided that the sender retains sufficient proof of the electronic delivery, which may be an electronic receipt of delivery, a confirmation that the notice was sent by facsimile, or a certificate of service prepared by the sender confirming the electronic delivery; or (d) overnight delivery using a commercial service or the United States Postal Service. Except as provided in the clear and explicit terms of the contract, no broker shall be required to make a determination as to the party entitled to receive the earnest money deposit. A broker who complies with this section shall be immune from liability to any of the parties to the contract.

4. A principal broker or supervising broker holding escrow funds for a principal to the transaction may seek to have a court of competent jurisdiction take custody of disputed or unclaimed escrow funds via an interpleader action pursuant to § 16.1-77.

5. If a principal broker or supervising broker is holding escrow funds for the owner of real property and such property is foreclosed upon by a lender, the principal broker or supervising broker shall have the right to file an interpleader action pursuant to § 16.1-77 and otherwise comply with the provisions of § 54.1-2108.1.

2018, cc. 60, 86; 2019, cc. 179, 395; 2022, c. 380.

A. Any licensed broker who is engaged in a sole proprietorship or who is the only licensed broker in a business entity listed in clause (i) of subsection A of § 54.1-2106.1 shall designate another licensed broker to carry on the business for up to 180 days for the sole purpose of concluding the business of such designating broker in the event of the designating broker's death or disability. Such designation shall be made at the time of application for broker licensure.

B. Only in the event that the designated broker named pursuant to subsection A is unable or unwilling to perform the act of concluding the business, the Real Estate Board shall, within 30 days of receiving written notification of a broker's death or disability, grant approval to one of the following individuals to carry on the business of the deceased or disabled broker for up to 180 days for the sole purpose of concluding the business:

1. A personal representative qualified by the court to administer the deceased broker's estate;

2. An agent designated under a power of attorney of the deceased or disabled broker, which designation expressly references this section;

3. The executor nominated in the deceased broker's will;

4. An adult family member of the deceased or disabled broker; or

5. An employee of, or an independent contractor affiliated with, the deceased or disabled broker.

C. In the event that none of the individuals in subdivisions B 1 through 5 is available or suitable, the Board may appoint any other licensed broker, with the written consent of such broker, within 30 days of receiving written notification of a broker's death or disability, to allow such appointed broker to carry on the business of the deceased or disabled broker for the sole purpose of concluding the business within 180 days.

1984, c. 283, § 54-731.3; 1988, c. 765; 2014, cc. 24, 705; 2019, cc. 179, 395; 2020, c. 383; 2022, c. 725.

A. Every resident real estate broker shall maintain a place of business in the Commonwealth.

B. Any nonresident real estate broker residing in a state that mandates resident real estate brokers of the Commonwealth to maintain a place of business in such mandating state shall maintain a place of business in the Commonwealth.

C. Every principal broker shall have readily available to the public in the primary place of business the firm license, the principal broker license, and the license of every salesperson and broker active with the firm. Each branch office shall have readily available to the public the branch office license and a roster of every salesperson or broker assigned to that branch office.

Code 1950, § 54-733; 1981, c. 34; 1988, c. 765; 2024, cc. 327, 352.

A. Each place of business, each branch office, and each real estate team shall be supervised by a supervising broker. The supervising broker shall exercise reasonable and adequate supervision of the provision of real estate brokerage services by associate brokers and salespersons assigned to the branch office or real estate team. The supervising broker may designate another broker to assist in administering the provisions required by this section, but such designation shall not relieve the supervising broker of responsibility for the supervision of the acts of all licensees assigned to the branch office or real estate team.

B. As used in this section, "reasonable and adequate supervision" by the supervising broker shall include the following:

1. Being available to all licensees under his supervision at reasonable times to review and approve all documents, including leases, contracts, brokerage agreements, and advertising as may affect the firm's clients and business;

2. Ensuring the availability of training opportunities and that the office has written procedures and policies that provide clear guidance in the following areas:

a. Handling of escrow deposits in compliance with law and regulation;

b. Complying with federal and state fair housing laws and regulations if the firm engages in residential brokerage, residential leasing, or residential property management;

c. Advertising and marketing of the brokerage firm and any affiliated real estate teams or business entities;

d. Negotiating and drafting of contracts, leases, and brokerage agreements;

e. Exercising appropriate oversight and limitations on the use of unlicensed assistants, whether as part of a team arrangement or otherwise;

f. Creating agency or independent contractor relationships and elements thereof;

g. Distributing information on new or amended laws or regulations; and

h. Disclosing required information relating to the physical condition of real property;

3. Ensuring that the brokerage services are carried out competently and in accordance with the provisions of this chapter;

4. Undertaking reasonable steps to ensure compliance by all licensees assigned to a branch office with the provisions of this chapter and applicable Board regulations, including ensuring that licensees possess a current license issued by the Board;

5. Ensuring that affiliated real estate teams or business entities are operating in accordance with the provisions of this chapter and applicable Board regulations;

6. Ensuring that brokerage agreements include the name and contact information of the supervising broker; and

7. Maintaining the records required by this subsection for three years. The records shall be furnished to the Board's agent upon request.

C. Any supervising broker who resides more than 50 miles from a branch office under his supervision, having licensees who regularly conduct business assigned to such branch office, shall certify in writing quarterly on a form provided by the Board that the supervising broker has complied with the requirements of this section.

D. As a condition of the renewal of a branch office license, the supervising broker shall provide to the Board the name and license number of each real estate licensee affiliated with the branch office at the time of the renewal in a format deemed acceptable by the Board.

2012, c. 750; 2016, c. 334; 2018, cc. 223, 224.

A. The Board shall promulgate regulations to allow the audit of the practices, policies, and procedures of a real estate broker licensed by the Board, either through a third party retained by the real estate broker or through a self-audit, and if the broker is determined by such audit to not be in compliance with the provisions of this chapter or applicable regulations of the Board, to allow for the broker to enter into a voluntary compliance program to bring the broker's practices, policies, and procedures into compliance with applicable laws and regulations. The broker shall notify the Board of the discovery of any noncompliance within 30 days after discovery and shall submit a written statement with a plan to bring the practices, policies, and procedures into voluntary compliance, which completion of such voluntary compliance shall not exceed a period of 90 days from the date that the plan is submitted to the Board.

B. Certification by the broker or auditor of such broker shall constitute immunity from an enforcement action under this chapter or under the applicable regulations of the Board.

C. The provisions of this section do not apply if the noncompliance by the broker was intentional or a result of gross negligence of the broker, including any actions by an unlicensed employee negotiating the provisions of a rental agreement as prohibited under subsection C of § 54.1-2103.

2010, cc. 373, 637; 2025, cc. 463, 466.

A. Every nonresident applicant shall file with the Real Estate Board an irrevocable consent that suits and actions may be commenced against such applicant in the proper court of any county or city of this Commonwealth in which a cause of action may arise or in which the plaintiff may reside, by the service of any process or pleading authorized by the laws of this Commonwealth on the Director of the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation. The consent shall stipulate that such service of process or pleadings on the Director shall be taken and held in all courts to be as valid and binding as if due service had been made upon the applicant in the Commonwealth of Virginia.

B. Any process or pleadings served upon the Director shall be filed by the Director in his office and a copy thereof immediately forwarded by registered mail to the main office of the licensee at the last known address.

Code 1950, §§ 54-773, 54-774; 1988, c. 765; 1993, c. 499.

Article 2. Virginia Real Estate Transaction Recovery Act.

As used in this article, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Act" means the Virginia Real Estate Transaction Recovery Act.

"Balance of the fund" means cash, securities that are legal investments for fiduciaries under the provisions of subdivisions A 1, 2, and 4 of § 2.2-4519, and repurchase agreements secured by obligations of the United States government or any agency thereof, and shall not mean accounts receivable, judgments, notes, accrued interest, or other obligations payable to the fund.

"Board" means the Real Estate Board.

"Claimant" means any person with an unsatisfied judgment against a regulant, who has filed a verified claim under this act.

"Director" means the Director of the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation.

"Fund" means the Virginia Real Estate Transaction Recovery Fund.

"Improper or dishonest conduct" includes only the wrongful and fraudulent taking or conversion of money, property or other things of value or material misrepresentation or deceit.

"Judgment" includes an order of a United States Bankruptcy Court (i) declaring a claim against a regulant who is in bankruptcy to be a "Debt Nondischargeable in Bankruptcy," (ii) extinguishing a claim against a regulant who is in bankruptcy and for which claim no distribution was made from the regulant's bankruptcy estate but excluding any such claim disallowed by order of the bankruptcy court, or (iii) extinguishing a claim against a regulant who is in bankruptcy and for which claim only partial distribution was made from the regulant's bankruptcy estate. An order of dismissal shall not be considered a judgment.

"Regulant" means a person, partnership, association, corporation, agency, firm or any other entity licensed by the Real Estate Board as a real estate broker or real estate salesperson.

"Verified claim" means a completed application, on a form designed by the Board, the truthfulness of which has been attested to by the claimant before a notary public, along with all required supporting documentation, that has been properly received by the Department in accordance with this chapter.

1977, c. 69, § 54-765.2; 1984, cc. 266, 283; 1985, c. 448; 1987, c. 555; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 348; 1993, c. 499; 2015, c. 409.

A. Each initial regulant at the time of licensure shall be assessed $20, which shall be specifically assigned to the fund. Initial payments may be incorporated in any application fee payment and transferred to the fund by the Director within 30 days.

B. All assessments, except initial assessments, for the fund shall be deposited, within three work days after their receipt by the Director, in one or more federally insured banks, savings and loan associations or savings banks located in the Commonwealth. Funds deposited in banks, savings and loan associations or savings banks, to the extent in excess of insurance afforded by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation or other federal insurance agency, shall be secured under the Virginia Security for Public Deposits Act (§ 2.2-4400 et seq.). The deposit of these funds in federally insured banks, savings institutions or savings banks located in the Commonwealth shall not be considered investment of such funds for purposes of this section. Funds maintained by the Director may be invested in securities that are legal investments for fiduciaries under the provisions of § 64.2-1502. The Director shall maintain in his office an accurate record of all transactions involving the fund, which records shall be open for inspection and copying by the public during the normal business hours of the Director.

C. The minimum balance of the fund shall be $400,000. Whenever the Director determines that the balance of the fund is or will be less than such minimum balance, the Director shall immediately inform the Board. At the same time, the Director may recommend that the Board transfer a fixed amount of interest earnings to the fund to bring the balance of the fund to the amount required by this subsection. Such transfer of interest shall be considered by the Board within 30 days of the notification of the Director.

D. If available interest earnings are insufficient to bring the balance of the fund to the minimum amount required by this section, or if a transfer of available interest earnings to the fund has not occurred, the Board shall assess each regulant within 30 days of notification by the Director, a sum sufficient to bring the balance of the fund to the required minimum amount. The Board may order an assessment of regulants at any time in addition to any required assessment. No regulant shall be assessed a total amount of more than $20 during any biennial license period or part thereof, the biennial period expiring on June 30 of each even-numbered year. Assessments of regulants made pursuant to this subsection may be issued by the Board (i) after a determination made by it or (ii) at the time of license renewal.

E. At the close of each fiscal year, whenever the balance of the fund exceeds $2 million, the amount in excess of $2 million shall be transferred to the Virginia Housing Trust Fund established pursuant to Chapter 9 (§ 36-141 et seq.) of Title 36. Except for transfers pursuant to this subsection, there shall be no transfers out of the fund, including transfers to the general fund, regardless of the balance of the fund.

F. If the Board determines that all regulants will be assessed concurrently, notice to the regulants of such assessments shall be by first-class mail, and payment of such assessments shall be made by first-class mail to the Director within 45 days after the mailing to regulants of such notice.

If the Board determines that all regulants will be assessed in conjunction with license renewal, notice to the regulants may be included with the license renewal notice issued by the Board. The assessment shall be due with the payment of the license renewal fees. No license shall be renewed or reinstated until any outstanding assessments are paid.

G. If any regulant fails to remit the required payment mailed in accordance with subsection F within 45 days of the mailing, the Director shall notify the regulant by first-class mail at the latest address of record filed with the Board. If no payment has been received by the Director within 30 days after mailing the second notice, the license shall be automatically suspended. The license shall be restored only upon the actual receipt by the Director of the delinquent assessment.

H. The costs of administering the act shall be paid out of interest earned on deposits constituting the fund. The remainder of the interest, at the discretion of the Board, may (i) be used for providing research and education on subjects of benefit to real estate regulants or members of the public, (ii) be transferred to the Virginia Housing Trust Fund, or (iii) accrue to the fund in accordance with subsection C.

1977, c. 69, § 54-765.3; 1982, c. 6; 1984, c. 266; 1987, c. 555; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 3; 1992, cc. 348, 810; 1997, c. 82; 2007, c. 791; 2013, c. 754.

A. The claimant shall not himself be (i) a regulant, (ii) the personal representative of a regulant, (iii) the spouse or child of the regulant against whom the judgment was awarded or the personal representative of such spouse or child, or (iv) a lending or financial institution or any person whose business involves the construction or development of real property.

B. Whenever any person is awarded a final judgment in any court of competent jurisdiction in the Commonwealth of Virginia against any individual or entity for improper or dishonest conduct as defined in the act, and the improper or dishonest conduct occurred during a period when the individual or entity was a regulant and occurred in connection with a transaction involving the sale, lease, or management of real property by the regulant acting in the capacity of a real estate broker or real estate salesperson and not in the capacity of a principal, or on his own account, the person to whom such judgment was awarded may file a verified claim with the Director for a directive ordering payment from the fund of the amount unpaid upon the judgment, subject to the following conditions:

1. If any action is instituted against a regulant by any person, such person shall serve a copy of the complaint upon the Board by certified mail or the equivalent.

2. A copy of any pleading or document filed subsequent to the initial service of process in the action against a regulant shall be provided to the Board. The claimant shall submit such copies to the Board by certified mail, or the equivalent, upon his receipt of the pleading or document.

3. A verified claim shall be filed with the Director no later than 12 months after the date of entry of the final judgment from which no further right of appeal exists.

4. Prior to submitting a verified claim, the claimant shall:

a. Conduct or make a reasonable attempt to conduct debtor's interrogatories to determine whether the judgment debtor has any assets, including any listings held by the regulant and any commissions due thereby; and

b. Take all legally available actions for the sale or application of any assets disclosed in the debtor's interrogatories.

5. If the judgment debtor has filed bankruptcy, the claimant shall file a claim with the proper bankruptcy court. If no distribution is made, or the distribution ordered fails to satisfy the claim, the claimant may then file a claim with the Board. The verified claim shall be received by the Board within 12 months of the date of bankruptcy discharge or dismissal. In the event the judgment is silent as to the conduct of the regulant, the Board shall determine (i) whether the conduct of the regulant that gave rise to the claim was improper or dishonest as defined in § 54.1-2112 and (ii) what amount, if any, such claimant is entitled to recover from the Fund.

C. The Department shall promptly consider the verified claim. If it appears that a prima facie case has been made for payment of the claim, the Department shall provide the regulant with a notice offering the opportunity to be heard at an informal fact-finding conference pursuant to § 2.2-4019 of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.). Such notice shall state that if the regulant does not request an informal fact-finding conference within 30 days, with three days added in instances where the notice is sent by mail, the Department shall present the claim to the Board with a recommendation to pay the verified claim.

D. A claimant shall not be denied recovery from the Fund due to the fact that the order for judgment filed with the verified claim does not contain a specific finding of improper or dishonest conduct. Any language in the order that supports the conclusion that the court found that the conduct of the regulant meets the definition of improper or dishonest conduct in § 54.1-2112 shall be used by the Board to determine eligibility for recovery from the Fund. To the extent the judgment order is silent as to the court's findings on the conduct of the regulant, the Board may determine whether the conduct of the regulant meets the definition of improper or dishonest conduct by substantial evidence in the verified claim.

E. If the Board finds that there has been compliance with the statutory conditions to which reference is made in this section, the Board shall issue a directive ordering payment to the claimant from the fund the amount unpaid on the judgment, subject to the limitations set forth in § 54.1-2116. The claimant shall be notified in writing of the findings of the Board. The Board's findings shall be considered a "case decision" and judicial review of these findings shall be in accordance with § 2.2-4025 of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.). Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Board shall have the right to appeal a decision of any court which is contrary to any distribution recommended or authorized by it.

1977, c. 69, § 54-765.4; 1984, c. 266; 1987, c. 555; 1988, c. 765; 1996, c. 115; 2006, c. 723; 2015, c. 409.

Upon receipt of the notice of proceedings against the regulant, the Department may cause its own investigation to be conducted pursuant to § 54.1-306.

1987, c. 555, § 54-765.4:1; 1988, c. 765; 2015, c. 409.

A. The aggregate of claims by claimants against the fund based upon unpaid judgments arising out of the improper or dishonest conduct of one regulant in connection with a single transaction involving the sale, lease, or management of real property, is limited to $50,000. If a claim has been made against the fund, and the Board has reason to believe that there may be additional claims against the fund arising out of the same transaction, the Board may withhold any payment(s) from the fund for a period of not more than one year. After such one-year period, if the aggregate of claims arising out of the same transaction exceeds $50,000, such $50,000 shall be prorated by the Board among the claimants and paid from the fund in proportion to the amounts of their judgments against the regulant remaining unpaid.

B. The maximum claim of one claimant against the fund based upon an unpaid judgment arising out of the improper or dishonest conduct of one regulant in connection with a single transaction involving the sale, lease, or management of real property, shall be limited to $20,000, regardless of the number of claimants and regardless of the amount of the unpaid judgment of the claimant.

C. The aggregate of claims against the fund based upon unpaid judgments arising out of the improper or dishonest conduct of one regulant in connection with more than a single transaction involving the sale, lease, or management of real property is limited to $100,000 during any biennial license period, the biennial periods expiring on June 30 of each even-numbered year. If a claim has been made against the fund, and the Board has reason to believe that there may be additional claims against the fund from other transactions involving the same regulant, the Board may withhold any payment(s) from the fund involving such regulant for a period of not more than one year. After the one-year period, if the aggregate of claims against the regulant exceeds $100,000, such $100,000 shall be prorated by the Board among the claimants and paid from the fund in proportion to the amounts of their judgments against the regulant remaining unpaid.

D. Excluded from the amount of any unpaid judgment upon which a claim against the fund is based shall be any sums included in the judgment which represent interest, or punitive damages. The claim against the fund may include court costs and attorney fees.

E. If, at any time, the amount of the fund is insufficient to satisfy any claims, claim, or portion thereof filed with the Board and authorized by the act, the Board shall, when the amount of the fund is sufficient to satisfy some or all of such claims, claim, or portion thereof, pay the claimants in the order that such claims were filed with the Board.

F. Failure of a claimant to comply with the provisions of subdivisions B 1 and 2 of § 54.1-2114 and the provisions of § 54.1-2117 shall not be a bar to recovery under this act if the claimant is otherwise entitled to such recovery.

1977, c. 69, § 54-765.5; 1987, c. 555; 1988, c. 765; 2015, cc. 409, 710.

Upon service of the complaint as provided in subdivision B 1 of § 54.1-2114, the Board, the Director, or duly authorized representatives of the Board shall then have the right to request leave of court to intervene.

1977, c. 69, § 54-765.6; 1987, c. 555; 1988, c. 765; 2015, c. 409.

The Director shall, subject to the provisions of § 54.1-2116, pay to the claimant from the fund such amount as shall be directed by the Board upon the execution and delivery to the Director by such claimant of an assignment to the Board of the claimant's rights against the regulant to the extent that such rights were satisfied from the fund.

1977, c. 69, § 54-765.7; 1987, c. 555; 1988, c. 765.

Upon payment by the Director to a claimant from the fund as provided in § 54.1-2118, the Board shall immediately revoke the license of the regulant whose improper or dishonest conduct, as defined in the act, resulted in payment from the fund. The regulant whose license was so revoked shall not be eligible to apply for a license as a real estate broker or real estate salesperson until he has repaid in full the amount paid from the fund on his account, plus interest at the judgment rate of interest from the date of payment from the fund.

1977, c. 69, § 54-765.8; 1984, c. 266; 1987, c. 555; 1988, c. 765.

Nothing contained in this article shall limit the authority of the Board to take disciplinary action against any regulant for any violation of this chapter or Board regulations, nor shall the repayment in full by a regulant of the amount paid from the fund on such regulant's account nullify or modify the effect of any disciplinary proceeding against such regulant for any such violation.

1977, c. 69, § 54-765.9; 1978, c. 129; 1987, c. 555; 1988, c. 765.

Article 3. Duties of Real Estate Brokers and Salespersons.

As used in this article:

"Agency" means every relationship in which a real estate licensee acts for or represents a person as an agent by such person's express authority in a commercial or residential real estate transaction, unless a different legal relationship is intended and is agreed to as part of the brokerage agreement. Nothing in this article shall prohibit a licensee and a client from agreeing in writing to a brokerage relationship under which the licensee acts as an independent contractor or which imposes on a licensee obligations in addition to those provided in this article. If a licensee agrees to additional obligations, however, the licensee shall be responsible for the additional obligations agreed to with the client in the brokerage agreement. A real estate licensee who enters into a brokerage relationship based upon a written brokerage agreement that specifically states that the real estate licensee is acting as an independent contractor and not as an agent shall have the obligations agreed to by the parties in the brokerage agreement, and such real estate licensee and its employees shall comply with the provisions of subdivisions A 3 through 7 and subsections B and E of § 54.1-2131; subdivisions A 4 through 8 and subsections B and E of § 54.1-2132; subdivisions A 3 through 7 and subsections B and E of § 54.1-2133; subdivisions A 4 through 8 and subsections B and E of § 54.1-2134; and subdivisions A 2 through 6 and subsections C and D of § 54.1-2135 but otherwise shall have no obligations under §§ 54.1-2131 through 54.1-2135. Any real estate licensee who acts for or represents a client in an agency relationship in a residential real estate transaction shall either represent such client as a standard agent or a limited service agent.

"Agent" means a real estate licensee who is acting as (i) a standard agent in a residential real estate transaction, (ii) a limited service agent in a residential real estate transaction, or (iii) an agent in a commercial real estate transaction.

"Brokerage agreement" means the written agreement creating a brokerage relationship between a client and a licensee. The brokerage agreement shall state whether the real estate licensee will represent the client as an agent or an independent contractor.

"Brokerage relationship" means the contractual relationship between a client and a real estate licensee who has been engaged by such client to provide brokerage services.

"Brokerage services" means (i) those activities described in subsection A of § 54.1-2131, subsection A of § 54.1-2132, subsection A of § 54.1-2133, and subsection A of § 54.1-2134; (ii) activities requiring the exercise of a licensee's professional judgment, discretion, advice, or counsel; or (iii) activities otherwise performed in connection with procuring a seller, buyer, option, tenant, or landlord ready, able, and willing to sell, buy, option, exchange, or rent real estate on behalf of the client with whom the licensee has an executed brokerage agreement.

"Client" means a person who has entered into a brokerage relationship with a licensee.

"Commercial real estate" means any real estate other than (i) real estate containing one to four residential units or (ii) real estate classified for assessment purposes under § 58.1-3230. Commercial real estate shall not include single family residential units, including condominiums, townhouses, apartments, or homes in a subdivision when leased on a unit by unit basis even though these units may be part of a larger building or parcel of real estate containing more than four residential units.

"Common source information company" means any person, firm, or corporation that is a source, compiler, or supplier of information regarding real estate for sale or lease and other data and includes, but is not limited to, multiple listing services.

"Customer" means a person who has not entered into a brokerage relationship with a licensee but for whom a licensee performs ministerial acts in a real estate transaction. Unless a licensee enters into a brokerage relationship with such person, it shall be presumed that such person is a customer of the licensee rather than a client.

"Designated agent" or "designated representative" means a licensee who has been assigned by a principal or supervising broker to represent a client when a different client is also represented by such principal or broker in the same transaction. A designated representative shall only act as an independent contractor.

"Dual agent" or "dual representative" means a licensee who has a brokerage relationship with both seller and buyer, or both landlord and tenant, in the same real estate transaction. A dual agent has an agency relationship under brokerage agreements with the clients. A dual representative has an independent contractor relationship under brokerage agreements with the clients. A dual representative shall only act as an independent contractor.

"Independent contractor" means a real estate licensee who (i) enters into a brokerage relationship based upon a brokerage agreement that specifically states that the real estate licensee is acting as an independent contractor and not as an agent; (ii) shall have the obligations agreed to by the parties in the brokerage agreement; and (iii) shall comply with the provisions of subdivisions A 3 through 7 and subsections B and E of § 54.1-2131; subdivisions A 4 through 8 and subsections B and E of § 54.1-2132; subdivisions A 3 through 7 and subsections B and E of § 54.1-2133; subdivisions A 4 through 8 and subsections B and E of § 54.1-2134; and subdivisions A 2 through 6 and subsections C and D of § 54.1-2135 but otherwise shall have no obligations under §§ 54.1-2131 through 54.1-2135.

"Licensee" means real estate brokers and salespersons as defined in Article 1 (§ 54.1-2100 et seq.).

"Limited service agent" means a licensee who acts for or represents a client in a residential real estate transaction pursuant to a brokerage agreement that provides that the limited service agent will not provide one or more of the duties set forth in subdivision A 2 of § 54.1-2131, subdivision A 3 of § 54.1-2132, subdivision A 2 of § 54.1-2133, and subdivision A 3 of § 54.1-2134. A limited service agent shall have the obligations set out in the brokerage agreement, except that a limited service agent shall provide the client, at the time of entering the brokerage agreement, copies of any and all disclosures required by federal or state law, or local disclosures expressly authorized by state law, and shall disclose to the client the following in writing: (i) the rights and obligations of the client under the Virginia Residential Property Disclosure Act (§ 55.1-700 et seq.); (ii) if the client is selling a condominium, the rights and obligations of the client to deliver to the purchasers, or to receive as purchaser, the resale certificate required by § 55.1-2309; and (iii) if the client is selling a property subject to the Property Owners' Association Act (§ 55.1-1800 et seq.), the rights and obligations of the client to deliver to the purchasers, or to receive as purchaser, the resale certificate required by § 55.1-2309.

"Ministerial acts" means those routine acts that a licensee can perform for a person that do not involve discretion or the exercise of the licensee's own judgment.

"Property management agreement" means the written agreement between a property manager and the owner of real estate for the management of the real estate.

"Residential real estate" means real property containing from one to four residential dwelling units and the sale of lots containing one to four residential dwelling units.

"Showing property" means (i) taking a prospective buyer or tenant to a property, obtaining access to such property, and taking the individual through the property, including entering a property to provide a live, virtual tour to a prospective buyer or tenant who is not physically present; (ii) responding to questions or providing information about such property that is not of public record while at the property; or (iii) otherwise providing brokerage services while at the property.

"Standard agent" means a licensee who acts for or represents a client in an agency relationship in a residential real estate transaction. A standard agent shall have the obligations as provided in this article and any additional obligations agreed to by the parties in the brokerage agreement.

1995, cc. 741, 813; 2006, c. 627; 2008, cc. 851, 871; 2011, c. 461; 2012, c. 750; 2016, c. 334; 2023, cc. 387, 388; 2025, cc. 479, 495.

A. A licensee engaged by a seller shall:

1. Perform in accordance with the terms of the brokerage agreement;

2. Promote the interests of the seller by:

a. Conducting marketing activities on behalf of the seller in accordance with the brokerage agreement. In so doing, the licensee shall seek a sale at the price and terms agreed upon in the brokerage agreement or at a price and terms acceptable to the seller; however, the licensee shall not be obligated to seek additional offers to purchase the property while the property is subject to a contract of sale, unless agreed to as part of the brokerage agreement or as the contract of sale so provides;

b. Assisting in the drafting and negotiating of offers and counteroffers, amendments, and addenda to the real estate contract pursuant to § 54.1-2101.1 and in establishing strategies for accomplishing the seller's objectives;

c. Receiving and presenting in a timely manner written offers and counteroffers to and from the seller and purchasers, even when the property is already subject to a contract of sale; and

d. Providing reasonable assistance to the seller to satisfy the seller's contract obligations and to facilitate settlement of the purchase contract;

3. Maintain confidentiality of all personal and financial information received from the client during the brokerage relationship and any other information that the client requests during the brokerage relationship be maintained confidential, unless otherwise provided by law or the seller consents in writing to the release of such information;

4. Exercise ordinary care;

5. Account in a timely manner for all money and property received by the licensee in which the seller has or may have an interest;

6. Disclose to the seller material facts related to the property or concerning the transaction of which the licensee has actual knowledge; and

7. Comply with all requirements of this article, all fair housing statutes and regulations for residential real estate transactions as applicable, and all other applicable statutes and regulations that are not in conflict with this article.

B. Licensees shall treat all prospective buyers honestly and shall not knowingly give them false information. A licensee engaged by a seller shall disclose to prospective buyers all material adverse facts pertaining to the physical condition of the property that are actually known by the licensee. If a licensee has actual knowledge of the existence of defective drywall in a residential property, the licensee shall disclose the same to the prospective buyer. For purposes of this section, "defective drywall" means all defective drywall as defined in § 36-156.1. As used in this section, the term "physical condition of the property" refers to the physical condition of the land and any improvements thereon, and does not refer to (i) matters outside the boundaries of the land or relating to adjacent or other properties in proximity thereto, (ii) matters relating to governmental land use regulations, or (iii) matters relating to highways or public streets. Such disclosure shall be made in writing. No cause of action shall arise against any licensee for revealing information as required by this article or applicable law. Nothing in this article shall limit in any way the provisions of the Virginia Residential Property Disclosure Act (§ 55.1-700 et seq.) applicable to residential real estate transactions.

C. A licensee engaged by a seller in a real estate transaction may, unless prohibited by law or the brokerage agreement, provide assistance to a buyer or potential buyer by performing ministerial acts. Performing such ministerial acts that are not inconsistent with subsection A shall not be construed to violate the licensee's brokerage agreement with the seller unless expressly prohibited by the terms of the brokerage agreement, nor shall performing such ministerial acts be construed to form a brokerage relationship with such buyer or potential buyer.

D. A licensee engaged by a seller does not breach any duty or obligation owed to the seller by showing alternative properties to prospective buyers, whether as clients or customers, or by representing other sellers who have other properties for sale.

E. Licensees in residential real estate transactions shall disclose brokerage relationships pursuant to the provisions of this article.

F. Nothing in this section shall be construed to require a licensee to disclose whether settlement services under Chapter 10 (§ 55.1-1000 et seq.) of Title 55.1 will be provided by an attorney or a nonattorney settlement agent.

G. A licensee engaged by a seller shall not be required to enter into a brokerage agreement with a prospective buyer to show property to the prospective buyer when such showing is conducted pursuant to and in accordance with a brokerage agreement entered into with a seller client.

1995, cc. 741, 813; 2006, c. 627; 2008, c. 741; 2011, cc. 34, 46, 461; 2012, c. 750; 2016, c. 334; 2025, cc. 479, 495.

A. A licensee engaged by a buyer shall:

1. Enter into a brokerage agreement with the prospective buyer prior to showing property to such prospective buyer;

2. Perform in accordance with the terms of the brokerage agreement;

3. Promote the interests of the buyer by:

a. Seeking a property of a type acceptable to the buyer and at a price and on terms acceptable to the buyer; however, the licensee shall not be obligated to seek or show other properties for the buyer while the buyer is a party to a contract to purchase property unless agreed to as part of the brokerage relationship;

b. Assisting in the drafting and negotiating of offers and counteroffers, amendments, and addenda to the real estate contract pursuant to § 54.1-2101.1 and in establishing strategies for accomplishing the buyer's objectives;

c. Receiving and presenting in a timely manner all written offers or counteroffers to and from the buyer and seller, even when the buyer is already a party to a contract to purchase property; and

d. Providing reasonable assistance to the buyer to satisfy the buyer's contract obligations and to facilitate settlement of the purchase contract;

4. Maintain confidentiality of all personal and financial information received from the client during the brokerage relationship and any other information that the client requests during the brokerage relationship be maintained confidential unless otherwise provided by law or the buyer consents in writing to the release of such information;

5. Exercise ordinary care;

6. Account in a timely manner for all money and property received by the licensee in which the buyer has or may have an interest;

7. Disclose to the buyer material facts related to the property or concerning the transaction of which the licensee has actual knowledge; and

8. Comply with all requirements of this article, all fair housing statutes and regulations for residential real estate transactions as applicable, and all other applicable statutes and regulations that are not in conflict with this article.

B. Licensees shall treat all prospective sellers honestly and shall not knowingly give them false information. If a licensee has actual knowledge of the existence of defective drywall in a residential property, the licensee shall disclose the same to the buyer. For purposes of this section, "defective drywall" means all defective drywall as defined in § 36-156.1. No cause of action shall arise against any licensee for revealing information as required by this article or applicable law. In the case of a residential transaction, a licensee engaged by a buyer shall disclose to a seller whether or not the buyer intends to occupy the property as a principal residence. The buyer's expressions of such intent in the contract of sale shall satisfy this requirement and no cause of action shall arise against any licensee for the disclosure or any inaccuracy in such disclosure, or the nondisclosure of the buyer in this regard.

C. A licensee engaged by a buyer in a real estate transaction may, unless prohibited by law or the brokerage agreement, provide assistance to the seller, or prospective seller, by performing ministerial acts. Performing such ministerial acts that are not inconsistent with subsection A shall not be construed to violate the licensee's brokerage agreement with the buyer unless expressly prohibited by the terms of the brokerage agreement, nor shall performing such ministerial acts be construed to form a brokerage relationship with such seller.

D. A licensee engaged by a buyer does not breach any duty or obligation to the buyer by showing properties in which the buyer is interested to other prospective buyers, whether as clients or customers, by representing other buyers looking at the same or other properties, or by representing sellers relative to other properties.

E. Licensees in residential real estate transactions shall disclose brokerage relationships pursuant to the provisions of this article.

F. Nothing in this section shall be construed to require a licensee to disclose whether settlement services under Chapter 10 (§ 55.1-1000 et seq.) of Title 55.1 will be provided by an attorney or a nonattorney settlement agent.

1995, cc. 741, 813; 2006, c. 627; 2011, cc. 34, 46; 2012, c. 750; 2016, c. 334; 2025, cc. 479, 495.

A. A licensee engaged by a landlord shall:

1. Perform in accordance with the terms of the brokerage agreement;

2. Promote the interests of the landlord by:

a. Conducting marketing activities on behalf of the landlord pursuant to the brokerage agreement with the landlord. In so doing, the licensee shall seek a tenant at the rent and terms agreed in the brokerage agreement or at a rent and terms acceptable to the landlord; however, the licensee shall not be obligated to seek additional offers to lease the property while the property is subject to a lease or a letter of intent to lease under which the tenant has not yet taken possession, unless agreed as part of the brokerage agreement, or unless the lease or the letter of intent to lease so provides;

b. Assisting the landlord in drafting and negotiating leases and letters of intent to lease, and presenting in a timely manner all written leasing offers or counteroffers to and from the landlord and tenant pursuant to § 54.1-2101.1, even when the property is already subject to a lease or a letter of intent to lease; and

c. Providing reasonable assistance to the landlord to finalize the lease agreement;

3. Maintain confidentiality of all personal and financial information received from the client during the brokerage relationship and any other information that the client requests during the brokerage relationship be maintained confidential, unless otherwise provided by law or the landlord consents in writing to the release of such information;

4. Exercise ordinary care;

5. Account in a timely manner for all money and property received by the licensee in which the landlord has or may have an interest;

6. Disclose to the landlord material facts related to the property or concerning the transaction of which the licensee has actual knowledge; and

7. Comply with all requirements of this article, fair housing statutes and regulations for residential real estate transactions as applicable, and all other applicable statutes and regulations that are not in conflict with this article.

B. Licensees shall treat all prospective tenants honestly and shall not knowingly give them false information. A licensee engaged by a landlord shall disclose to prospective tenants all material adverse facts pertaining to the physical condition of the property that are actually known by the licensee. If a licensee has actual knowledge of the existence of any pipe, pipe or plumbing fitting, fixture, solder, or flux that does not meet the federal Safe Drinking Water Act definition of "lead free" pursuant to 42 U.S.C. § 300g-6 in a residential property, the licensee shall disclose the same to the prospective tenant. As used in this section, the term "physical condition of the property" refers to the physical condition of the land and any improvements thereon, and does not refer to (i) matters outside the boundaries of the land or relating to adjacent or other properties in proximity thereto, (ii) matters relating to governmental land use regulations, and (iii) matters relating to highways or public streets. Such disclosure shall be made in writing. No cause of action shall arise against any licensee for revealing information as required by this article or applicable law. Nothing in this subsection shall limit the right of a prospective tenant to inspect the physical condition of the property.

C. A licensee engaged by a landlord in a real estate transaction may, unless prohibited by law or the brokerage agreement, provide assistance to a tenant, or potential tenant, by performing ministerial acts. Performing such ministerial acts that are not inconsistent with subsection A shall not be construed to violate the licensee's brokerage relationship with the landlord unless expressly prohibited by the terms of the brokerage agreement, nor shall performing such ministerial acts be construed to form a brokerage relationship with such tenant or potential tenant.

D. A licensee engaged by a landlord does not breach any duty or obligation owed to the landlord by showing alternative properties to prospective tenants, whether as clients or customers, or by representing other landlords who have other properties for lease.

E. Licensees in residential real estate transactions shall disclose brokerage relationships pursuant to the provisions of this article.

F. A licensee engaged by a landlord shall not be required to enter into a brokerage agreement with a prospective tenant to show property to the prospective tenant when such showing is conducted pursuant to and in accordance with a brokerage agreement entered into with a landlord client.

1995, cc. 741, 813; 2006, c. 627; 2008, c. 741; 2011, cc. 34, 46, 461; 2012, c. 750; 2016, c. 334; 2020, c. 520; 2025, cc. 479, 495.

A. A licensee engaged by a tenant shall:

1. Enter into a brokerage agreement with the prospective tenant prior to showing property to such prospective tenant;

2. Perform in accordance with the terms of the brokerage agreement;

3. Promote the interests of the tenant by:

a. Seeking a lease at a rent and with terms acceptable to the tenant; however, the licensee shall not be obligated to seek or show other properties for the tenant while the tenant is a party to a lease or a letter of intent to lease exists under which the tenant has not yet taken possession, unless agreed to as part of the brokerage agreement, or unless the lease or the letter of intent to lease so provides;

b. Assisting in the drafting and negotiating of leases, letters of intent to lease, and rental applications, and presenting, in a timely fashion, all written offers or counteroffers to and from the tenant and landlord pursuant to § 54.1-2101.1, even when the tenant is already a party to a lease or a letter of intent to lease; and

c. Providing reasonable assistance to the tenant to finalize the lease agreement;

4. Maintain confidentiality of all personal and financial information received from the client during the brokerage relationship and any other information that the client requests during the brokerage relationship be maintained confidential unless otherwise provided by law or the tenant consents in writing to the release of such information;

5. Exercise ordinary care;

6. Account in a timely manner for all money and property received by the licensee in which the tenant has or may have an interest;

7. Disclose to the tenant material facts related to the property or concerning the transaction of which the licensee has actual knowledge; and

8. Comply with all requirements of this article, fair housing statutes and regulations for residential real estate transactions as applicable, and all other applicable statutes and regulations that are not in conflict with this article.

B. Licensees shall treat all prospective landlords honestly and shall not knowingly give them false information. If a licensee has actual knowledge of the existence of defective drywall in a residential property, the licensee shall disclose the same to the prospective tenant. For purposes of this section, "defective drywall" means all defective drywall as defined in § 36-156.1. No cause of action shall arise against any licensee for revealing information as required by this article or applicable law.

C. A licensee engaged by a tenant in a real estate transaction may provide assistance to the landlord or prospective landlord by performing ministerial acts. Performing such ministerial acts that are not inconsistent with subsection A shall not be construed to violate the licensee's brokerage relationship with the tenant unless expressly prohibited by the terms of the brokerage agreement, nor shall performing such ministerial acts be construed to form a brokerage relationship with the landlord or prospective landlord.

D. A licensee engaged by a tenant does not breach any duty or obligation to the tenant by showing properties in which the tenant is interested to other prospective tenants, whether as clients or customers, by representing other tenants looking for the same or other properties to lease, or by representing landlords relative to other properties.

E. Licensees in residential real estate transactions shall disclose brokerage relationships pursuant to the provisions of this article.

1995, cc. 741, 813; 2006, c. 627; 2011, cc. 34, 46; 2012, c. 750; 2016, c. 334; 2025, cc. 479, 495.

A. A licensee engaged to manage real estate shall:

1. Perform in accordance with the terms of the property management agreement;

2. Exercise ordinary care;

3. Disclose in a timely manner to the owner material facts of which the licensee has actual knowledge concerning the property;

4. Maintain confidentiality of all personal and financial information received from the client during the brokerage relationship and any other information that the client requests during the brokerage relationship be maintained confidential unless otherwise provided by law or the owner consents in writing to the release of such information;

5. Account for, in a timely manner, all money and property received in which the owner has or may have an interest; and

6. Comply with all requirements of this article, fair housing statutes and regulations for residential real estate transactions as applicable, and all other applicable statutes and regulations which are not in conflict with this article.

B. Except as provided in the property management agreement, a licensee engaged to manage real estate does not breach any duty or obligation to the owner by representing other owners in the management of other properties.

C. A licensee may also represent the owner as seller or landlord if they enter into a brokerage relationship that so provides; in which case, the licensee shall disclose such brokerage relationships pursuant to the provisions of this article.

D. If a licensee has actual knowledge of the existence of defective drywall in a residential property, the licensee shall disclose the same to the owner. For purposes of this section, "defective drywall" means all defective drywall as defined in § 36-156.1.

E. Property management agreements in residential real estate transactions shall be in writing and shall:

1. Have a definite termination date or duration; however, if a property management agreement does not specify a definite termination date or duration, the agreement shall terminate 90 days after the date of the agreement;

2. State the amount of the management fees and how and when such fees are to be paid;

3. State the services to be rendered by the licensee; and

4. Include such other terms as have been agreed to by the owner and the property manager.

F. The provisions of this section shall not apply to licensees engaged in commercial real estate transactions.

1995, cc. 741, 813; 2011, cc. 34, 46, 461; 2016, c. 334.

Prior to entering into any brokerage relationship provided for in this article, a licensee shall advise the prospective client of (i) the type of brokerage relationship proposed by the broker and (ii) the broker's compensation and whether the broker will share such salary or compensation with another broker who may have a brokerage relationship with another party to the transaction.

1995, cc. 741, 813.

A. The brokerage relationships set forth in this article shall commence at the time that a client engages a licensee to provide brokerage services and shall continue until (i) completion of performance in accordance with the brokerage agreement or (ii) the earlier of (a) any date of expiration agreed upon by the parties as part of the brokerage agreement or in any amendments thereto, (b) any mutually agreed upon termination of the brokerage agreement, (c) a default by any party under the terms of the brokerage agreement, or (d) a termination as set forth in subsection G of § 54.1-2139.

B. Except as otherwise provided in this article, a licensee shall enter into a brokerage agreement with a prospective client prior to providing brokerage services. A licensee shall not be required to enter into a brokerage agreement prior to preparing property-specific materials with the intent to obtain a brokerage relationship with a prospective client.

C. Brokerage agreements shall be in writing and shall:

1. Have a definite termination date; however, if a brokerage agreement does not specify a definite termination date, the brokerage agreement shall terminate 90 days after the date of the brokerage agreement;

2. State the amount of the brokerage fees and how and when such fees are to be paid;

3. State the services to be rendered by the licensee;

4. Include such other terms of the brokerage relationship as have been agreed to by the client and the licensee; and

5. In the case of brokerage agreements entered into in conjunction with the client's consent to a dual representation, the disclosures set out in subsection A of § 54.1-2139.

D. Except as otherwise agreed to in writing, a licensee owes no further duties to a client after termination, expiration, or completion of performance of the brokerage agreement, except to (i) account for all moneys and property relating to the brokerage relationship and (ii) keep confidential all personal and financial information received from the client during the course of the brokerage relationship and any other information that the client requests during the brokerage relationship be maintained confidential, unless otherwise provided by law or the client consents in writing to the release of such information.

1995, cc. 741, 813; 2011, c. 461; 2012, c. 750; 2018, cc. 60, 86; 2025, cc. 479, 495.

A. A licensee may act as a limited service agent in a residential real estate transaction only pursuant to a written brokerage agreement in which the limited service agent (i) discloses that the licensee is acting as a limited service agent; (ii) provides a list of the specific services that the licensee will provide to the client; and (iii) provides a list of the specific duties of a standard agent set out in subdivision A 2 of § 54.1-2131, subdivision A 3 of § 54.1-2132, subdivision A 2 of § 54.1-2133, or subdivision A 3 of § 54.1-2134, as applicable, that the limited service agent will not provide to the client. Such disclosure shall be conspicuous and printed either in bold lettering or all capitals, and shall be underlined or in a separate box. In addition, a disclosure that contains language that complies substantially in effect with the following shall be deemed in compliance with this disclosure requirement:

"By entering into this brokerage agreement, the undersigned do hereby acknowledge their informed consent to the limited service agent in a residential real estate transaction by the licensee and do further acknowledge that neither the other party to the transaction nor any real estate licensee representing the other party is under any legal obligation to assist the undersigned with the performance of any duties and responsibilities of the undersigned not performed by the limited service agent."

A limited service agent shall disclose dual agency in accordance with § 54.1-2139.

B. A licensee engaged by one client to a residential real estate transaction and dealing with an unrepresented party or with a party represented by a limited service agent and who, without additional compensation, provides such other party information relative to the transaction or undertakes to assist such other party in securing a contract or with such party's obligations thereunder, shall not incur liability for such actions except in the case of gross negligence or willful misconduct. A licensee does not create a brokerage relationship by providing such assistance or information to the other party to the transaction. A licensee dealing with a client of a limited service agent may enter into an agreement with that party for payment of a fee for services performed or information provided by that licensee. Such payment shall not create a brokerage relationship; however, the licensee providing such services or information for a fee shall be held to the ordinary standard of care in the provision of such services or information.

2006, c. 627; 2012, c. 750; 2016, c. 334; 2025, cc. 479, 495.

A. Upon having a substantive discussion about a specific property or properties in a residential real estate transaction with an actual or prospective buyer or seller who is not the client of the licensee and who is not represented by another licensee, a licensee shall disclose any broker relationship the licensee has with another party to the transaction. Further, except as provided in § 54.1-2139 or 54.1-2139.1, such disclosure shall be made in writing at the earliest practical time, but in no event later than the time when specific real estate assistance is first provided. Such disclosure may be given in combination with other disclosures or provided with other information, but if so, the disclosure must be conspicuous, printed in bold lettering, all capitals, underlined, or within a separate box. Any disclosure which complies substantially in effect with the following shall be deemed in compliance with this disclosure requirement:

DISCLOSURE OF BROKERAGE RELATIONSHIP IN A RESIDENTIAL REAL ESTATE TRANSACTION

The undersigned do hereby acknowledge disclosure that:

The licensee.....................… (name of broker or salesperson) associated with.........................…(Name of Brokerage Firm) represents the following party in a residential real estate transaction:

....… Seller(s) or ....… Buyer(s)

....… Landlord(s) or ....… Tenant(s)

................… ..........................…

Date Name

................… ..........................…

Date Name

B. A licensee shall disclose to an actual or prospective landlord or tenant, who is not the client of the licensee and who is not represented by another licensee, that the licensee has a brokerage relationship with another party or parties to the transaction. Such disclosure shall be in writing and included in all applications for lease or in the lease itself, whichever occurs first. If the terms of the lease do not provide for such disclosure, disclosure shall be made in writing no later than the signing of the lease. Such disclosure requirement shall not apply to lessors or lessees in single or multifamily residential units for lease terms of less than two months.

C. If a licensee's relationship to a client or customer changes, the licensee shall disclose that fact in writing to all clients and customers already involved in the specific contemplated transaction.

D. Copies of any disclosures relative to fully executed purchase contracts shall be kept by the licensee for a period of three years as proof of having made such disclosure, whether or not such disclosure is acknowledged in writing by the party to whom such disclosure was shown or given.

E. A limited service agent shall also make the disclosure required by § 54.1-2138.1.

1995, cc. 741, 813; 1997, cc. 86, 119; 2006, c. 627; 2012, c. 750; 2016, c. 334.

If a licensee knows or should have known that he, any member of his family, his firm, any member of his firm, or any entity in which he has an ownership interest is acquiring or attempting to acquire or is selling or leasing real property through purchase, sale, or lease and the licensee is a party to the transaction, the licensee must disclose in writing that he is a licensee and that he, any member of his family, his firm, any member of his firm, or any entity in which he has an ownership interest has or will have an ownership interest to the other parties to the transaction. This disclosure shall be made to the purchaser, seller, lessor, or lessee upon having substantive discussions about specific real property.

2022, c. 610.

A. A licensee may not act as a dual agent or dual representative in a residential real estate transaction unless he has first obtained the written consent of all parties to the transaction given after written disclosure of the consequences of such dual agency or dual representation. A dual agent has an agency relationship under the brokerage agreements with the clients. A dual representative has an independent contractor relationship under the brokerage agreements with the clients. Such disclosure shall be in writing and given to both parties prior to the commencement of such dual agency or dual representation.

B. If the licensee is currently representing a party as an agent or independent contractor representative and that party desires to engage in a real estate transaction with another existing client represented by the licensee, the licensee may engage in dual representation provided that prior to commencement thereof the disclosure required by this section is given to both of the licensee's existing clients.

C. If the licensee is currently representing a party as an agent or independent contractor representative and the licensee proposes to represent a new client in a dual representation, the licensee may only engage in such dual representation if prior to commencement thereof, the disclosure required by this section is given to the licensee's one existing client and one new client.

D. Such disclosures shall not be deemed to comply with the requirements in this section if (i) not signed by the client or (ii) given in a purchase agreement, lease, or any other document related to a transaction. However, such written consent and disclosure of the brokerage relationship as required by this article shall be presumed to have been given as against any client who signs a disclosure as required in this section.

E. The obligation to make the disclosures required by this section shall not relieve the licensee of the obligations set out in subsection C of § 54.1-2137 requiring all brokerage relationships to be set out in a written agreement between the licensee and the client.

F. No cause of action shall arise against a dual agent or dual representative for making disclosures of brokerage relationships as provided by this article. A dual agent or dual representative does not terminate any brokerage relationship by the making of any such allowed or required disclosures of dual agency or dual representation.

G. In any real estate transaction, a licensee may withdraw, without liability, from representing a client who refuses to consent to a disclosed dual agency or dual representation hereby terminating the brokerage relationship with such client. Such withdrawal shall not prejudice the ability of the licensee to continue to represent the other client in the transaction nor to limit the licensee from representing the client who refused the dual agency or dual representation in other transactions not involving the dual agency or dual representation.

H. The dual agency or dual representation disclosure in a residential transaction shall contain the following provisions and disclosure that substantially complies with the following shall be deemed in compliance with this disclosure requirement:

DISCLOSURE OF DUAL AGENCY OR DUAL REPRESENTATION IN A RESIDENTIAL REAL ESTATE TRANSACTION

The undersigned do hereby acknowledge disclosure that:

The licensee ___________________ (name of broker or salesperson) associated with ____________________ (Brokerage Firm) represents more than one party in this residential real estate transaction as follows:

A. Brokerage Firm represents the following party (select one):

[ ] Seller(s) [ ] Buyer(s) [ ] Landlord(s) [ ] Tenant(s)

As a (select one):

[ ] standard agent [ ] limited service agent [ ] independent contractor

Brokerage Firm represents another party (select one):

[ ] Seller(s) [ ] Buyer(s) [ ] Landlord(s) [ ] Tenant(s)

As a (select one):

[ ] standard agent [ ] limited service agent [ ] independent contractor

B. Brokerage Firm disclosure and client acknowledgement of the following (select one):

[ ] Brokerage Firm represents two existing clients in the transaction and the undersigned acknowledge the following:

The undersigned understand that the foregoing dual agent or dual representative may not disclose to either client any information that has been given to the dual agent or representative by the other client within the confidence and trust of the brokerage relationship except for that information which is otherwise required or permitted by Article 3 (§ 54.1-2130 et seq.) of Chapter 21 of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia to be disclosed.

[ ] Brokerage Firm represents one existing client and one new client in the transaction and the undersigned acknowledge the following:

The undersigned understand:

1. That following the commencement of dual agency or representation, the licensee cannot advise either party as to the terms to offer or accept in any offer or counteroffer; however, the licensee may have advised one party as to such terms prior to the commencement of dual agency or representation;

2. That the licensee cannot advise the buyer client as to the suitability of the property, its condition (other than to make any disclosures as required by law of any licensee representing a seller), and cannot advise either party as to what repairs of the property to make or request;

3. That the licensee cannot advise either party in any dispute that arises relating to the transaction;

4. That the licensee may be acting without knowledge of the client's needs, client's knowledge of the market, or client's capabilities in dealing with the intricacies of real estate transactions; and

5. That either party may engage another licensee at additional cost to represent their respective interests.

The undersigned by signing this notice do hereby acknowledge their informed consent to the disclosed dual representation by the licensee.

____________ _______________________

Date Name (One Party)

____________ _______________________

Date Name (One Party)

____________ _______________________

Date Name (One Party)

____________ _______________________

Date Name (One Party)

1995, cc. 741, 813; 2011, c. 461; 2012, c. 750; 2025, cc. 479, 495.

A. A licensee may act as a dual agent or dual representative in a commercial real estate transaction only with the written consent of all clients to the transaction. A dual agent has an agency relationship under the brokerage agreements with the clients. A dual representative has an independent contractor relationship under the brokerage agreements with the clients. Such written consent and disclosure of the brokerage relationship as required by this article shall be presumed to have been given as against any client who signs a disclosure as provided in this section.

B. Such disclosure may be given in combination with other disclosures or provided with other information, but if so, the disclosure shall be conspicuous, printed in bold lettering, all capitals, underlined, or within a separate box. Any disclosure which complies substantially in effect with the following shall be deemed in compliance with this disclosure requirement:

DISCLOSURE OF DUAL AGENCY OR DUAL REPRESENTATION IN A COMMERCIAL REAL ESTATE TRANSACTION

The undersigned do hereby acknowledge disclosure that:

The licensee _____________________ (name of broker or salesperson) associated with____________________ (Brokerage Firm) represents more than one party in this commercial real estate transaction as follows:

Brokerage Firm represents the following party (select one):

[ ] Seller(s) [ ] Buyer(s) [ ] Landlord(s) [ ] Tenant(s)

As a (select one):

[ ] agent [ ] independent contractor

Brokerage Firm represents another party (select one):

[ ] Seller(s) [ ] Buyer(s) [ ] Landlord(s) [ ] Tenant(s)

As a (select one):

[ ] agent [ ] independent contractor

The undersigned understand that the foregoing dual agent or dual representative may not disclose to either client any information that has been given to the dual agent or representative by the other client within the confidence and trust of the brokerage relationship except for that information which is otherwise required or permitted by Article 3 (§ 54.1-2130 et seq.) of Chapter 21 of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia to be disclosed.

The undersigned by signing this notice do hereby acknowledge their informed consent to the disclosed dual representation by the licensee.

____________ _______________________

Date Name (One Party)

____________ _______________________

Date Name (One Party)

____________ _______________________

Date Name (One Party)

____________ _______________________

Date Name (One Party)

C. The obligation to make the disclosures required by this section shall not relieve the licensee of the obligations set out in subsection C of § 54.1-2137 requiring all brokerage relationships to be set out in a written agreement between the licensee and the client.

D. No cause of action shall arise against a dual representative for making disclosures of brokerage relationships as provided by this article. A dual representative does not terminate any brokerage relationship by the making of any such allowed or required disclosures of dual representation.

E. In any real estate transaction, a licensee may withdraw, without liability, from representing a client who refuses to consent to a disclosed dual representation thereby terminating the brokerage relationship with such client. Such withdrawal shall not prejudice the ability of the licensee to continue to represent the other client in the transaction or to limit the licensee from representing the client who refused the dual representation in other transactions not involving dual representation.

2012, c. 750; 2016, c. 334; 2025, cc. 479, 495.

A. A principal or supervising broker may assign different licensees affiliated with the broker as designated agent or representative to represent different clients in the same residential real estate transaction to the exclusion of all other licensees in the firm. Use of such designated agents or representatives shall not constitute dual agency or representation if a designated agent or representative is not representing more than one client in a particular real estate transaction; however, the principal or broker who is supervising the transaction shall be considered a dual agent or representative as provided in this article. Designated agents or representatives may not disclose, except to the affiliated licensee's broker, personal or financial information received from the clients during the brokerage relationship and any other information that the client requests during the brokerage relationship be kept confidential, unless otherwise provided for by law or the client consents in writing to the release of such information.

B. Use of designated agents or representatives in a residential real estate transaction shall be disclosed in accordance with the provisions of this article. Such disclosure may be given in combination with other disclosures or provided with other information, but if so, the disclosure shall be conspicuous, printed in bold lettering, all capitals, underlined, or within a separate box. Any disclosure that complies substantially in effect with the following shall be deemed in compliance with such disclosure requirement:

DISCLOSURE OF DESIGNATED AGENTS OR REPRESENTATIVES IN A RESIDENTIAL REAL ESTATE TRANSACTION

The undersigned do hereby acknowledge disclosure that:

The licensee __________________ (Name of Broker and Firm) represents more than one party in this residential real estate transaction as indicated below:

________ Seller(s) and Buyer(s)

________ Landlord(s) and Tenant(s).

The undersigned understand that the foregoing dual agent or representative may not disclose to either client or such client's designated agent or representative any information that has been given to the dual agent or representative by the other client within the confidence and trust of the brokerage relationship except for that information which is otherwise required or permitted by Article 3 (§ 54.1-2130 et seq.) of Chapter 21 of Title 54.1 of the Code of Virginia to be disclosed.

The principal or supervising broker_________________ has assigned to act as Designated Agent or Representative (broker or salesperson) for the one party as indicated below:

[ ] Seller(s) [ ] Buyer(s) [ ] Landlord(s) [ ] Tenant(s)

As a (select one):

[ ] standard agent [ ] limited service agent [ ] independent contractor

____________________ (broker or salesperson) to act as Designated Agent or Representative for the other party as indicated below:

[ ] Seller(s) [ ] Buyer(s) [ ] Landlord(s) [ ] Tenant(s)

As a (select one):

[ ] standard agent [ ] limited service agent [ ] independent contractor

The undersigned by signing this notice do hereby acknowledge their consent to the disclosed dual representation by the licensee.

____________ _______________________

Date Name (One Party)

____________ _______________________

Date Name (One Party)

____________ _______________________

Date Name (One Party)

____________ _______________________

Date Name (One Party)

C. The obligation to make the disclosures required by this section shall not relieve the licensee of the obligations set out in subsection C of § 54.1-2137 requiring all brokerage relationships to be set out in a written agreement between the licensee and the client.

D. No cause of action shall arise against a designated agent or representative for making disclosures of brokerage relationships as provided by this article. A designated agent or representative does not terminate any brokerage relationship by the making of any such allowed or required disclosures of dual representation.

E. In any residential real estate transaction, a licensee may withdraw, without liability, from representing a client who refuses to consent to a disclosed designated agency or representation agreement thereby terminating the brokerage relationship with such client. Such withdrawal shall not prejudice the ability of the licensee to continue to represent the other client in the transaction or to limit the licensee from representing the client who refused the designated agency or representation relationship in other transactions not involving designated representation.

2011, c. 461; 2012, c. 750; 2016, c. 334; 2025, cc. 479, 495.

Repealed by Acts 2012, c. 750, cl. 2.

The payment or promise of payment or compensation to a real estate broker does not create a brokerage relationship between any broker, seller, landlord, buyer or tenant.

1995, cc. 741, 813.

No licensee representing a buyer or tenant shall be deemed to have a brokerage relationship with a seller, landlord or other licensee solely by reason of using a common source information company. However, nothing contained in this article shall be construed to prevent a common source information company from requiring, as a condition of participation in or use of such common source information, that licensees providing information through such company disclose the nature of the brokerage relationship with the client, including, but not limited to, whether the licensee is acting as (i) an independent contractor, (ii) a limited service agent, (iii) a standard agent, or (iv) an agent as provided in the brokerage agreement. A common source information company may, but shall not be obligated to, require disclosure of a standard agency relationship, and may adopt rules providing that absent any disclosure, a licensee providing information through such company may be assumed to be acting as a standard agent. A common source information company shall have the right, but not the obligation, to make information about the nature of brokerage relationships available to its participants and to settlement service it provides including, without limitation, title insurance companies, lenders, and settlement agents.

1995, cc. 741, 813; 2006, c. 627; 2012, c. 750; 2016, c. 334.

A. A client is not liable for (i) a misrepresentation made by a licensee in connection with a brokerage relationship, unless the client knew or should have known of the misrepresentation and failed to take reasonable steps to correct the misrepresentation in a timely manner, or (ii) the negligence, gross negligence or intentional acts of any broker or broker's licensee.

B. A broker who has a brokerage relationship with a client and who engages another broker to assist in providing brokerage services to such client shall not be liable for (i) a misrepresentation made by the other broker, unless the broker knew or should have known of the other broker's misrepresentation and failed to take reasonable steps to correct the misrepresentation in a timely manner, or (ii) the negligence, gross negligence or intentional acts of the assisting broker or assisting broker's licensee.

C. Clients and licensees shall be deemed to possess actual knowledge and information only. Knowledge or information among or between clients and licensees shall not be imputed.

D. Nothing in this article shall limit the liability between or among clients and licensees in all matters involving unlawful discriminatory housing practices.

E. Except as expressly set forth in this section, nothing in this article shall affect a person's right to rescind a real estate transaction or limit the liability of (i) a client for the misrepresentation, negligence, gross negligence or intentional acts of such client in connection with a real estate transaction, or (ii) a licensee for the misrepresentation, negligence, gross negligence or intentional acts of such licensee in connection with a real estate transaction. However, nothing in this article shall create a civil cause of action against a licensee.

1995, cc. 741, 813; 2016, c. 334.

A licensee shall not be liable for providing false information if the information was (i) provided to the licensee by the licensee's client; (ii) obtained from a governmental entity; (iii) obtained from a nongovernmental person or entity that obtained the information from a governmental entity; or (iv) obtained from a person licensed, certified, or registered to provide professional services in the Commonwealth, upon which the licensee relies, and the licensee did not (a) have actual knowledge that the information was false or (b) act in reckless disregard of the truth. This includes any regulatory action brought under this chapter and any civil actions filed. However, nothing in this article shall create a civil cause of action against a licensee.

2011, c. 461; 2013, c. 499; 2016, c. 334.

Any regulations adopted by the Virginia Real Estate Board shall be consistent with this article, and any such regulations existing as of the effective date of this article shall be modified to comply with the provisions of this article.

1995, cc. 741, 813.

The common law of agency relative to brokerage relationships in real estate transactions to the extent inconsistent with this article shall be expressly abrogated.

1995, cc. 741, 813.

Nothing in this article shall be construed to limit, modify, impair, or supercede the applicability of any federal or state antitrust laws.

2006, c. 627.

Any document or record required to be maintained by a licensee under this chapter may be an electronic record in accordance with the Uniform Electronic Transactions Act (§ 59.1-479 et seq.).

2011, c. 461.

Chapter 22. Soil Scientists, Wetland Professionals, and Geologists.

Article 1. General Provisions.

A. Notwithstanding the provisions of § 54.1-200, the Board for Professional Soil Scientists, Wetland Professionals, and Geologists shall be composed of 13 members as follows: three licensed professional soil scientists, three certified professional wetland delineators, three licensed professional geologists, and three citizen members. The State Geologist shall serve as an ex officio member of the Board. The professional geologist members shall be of varied backgrounds. The professional soil scientist members shall have experience in at least one of the following areas: (i) soil mapping and classification, (ii) soil suitability and land use, (iii) teaching and research in soil science, and (iv) environmental protection regulations. Of the wetland professional members, one shall have experience in wetland delineation and description, one shall have experience in teaching and research in wetland science, and one shall have experience with natural resource regulations. Terms of the members shall be for four years.

B. The Board shall annually elect a chairman from its membership. Seven board members, consisting of at least two professional soil scientists, two professional wetland delineators, two professional geologists, and one citizen, shall constitute a quorum.

C. The Governor may select the professional soil scientist members from a list of at least three names for each vacancy submitted by the Virginia Association of Professional Soil Scientists. The Governor may notify the Virginia Association of Professional Soil Scientists of any professional vacancy other than by expiration among the professional soil scientist members of the Board and nominations may be made for the filling of the vacancy.

D. The Governor may select the wetland professionals from a list of at least three names for each vacancy submitted by the Virginia Association of Wetland Professionals. The Governor may notify and request nominations from the Virginia Association of Wetland Professionals of any professional vacancy other than by expiration among the wetland professional members.

2012, cc. 803, 835; 2025, c. 722.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Board" means the Board for Professional Soil Scientists, Wetland Professionals, and Geologists.

"Department" means the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation.

"Eligible soil scientist" means a person who possesses the qualifications specified in this chapter to become licensed.

"Eligible wetland professional" means a person who possesses the qualifications specified in this chapter to become certified.

"Geological mapping" means the process of creating a map on which is recorded geological information, such as the distribution, nature, and age of relationships of rock units, in which surficial deposits may or may not be mapped separately, and the occurrence of structural features such as folds, faults, and joints; mineral deposits; and fossil localities. "Geological mapping" may indicate geologic structure by means of formational outcrop patterns, by conventional symbols giving the direction and amount of dip at certain points, or by structure-contour lines.

"Geologist" means a person engaged in the practice of geology.

"Geology" means the science encompassing those principles and methods related to (i) the earth and its history in general; (ii) the investigation, prediction, evaluation, and location of materials and structures that compose the earth; (iii) the natural processes that cause changes in the earth; and (iv) the application of knowledge of the earth, its processes, and its constituent rocks, minerals, liquids, gases, and other natural materials.

"Practice of geology" means the performance of any professional service or work wherein the principles and methods of geology are applied, including (i) investigating, evaluating, and consulting; (ii) geological mapping; (iii) describing the natural processes that act upon the earth's materials; (iv) predicting the probable occurrence of natural processes; and (v) inspecting, planning, and performing and supervising geological work in order to enhance and protect the health, safety, and welfare of the public and the environment.

"Practice of soil evaluation" means the evaluation of soil by accepted principles and methods including, observation, investigation, and consultation on measured, observed, and inferred soils and their properties; analysis of the effects of these properties on the use and management of various kinds of soil; and preparation of soil descriptions, maps, reports, and interpretive drawings.

"Practice of wetland delineation" means the delineation of wetlands by accepted principles and methods including, observation, investigation, and consultation on soil, vegetation, and hydrologic parameters; and preparation of wetland delineations, descriptions, reports, and interpretive drawings.

"Qualified geologist" means an unlicensed person who possesses all the qualifications specified in this chapter for licensure.

"Soil" means the groups of natural bodies occupying the unconsolidated portion of the earth's surface which are capable of supporting plant life and have properties caused by the combined effects, as modified by topography and time, of climate and living organisms upon parent materials.

"Soil evaluation" means plotting soil boundaries, describing and evaluating the kinds of soil, and predicting their suitability for and response to various uses.

"Soil science" means the science dealing with the physical, chemical, mineralogical, and biological properties of soils as natural bodies.

"Soil scientist" means a person having special knowledge of soil science and the methods and principles of soil evaluation as acquired by education and experience in the formation, description, and mapping of soils.

"Virginia certified professional wetland delineator" means a person who possesses the qualifications required for certification by the provisions of this chapter and the regulations of the Board and who is granted certification by the Board.

"Virginia licensed professional geologist" means a person who possesses all qualifications specified in this chapter for licensure and whose competence has been attested by the Board through licensure.

"Virginia licensed professional soil scientist" means a person who possesses the qualifications required for licensure by the provisions of this chapter and the regulations of the Board and who has been granted a license by the Board.

"Wetland delineation" means delineating wetland limits in accordance with prevailing state and federal regulatory guidance and describing wetland types.

"Wetland professional" means a person having special knowledge of wetland science and the methods and principles of wetland delineation as acquired by education and experience in the formation, description, and mapping of wetlands.

"Wetland science" means the science dealing with the physical, chemical, and biological properties of wetland systems integrated through ecological and morphological relationships.

"Wetlands" means the same as that term is defined in §§ 28.2-1300 and 62.1-44.3.

1987, c. 626, § 54-969; 1988, c. 765; 1993, c. 499; 2002, c. 784; 2011, cc. 777, 859; 2012, cc. 803, 835; 2024, cc. 4, 23; 2025, c. 722.

Expired.

Article 2. Soil Scientists and Wetland Professionals.

A. The certification program for wetland delineation set forth in this chapter shall be voluntary and shall not be construed to prohibit:

1. The practice of wetland delineation by individuals who are not certified professional wetland delineators as defined in this chapter;

2. The work of an employee or a subordinate of a certified professional wetland delineator or of an individual who is practicing wetland delineation without being certified;

3. The work of any professional engineer, landscape architect, or land surveyor as defined by § 54.1-400 in rendering any of the services that constitute the practice of wetland delineation or the practice of soil evaluation; or

4. The practice of any profession or occupation that is regulated by another regulatory board within the Department.

B. The licensing program for professional soil scientists shall not be construed to prohibit:

1. The work of an employee or a subordinate of a licensed soil scientist;

2. The work of any professional engineer, landscape architect, or land surveyor as defined in § 54.1-400 in rendering any services that constitute the practice of soil evaluation; or

3. The practice of any profession or occupation that is regulated by another regulatory board within the Department.

C. Nothing in this chapter shall authorize an individual to engage in the practice of engineering, the practice of land surveying or the practice of landscape architecture, unless such individual is licensed or certified pursuant to Chapter 4 (§ 54.1-400 et seq.).

1987, c. 626, § 54-970; 1988, c. 765; 1993, c. 499; 2002, c. 784; 2009, c. 309; 2011, cc. 777, 859.

Repealed by Acts 2012, cc. 803 and 835, cl. 39.

A. Any person practicing or offering to practice as a wetland professional in the Commonwealth may submit to the Board evidence of qualification to be a certified professional wetland delineator as provided in this chapter. The Board may certify any applicant who has satisfactorily met the requirements of this chapter and its regulations and shall specify on the certificate the appropriate endorsement.

B. Any individual who allows his certification to lapse by failing to renew the certificate or failing to meet professional activity requirements stipulated in the regulations may be reinstated by the Board upon submission of satisfactory evidence that he is practicing in a competent manner and upon payment of the prescribed fee.

1987, c. 626, § 54-973; 1988, c. 765; 2002, c. 784; 2011, cc. 777, 859.

Repealed by Acts 2011, cc. 777 and 859, cl. 3, effective July 1, 2013.

A. No person shall engage in, or offer to engage in, the practice of soil evaluation in the Commonwealth unless he has been licensed under the provisions of this chapter.

B. In order to be licensed as a professional soil scientist, an applicant shall:

1. Submit satisfactory evidence verified by affidavits that the applicant:

a. Is 18 years of age or older;

b. Is of good moral character; and

c. Has successfully completed such educational and experiential requirements as are required by this chapter and the regulations of the Board.

2. Achieve a score acceptable to the Board on an examination in the principles and practice of soil evaluation and satisfy one of the following criteria:

a. Hold a bachelor's degree from an accredited institution of higher education in a soils curriculum which has been approved by the Board and have at least four years of experience in soil evaluation, the quality of which demonstrates to the Board that the applicant is competent to practice as a professional soil scientist; or

b. Hold a bachelor's degree in one of the natural sciences and have at least five years of experience in soil evaluation, the quality of which demonstrates to the Board that the applicant is competent to practice as a professional soil scientist; or

c. Have a record of at least eight years of experience in soil evaluation, the quality of which demonstrates to the Board that the applicant is competent to practice as a professional soil scientist; or

d. Have at least four years of experience in soil science research or as a teacher of soils curriculum in an accredited institution of higher education which offers an approved four-year program in soils and at least two years of soil evaluation experience, the quality of which demonstrates to the Board that the applicant is competent to practice as a professional soil scientist.

C. The Board shall establish by regulation requirements for continuing education as a prerequisite to the maintenance and renewal of a license issued under this chapter, not to exceed eight contact hours per year.

D. Individuals applying for a license as a professional soil scientist between July 1, 2013, and July 1, 2015, who (i) have been certified as professional soil scientists by the Board or (ii) have achieved a score set by the Board on the examination required by this section shall be licensed by the Board if all other requirements of this chapter or Board regulations have been met, unless an applicant is found by the Board to have engaged in any act that would constitute grounds for disciplinary action.

1987, c. 626, § 54-975; 1988, c. 765; 1991, c. 181; 2011, cc. 777, 859.

A. The Board may waive the requirement for examination pursuant to § 54.1-2205 upon written application from an individual who holds an unexpired certificate or license, or its equivalent, issued by a regulatory body of another state, territory or possession of the United States and is not the subject of any disciplinary proceeding before such regulatory body which could result in the suspension or revocation of his certificate or license, if such other state, territory or possession recognizes the license issued by the Board.

B. The Board shall waive the requirement for examination pursuant to § 54.1-2206.2 upon the written application from an individual who holds an unexpired certificate or its equivalent issued by a regulatory body of another state, territory or possession of the United States or has been provisionally certified under the U.S. Army Corps of Engineers Wetland Delineator Certification Program of 1993 and is not the subject of any disciplinary proceeding before such regulatory body, which could result in the suspension or revocation of his certificate.

1987, c. 626, § 54-976; 1988, c. 765; 1991, c. 181; 2002, c. 784; 2003, c. 447; 2010, c. 91; 2011, cc. 777, 859.

The Board may certify any applicant as a Virginia certified professional wetland delineator who has submitted satisfactory evidence verified by affidavits that the applicant:

1. Is eighteen years of age or older;

2. Is of good moral character; and

3. Has successfully completed such educational and experiential requirements as are required by this chapter and the regulations of the Board.

2002, c. 784.

In order to be certified as a professional wetland delineator, an applicant shall achieve a score acceptable to the Board on an examination, which may include a field practicum, in the principles and practice of wetland delineation, provide three written references from wetland professionals with at least one from a certified professional wetland delineator, and satisfy one of the following criteria:

1. Hold a bachelor's degree from an accredited institution of higher education in a wetland science, biology, biological engineering, civil and environmental engineering, ecology, soil science, geology, hydrology or any similar biological, physical, natural science or environmental engineering curriculum that has been approved by the Board; have successfully completed a course of instruction, in state and federal wetland delineation methods, that has been approved by the Board; and have at least three years of experience in wetland delineation, the quality of which demonstrates to the Board that the applicant is competent to practice as a certified professional wetland delineator;

2. Have a record of at least six years of experience in wetland delineation, the quality of which demonstrates to the Board that the applicant is competent to practice as a certified professional wetland delineator; or

3. Have a record of at least three years of experience in wetland science research or as a teacher of wetlands curriculum in an accredited institution of higher education, the quality of which demonstrates to the Board that the applicant is competent to practice as a certified professional wetland delineator.

2002, c. 784; 2007, c. 334; 2013, c. 546; 2024, c. 545.

Any professional soil scientist who is licensed or any wetland delineator who is certified, as provided in this chapter, shall be considered guilty of unprofessional conduct and subject to disciplinary action by the Board, if he:

1. Obtains his certification or license through fraud or deceit;

2. Violates or cooperates with others in violating any provision of this chapter, the Code of Professional Ethics and Conduct or any regulation of the Board;

3. Performs any act likely to deceive, defraud or harm the public;

4. Demonstrates gross negligence, incompetence or misconduct in the practice of soil evaluation or wetland delineation; or

5. Is convicted of a felony.

1987, c. 626; 1988, c. 765; 2002, c. 784; 2011, cc. 777, 859.

A. No person shall represent himself as a licensed professional soil scientist unless he has been so licensed by the Board. Any person practicing or offering to practice soil evaluation within the meaning of this chapter who, through verbal claim, sign, advertisement, or letterhead, represents himself as a licensed professional soil scientist without holding a license from the Board shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

B. No person shall represent himself as a certified professional wetland delineator unless he has been so certified by the Board. Any person practicing or offering to practice wetland delineation within the meaning of this chapter who, through verbal claim, sign, advertisement, or letterhead, represents himself as a certified professional wetland delineator without holding such a certificate from the Board shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

1987, c. 626, § 54-971; 1988, c. 765; 2002, c. 784; 2011, cc. 777, 859.

Article 3. Geologists.

A. The licensing of professional geologists as set forth in this article shall serve any or all of the following purposes:

1. The maintenance of educational, experiential, and ethical standards in the practice of geology;

2. The maintenance of standards of objectivity, truthfulness, and reliability in the practice of geology;

3. The restriction of the professional geologist from association with any person engaging in illegal or dishonest activities in the practice of geology; and

4. The limitation of the practice of geology and any offer of the practice of geology to those persons licensed pursuant to this article.

B. This article shall not be construed to prevent or affect:

1. The practice of any profession or trade for which licensing, certification, or registration is required under any other Virginia law, including the practice of licensed professional engineers lawfully practicing engineering in its various specialized branches;

2. The work of any archeologist, chemist, geographer, or oceanographer who is in responsible charge of geological work or the drawing of geological conclusions and recommendations, provided such work does not include the design and execution of geological investigations;

3. The practice of geology by any person under the direct supervision and control of a professional geologist licensed pursuant to this article, provided such practice does not include being in responsible charge of final geological reports or decisions; or

4. The practice of geology by any person certified as a professional geologist before July 1, 2025.

1981, c. 132, § 54-968; 1988, c. 765, § 54.1-1401; 2012, cc. 803, 835; 2025, c. 722.

A. Any person practicing or offering to practice as a professional geologist or in a geological specialty in this Commonwealth may submit reasonable evidence to the Board that he is qualified to practice and to be licensed as provided in this article. The Board shall approve the application for licensure of any person who, in the opinion of the Board, has satisfactorily met the requirements of this article and who has paid any applicable fees fixed by the Board.

Licenses shall expire at intervals as designated by the Board. A license may be renewed by the Board upon receipt of a formal request accompanied by any applicable fees.

B. To be eligible for licensure as a professional geologist, an applicant shall meet each of the following minimum qualifications:

1. Be of ethical character.

2. Have a baccalaureate or higher degree from an accredited institution of higher education with either a major in geology, engineering geology, geological engineering, or related geological sciences; or have completed at least 30 semester hours or the equivalent in geological science courses leading to a major in geology.

3. Have at least seven years of geological work that shall include either a minimum of three years of geological work under the supervision of a qualified or licensed professional geologist or a minimum of three years of experience in responsible charge of geological work. The adequacy of the position and the required supervision and experience shall be determined by the Board in accordance with standards set forth in its regulations. The following criteria of education and experience qualify toward the required seven years of geological work:

a. Each year of full-time undergraduate study in the geological sciences shall count as one-half year of experience up to a maximum of two years, and each year of full-time graduate study shall count as a year of experience up to a maximum of three years. Credit for undergraduate and graduate study shall in no case exceed a total of four years toward meeting the requirements for at least seven years of geological work.

b. The Board may consider, in lieu of the above-described geological work, the cumulative total of geological work or geological research of persons occupying research or post-graduate positions as well as those teaching geology courses at an institution of higher education, provided such work or research can be demonstrated to be of a sufficiently responsible nature to be equivalent to the geological work required in this section.

4. Have successfully passed an appropriate examination approved by the Board and designed to demonstrate that the applicant has the necessary knowledge and skill to exercise the responsibilities of the public practice of geology.

At the discretion of the Board, separate examinations may be prepared for various subspecialities of geology; however, there will be no specialty licensure, only licensure as a professional geologist.

C. The Board shall issue a license to practice as a geologist in the Commonwealth to any individual who holds an unexpired certification to practice as a geologist issued prior to July 1, 2025.

D. No person shall represent himself as a licensed professional geologist unless he has been so licensed by the Board. Any person practicing or offering to practice geology within the meaning of this article who, through verbal claim, sign, advertisement, or letterhead, represents himself as a licensed professional geologist without holding such license from the Board is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

1981, c. 132, §§ 54-964, 54-965; 1984, c. 51; 1988, c. 765, § 54.1-1403; 2012, cc. 803, 835; 2025, c. 722.

The Board may waive the examination requirement for licensure as a professional geologist for an applicant who otherwise meets the requirements of this article and who also meets any of the following conditions:

1. Makes written application to the Board and has at least 12 years of geological work that includes the geological work as specified in subsection B of § 54.1-2208.2.

2. Makes written application to the Board and holds an unexpired certificate of registration, certification, or license to engage in the practice of geology issued to him on the basis of comparable requirements by a proper authority of a state, territory, or possession of the United States or the District of Columbia.

1981, c. 132, § 54-966; 1988, c. 765, § 54.1-1404; 1994, c. 247; 1996, c. 49; 2012, cc. 803, 835; 2025, c. 722.

A. The Board, in coordination with an ad hoc panel of licensed professional geologists convened by the Board and representing various geological interests in Virginia, shall have prepared and adopted a Code of Professional Ethics and Conduct that shall be published and made known in writing to every Virginia licensed professional geologist and applicant for licensure under this article. The Board may revise and amend this code as needed and shall forthwith notify each licensed professional geologist in writing of such revisions or amendments.

B. The full Board, by majority vote, shall have the power to suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew the license of any professional geologist who, after an appropriate formal hearing, is found to have been involved in:

1. Any fraud or deceit in obtaining licensure;

2. Any violation of the Code of Professional Ethics and Conduct or other regulations of the Board;

3. Demonstrated gross negligence, incompetence, or misconduct in the practice of geology as a professional geologist; or

4. Any conviction of a felony which, in the opinion of the Board, would adversely affect the practice of geology.

C. The Board, by majority vote of the quorum, may reinstate a revoked or suspended license to any professional geologist who makes written application to the Board showing good cause for such action.

1981, c. 132, § 54-967; 1988, c. 765, § 54.1-1405; 2012, cc. 803, 835; 2025, c. 722.

Chapter 22.1. Waste Management Facility Operators.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Board" means the Board for Waste Management Facility Operators.

"Person" means an individual, corporation, partnership, association, governmental body, municipal corporation or any other legal entity.

"Waste management facility" means a site used for planned treatment, storage or disposal of nonhazardous solid waste.

"Waste management facility operator" means any person, including an owner, who is in charge of the actual, on-site operation of a waste management facility during any period of operation.

1991, c. 551.

The Board for Waste Management Facility Operators shall consist of seven members appointed by the Governor as follows: a representative from the Department of Environmental Quality, a representative from a local government that owns a sanitary landfill, a representative from a local government that owns a waste management facility other than a sanitary landfill, a representative of a private owner of a sanitary landfill, a representative of a private owner of a waste management facility other than a sanitary landfill, and two citizen members, one of whom shall be a representative of a commercial waste generator. No owner shall be represented by more than one representative or employee. The terms of Board members shall be four years, except that vacancies shall be filled for the unexpired term. No member shall serve more than two consecutive four-year terms.

1991, c. 551; 1996, cc. 78, 824; 2010, c. 91.

A. The Board shall promulgate regulations and standards for the training and licensing of waste management facility operators. The Board may establish classes of training and licensing based upon the type of waste management facility for which a waste management facility operator seeks a license. Training and licensing requirements may vary for the classes of license established by the Board based upon the type of facility and the type of waste managed at the facility. The Board shall consider an applicant's prior experience in determining whether the applicant meets the training requirements imposed by this chapter.

B. Any person may apply to the Board for approval of the training programs it administers to waste management facility operators. Such training programs shall be approved by the Board if they meet the requirements established by the Board. Any person successfully completing a training program approved by the Board shall be deemed to have met the training requirements imposed by this chapter.

1991, c. 551; 1997, c. 885.

Effective January 1, 1993, no person shall be a waste management facility operator or represent himself as a waste management facility operator without a license from the Board.

1991, c. 551; 1997, c. 885.

Chapter 23. Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Board" means the Board for Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators and Onsite Sewage System Professionals.

"Onsite sewage system" means a conventional onsite sewage system or alternative onsite sewage system as defined in § 32.1-163.

"Operator" means any individual employed or appointed by any owner, and who is designated by such owner to be the person in responsible charge, such as a supervisor, a shift operator, or a substitute in charge, and whose duties include testing or evaluation to control waterworks or wastewater works operations or to operate and maintain onsite sewage systems. Not included in this definition are superintendents or directors of public works, city engineers, or other municipal or industrial officials whose duties do not include the actual operation or direct supervision of waterworks or wastewater works.

"Owner" means the Commonwealth of Virginia, or any political subdivision thereof, any public or private institution, corporation, association, firm or company organized or existing under the laws of this Commonwealth or of any other state or nation, or any person or group of persons acting individually or as a group, who own, manage, or maintain waterworks or wastewater works.

"Person" means any individual, group of individuals, a corporation, a partnership, a business trust, an association or other similar legal entity engaged in operating waterworks or wastewater works.

"Wastewater works" means each system of (i) sewerage systems or sewage treatment works, serving more than 400 persons, as set forth in § 62.1-44.18; (ii) sewerage systems or sewage treatment works serving fewer than 400 persons, as set forth in § 62.1-44.18, if so certified by the State Water Control Board; and (iii) facilities for discharge to state waters of industrial wastes or other wastes, if certified by the State Water Control Board.

"Waterworks" means each system of structures and appliances used in connection with the collection, storage, purification, and treatment of water for drinking or domestic use and the distribution thereof to the public, except distribution piping. Systems serving fewer than 400 persons shall not be considered to be a waterworks unless certified by the Board to be such.

1970, c. 768, § 54-573.2; 1972, c. 682; 1988, c. 765; 2007, cc. 892, 924.

A. The Board for Waterworks and Wastewater Works Operators and Onsite Sewage System Professionals shall consist of 11 members as follows: the Director of the Office of Water Programs of the State Department of Health, or his designee, the Executive Director of the State Water Control Board, or his designee, a currently employed waterworks operator having a valid license of the highest classification issued by the Board, a currently employed wastewater works operator having a valid license of the highest classification issued by the Board, a local or regional representative of the Department of Health, a representative of an owner of a waterworks, a representative of an owner of a wastewater works, a licensed alternative onsite sewage system operator, a licensed alternative onsite sewage system installer, a licensed onsite soil evaluator, and one nonlegislative citizen member. The alternative onsite sewage system operator, alternative onsite sewage system installer, and onsite soil evaluator shall have practiced for at least five consecutive years immediately prior to appointment. No owner shall be represented on the Board by more than one representative or employee operator. The term of Board members shall be four years.

B. 1. The Board shall examine waterworks and wastewater works operators and issue licenses. The licenses may be issued in specific operator classifications to attest to the competency of an operator to supervise and operate waterworks and wastewater works while protecting the public health, welfare, and property and conserving and protecting the water resources of the Commonwealth.

2. The Board shall, upon application by an individual, and without examination pursuant to subdivision 1, recognize licenses or certificates issued by another state as fulfillment of qualifications for licensure in the Commonwealth if the following conditions are met:

a. The individual holds a current and valid professional or occupational license or government certification in another state in a profession or occupation with a similar scope of practice, as determined by the Board;

b. The individual has held the professional or occupational license or government certification in the other state for at least three years;

c. The other state or state of original licensure required the individual to pass an examination and to meet certain standards related to education, training, or experience;

d. There are no pending investigations or unresolved complaints against the individual, and the other state holds the individual in good standing;

e. The individual does not have a disqualifying criminal record as determined by the Board in accordance with § 54.1-204;

f. No other state has imposed discipline on the licensee, except for discipline involving only a financial penalty and no harm to the health or economic well-being of the public; and

g. The individual pays all applicable fees.

3. For the purposes of this subsection, "other state" or "another state" means any state, territory, possession, or jurisdiction of the United States.

C. The Board shall establish a program for licensing individuals as onsite soil evaluators, onsite sewage system installers, and onsite sewage system operators.

D. The Board, in consultation with the Board of Health, shall adopt regulations for the licensure of (i) onsite soil evaluators; (ii) installers of alternative onsite sewage systems, as defined in § 32.1-163; and (iii) operators of alternative onsite sewage systems, as defined in § 32.1-163. Such regulations shall include requirements for (a) minimum education and training, including approved training courses; (b) relevant work experience; (c) demonstrated knowledge and skill; (d) application fees to cover the costs of the program, renewal fees, and schedules; (e) the division of onsite soil evaluators into classes, one of which shall be restricted to the design of conventional onsite sewage systems; and (f) other criteria the Board deems necessary.

E. The Board shall permit any wastewater works operator to sit for the conventional onsite sewage system operator examination.

1970, c. 768, §§ 54-573.1, 54-573.3; 1981, c. 447; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 97; 2007, cc. 892, 924; 2008, c. 67; 2012, cc. 677, 704; 2013, c. 731; 2023, cc. 192, 632, 633.

No person shall operate a waterworks or wastewater works, perform the duties of an onsite soil evaluator, or install or operate an alternative onsite sewage system, without a valid license.

1979, c. 408, § 54-573.18; 1988, c. 765; 2007, cc. 892, 924.

Chapter 23.1. Cemetery Operators, Perpetual Care Trust Funds and Preneed Burial Contracts.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Advertisement" means any information disseminated or placed before the public.

"At-need" means at the time of death or while death is imminent.

"Board" means the Cemetery Board.

"Cemetery" means any land or structure used or intended to be used for the interment of human remains. The sprinkling of ashes or their burial in a biodegradable container on church grounds or their placement in a columbarium on church property shall not constitute the creation of a cemetery.

"Cemetery company" means any person engaged in the business of (i) selling or offering for sale any grave or entombment right in a cemetery and representing to the public that the entire cemetery, a single grave, or entombment right therein will be perpetually cared for; (ii) selling property or services, vaults, grave liners, urns, memorials, markers, and monuments used in connection with interring or disposing of the remains or commemorating the memory of a deceased human being, where delivery of the property or performance of the service may be delayed more than 120 days after receipt of the initial payment on account of such sale; or (iii) maintaining a facility used for the interment or disposal of the remains and required to maintain perpetual care or preneed trust funds in accordance with this chapter. Such property or services include but are not limited to burial vaults, mausoleum crypts, garden crypts, lawn crypts, memorials, and marker bases, but shall not include graves or incidental additions such as dates, scrolls, or other supplementary matter representing not more than ten percent of the total contract price.

"Compliance agent" means a natural person who owns or is employed by a cemetery company to assure the compliance of the cemetery company with the provisions of this chapter.

"Cost requirement" means the total cost to the seller of the property or services subject to the deposit requirements of § 54.1-2325 required by that seller's total contracts.

"Department" means the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation.

"Garden crypt" means a burial receptacle, usually constructed of reinforced concrete, installed in quantity on gravel or tile underlay. Each crypt becomes an integral part of a given garden area and is considered real property.

"General funds" means the sum total of specific funds put together in a single fund.

"Grave" means a below-ground right of interment.

"In-person communication" means face-to-face communication and telephonic communication.

"Interment" means all forms of final disposal of human remains including, but not limited to, earth burial, mausoleum entombment and niche or columbarium inurnment. The sprinkling of ashes on church grounds shall not constitute interment.

"Lawn crypt" means a burial vault with some minor modifications for the improvement of drainage in and around the receptacle and is considered personal property.

"Licensee" means any person holding a valid license issued by the Board.

"Marker base" means the visible part of the marker or monument upon which the marker or monument rests and is considered personal property.

"Mausoleum crypt" means a burial receptacle usually constructed of reinforced concrete and usually constructed or assembled above the ground and is considered real property.

"Memorials, markers or monuments" means the object used to identify the deceased and is considered personal property.

"Perpetual care trust fund" means a fund created to provide income to a cemetery to provide care, maintenance, administration and embellishment of the cemetery.

"Preneed" means at any time other than either at the time of death or while death is imminent.

"Preneed burial contract" means a contract for the sale of property or services used in connection with interring or disposing of the remains or commemorating the memory of a deceased human being, where delivery of the property or performance of the service may be delayed for more than 120 days after the receipt of initial payment on account of such sale. Such property includes but is not limited to burial vaults, mausoleum crypts, garden crypts, lawn crypts, memorials, and marker bases, but shall not include graves or incidental additions such as dates, scrolls, or other supplementary matter representing not more than ten percent of the total contract price.

"Resale" means the sale of an interment right in a cemetery governed by this chapter to a person other than the cemetery company owning the cemetery in which the right exists by a person other than that cemetery company or its authorized agent. The term "resale" shall not be construed to include the transfer of interment rights upon the death of the owner.

"Retail sales price" means the standard, nondiscounted price as listed on the general price list required by § 54.1-2327.

"Seller" means the cemetery company.

"Seller's trust account" means the total specific trust funds deposited from all of a specific seller's contracts, plus income on such funds allotted to that seller.

"Solicitation" means initiating contact with consumers with the intent of influencing their selection of a cemetery.

"Specific trust funds" means funds identified to a certain contract for personal property or services.

1998, cc. 708, 721; 2000, c. 36; 2011, c. 792.

No person shall engage in the business of a cemetery company in the Commonwealth without first being licensed by the Board. The cemetery company shall renew its license as required by the Board. Such license and such renewal of license shall (i) be on forms prescribed by the Board and shall include the name and address of each cemetery in Virginia in which the cemetery company has a business interest, the name and address of all officers and directors of the cemetery company, the registered agent for the cemetery company, the compliance agent, and any such other information as the Board may require consistent with the purposes of this chapter and (ii) include a fee as prescribed by the Board for each cemetery in Virginia in which the cemetery company has a business interest. The cemetery company shall notify the Board of any change in the information required to be filed within thirty days after the change. A new license shall be required if there is a change in the ownership of the cemetery company. If there is a change in the compliance agent designated by the cemetery company, it shall promptly notify the Board in writing. All fees shall be remitted to the State Treasurer and shall be placed to the credit and special fund of the Department to be used in the administration of this chapter.

1998, cc. 708, 721.

A. The provisions of this chapter shall not apply to cemeteries wholly owned and operated by the state or a county, city, or town; a church; or a nonstock corporation not operated for profit if the corporation (i) does not compensate any officer or director except for reimbursement of reasonable expenses incurred in the performance of his official duties; (ii) does not sell or construct or directly or indirectly contract for the sale or construction of vaults or lawn, garden, or mausoleum crypts; and (iii) uses proceeds from the sale of all graves and entombment rights for the sole purpose of defraying the direct expenses of maintaining the cemetery. For the purposes of this subsection, "church" includes a church that operates as a historic landmark.

B. The provisions of this chapter shall not apply to any community cemetery not operated for profit if the cemetery (i) does not compensate any officer or director except for reimbursement of reasonable expenses incurred in the performance of his official duties, and uses the proceeds from the sale of the graves and mausoleum spaces for the sole purpose of defraying the direct expenses of maintaining its facilities or (ii) was chartered by the Commonwealth prior to 1857 A.D.

C. The provisions of this chapter regarding preneed burial contracts shall not apply to prearranged funeral plans entered into by licensees of the Board of Funeral Directors and Embalmers.

D. The provisions of the chapter shall not apply to any family cemetery provided that no graves or entombment rights therein are sold or offered for sale to the public.

E. Subject to the requirements of § 54.1-2312.1, the provisions of this chapter shall not apply to the resale of any interment right in a cemetery in the Commonwealth.

1998, cc. 708, 721; 2011, c. 792; 2020, cc. 27, 33.

A. A cemetery company may have a section in the cemetery devoted to the interment of human remains and the pets of such deceased humans, provided:

1. The section of the cemetery property dedicated for this purpose is segregated entirely from the remainder of the cemetery devoted to the interment of human remains;

2. No uncremated pet is interred in the same grave, crypt, or niche as the remains of a human; and

3. The section of the cemetery is clearly marked and advertised as such by the cemetery company.

B. A cemetery company may have a section in the cemetery devoted to the interment of pets, provided:

1. The section of the cemetery property dedicated for this purpose is segregated entirely from the remainder of the cemetery devoted to the interment of human remains; and

2. The section of the cemetery is clearly marked and advertised as such by the cemetery company.

C. As used in the section, "pet" means the same as that term is defined in § 57-39.20.

D. The Board shall adopt such regulations as the Board deems appropriate and necessary to implement the provisions of this section. Regulations of the Board shall be in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.).

2014, c. 500; 2020, c. 537.

A. No person shall participate as a seller in more than four consummated resale transactions in any calendar year except as authorized by this section or § 54.1-2312.2.

B. Unless exempted by subsection A, no resale transaction shall be valid unless:

1. The resale is at-need;

2. The seller is (i) a funeral director, embalmer, establishment, or service licensed pursuant to Chapter 28 (§ 54.1-2800 et seq.) or (ii) a cemetery company licensed pursuant to this chapter;

3. No more than one interment right is transferred by the transaction;

4. Any merchandise, personal property, or service purchased in the original pre-need transaction is transferred with the interment right;

5. The resale is approved, pursuant to subsection C, by the cemetery company that owns the cemetery in which the interment right exists; and

6. The seller provides written notice to the buyer that the resale transaction is contingent upon (i) approval by the cemetery company that owns the cemetery in which the interment right exists, (ii) payment of the cemetery transfer fee, and (iii) compliance with the provisions of this section.

C. A cemetery company shall approve a resale transaction upon receipt of a valid transfer form that has been acknowledged by the buyer as required by subsection D 6, a reasonable cemetery transfer fee to be set by the cemetery company, and a copy of the bill of sale or other document confirming the resale, provided such approval is consistent with the current rules and regulations of the cemetery company.

D. The transfer form shall be provided by the seller to the buyer at the time of the resale and shall be valid only when signed by the seller, buyer, and cemetery company. At a minimum, the transfer form shall contain the following information:

1. The name and address of each seller and buyer;

2. The valid license number of each seller under Chapter 28 (§ 54.1-2800 et seq.) or under this chapter;

3. A complete description of the location of the property for which the interment right is being sold;

4. A clear disclosure of the cemetery transfer fee;

5. The name, address, and telephone number of the Board and a statement that the Board is the regulatory agency that handles consumer complaints; and

6. An acknowledgement that the buyer has read, understands, and agrees to abide by the current rules and regulations of the cemetery and its current general price list, as applicable.

The information required to be included in the transfer form by subdivisions 1 through 5 shall be provided by the seller.

E. In the event a resale is not approved by the cemetery company under this section, the resale transaction shall be void and within 30 days the seller shall refund to the buyer any and all moneys paid pursuant to the transaction and the buyer shall return to the seller any merchandise or personal property that was transferred to the buyer by the seller as a part of the resale.

2011, c. 792; 2013, c. 395.

A. In addition to the provisions of § 54.1-2312.1, a church or religious organization may proceed with a resale transaction of an interment right if (i) the church or religious organization is exempt from income tax under Title 58.1 or from taxation pursuant to § 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and (ii) the buyer is a member of the church congregation or religious organization or an immediate family member of such member.

B. Resale transactions under this subsection shall also comply with the following:

1. Any merchandise, personal property, or service purchased in the original preneed transaction is transferred with the interment right;

2. The resale is approved, pursuant to subdivision 4, by the cemetery company that owns the cemetery in which the interment right exists;

3. The seller provides written notice to the buyer that the resale transaction is contingent upon (i) approval by the cemetery company that owns the cemetery in which the interment right exists, (ii) payment of the cemetery transfer fee, and (iii) compliance with the provisions of this section;

4. A cemetery company shall approve a resale transaction upon receipt of a valid transfer form that has been acknowledged by the buyer as required by subdivision 5 e, a reasonable cemetery transfer fee to be set by the cemetery company, and a copy of the bill of sale or other document confirming the resale, provided such approval is consistent with the current rules and regulations of the cemetery company; and

5. The transfer form shall be provided by the seller to the buyer at the time of the resale and shall be valid only when signed by the seller, buyer, and cemetery company. A cemetery company may rely in good faith on the representations and documentation submitted by the buyer and seller. At a minimum, the transfer form shall contain the following information:

a. The name and address of each seller and buyer;

b. A complete description of the location of the property for which the interment right is being sold;

c. A clear disclosure of the cemetery transfer fee;

d. The name, address, and telephone number of the Board and a statement that the Board is the regulatory agency that handles consumer complaints; and

e. An acknowledgment that the buyer has read, understands, and agrees to abide by the current rules and regulations of the cemetery and its current general price list, as applicable.

The information required to be included in the transfer form by subdivisions a through d shall be provided by the seller.

C. In the event a resale is not approved by the cemetery company under this section, the resale transaction shall be void and within 30 days the seller shall refund to the buyer all money paid pursuant to the transaction and the buyer shall return to the seller any merchandise or personal property transferred to the buyer by the seller as a part of the resale.

D. Nothing in this section shall prevent a church or religious organization exempt from income tax under Title 58.1 or from taxation pursuant to § 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code from reselling any interment right back to the cemetery company. Subsequent sale of such interment rights by the cemetery company shall not be considered a resale transaction.

E. Nothing in this section shall prevent a cemetery company from reselling an interment right of a natural person.

2013, c. 395.

A. The Cemetery Board shall consist of seven members to be appointed by the Governor as follows: four cemetery operators who have operated a cemetery in the Commonwealth for at least five consecutive years immediately prior to appointment, no more than two of whom shall be affiliated with a cemetery company incorporated in the Commonwealth which is owned, operated or affiliated, directly or indirectly, with a foreign corporation; one representative of local government, and two citizen members. Appointments to the Board shall generally represent the geographical areas of the Commonwealth.

B. All appointments shall be for terms of four years, except that appointment to fill vacancies shall be for the unexpired terms. No person shall be eligible to serve for more than two successive four-year terms.

C. The Board shall annually elect a chairman and a vice-chairman from among its members. The Board shall meet at least once each year and may meet as often as its duties require. Four members shall constitute a quorum.

D. In addition to the general powers and duties conferred in this subtitle, the Board shall have the power and duty to (i) regulate preneed burial contracts and perpetual care trust fund accounts as prescribed by this chapter, including, but not limited to, the authority to prescribe preneed contract forms, disclosure requirements and disclosure forms and to require reasonable bonds to insure performance of preneed contracts, (ii) regulate and register sales personnel employed by a cemetery company, and (iii) regulate and establish qualifications and standards of conduct for compliance agents employed by a cemetery company to assure compliance of the cemetery with the provisions of this chapter.

E. In addition to such other regulations the Board deems appropriate, the Board shall adopt regulations which provide:

1. A method for executing, at-need, a preneed burial contract, including the petitioning a court of competent jurisdiction for the appointment of a receiver, where a licensee who is a party to such preneed burial contract has had his license to operate a cemetery revoked or suspended for violation of this chapter or Board regulations; and

2. Consumer protections which are consistent with those provisions of the Federal Trade Commission Funeral Rules which the Board finds may be appropriately applied to cemetery companies.

1998, cc. 708, 721; 2004, c. 247; 2010, c. 91; 2012, c. 522.

No licensee or any agent of the licensee shall divert or misuse any funds held in trust or otherwise held by him for another. If preneed or perpetual care funds are held in trust and the Board or its agents have reason to believe that (i) the licensee is not able to adequately protect the interest of the person involved; (ii) the licensee has had his license suspended, revoked, or surrendered; and (iii) the conduct of the licensee or the operation of the cemetery threatens the interests of the public, the Board shall file a petition with any court of record having equity jurisdiction over the licensee or any of the funds held by him stating the facts upon which it relies.

The court may temporarily enjoin further activity by the licensee and take such further action as shall be necessary to ensure that the cemetery company is operated in full compliance with this chapter and the Board's regulations, or to conserve, protect, and disburse the funds involved, or both, including the appointment of a receiver. If a receiver is appointed, the expenses of such receivership and a reasonable fee, as determined by the court, shall be paid from the assets of the cemetery company. The Board shall not be liable for any expenses or fees of the receiver.

2004, c. 192; 2022, c. 161.

The Board may refuse to license or register any applicant, suspend a license or registration for a stated period or indefinitely, revoke any license or registration, censure or reprimand any person licensed or registered by the Board or place such person on probation for such time as it may designate for any of the following causes related to the sale or offering to the public of cemetery vaults, grave liners, urns, memorials, markers or monuments:

1. Conviction of any felony or any crime involving moral turpitude;

2. Unprofessional conduct which is likely to defraud or to deceive the public or clients;

3. Misrepresentation or fraud in the conduct of the cemetery company or its sales personnel, or in obtaining or renewing a license or registration;

4. False or misleading advertising;

5. Solicitation in violation of subsection B of § 54.1-2327;

6. Direct or indirect payment or offer of payment of a commission to others by the licensee, his sales representatives, agents, or employees for the purpose of securing business;

7. Use of alcohol or drugs to the extent that such use renders him unsafe to practice his licensed or registered activity;

8. Aiding or abetting an unlicensed person to engage in the business of a cemetery company;

9. Using profane, indecent or obscene language within the immediate hearing of the family or relatives of a deceased, whose body has been interred or otherwise disposed of;

10. Violation of any statute, ordinance or regulation affecting the handling, custody, care or transportation of dead human bodies;

11. Failure to comply with subsection A of § 54.1-2327 and to keep on file an itemized statement of all retail prices and fees charged related to the sale of property or services as required by Board regulations and this chapter;

12. Charging third-party handling fees, which shall not include installation fees; and

13. Refusing to honor the transfer of preneed contract arrangements to another party. However the licensee shall not be responsible for paying additional costs associated with any actual transfer.

1998, cc. 708, 721.

The following acts shall be prohibited:

1. Employment directly or indirectly of any sales representative, agent, employee or other person, on a part-time or full-time basis, or on a commission, for the purpose of calling upon individuals or institutions by whose influence dead human bodies may be turned over to a particular funeral establishment or cemetery company;

2. Solicitation, offer, payment, or acceptance by a licensee or registered sales personnel of a licensee, of any commission or bonus or rebate in consideration of recommending or causing a dead human body to be disposed of in any crematory, mausoleum or cemetery;

3. Violating or cooperating with others to violate any provision of this chapter or Board regulations;

4. Interfering with the freedom of choice of the general public in the choice of persons or establishments providing funeral services, preneed funeral planning or preneed funeral contracts.

Nothing in this section shall preclude a cemetery company employing or retaining a sales representative, agent, employee or other person, on a part-time or full-time basis, from offering cemetery company goods and services on a commission basis.

1998, cc. 708, 721.

It shall be unlawful to sell or offer for sale in the Commonwealth any grave or entombment right in a cemetery and, in connection therewith, to represent to the public in any manner, express or implied, that the entire cemetery or any grave or entombment right therein will be perpetually cared for, unless adequate provision has been made for the perpetual care of the cemetery and all graves and entombment rights therein as to which such representation has been made.

Each cemetery company shall establish in a Virginia trust company or trust subsidiary or a federally insured bank or savings institution doing business in the Commonwealth, an irrevocable trust fund in the amount of at least $50,000 before the first lot, parcel of land, burial or entombment right is sold. This fund shall be designated the perpetual care trust fund.

1998, cc. 708, 721; 2004, c. 192.

A. The trustee of the perpetual care trust fund shall be appointed by the person owning, operating, or developing a cemetery company. If the trustee is other than a Virginia trust company or trust subsidiary or a federally insured bank or savings institution doing business in the Commonwealth, the trustee shall be approved by the Board.

A trustee that is not a Virginia trust company or trust subsidiary or a federally insured bank or savings institution doing business in the Commonwealth shall apply to the Board for approval, and the Board shall approve the trustee when it has become satisfied that the applicant:

1. Employs and is directed by persons who are qualified by character, experience, and financial responsibility to care for and invest the funds of others;

2. Will perform its duties in a proper and legal manner and the trust funds and interest of the public generally will not be jeopardized; and

3. Is authorized to do business in the Commonwealth and has adequate facilities to perform its duties as trustee.

B. If the trustee is other than a Virginia trust company or trust subsidiary or a federally insured bank or savings institution doing business in the Commonwealth, the trustee shall furnish a fidelity bond with corporate surety thereon, payable to the trust established, which shall be designated "Perpetual Care Trust Fund for (name of cemetery company)," in a sum equal to not less than 100 percent of the value of the principal of the trust estate at the beginning of each calendar year, which bond shall be deposited with the Board.

C. If the trustee is other than a Virginia trust company or trust subsidiary or a federally insured bank or savings institution doing business in the Commonwealth and if it appears that an officer, director or employee of the trustee is dishonest, incompetent, or reckless in the management of a perpetual care trust fund, the Board may bring an action in the appropriate court to remove the trustee and to impound the property and business of the trustee as may be reasonably necessary to protect the trust funds.

1998, cc. 708, 721.

Trustees appointed pursuant to this chapter shall be governed in their investment of trust funds by § 2.2-4519 and §§ 64.2-1502 through 64.2-1506, except as otherwise provided in this chapter.

1998, cc. 708, 721.

Each cemetery company shall deposit a minimum of ten percent of the receipts from the sale of graves and above-ground crypts and niches, excluding below-ground burial vaults, in cash in the perpetual care trust fund within thirty days after the close of the month in which such receipts are paid to it. If the purchaser's payment is made on an installment or deferred payment basis, the cemetery company shall have the option of paying ten percent of the amount of principal in each payment received into the perpetual care trust fund. If the cemetery company provides a grave or an above-ground crypt or niche without compensation, ten percent of the retail sales price shall be deposited within thirty days after the close of the month in which the property is provided to the consumer.

1998, cc. 708, 721; 2000, c. 36.

If ten percent of the sales price of a grave or above-ground crypt or niche has been deposited in a perpetual care trust fund, no deposit shall be required on subsequent sales of the same grave, crypt or niche.

1998, cc. 708, 721.

Once the cemetery company has deposited in the perpetual care trust fund a sum equal to twice the amount of the original deposit, exclusive of the original deposit, the trustee shall allow the cemetery company to recover its original deposit by withholding the money that would otherwise be required to be deposited in the perpetual care trust fund until the amount of the original deposit is recovered. Once the cemetery company has recovered an amount equal to its original deposit, deposits to the perpetual care trust fund shall be resumed.

1998, cc. 708, 721.

A. The income from the perpetual care trust fund shall be used solely and exclusively for the general care, maintenance, administration, and embellishment of the cemetery. Unless prior approval has been obtained from the Board or a court of competent jurisdiction, the principal of the perpetual care trust fund shall only be used for investment purposes.

B. A cemetery company may request the trustee of a perpetual care trust fund to elect the distribution of either of the following from the perpetual care trust fund:

1. All net income, which for purposes of this section means the collected dividends, interest, and other income of the perpetual care trust fund less any taxes on income, fees, commissions, and costs. A distribution made under this subdivision shall be referred to as a "net income distribution method"; or

2. An amount not to exceed five percent of the fair market value of the perpetual care trust fund at the close of its fiscal year preceding the distribution year. A distribution made under this subdivision shall be referred to as a "total return distribution method."

C. A cemetery company may request the trustee of a perpetual care trust fund to convert from a net income distribution method to a total return distribution method by delivering written or electronic notice to the trustee. Notice of such conversions shall be provided to the Board at least 90 days prior to implementation of the total return distribution method. Such notices may be written or electronic and shall include a copy of the trust instrument, election of distribution method, and an investment and distribution policy pursuant to subdivision D 1. In the event that a distribution method is not elected, distributions shall be limited to the net income distribution method.

D. The trustee of a perpetual care trust fund may reject a cemetery company's request to elect a total return distribution method. If a trustee determines that election of a total return distribution method is proper, he shall:

1. Prior to implementation of the total return distribution method, adopt a written investment and distribution policy under which the amounts of future distributions from the perpetual care trust fund will be calculated under the total return distribution method rather than net income distribution method. The investment goals and objectives of such policy shall be tailored to achieve (i) principal growth through equity investment; (ii) current income through income investment, as necessary; and (iii) an appropriate balance between (a) maintaining purchasing power through principal appreciation and (b) generating income to support the cemetery company's care and maintenance. A copy of such policy shall be sent to the Board with the notice required in subsection C;

2. Ensure that asset allocation under the perpetual care trust fund includes a diversified portfolio and that investment decisions are made in accordance with all other applicable laws of the Commonwealth;

3. Determine the fair market value of the perpetual care trust fund at least annually using generally accepted valuation methods and such valuation date or dates or averages of valuation dates as are readily ascertainable;

4. Make distributions from the perpetual care trust fund on a monthly, quarterly, semi-annual, or annual basis, as agreed upon by the cemetery company and the trustee;

5. Require that both of the following tests be met each fiscal year prior to allowing any distribution from the perpetual care trust fund to the cemetery company: (i) the fair market value of the perpetual care trust fund after the distribution will be greater than the aggregate of 80 percent of the fair market value of the perpetual care trust fund at the close of the preceding fiscal year plus the total contributions made to the trust principal from such date to the date that the method of distribution is elected and (ii) beginning with the third year of using a total return distribution method, a three-year analysis of investment returns and distribution practices indicates that such practices will result in sufficient protection of the trust principal. If either test is not met, distributions for that fiscal year shall be limited to the net income distribution method;

6. In the event that the taxes and fees paid by the perpetual care trust fund are greater than two and one-half percent of the fair market value of the trust at the close of the preceding fiscal year, reduce the distribution by the amount exceeding two and one-half percent; and

7. Maintain records documenting the fair market value of the assets held in the perpetual care trust fund at the end of the accounting period immediately prior to conversion to the total return distribution method.

E. In addition to filing an annual perpetual care trust fund financial report with the Board pursuant to § 54.1-2324, a cemetery company that has elected a total return distribution method shall also file a copy of such financial report at the close of each fiscal year with the commissioner of accounts in a jurisdiction in the Commonwealth in which the cemetery company owns a cemetery. The commissioner of accounts shall review the financial report and forward his finalized accounting to the Board, with all reasonable fees and costs for such filing and review borne by the cemetery company. A trustee shall not make any distribution from a perpetual care trust fund under a total return distribution method until the review by the commissioner of accounts has been finalized. A review shall be deemed finalized if the commissioner of accounts has not responded or communicated any deficiencies within 60 days of the submission of the financial report.

F. The Board shall review all notices of conversion or reversion of perpetual care trust fund distribution method for compliance with this section. The Board may engage the services of a professional to review notices of conversion or reversion to a total return distribution method, with all reasonable costs of such review borne by the cemetery company that submitted such notice.

The Board may limit or prohibit conversion from a net income distribution method to a total return distribution method if the trustee or any investment manager is not able to demonstrate sufficient knowledge and expertise regarding effective implementation of the total return distribution method. The Board may prohibit a reversion from the total return distribution method to the net income distribution method if the trust principal is less than it was at the time the cemetery company converted to the total return distribution method, as adjusted for inflation.

If a conversion to the total return distribution method has already been made, the Board may limit or prohibit distributions from the perpetual care trust fund if the trustee or any investment manager is not able to demonstrate sufficient knowledge and expertise regarding the distribution of trust income for the maintenance of the cemetery using the total return distribution method. In deciding whether a distribution should be limited or prohibited, the Board shall consider the presence and stated value of trust assets that do not have an active market and are not traded on a regular basis, the frequency of appraisals and evaluations of such assets, the asset allocation of the trust, and whether trust principal, as adjusted for inflation, is less than it was at the time the cemetery company converted to the total return distribution method.

The Board may require a cemetery company to restore a distribution to the perpetual care trust fund if (i) the distribution and all other aspects of the trust were not in compliance with the requirements of this section at the time such distribution was made or (ii) the cemetery company has committed fraud against the trust.

G. If a total return distribution method has been elected, the perpetual care trust fund may not be reverted to a net income distribution method absent approval by the Board. A failure by a cemetery company to file a perpetual care trust fund financial report annually with the Board as required by § 54.1-2324 shall automatically prohibit a conversion to or continuation of a total return distribution method pending further action by the Board.

H. No portion of the perpetual care trust fund shall be used to pay any personal obligation or debt of any officer or owner of the cemetery or any tax obligation incurred by the cemetery or for any purpose other than that expressly described in this section. Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit the ability of the perpetual care trust fund trustee from paying normal operating expenses and income taxes of the trust itself, the trust being a separate legal entity.

1998, cc. 708, 721; 2004, c. 192; 2012, c. 355; 2017, cc. 12, 65.

The cemetery company shall file with the Board detailed accounts of all transactions, receipts and accounts receivable subject to the ten percent trust requirement and of all expenditures of income from the perpetual care trust fund at such times as required by the Board.

1998, cc. 708, 721.

A. Within four months after the close of its fiscal year, the cemetery company shall report the following information to the Board, on forms prescribed by the Board:

1. The total amount of principal in the perpetual care trust fund;

2. The securities in which the perpetual care trust fund is invested and the amount of cash on hand as of the close of the fiscal year;

3. The income received from the perpetual care trust fund, and the sources of such income, during the preceding fiscal year;

4. The method of distribution used for distributions from the perpetual care trust fund and, if a total return distribution method was used, a schedule to verify compliance with the requirements of § 54.1-2322;

5. An affidavit executed by the compliance agent that all applicable provisions of this chapter relating to perpetual care trust funds have been complied with;

6. The total receipts subject to the 10 percent trust requirement;

7. All expenditures from the perpetual care trust fund;

8. If the trustee is other than a Virginia trust company or trust subsidiary or a federally insured bank or savings institution doing business in the Commonwealth, proof that the required fidelity bond has been secured and that it is in effect; and

9. A separate total of expenses incurred for general care and maintenance, embellishment and administration of its cemeteries.

B. The cemetery company shall (i) engage an independent certified public accountant to apply agreed-upon procedures as specified by the Board to the total of all receipts subject to § 54.1-2319, in accordance with standards established by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants or any successor standard authorities, and (ii) provide to the Board the independent certified public accountant's report on the agreed-upon procedures. The information provided by the cemetery company shall provide full disclosure of any transactions between the perpetual care trust fund and any directors, officers, stockholders, or employees of the cemetery company, or relatives of the cemetery company's employees, and shall include a description of the transactions, the parties involved, the dates and amounts of the transactions, and the reasons for the transactions.

C. The information required to be filed hereunder with the Board shall be exempt from the Government Data Collection and Dissemination Practices Act (§ 2.2-3800 et seq.).

1998, cc. 708, 721; 2000, c. 36; 2004, c. 247; 2015, c. 344; 2017, cc. 12, 65.

A. Each cemetery company shall deposit into a trust fund at least forty percent of the receipts from the sale of property or services purchased pursuant to a preneed burial contract, when the delivery thereof will be delayed more than 120 days from the initial payment on said contract. The cemetery company shall establish a special trust fund in a Virginia trust company or trust subsidiary or a federally insured bank or savings institution doing business in the Commonwealth. The trust shall bear the legend "Preneed Trust Account." Deposits are required to be made by the cemetery company within thirty days after the close of the month in which said receipts are paid to it.

B. If the purchaser's payment is made on an installment or deferred payment basis, the seller shall have the option of paying each payment received into the preneed trust account.

1998, cc. 708, 721.

A. The trustee of the preneed trust fund shall be appointed by the person owning, operating, or developing a cemetery company. If the trustee is other than a Virginia trust company or trust subsidiary or a federally insured bank or savings institution doing business in the Commonwealth, the trustee shall be approved by the Board.

A trustee that is not a Virginia trust company or trust subsidiary or a federally insured bank or savings institution doing business in the Commonwealth shall apply to the Board for approval, and the Board shall approve the trustee when the Board has become satisfied that the applicant:

1. Employs and is directed by persons who are qualified by character, experience, and financial responsibility to care for and invest the funds of others;

2. Will perform its duties in a proper and legal manner and that the trust funds and interest of the public generally will not be jeopardized; and

3. Is authorized to do business in the Commonwealth and has adequate facilities to perform its duties as trustee.

B. If the trustee is other than a Virginia trust company or trust subsidiary or a federally insured bank or savings institution doing business in the Commonwealth, the trustee shall furnish a fidelity bond with corporate surety thereon, payable to the trust established, which shall be designated "Preneed Trust Fund for (name of cemetery company)," in a sum equal to but not less than 100 percent of the value of the principal of the trust estate at the beginning of each calendar year, which bond shall be deposited with the Board.

C. If the trustee is other than a Virginia trust company or trust subsidiary or a federally insured bank or savings institution doing business in the Commonwealth, and if it appears that an officer, director or employee of the trustee is dishonest, incompetent, or reckless in the management of a preneed trust fund, the Board may bring an action in the appropriate court to remove the trustee and to impound the property and business of the trustee as may be reasonably necessary to protect the trust funds.

1998, cc. 708, 721.

A. Every cemetery company licensed pursuant to the provisions of this chapter shall furnish a written general price list and a written itemized statement of charges in connection with burial services provided by the cemetery company.

Individuals inquiring in person about burial arrangements or the prices of property or services shall be given the general price list. Upon beginning discussion of burial arrangements or the selection of any property or services, the general price list shall be offered by the cemetery company.

The itemized statement shall include, but not be limited to, the following charges: burial vaults or other burial receptacles, facilities used, and other professional services used, which shall be set forth in a clear and conspicuous manner.

The general price list and itemized statement of burial fees shall comply with forms prescribed by Board regulation, which regulations shall promote the purposes of this section.

B. No cemetery company licensed pursuant to the provisions of this chapter shall make any solicitation at-need or any preneed solicitation using in-person communication by the cemetery company, his agents, assistants or employees, which is false, misleading, or contrary to the stated purpose. However, general advertising and preneed solicitation shall be permitted.

1998, cc. 708, 721.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person doing business within the Commonwealth to make, either directly or indirectly by any means, a preneed burial contract unless the contract:

1. Is made on forms prescribed by the Board and is written in clear, understandable language and printed in easy-to-read type, size and style;

2. Identifies the seller, seller's license number, contract buyer and person for whom the contract is purchased if other than the contract buyer;

3. Contains a complete description of the property or services purchased;

4. Clearly discloses whether the price of the property and services purchased is guaranteed;

5. States, for funds required to be trusted pursuant to § 54.1-2325, the amount to be trusted and the name of the trustee;

6. Contains the name, address and telephone number of the Board and lists the Board as the regulatory agency which handles consumer complaints;

7. Provides that any purchaser who makes payment under the contract may terminate the agreement within three days of execution and that such purchaser shall be refunded all consideration paid or delivered, less amounts paid for any property or supplies that have been delivered;

8. Provides that if the particular property or services specified in the contract are unavailable at the time of delivery, the seller shall be required to furnish property or services similar in size and style and at least equal in quality of material and workmanship and that the representative of the deceased shall have the right to choose the property or services to be substituted, which shall be at least equal or reasonably equivalent in quality of material, workmanship, and cost;

9. Discloses any additional costs that the purchaser may be required to pay at-need, including disclosure of the cost of opening and closing the grave;

10. Complies with all disclosure requirements imposed by the Board;

11. Is executed in duplicate and a signed copy given to the buyer; and

12. Provides that the contract buyer shall have the right to change the contract provider at any time prior to the furnishing of the property or services, excluding any mausoleum crypt or garden crypt, contracted for under the preneed burial contract. If the contract seller will not be furnishing the property and services to the purchaser, the contract seller shall attach to the preneed burial contract a copy of the seller's agreement with the provider.

B. Any preneed burial contract sold or offered by any cemetery company or agent with a trust fund deposit of less than 100 percent shall be required to include the following printed statement in capitalized letters, in ten-point, bold-faced type:

THIS PRENEED BURIAL CONTRACT REQUIRES THE PLACEMENT IN TRUST OF A MINIMUM OF 40% OF THE FUNDS INCLUDED IN THIS CONTRACT. THE BALANCE OF FUNDS MAY BE USED FOR CARE AND MAINTENANCE OF THE CEMETERY AND ARE NOT REQUIRED TO BE PLACED IN TRUST.

1998, cc. 708, 721.

Specific funds deposited in the trust account shall be identified in the records of the seller by the contract number and by the name of the buyer. The trustee may commingle the deposits in any preneed trust account for the purposes of the management thereof and the investment of funds therein.

1998, cc. 708, 721.

Specific funds shall remain intact until the property is delivered or services performed as specified in the contract. The net income from the preneed trust account, after payment of any appropriate trustee fees, commissions, and costs, shall remain in the account and be reinvested and compounded. Any trustee fees, commissions, and costs in excess of income shall be paid by the cemetery company and not from the trust. However, the trustee shall, as of the close of the cemetery company's fiscal year, upon written assurance to the trustee of a certified public accountant employed by the seller, return to the seller any income in the seller's account which, when added to the specific funds, is in excess of the current cost requirements for all undelivered property or services included in the seller's preneed burial contracts. The seller's cost requirements shall be certified in its records by an affidavit sworn by the compliance agent and shall be determined by the seller as of the close of the cemetery company's fiscal year.

1998, cc. 708, 721.

A. Upon performance of the preneed burial contract, the seller shall certify to the trustee by affidavit the amount of specific funds in the trust, identified to the contract performed, which the trustee shall pay to the seller. The seller may in its records itemize the property or services and the consideration paid or to be paid therefor, to which the deposit requirements of this chapter apply. In such case, the seller may, upon certification to the trustee of performance or delivery of such property or services and of the amount of specific trust funds identified in its records to such items, request disbursement of that portion of the specific funds deposited pursuant to the contract, which the trustee shall pay to the seller.

B. If the preneed contract provides for two or more persons, the seller may, at its option, designate in its records the consideration paid for each individual in the preneed burial contract. In such case, upon performance of that portion of the contract identified to a particular individual, the seller may request, by certification in the manner described above, the disbursement of trust funds applicable to that portion of the contract, which the trustee shall pay to the seller.

1998, cc. 708, 721.

Each seller of a preneed burial contract shall file with the Board at such time as the Board may prescribe, detailed accounts of all contracts and transactions regarding preneed burial contracts.

1998, cc. 708, 721.

A. The cemetery company shall report the following information to the Board within four months following the cemetery company's fiscal year, on forms prescribed by the Board:

1. The total amount of principal in the preneed trust account;

2. The securities in which the preneed trust account is invested;

3. The income received from the trust and the source of that income during the preceding fiscal year;

4. An affidavit executed by the compliance agent that all provisions of this chapter applicable to the seller relating to preneed trust accounts have been complied with;

5. Forty percent of the total receipts required to be deposited in the preneed trust account;

6. All expenditures from the preneed trust account; and

7. If the trustee is other than a Virginia trust company or trust subsidiary or a federally insured bank or savings institution doing business in the Commonwealth, proof that the required fidelity bond has been secured and that it is in effect.

B. The cemetery company shall (i) engage an independent certified public accountant to apply agreed-upon procedures as specified by the Board to the total of all receipts subject to § 54.1-2325, in accordance with standards established by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants or any successor standard authorities, and (ii) provide to the Board the independent certified public accountant's report on the agreed-upon procedures.

The information provided by the cemetery company shall provide full disclosure of any transactions between the preneed trust account and any directors, officers, stockholders, or employees of the cemetery company, or relatives of the cemetery company's employees, and shall include a description of the transactions, the parties involved, the dates and amounts of the transactions, and the reasons for the transactions.

C. The information required to be filed hereunder with the Board shall be exempt from the Government Data Collection and Dissemination Practices Act (§ 2.2-3800 et seq.).

1998, cc. 708, 721; 2000, c. 36; 2004, c. 247; 2015, c. 344.

Nothing in this chapter shall be deemed to prohibit the sale within the preneed burial contract of property or services to be delivered within 120 days after the receipt of the initial payment on account of such sale. Contracts may specify separately the total consideration paid or to be paid for preneed property or services not to be delivered or provided within 120 days after receipt of initial payment. If a contract does not so specify, the seller shall deposit forty percent of the total consideration for the entire contract.

1998, cc. 708, 721.

If, after a written request, the seller fails to perform its contractual duties, the purchaser, executor or administrator of the estate, or heirs, or assigns or duly authorized representative of the purchaser shall be entitled to maintain a proper legal or equitable action in any court of competent jurisdiction. No other purchaser need be made a party to or receive notice of any proceeding brought pursuant to this section relating to the performance of any other contract.

The trust shall be a single purpose trust, and the trust funds shall not be available to any creditors as assets of the seller.

1998, cc. 708, 721.

The trustee may rely upon all certifications and affidavits made pursuant to or required by the provisions of this chapter and shall not be liable to any person for such reasonable reliance.

1998, cc. 708, 721.

The seller may, upon notification in writing to the trustee, and upon such other terms and conditions as the agreement between them may specify, transfer its account funds to another trustee qualified under the provisions of this chapter. The trustee may, upon notification in writing to the seller, and upon such other terms and conditions as the agreement between them may specify, transfer the trust funds to another trustee qualified under the provisions of this chapter. No seller's account funds or trustee's trust funds may be transferred to another trustee unless the seller provides written notice at least five days prior to such transfer to the Board.

1998, cc. 708, 721.

No person subject to the provisions of this chapter shall use the name of the trustee in any advertisement or other public solicitation without written permission of the trustee.

1998, cc. 708, 721.

Within four years after the date of the first sale, a cemetery company or other seller of mausoleums and garden crypts shall be required to start construction or development of that undeveloped ground or section of a mausoleum or garden crypt in which sales, contracts for sales, or agreements for sales are being made. The construction or development of such undeveloped mausoleum section or garden crypt shall be completed within five years after the date of the first such sale. Completed construction shall be deemed performance for purposes of this chapter.

1998, cc. 708, 721.

Any provision of any contract which purports to waive any provision of this chapter shall be void.

1998, cc. 708, 721.

Any money, personal property or real property paid, delivered or conveyed subject to § 54.1-2325 shall be exempt from levy, garnishment or distress.

1998, cc. 708, 721.

Any person who violates any of the provisions of this chapter shall be subject to the sanctions provided in Chapter 1 (§ 54.1-100 et seq.) and Chapter 2 (§ 54.1-200 et seq.) and in §§ 54.1-2314, 54.1-2317, and 54.1-2326. Any person who is convicted of willfully violating any of the provisions of this chapter is guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor. Any person convicted of violating, or failing to comply with, any of the provisions of § 54.1-2317, 54.1-2319, 54.1-2321, 54.1-2322, 54.1-2325 or 54.1-2326 with the intent to defraud is guilty of a Class 6 felony.

For the purposes of this section, "person" includes any individual, corporation, partnership, association, cooperative, limited liability company, trust, joint venture, government, political subdivision, or any other legal or commercial entity and any successor, representative, agent, agency, instrumentality, officer or employee thereof.

1998, cc. 708, 721; 2005, c. 691.

Chapter 23.2. Fair Housing Board.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Board" means the Fair Housing Board.

"Fair Housing Law" means the provisions of Chapter 5.1 (§ 36-96.1 et seq.) of Title 36.

"Person in the business or activity of selling or renting dwellings" means any person who is the owner of any combination of residential dwelling units occupied by five or more families. "Person in the business or activity of selling or renting dwellings" shall not include any person involved in the sale of a dwelling or interest therein pursuant to a deed of trust, or in full or partial satisfaction of a debt that was secured by such dwelling or interest therein, or other lien on such property.

2003, c. 575; 2010, cc. 457, 620.

A. The Fair Housing Board shall be composed of 12 members, to be appointed by the Governor, as follows: one representative of local government, one architect licensed in accordance with Chapter 4 (§ 54.1-400 et seq.) of this title, one representative of the mortgage lending industry, one representative of the property and casualty insurance industry, two representatives of the residential property management industry not licensed in accordance with Chapter 21 (§ 54.1-2100 et seq.) of this title, at least one of whom is a member of a property owners' association or condominium unit owners' association, one contractor licensed in accordance with Chapter 11 (§ 54.1-1100 et seq.) of this title, one representative of the disability community, one representative of the residential land lease industry subject to the Manufactured Home Lot Rental Act (§ 55.1-1300 et seq.), and three citizen members selected in accordance with § 54.1-107. All terms of Board members shall be for terms of four years.

B. The Board shall elect a chairman from its membership.

C. The Board shall adopt a seal by which it shall authenticate its proceedings.

D. The Board shall be responsible for the administration and enforcement of the Fair Housing Law. However, the Board shall have no authority with respect to any of the following respondents who have allegedly violated, or who have in fact violated, the Fair Housing Law: (i) a real estate broker, real estate salesperson, real estate brokerage firm licensed in accordance with Chapter 21 (§ 54.1-2100 et seq.), or their agents or employees or (ii) a property owner or his agent or principal, who has engaged a real estate licensee to perform real estate activities within the purview of Chapter 21 (§ 54.1-2100 et seq.), which licensee has also been charged with a violation of the Fair Housing Law in the same case. In no event shall the jurisdiction be split between the Real Estate Board and the Board on the same such case.

The Board shall have the power and duty to establish, by regulation, an education-based certification or registration program for persons subject to the Fair Housing Law who are involved in the business or activity of selling or renting dwellings. The Board shall also establish, by regulation, educational materials on the Fair Housing Law and require a signed affidavit from persons in the business or activity of selling or renting dwellings, that they have read and understood the provided materials. The Board shall have the authority to approve training courses and instructors in furtherance of the provisions of this chapter.

No education-based program established by the Board shall require Board certification or registration where an individual holds a valid license issued by the Real Estate Board. Any courses approved by the Real Estate Board to meet the fair housing requirement of § 54.1-2105.03 and the instructors approved by the Real Estate Board to teach continuing education courses in accordance with § 54.1-2105.02 shall not require additional approval by the Fair Housing Board to meet any education requirements in this section and in the regulations of the Fair Housing Board.

2003, c. 575; 2007, cc. 809, 874; 2010, cc. 91, 457, 620; 2013, c. 190.

Chapter 23.3. Common Interest Communities.

Article 1. Common Interest Community Board.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Association" includes condominium, cooperative, or property owners' associations.

"Board" means the Common Interest Community Board.

"Common interest community" means real estate subject to a declaration containing lots, at least some of which are residential or occupied for recreational purposes, and common areas to which a person, by virtue of the person's ownership of a lot subject to that declaration, is a member of the association and is obligated to pay assessments of common expenses, provided that for the purposes of this chapter only, a common interest community does not include any time-share project registered pursuant to the Virginia Real Estate Time-Share Act (§ 55.1-2200 et seq.) or any additional land that is a part of such registration. "Common interest community" does not include an arrangement described in § 54.1-2345.1.

"Common interest community manager" means a person or business entity, including a partnership, association, corporation, or limited liability company, that, for compensation or valuable consideration, provides management services to a common interest community.

"Declaration" means any instrument, however denominated, recorded among the land records of the county or city in which the development or any part thereof is located, that either (i) imposes on the association maintenance or operational responsibilities for the common area as a regular annual assessment or (ii) creates the authority in the association to impose on lots, or on the owners or occupants of such lots, or on any other entity any mandatory payment of money as a regular annual assessment in connection with the provision of maintenance or services or both for the benefit of some or all of the lots, the owners or occupants of the lots, or the common area. "Declaration" includes any amendment or supplement to the instruments described in this definition.

"Governing board" means the governing board of an association, including the executive organ of a condominium unit owners' association, the executive board of a cooperative proprietary lessees' association, and the board of directors or other governing body of a property owners' association.

"Lot" means (i) any plot or parcel of land designated for separate ownership or occupancy shown on a recorded subdivision plat for a development or the boundaries of which are described in the declaration or in a recorded instrument referred to or expressly contemplated by the declaration, other than a common area, and (ii) a unit in a condominium association or a unit in a real estate cooperative.

"Management services" means (i) acting with the authority of an association in its business, legal, financial, or other transactions with association members and nonmembers; (ii) executing the resolutions and decisions of an association or, with the authority of the association, enforcing the rights of the association secured by statute, contract, covenant, rule, or bylaw; (iii) collecting, disbursing, or otherwise exercising dominion or control over money or other property belonging to an association; (iv) preparing budgets, financial statements, or other financial reports for an association; (v) arranging, conducting, or coordinating meetings of an association or the governing body of an association; (vi) negotiating contracts or otherwise coordinating or arranging for services or the purchase of property and goods for or on behalf of an association; or (vii) offering or soliciting to perform any of the aforesaid acts or services on behalf of an association.

2008, cc. 851, 871; 2019, c. 712; 2020, c. 592.

A. An arrangement between the associations for two or more common interest communities to share the costs of real estate taxes, insurance premiums, services, maintenance, or improvements of real estate, or other activities specified in their arrangement or declarations does not create a separate common interest community, or an arrangement between an association and the owner of real estate that is not part of a common interest community to share the costs of real estate taxes, insurance premiums, services, maintenance, or improvements of real estate, or other activities specified in their arrangement does not create a separate common interest community. Assessments against the lots in the common interest community required by such arrangement shall be included in the periodic budget for the common interest community, and the arrangement shall be disclosed in all required public offering statements and resale certificates.

B. A covenant requiring the owners of separately owned parcels of real estate to share costs or other obligations associated with a party wall, driveway, well, or other similar use does not create a common interest community unless the owners otherwise agree to create such community.

2019, c. 712; 2023, cc. 387, 388.

A. Unless exempted by § 54.1-2347, any person, partnership, corporation, or other entity offering management services to a common interest community on or after January 1, 2009, shall hold a valid license issued in accordance with the provisions of this article prior to engaging in such management services.

B. Unless exempted by § 54.1-2347, any person, partnership, corporation, or other entity offering management services to a common interest community without being licensed in accordance with the provisions of this article shall be subject to the provisions of § 54.1-111.

C. On or after July 1, 2012, it shall be a condition of the issuance or renewal of the license of a common interest community manager that all employees of the common interest community manager who have principal responsibility for management services provided to a common interest community or who have supervisory responsibility for employees who participate directly in the provision of management services to a common interest community shall, within two years after employment with the common interest community manager, hold a certificate issued by the Board certifying the person possesses the character and minimum skills to engage properly in the provision of management services to a common interest community or shall be under the direct supervision of a certified employee of such common interest community manager. A common interest community manager shall notify the Board if a certificated employee is discharged or in any way terminates his active status with the common interest community manager.

D. It shall be a condition of the issuance or renewal of the license of a common interest community manager that the common interest community manager shall obtain and maintain a blanket fidelity bond or employee dishonesty insurance policy insuring the common interest community manager against losses resulting from theft or dishonesty committed by the officers, directors, and persons employed by the common interest community manager. Such bond or insurance policy shall include coverage for losses of clients of the common interest community manager resulting from theft or dishonesty committed by the officers, directors, and persons employed by the common interest community manager. Such bond or insurance policy shall provide coverage in an amount equal to the lesser of $2 million or the highest aggregate amount of the operating and reserve balances of all associations under the control of the common interest community manager during the prior fiscal year. The minimum coverage amount shall be $10,000.

E. It shall be a condition of the issuance or renewal of the license of a common interest community manager that the common interest community manager certifies to the Board (i) that the common interest community manager is in good standing and authorized to transact business in Virginia; (ii) that the common interest community manager has established a code of conduct for the officers, directors, and persons employed by the common interest community manager to protect against conflicts of interest; (iii) that the common interest community manager provides all management services pursuant to written contracts with the associations to which such services are provided; (iv) that the common interest community manager has established a system of internal accounting controls to manage the risk of fraud or illegal acts; and (v) that an independent certified public accountant reviews or audits the financial statements of the common interest community manager at least annually in accordance with standards established by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants or by any successor standard-setting authorities.

2008, cc. 851, 871; 2011, cc. 334, 605; 2019, c. 712.

A. The provisions of this article shall not be construed to prevent or prohibit:

1. An employee of a duly licensed common interest community manager from providing management services within the scope of the employee's employment by the duly licensed common interest community manager;

2. An employee of an association from providing management services for that association's common interest community;

3. A resident of a common interest community acting without compensation from providing management services for that common interest community;

4. A resident of a common interest community from providing bookkeeping, billing, or recordkeeping services for that common interest community for compensation, provided that such resident shall be presumed to be an independent contractor and that the blanket fidelity bond or employee dishonesty insurance policy maintained by the association insures the association against losses resulting from theft or dishonesty committed by such person;

5. A member of the governing board of an association acting without compensation from providing management services for that association's common interest community;

6. A person acting as a receiver or trustee in bankruptcy in the performance of his duties as such or any person acting under order of any court from providing management services for a common interest community;

7. A duly licensed attorney-at-law from representing an association or a common interest community manager in any business that constitutes the practice of law;

8. A duly licensed certified public accountant from providing bookkeeping or accounting services to an association or a common interest community manager;

9. A duly licensed real estate broker or agent from selling, leasing, renting, or managing lots within a common interest community; or

10. An association, exchange agent, exchange company, managing agent, or managing entity of a time-share project registered pursuant to the Virginia Real Estate Time-Share Act (§ 55.1-2200 et seq.) from providing management services for such time-share project.

B. A licensee of the Board shall comply with the Board's regulations, notwithstanding the fact that the licensee would be otherwise exempt from licensure under subsection A. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to require a person to be licensed in accordance with this article if he would be otherwise exempt from such licensure.

Nothing in this section shall be construed as contradicting the provisions of Chapter 19 (§ 58.1-1900 et seq.) of Title 58.1.

2008, cc. 851, 871; 2010, c. 511; 2011, cc. 334, 605; 2019, c. 712; 2024, c. 839.

There is hereby created the Common Interest Community Board (the Board) as a policy board, within the meaning of § 2.2-2100, in the executive branch of state government. Members of the Board shall be appointed by the Governor and consist of 11 members as follows: three shall be representatives of Virginia common interest community managers, one shall be a Virginia attorney whose practice includes the representation of associations, one shall be a representative of a Virginia certified public accountant whose practice includes providing attest services to associations, one shall be a representative of the Virginia time-share industry, two shall be representatives of developers of Virginia common interest communities, and three shall be Virginia citizens, one of whom serves or who has served on the governing board of an association that is not professionally managed at the time of appointment and two of whom reside in a common interest community. Of the initial appointments, one representative of Virginia common interest community managers and one representative of developers of Virginia common interest communities shall serve terms of two years and one representative of Virginia common interest community managers and one representative of developers of Virginia common interest communities shall serve terms of three years; the Virginia attorney shall serve a term of three years; the Virginia certified public accountant shall serve a term of one year; the Virginia citizen who serves or who has served on the governing board of an association shall serve a term of two years, and the two Virginia citizens who reside in a common interest community shall serve terms of one year. All other initial appointments and all subsequent appointments shall be for terms for four years, except that vacancies may be filled for the remainder of the unexpired term. Each appointment of a representative of a Virginia common interest community manager to the Board may be made from nominations submitted by the Virginia Association of Community Managers, who may nominate no more than three persons for each manager vacancy. In no case shall the Governor be bound to make any appointment from such nominees. No person shall be eligible to serve for more than two successive four-year terms.

The Board shall meet at least once each year and at other such times as it deems necessary. The Board shall elect from its membership a chairman and a vice-chairman to serve for a period of one year. A majority of the Board shall constitute a quorum. The Board is vested with the powers and duties necessary to execute the purposes of this article.

2008, cc. 851, 871; 2010, c. 511; 2012, c. 522; 2019, c. 712.

A. The Board shall administer and enforce the provisions of this article. In addition to the provisions of §§ 54.1-201 and 54.1-202, the Board shall:

1. Promulgate regulations necessary to carry out the requirements of this article in accordance with the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.), including the prescription of fees, procedures, and qualifications for the issuance and renewal of common interest community manager licenses. Upon application for license and each renewal thereof, the applicant shall pay a fee established by the Board, which shall be placed to the credit of the Common Interest Community Management Information Fund established pursuant to § 54.1-2354.2;

2. Establish criteria for the licensure of common interest community managers to ensure the appropriate training and educational credentials for the provision of management services to common interest communities. Such criteria may include experiential requirements and shall include designation as an Accredited Association Management Company by the Community Associations Institute. As an additional alternative to such designation, the Board shall have authority, by regulation, to include one of the following: (i) successful completion of another Board-approved training program and certifying examination or (ii) successful completion of a Virginia testing program to determine the quality of the training and educational credentials for and competence of common interest community managers;

3. Establish criteria for the certification of the employees of common interest community managers who have principal responsibility for management services provided to a common interest community or who have supervisory responsibility for employees who participate directly in the provision of management services to a common interest community to ensure the person possesses the character and minimum skills to engage properly in the provision of management services to a common interest community. Such criteria shall include designation as a Certified Manager of Community Associations by the Community Association Managers International Certification Board, designation as an Association Management Specialist by the Community Associations Institute, or designation as a Professional Community Association Manager by the Community Associations Institute. As an additional alternative to such designations, the Board shall have authority, by regulation, to include one of the following: (i) successful completion of another Board-approved training program as developed by the Virginia Association of Realtors or other organization, and certifying examination, or (ii) successful completion of a Virginia testing program to determine the quality of the training and educational credentials for and competence of the employees of common interest community managers who participate directly in the provision of management services to a common interest community. The fee paid to the Board for the issuance of such certificate shall be paid to the Common Interest Community Management Information Fund established pursuant to § 54.1-2354.2;

4. Approve the criteria for accredited common interest community manager training programs;

5. Approve accredited common interest community manager training programs;

6. Establish, by regulation, standards of conduct for common interest community managers and for employees of common interest community managers certified in accordance with the provisions of this article;

7. Establish, by regulation, an education-based certification program for persons who are involved in the business or activity of providing management services for compensation to common interest communities. The Board shall have the authority to approve training courses and instructors in furtherance of the provisions of this article;

8. Issue a certificate of registration to each association that has properly filed in accordance with this chapter; and

9. Develop and publish best practices for the content of declarations consistent with the requirements of the Property Owners' Association Act (§ 55.1-1800 et seq.).

B. 1. The Board shall have the sole responsibility for the administration of this article and for the promulgation of regulations to carry out the requirements thereof.

2. The Board shall also be responsible for the enforcement of this article, provided that the Real Estate Board shall have the sole responsibility for the enforcement of this article with respect to a real estate broker, real estate salesperson, or real estate brokerage firm licensed in accordance with Chapter 21 (§ 54.1-2100 et seq.) who is also licensed as a common interest community manager.

3. For purposes of enforcement of this article or the Property Owners' Association Act (§ 55.1-1800 et seq.), the Virginia Condominium Act (§ 55.1-1900 et seq.), the Virginia Real Estate Cooperative Act (§ 55.1-2100 et seq.), the Virginia Real Estate Time-Share Act (§ 55.1-2200 et seq.), or the Resale Disclosure Act (§ 55.1-2307 et seq.), any requirement for the conduct of a hearing shall be satisfied by an informal fact-finding proceeding convened and conducted pursuant to § 2.2-4019 of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.).

C. The Board is authorized to obtain criminal history record information from any state or federal law-enforcement agency relating to an applicant for licensure or certification. Any information so obtained is for the exclusive use of the Board and shall not be released to any other person or agency except in furtherance of the investigation of the applicant or with the authorization of the applicant or upon court order.

D. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection A of § 54.1-2354.4, the Board may receive a complaint directly from any person aggrieved by an association's failure to deliver a resale certificate in accordance with Chapter 23.1 (§ 55.1-2307 et seq.) of Title 55.1.

2008, cc. 851, 871; 2009, c. 557; 2010, cc. 511, 615; 2011, c. 334; 2012, cc. 481, 797; 2015, c. 268; 2017, cc. 387, 393, 405, 406; 2019, cc. 391, 712; 2023, cc. 387, 388.

In addition to the provisions of § 54.1-2349, the Board shall:

1. Administer the provisions of Article 2 (§ 54.1-2354.1 et seq.);

2. Develop and disseminate an association annual report form for use in accordance with §§ 55.1-1835, 55.1-1980, and 55.1-2182; and

3. Develop and disseminate a standardized resale certificate form, which shall contain disclosure statements in the order listed in § 55.1-2310. The form shall provide for the attachment of reference documents and contain space for an association to indicate those disclosures that pertain to its particular community. The form shall also provide that the purchaser remains responsible for his own examination of the resale certificate and of any attached reference documents.

2008, cc. 851, 871; 2017, c. 257; 2018, cc. 70, 733; 2019, cc. 390, 712; 2022, cc. 65, 66; 2023, cc. 387, 388.

A. The Board may adopt, amend, and repeal rules and regulations and issue orders consistent with and in furtherance of the objectives of this article, but the Board may not intervene in the internal activities of an association except to the extent necessary to prevent or cure violations of this article or of the chapter pursuant to which the association is created. The Board may prescribe forms and procedures for submitting information to the Board.

B. If it appears that any governing board has engaged, is engaging, or is about to engage in any act or practice in violation of this article, the Property Owners' Association Act (§ 55.1-1800 et seq.), the Virginia Condominium Act (§ 55.1-1900 et seq.), the Virginia Real Estate Cooperative Act (§ 55.1-2100 et seq.), the Virginia Real Estate Time-Share Act (§ 55.1-2200 et seq.), the Resale Disclosure Act (§ 55.1-2307 et seq.), or any of the Board's regulations or orders, the Board without prior administrative proceedings may bring an action in the appropriate court to enjoin that act or practice or for other appropriate relief. The Board is not required to post a bond or prove that no adequate remedy at law exists.

C. The Board may intervene in any action involving a violation by a declarant or a developer of a time-share project of this article, the Property Owners' Association Act (§ 55.1-1800 et seq.), the Virginia Condominium Act (§ 55.1-1900 et seq.), the Virginia Real Estate Cooperative Act (§ 55.1-2100 et seq.), the Virginia Real Estate Time-Share Act (§ 55.1-2200 et seq.), the Resale Disclosure Act (§ 55.1-2307 et seq.), or any of the Board's regulations or orders.

D. The Board may accept grants-in-aid from any governmental source and may contract with agencies charged with similar functions in this or other jurisdictions in furtherance of the objectives of this article.

E. The Board may cooperate with agencies performing similar functions in this and other jurisdictions to develop uniform filing procedures and forms, uniform disclosure standards, and uniform administrative practices, and may develop information that may be useful in the discharge of the Board's duties.

F. In issuing any cease and desist order, the Board shall state the basis for the adverse determination and the underlying facts.

G. Without limiting the remedies that may be obtained under this article, the Board, without compliance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.), shall have the authority to enforce the provisions of this section and may institute proceedings in equity to enjoin any person, partnership, corporation, or any other entity violating this article, the Property Owners' Association Act (§ 55.1-1800 et seq.), the Virginia Condominium Act (§ 55.1-1900 et seq.), the Virginia Real Estate Cooperative Act (§ 55.1-2100 et seq.), the Virginia Real Estate Time-Share Act (§ 55.1-2200 et seq.), the Resale Disclosure Act (§ 55.1-2307 et seq.), or any of the Board's regulations or orders. Such proceedings shall be brought in the name of the Commonwealth by the Board in the circuit court or general district court of the city or county in which the unlawful act occurred or in which the defendant resides.

H. The Board may assess a monetary penalty to be paid to the Common Interest Community Management Information Fund of not more than $1,000 per violation against any governing board that violates any provision of this article, the Property Owners' Association Act (§ 55.1-1800 et seq.), the Virginia Condominium Act (§ 55.1-1900 et seq.), the Virginia Real Estate Cooperative Act (§ 55.1-2100 et seq.), the Virginia Real Estate Time-Share Act (§ 55.1-2200 et seq.), the Resale Disclosure Act (§ 55.1-2307 et seq.), or any of the Board's regulations or orders. In determining the amount of the penalty, the Board shall consider the degree and extent of harm caused by the violation. No monetary penalty may be assessed under this article, the Property Owners' Association Act (§ 55.1-1800 et seq.), the Virginia Condominium Act (§ 55.1-1900 et seq.), the Virginia Real Estate Cooperative Act (§ 55.1-2100 et seq.), the Virginia Real Estate Time-Share Act (§ 55.1-2200 et seq.), the Resale Disclosure Act (§ 55.1-2307 et seq.), or any of the Board's regulations or orders unless the governing board has been given notice and an opportunity to be heard pursuant to the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.). The penalty may be sued for and recovered in the name of the Commonwealth.

2008, cc. 851, 871; 2009, c. 557; 2010, c. 615; 2019, c. 712; 2023, cc. 387, 388.

A. The Board may issue an order requiring the governing board of the association to cease and desist from the unlawful practice and to take such affirmative action as in the judgment of the Board will carry out the purposes of this article, if the Board determines after notice and hearing that the governing board of an association has:

1. Violated any statute or regulation of the Board governing the association regulated pursuant to this article, including engaging in any act or practice in violation of this article, the Property Owners' Association Act (§ 55.1-1800 et seq.), the Virginia Condominium Act (§ 55.1-1900 et seq.), the Virginia Real Estate Cooperative Act (§ 55.1-2100 et seq.), the Virginia Real Estate Time-Share Act (§ 55.1-2200 et seq.), the Resale Disclosure Act (§ 55.1-2307 et seq.), or any of the Board's regulations or orders;

2. Failed to register as an association or to file an annual report as required by statute or regulation;

3. Materially misrepresented facts in an application for registration or an annual report; or

4. Willfully refused to furnish the Board information or records required or requested pursuant to statute or regulation.

B. If the Board makes a finding of fact in writing that the public interest will be irreparably harmed by delay in issuing an order, it may issue a temporary order to cease and desist or to take such affirmative action as may be deemed appropriate by the Board. Prior to issuing the temporary order, the Board shall give notice of the proposal to issue a temporary order to the person. Every temporary order shall include in its terms a provision that upon request a hearing will be held promptly to determine whether or not it becomes permanent.

2008, cc. 851, 871; 2009, c. 557; 2019, cc. 467, 712; 2023, cc. 387, 388.

A. A common interest community manager owes a fiduciary duty to the associations to which it provides management services with respect to the manager's handling the funds or the records of each association. All funds deposited with the common interest community manager shall be handled in a fiduciary capacity and shall be kept in a separate fiduciary trust account or accounts in an FDIC-insured financial institution separate from the assets of the common interest community manager. The funds shall be the property of the association and shall be segregated for each depository in the records of the common interest community manager in a manner that permits the funds to be identified on an association basis. The common interest community manager shall transfer and release all funds and close bank accounts maintained on behalf of an association within a reasonable time after termination of the contract for management services without additional cost to the association.

B. All records having administrative or fiscal value to the association that a common interest community manager holds, maintains, compiles, or generates on behalf of a common interest community are the property of the association. A common interest community manager may retain and dispose of association records in accordance with a policy contained in the contract between the common interest community manager and the association. Within a reasonable time after a written request for any such records, the common interest community manager shall provide copies of the requested records to the association at the association's expense. The common interest community manager shall return all association records that it retains and any originals of legal instruments or official documents that are in the possession of the common interest community manager to the association within a reasonable time after termination of the contract for management services without additional cost to the association. Records maintained in electronic format may be returned in such format.

C. If the Board has reasonable cause to believe that a common interest community manager is unable to properly discharge its fiduciary responsibilities to an association to which it provides management services, the Board may submit an ex parte petition to the circuit court of the city or county wherein the common interest community manager maintains an office or is doing business for the issuance of an order authorizing the immediate inspection by and production to representatives of the petitioner of any records, documents, and physical or other evidence belonging to the subject common interest community manager. The court may issue such order without notice to the common interest community manager if the petition, supported by affidavit of the petitioner and such other evidence as the court may require, shows reasonable cause to believe that such action is required to prevent immediate loss of property of one or more of the associations to which the subject common interest community manager provides management services. The court may also temporarily enjoin further activity by the common interest community manager and take such further action as shall be necessary to conserve, protect, and disburse the funds involved, including the appointment of a receiver. The papers filed with the court pursuant to this subsection shall be placed under seal.

D. If the Board has reasonable cause to believe that a common interest community manager is unable to properly discharge its fiduciary responsibilities to an association to which it provides management services, the Board may file a petition with the circuit court of the county or city wherein the subject common interest community manager maintains an office or is doing business. The petition may seek the following relief: (i) an injunction prohibiting the withdrawal of any bank deposits or the disposition of any other assets belonging to or subject to the control of the subject common interest community manager and (ii) the appointment of a receiver for all or part of the funds or property of the subject common interest community manager. The subject common interest community manager shall be given notice of the time and place of the hearing on the petition and an opportunity to offer evidence. The court, in its discretion, may require a receiver appointed pursuant to this section to post bond, with or without surety. The papers filed with the court under this subsection shall be placed under seal until such time as the court grants an injunction or appoints a receiver. The court may issue an injunction, appoint a receiver, or provide such other relief as the court may consider proper if, after a hearing, the court finds that such relief is necessary or appropriate to prevent loss of property of one or more of the associations to which the subject common interest community manager provides management services.

E. In any proceeding under subsection D, any person or entity known to the Board to be indebted to or having in his possession property, real or personal, belonging to or subject to the control of the subject common interest community manager's business and which property the Board reasonably believes may become part of the receivership assets shall be served with a copy of the petition and notice of the time and place of the hearing.

F. The court shall describe the powers and duties of the receiver in its appointing order, which may be amended from time to time. The receiver shall, unless otherwise ordered by the court in the appointing order, (i) prepare and file with the Board a list of all associations managed by the subject common interest community manager; (ii) notify in writing all of the associations to which the subject common interest community manager provides management services of the appointment and take whatever action the receiver deems appropriate to protect the interests of the associations until such time as the associations have had an opportunity to obtain a successor common interest community manager; (iii) facilitate the transfer of records and information to such successor common interest community manager; (iv) identify and take control of all bank accounts, including without limitation trust and operating accounts, over which the subject common interest community manager had signatory authority in connection with its management business; (v) prepare and submit an accounting of receipts and disbursements and account balances of all funds under the receiver's control for submission to the court within four months of the appointment and annually thereafter until the receivership is terminated by the court; (vi) attempt to collect any accounts receivable related to the subject common interest community manager's business; (vii) identify and attempt to recover any assets wrongfully diverted from the subject common interest community manager's business, or assets acquired with funds wrongfully diverted from the subject common interest community manager's business; (viii) terminate the subject common interest community manager's business; (ix) reduce to cash all of the assets of the subject common interest community manager; (x) determine the nature and amount of all claims of creditors of the subject common interest community manager, including associations to which the subject common interest community manager provided management services; and (xi) prepare and file with the court a report of such assets and claims proposing a plan for the distribution of funds in the receivership to such creditors in accordance with the provisions of subsection G.

G. Upon the court's approval of the receiver's report referenced in subsection F, at a hearing after such notice as the court may require to creditors, the receiver shall distribute the assets of the common interest community manager and funds in the receivership first to clients whose funds were or ought to have been held in a fiduciary capacity by the subject common interest community manager, then to the receiver for fees, costs, and expenses awarded pursuant to subsection H, and thereafter to the creditors of the subject common interest community manager, and then to the subject common interest community manager or its successors in interest.

H. A receiver appointed pursuant to this section shall be entitled, upon proper application to the court in which the appointment was made, to recover an award of reasonable fees, costs, and expenses. If there are not sufficient nonfiduciary funds to pay the award, then the shortfall shall be paid by the Common Interest Community Management Recovery Fund as a cost of administering the Fund pursuant to § 54.1-2354.5, to the extent that the said Fund has funds available. The Fund shall have a claim against the subject common interest community manager for the amount paid.

I. The court may determine whether any assets under the receiver's control should be returned to the subject common interest community manager.

J. If the Board shall find that any common interest community manager is insolvent, that its merger into another common interest community manager is desirable for the protection of the associations to which such common interest community manager provides management services, and that an emergency exists, and, if the board of directors of such insolvent common interest community manager shall approve a plan of merger of such common interest community manager into another common interest community manager, compliance with the requirements of § 13.1-718 shall be dispensed with as to such insolvent common interest community manager and the approval by the Board of such plan of merger shall be the equivalent of approval by the holders of more than two-thirds of the outstanding shares of such insolvent common interest community manager for all purposes of Article 12 (§ 13.1-715.1 et seq.) of Chapter 9 of Title 13.1. If the Board finds that a common interest community manager is insolvent, that the acquisition of its assets by another common interest community manager is in the best interests of the associations to which such common interest community manager provides management services, and that an emergency exists, it may, with the consent of the boards of directors of both common interest community managers as to the terms and conditions of such transfer, including the assumption of all or certain liabilities, enter an order transferring some or all of the assets of such insolvent common interest community manager to such other common interest community manager, and no compliance with the provisions of §§ 13.1-723 and 13.1-724 shall be required, nor shall §§ 13.1-730 through 13.1-741 be applicable to such transfer. In the case either of such a merger or of such a sale of assets, the Board shall provide that prompt notice of its finding of insolvency and of the merger or sale of assets be sent to the stockholders of record of the insolvent common interest community manager for the purpose of providing such shareholders an opportunity to challenge the finding that the common interest community manager is insolvent. The relevant books and records of such insolvent common interest community manager shall remain intact and be made available to such shareholders for a period of 30 days after such notice is sent. The Board's finding of insolvency shall become final if a hearing before the Board is not requested by any such shareholder within such 30-day period. If, after such hearing, the Board finds that such common interest community manager was solvent, it shall rescind its order entered pursuant to this subsection and the merger or transfer of assets shall be rescinded. But if, after such hearing, the Board finds that such common interest community manager was insolvent, its order shall be final.

K. The provisions of this article are declared to be remedial. The purpose of this article is to protect the interests of associations adversely affected by common interest community managers who have breached their fiduciary duty. The provisions of this article shall be liberally administered in order to protect those interests and thereby the public's interest in the quality of management services provided by Virginia common interest community managers.

2008, cc. 851, 871; 2011, cc. 334, 605; 2019, c. 712; 2025, c. 105.

Article 2. Common Interest Community Management Information Fund; Common Interest Community Ombudsman; Common Interest Community Management Recovery Fund.

A. There is hereby created the Common Interest Community Management Recovery Fund, referred to in this section as "the Fund," to be used in the discretion of the Board to protect the interests of associations.

B. Each common interest community manager, at the time of initial application for licensure, and each association filing its first annual report after the effective date shall be assessed $25, which shall be specifically assigned to the Fund. Initial payments may be incorporated in any application fee payment or annual filing fee and transferred to the Fund by the Director within 30 days.

All assessments, except initial assessments, for the Fund shall be deposited within three business days after their receipt by the Director, in one or more federally insured banks, savings and loan associations, or savings banks located in the Commonwealth. Funds deposited in banks, savings institutions, or savings banks in excess of insurance afforded by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation or other federal insurance agency shall be secured under the Virginia Security for Public Deposits Act (§ 2.2-4400 et seq.). The deposit of these funds in federally insured banks, savings and loan associations, or savings banks located in the Commonwealth shall not be considered investment of such funds for purposes of this section. Funds maintained by the Director may be invested in securities that are legal investments for fiduciaries under the provisions of § 64.2-1502.

Interest earned on the deposits constituting the Fund shall be used for administering the Fund. The remainder of this interest, at the discretion of the Board, may be transferred to the Common Interest Community Management Information Fund, established pursuant to § 54.1-2354.2, or accrue to the Fund.

C. On and after July 1, 2011, the minimum balance of the Fund shall be $150,000. Whenever the Director determines that the principal balance of the Fund is or will be less than such minimum principal balance, the Director shall immediately inform the Board. At the same time, the Director may recommend that the Board transfer a fixed amount from the Common Interest Community Management Information Fund to the Fund to bring the principal balance of the Fund to the amount required by this subsection. Such transfer shall be considered by the Board within 30 days of the notification of the Director.

D. If any such transfer of funds is insufficient to bring the principal balance of the Fund to the minimum amount required by this section, or if a transfer to the Fund has not occurred, the Board shall assess each association and each common interest community manager, within 30 days of notification by the Director, a sum sufficient to bring the principal balance of the Fund to the required minimum amount. The amount of such assessment shall be allocated among the associations and common interest community managers in proportion to each payor's most recently paid annual assessment, or if an association or common interest community manager has not paid an annual assessment previously, in proportion to the average annual assessment most recently paid by associations or common interest community managers, respectively. The Board may order an assessment at any time in addition to any required assessment. Assessments made pursuant to this subsection may be issued by the Board (i) after a determination made by it or (ii) at the time of license renewal.

Notice to common interest community managers and the governing boards of associations of these assessments shall be by first-class mail, and payment of such assessments shall be made by first-class mail addressed to the Director within 45 days after the mailing of such notice.

E. If any common interest community manager fails to remit the required payment within 45 days of the mailing, the Director shall notify the common interest community manager by first-class mail at the latest address of record filed with the Board. If no payment has been received by the Director within 30 days after mailing the second notice, the license shall be automatically suspended. The license shall be restored only upon the actual receipt by the Director of the delinquent assessment.

F. If any association fails to remit the required payment within 45 days of the mailing, the Director shall notify the association by first-class mail at the latest address of record filed with the Board. If no payment has been received by the Director within 30 days after mailing the second notice, it shall be deemed a knowing and willful violation of this section by the governing board of the association.

G. At the close of each fiscal year, whenever the balance of the Fund exceeds $5 million, the amount in excess of $5 million shall be transferred to the Virginia Housing Trust Fund established pursuant to Chapter 9 (§ 36-141 et seq.) of Title 36. Except for payments of costs as set forth in this article and transfers pursuant to this subsection, there shall be no transfers out of the Fund, including transfers to the general fund, regardless of the balance of the Fund.

H. A claimant may seek recovery from the Fund subject to the following conditions:

1. A claimant may file a verified claim in writing to the Director for a recovery from the Fund.

2. Upon proper application to the Director, in those cases in which there are not sufficient funds to pay an award of reasonable fees, costs, and expenses to the receiver or to restore all funds that were or ought to have been held in a fiduciary capacity by the subject common interest community manager, the Director shall report to the Board the amount of any shortfall to the extent that there are not sufficient funds (i) to pay any award of fees, costs, and expenses pursuant to subsection H of § 54.1-2353 by the court appointing the receiver; or (ii) to restore all funds that were or ought to have been held in a fiduciary capacity by the subject common interest community manager, as certified by the court appointing the receiver.

3. If the Board finds there has been compliance with the required conditions, the Board shall issue a directive ordering payment of the amount of such shortfall to the claimant from the Fund, provided that in no event shall such payment exceed the balance in the Fund. When the Fund balance is not sufficient to pay the aggregate amount of such shortfall, the Board shall direct that payment be applied first in satisfaction of any award of reasonable fees, costs, and expenses to the receiver and second to restore the funds that were or ought to have been held in a fiduciary capacity by the subject common interest community manager. If the Board has reason to believe that there may be additional claims against the Fund, the Board may withhold any payment from the Fund for a period of not more than one year. After such one-year period, if the aggregate of claims received exceeds the Fund balance, the Fund balance shall be prorated by the Board among the claimants and paid in the above payment order from the Fund in proportion to the amounts of claims remaining unpaid.

4. The Director shall, subject to the limitations set forth in this subsection, pay to the claimant from the Fund such amount as shall be directed by the Board upon the execution and delivery to the Director by such claimant of an assignment to the Board of the claimant's rights on its behalf and on behalf of the associations receiving distributions from the Fund against the common interest community manager to the extent that such rights were satisfied from the Fund.

5. The claimant shall be notified in writing of the findings of the Board. The Board's findings shall be considered a case decision as defined in § 2.2-4001, and judicial review of these findings shall be in accordance with § 2.2-4025 of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.).

6. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the Board shall have the right to appeal a decision of any court that is contrary to any distribution recommended or authorized by it.

7. Upon payment by the Director to a claimant from the Fund as provided in this subsection, the Board shall immediately revoke the license of the common interest community manager whose actions resulted in payment from the Fund. The common interest community manager whose license was so revoked shall not be eligible to apply for a license as a common interest community manager until he has repaid in full the amount paid from the Fund on his account, plus interest at the judgment rate of interest from the date of payment from the Fund.

8. Nothing contained in this subsection shall limit the authority of the Board to take disciplinary action against any common interest community manager for any violation of statute or regulation, nor shall the repayment in full by a common interest community manager of the amount paid from the Fund on such common interest community manager's account nullify or modify the effect of any disciplinary proceeding against such common interest community manager for any such violation.

2008, cc. 851, 871, § 55-530.1; 2009, c. 557; 2013, c. 754; 2019, c. 712; 2025, c. 105.

Article 1. Common Interest Community Board.

Except as expressly provided in this article, provisions of this article may not be varied by agreement, and rights conferred by this article may not be waived. All management agreements entered into by common interest community managers shall comply with the terms of this article and the provisions of the Property Owners' Association Act (§ 55.1-1800 et seq.), the Virginia Condominium Act (§ 55.1-1900 et seq.), the Virginia Real Estate Cooperative Act (§ 55.1-2100 et seq.), or the Virginia Real Estate Time-Share Act (§ 55.1-2200 et seq.), as applicable.

2008, cc. 851, 871; 2019, c. 712.

Article 2. Common Interest Community Management Information Fund; Common Interest Community Ombudsman; Common Interest Community Management Recovery Fund.

As used in this article, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Balance of the fund" means cash, securities that are legal investments for fiduciaries under the provisions of subdivisions A 1, 2, and 4 of § 2.2-4519, and repurchase agreements secured by obligations of the United States government or any agency thereof, and shall not mean accounts receivable, judgments, notes, accrued interest, or other obligations to the fund.

"Claimant" means, upon proper application to the Director, a receiver for a common interest community manager appointed pursuant to § 54.1-2353 in those cases in which there are not sufficient funds to restore all funds that were or ought to have been held in a fiduciary capacity by the subject common interest community manager or to pay an award of reasonable fees, costs, and expenses to the receiver.

"Director" means the Director of the Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation.

1993, c. 958; 2008, cc. 851, 871, § 55-528; 2019, c. 712.

A. There is hereby created the Common Interest Community Management Information Fund, referred to in this section as "the Fund," to be used in the discretion of the Board to promote the improvement and more efficient operation of common interest communities through research and education. The Fund shall be established on the books of the Comptroller. The Fund shall consist of money paid into it pursuant to §§ 54.1-2349, 55.1-1835, 55.1-1980, and 55.1-2182, and such money shall be paid into the state treasury and credited to the Fund. Interest earned on moneys in the Fund shall remain in the Fund and be credited to it. Any moneys remaining in the Fund, including interest thereon, at the end of each fiscal year shall not revert to the general fund but, at the discretion of the Board, shall remain in the Fund or shall be transferred to the Common Interest Community Management Recovery Fund established pursuant to § 54.1-2354.5.

B. Expenses for the operations of the Office of the Common Interest Community Ombudsman, including the compensation paid to the Common Interest Community Ombudsman, shall be paid first from interest earned on deposits constituting the Fund and the balance from the moneys collected annually in the Fund. The Board may use the remainder of the interest earned on the balance of the Fund and of the moneys collected annually and deposited in the Fund for financing or promoting the following:

1. Information and research in the field of common interest community management and operation;

2. Expeditious and inexpensive procedures for resolving complaints about an association from members of the association or other citizens;

3. Seminars and educational programs designed to address topics of concern to community associations; and

4. Other programs deemed necessary and proper to accomplish the purpose of this article.

C. Following the close of any biennium, when the Common Interest Community Management Information Fund shows expenses allocated to it for the past biennium to be more than 10 percent greater or less than moneys collected on behalf of the Board, the Board shall revise the fees levied by it for placement into the Fund so that the fees are sufficient but not excessive to cover expenses. A fee established pursuant to § 55.1-1835, 55.1-1980, or 55.1-2182 shall not exceed $25 unless such fee is based on the number of units or lots in the association.

1993, c. 958, § 55-529; 2008, cc. 851, 871; 2019, cc. 391, 712.

A. The Director in accordance with § 54.1-303 shall appoint a Common Interest Community Ombudsman (the Ombudsman) and shall establish the Office of the Common Interest Community Ombudsman (the Office). The Ombudsman shall be a member in good standing in the Virginia State Bar. All state agencies shall assist and cooperate with the Office in the performance of its duties under this article.

B. The Office shall:

1. Assist members in understanding rights and the processes available to them according to the laws and regulations governing common interest communities and respond to general inquiries;

2. Make available, either separately or through an existing website, information concerning common interest communities and such additional information as may be deemed appropriate;

3. Receive notices of final adverse decisions and may either (i) refer such decision to the Board for further review of whether such decision is in conflict with laws or Board regulations governing common interest communities or interpretations thereof by the Board or (ii) make a determination of whether a final adverse decision is in conflict with laws or Board regulations governing common interest communities or interpretations thereof by the Board and promptly notify the complainant of such determination. If the Office determines that such conflict exists, the Office shall promptly notify the governing board, and if applicable the common interest community manager, of the association that issued the final adverse decision that such decision is in conflict with laws or Board regulations governing common interest communities or interpretations thereof by the Board. If within 365 days of issuing such determination the Ombudsman receives a subsequent notice of final adverse decision for the same violation, the Office shall refer the matter to the Board;

4. Upon request, assist members in understanding the rights and processes available under the laws and regulations governing common interest communities and provide referrals to public and private agencies offering alternative dispute resolution services, with a goal of reducing and resolving conflicts among associations and their members;

5. Ensure that members have access to the services provided through the Office and that the members receive timely responses from the representatives of the Office to the inquiries;

6. Maintain data on inquiries received, referrals made to the Board, types of assistance requested, notices of final adverse decisions received, actions taken, and the disposition of each such matter;

7. Upon request to the Director by (i) any of the standing committees of the General Assembly having jurisdiction over common interest communities or (ii) the Housing Commission, provide to the Director for dissemination to the requesting parties assessments of proposed and existing common interest community laws and other studies of common interest community issues;

8. Monitor changes in federal and state laws relating to common interest communities;

9. Provide information to the Director that will permit the Director to report annually on the activities of the Office of the Common Interest Community Ombudsman to the standing committees of the General Assembly having jurisdiction over common interest communities and to the Housing Commission. The Director's report shall be filed by December 1 of each year and shall include a summary of significant new developments in federal and state laws relating to common interest communities each year; and

10. Carry out activities as the Board determines to be appropriate.

1993, c. 958, § 55-530; 1997, c. 222; 1998, c. 463; 2001, c. 816; 2008, cc. 851, 871; 2010, cc. 59, 208; 2012, cc. 481, 797; 2019, c. 712; 2023, cc. 20, 21.

A. The Board shall establish by regulation a requirement that each association shall establish reasonable procedures for the resolution of written complaints from the members of the association and other citizens. Each association shall adhere to the written procedures established pursuant to this subsection when resolving association member and citizen complaints. The procedures shall include the following:

1. A record of each complaint shall be maintained for no less than one year after the association acts upon the complaint.

2. Such association shall provide complaint forms or written procedures to be given to persons who wish to register written complaints. The forms or procedures shall include the address and telephone number of the association or its common interest community manager to which complaints shall be directed and the mailing address, telephone number, and electronic mailing address of the Office. The forms and written procedures shall include a clear and understandable description of the complainant's right to give notice of adverse decisions pursuant to this section.

B. A complainant may give notice to the Ombudsman of any final adverse decision in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Board. The notice shall be filed within 30 days of the final adverse decision, shall be in writing on forms prescribed by the Board, shall include copies of all records pertinent to the decision, and shall be accompanied by a $25 filing fee. The fee shall be collected by the Director and paid directly into the state treasury and credited to the Common Interest Community Management Information Fund pursuant to § 54.1-2354.2. The Board may, for good cause shown, waive or refund the filing fee upon a finding that payment of the filing fee will cause undue financial hardship for the member. The Ombudsman shall provide a copy of the written notice to the governing board, and if applicable the common interest community manager, of the association that made the final adverse decision.

C. The Director or his designee may request additional information concerning any notice of final adverse decision from the association that made the final adverse decision. The association shall provide such information to the Director within a reasonable time upon request. If the Director upon review determines that the final adverse decision may be in conflict with laws or regulations governing common interest communities or interpretations thereof by the Board, the Director shall provide the complainant and the governing board, and if applicable the common interest community manager, of the association with information concerning such laws or regulations governing common interest communities or interpretations thereof by the Board. The determination of whether the final adverse decision may be in conflict with laws or regulations governing common interest communities or interpretations thereof by the Board shall be final and not subject to further review. If within 365 days of issuing a determination that an adverse decision is in conflict with laws or Board regulations governing common interest communities or interpretations thereof by the Board the Director receives a subsequent notice of final adverse decision for the same violation, the Director shall refer the repeat violation to the Board, which shall take action in accordance with § 54.1-2351 or 54.1-2352, as deemed appropriate by the Board.

1993, c. 958, § 55-530; 1997, c. 222; 1998, c. 463; 2001, c. 816; 2008, cc. 851, 871; 2010, cc. 59, 208; 2012, cc. 481, 797; 2019, c. 712; 2023, cc. 20, 21.

Chapter 23.4. Natural Gas Automobile Mechanics and Technicians.

Repealed by Acts 2020, c. 1168, cl. 1.

Subtitle III. Professions and Occupations Regulated by Boards within the Department of Health Professions

Chapter 24. General Provisions.

The general powers and duties of health regulatory boards shall be:

1. To establish the qualifications for registration, certification, licensure, permit, or the issuance of a multistate licensure privilege in accordance with the applicable law that are necessary to ensure competence and integrity to engage in the regulated professions.

2. To examine or cause to be examined applicants for certification, licensure, or registration. Unless otherwise required by law, examinations shall be administered in writing or shall be a demonstration of manual skills.

3. To register, certify, license, or issue a multistate licensure privilege to qualified applicants as practitioners of the particular profession or professions regulated by such board.

4. To establish schedules for renewals of registration, certification, licensure, permit, and the issuance of a multistate licensure privilege.

5. To levy and collect fees for application processing, examination, registration, certification, permitting, or licensure or the issuance of a multistate licensure privilege and renewal that are sufficient to cover all expenses for the administration and operation of the Department of Health Professions and the health regulatory boards.

6. To promulgate regulations in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) that are reasonable and necessary to administer effectively the regulatory system, which shall include provisions for the satisfaction of board-required continuing education for individuals registered, certified, licensed, or issued a multistate licensure privilege by a health regulatory board through delivery of health care services, without compensation, to low-income individuals receiving health services through a local health department or a free clinic organized in whole or primarily for the delivery of those health services. Such regulations shall not conflict with the purposes and intent of this chapter or of Chapter 1 (§ 54.1-100 et seq.) and Chapter 25 (§ 54.1-2500 et seq.).

7. To revoke, suspend, restrict, or refuse to issue or renew a registration, certificate, license, permit, or multistate licensure privilege that such board has authority to issue for causes enumerated in applicable law and regulations.

8. To appoint designees from their membership or immediate staff to coordinate with the Director and the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program Committee and to implement, as is necessary, the provisions of Chapter 25.1 (§ 54.1-2515 et seq.). Each health regulatory board shall appoint one such designee.

9. To take appropriate disciplinary action for violations of applicable law and regulations and to accept, in their discretion, the surrender of a license, certificate, registration, permit, or multistate licensure privilege in lieu of disciplinary action.

10. To appoint a special conference committee, composed of not less than two members of a health regulatory board or, when required for special conference committees of the Board of Medicine, not less than two members of the Board and one member of the relevant advisory board, or, when required for special conference committees of the Board of Nursing, not less than one member of the Board and one member of the relevant advisory board, to act in accordance with § 2.2-4019 upon receipt of information that a practitioner or permit holder of the appropriate board may be subject to disciplinary action or to consider an application for a license, certification, registration, permit, or multistate licensure privilege in nursing. The special conference committee may (i) exonerate; (ii) reinstate; (iii) place the practitioner or permit holder on probation with such terms as it may deem appropriate; (iv) reprimand; (v) modify a previous order; (vi) impose a monetary penalty pursuant to § 54.1-2401, (vii) deny or grant an application for licensure, certification, registration, permit, or multistate licensure privilege; and (viii) issue a restricted license, certification, registration, permit, or multistate licensure privilege subject to terms and conditions. The order of the special conference committee shall become final 30 days after service of the order unless a written request to the board for a hearing is received within such time. If service of the decision to a party is accomplished by mail, three days shall be added to the 30-day period. Upon receiving a timely written request for a hearing, the board or a panel of the board shall then proceed with a hearing as provided in § 2.2-4020, and the action of the committee shall be vacated. This subdivision shall not be construed to limit the authority of a board to delegate to an appropriately qualified agency subordinate, as defined in § 2.2-4001, the authority to conduct informal fact-finding proceedings in accordance with § 2.2-4019. The recommendation of such subordinate may be considered by a panel consisting of at least five board members, or, if a quorum of the board is less than five members, consisting of a quorum of the members, convened for the purpose of issuing a case decision. Criteria for the appointment of an agency subordinate shall be set forth in regulations adopted by the board.

11. To convene, at their discretion, a panel consisting of at least five board members or, if a quorum of the board is less than five members, consisting of a quorum of the members to conduct formal proceedings pursuant to § 2.2-4020, decide the case, and issue a final agency case decision. Any decision rendered by majority vote of such panel shall have the same effect as if made by the full board and shall be subject to court review in accordance with the Administrative Process Act. No member who participates in an informal proceeding conducted in accordance with § 2.2-4019 shall serve on a panel conducting formal proceedings pursuant to § 2.2-4020 to consider the same matter.

12. To issue inactive licenses or certificates and promulgate regulations to carry out such purpose. Such regulations shall include, but not be limited to, the qualifications, renewal fees, and conditions for reactivation of licenses or certificates.

13. To meet by telephone conference call to consider settlement proposals in matters pending before special conference committees convened pursuant to this section, or matters referred for formal proceedings pursuant to § 2.2-4020 to a health regulatory board or a panel of the board or to consider modifications of previously issued board orders when such considerations have been requested by either of the parties.

14. To request and accept a confidential consent agreement, in lieu of disciplinary action, from a certified, registered, or licensed practitioner; a facility holding a license, certification, registration, or permit; or a person holding a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing. A confidential consent agreement shall be subject to the confidentiality provisions of § 54.1-2400.2 and shall not be disclosed by a practitioner or facility. A confidential consent agreement shall include findings of fact and may include an admission or a finding of a violation. A confidential consent agreement shall not be considered either a notice or order of any health regulatory board, but it may be considered by a board in future disciplinary proceedings. A confidential consent agreement shall be entered into only in cases involving minor misconduct where there is little or no injury to a patient or the public and little likelihood of repetition by the practitioner or facility. A board shall not enter into a confidential consent agreement if there is probable cause to believe the practitioner or facility has (i) demonstrated gross negligence or intentional misconduct in the care of patients or (ii) conducted his practice in such a manner as to be a danger to the health and welfare of his patients or the public. A certified, registered, or licensed practitioner, a facility holding a license, certification, registration, or permit, or a person holding a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing who has entered into two confidential consent agreements involving a standard of care violation within the 10-year period immediately preceding a board's receipt of the most recent report or complaint being considered shall receive public discipline for any subsequent violation within the 10-year period unless the board finds there are sufficient facts and circumstances to rebut the presumption that the disciplinary action be made public.

15. When a board has probable cause to believe a practitioner is unable to practice with reasonable skill and safety to patients because of excessive use of alcohol or drugs or physical or mental illness, the board, after preliminary investigation by an informal fact-finding proceeding, may direct that the practitioner submit to a mental or physical examination. Failure to submit to the examination shall constitute grounds for disciplinary action. Any practitioner affected by this subsection shall be afforded reasonable opportunity to demonstrate that he is competent to practice with reasonable skill and safety to patients. For the purposes of this subdivision, "practitioner" shall include any person holding a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing.

16. To promulgate regulations establishing a licensure by endorsement pathway for qualified applicants as practitioners of the particular profession or professions regulated by such health regulatory board. Each such health regulatory board's initial adoption of regulations shall be exempt from the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.), except that the enacting health regulatory board shall provide an opportunity for public comment on the regulations prior to adoption of such regulations.

1988, c. 765; 1992, cc. 659, 890; 1997, cc. 439, 564; 1998, c. 469; 2002, cc. 455, 698; 2003, cc. 753, 762; 2004, cc. 49, 64; 2009, cc. 472, 534; 2010, c. 414; 2014, c. 426; 2016, c. 82; 2017, c. 423; 2023, c. 191; 2025, cc. 341, 553, 561.

As used in this subtitle, "laser surgery" means treatment through revision, destruction, incision or other structural alteration of human tissue using laser technology. Under this definition, the continued use of laser technology solely for nonsurgical purposes of examination and diagnosis shall be permitted for those professions whose licenses permit such use.

1997, c. 569.

A. For the purposes of this subtitle, except as used in Chapter 38 (§ 54.1-3800 et seq.) related to veterinary medicine, "surgery" means the structural alteration of the human body by the incision or cutting into of tissue for the purpose of diagnostic or therapeutic treatment of conditions or disease processes by any instrument causing localized alteration or transposition of live human tissue, but does not include the following: procedures for the removal of superficial foreign bodies from the human body, punctures, injections, dry needling, acupuncture, or removal of dead tissue. For the purposes of this section, incision shall not mean the scraping or brushing of live tissue.

B. No person shall perform surgery unless he is (i) licensed by the Board of Medicine as a doctor of medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry; (ii) licensed by the Board of Dentistry as a doctor of dentistry; (iii) jointly licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing as an advanced practice registered nurse; (iv) a physician assistant acting under the supervision of a doctor of medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry; (v) a licensed midwife in the performance of episiotomies during childbirth; (vi) licensed by the Board of Optometry as an optometrist and certified to perform laser surgery pursuant to § 54.1-3225; or (vii) acting pursuant to the orders and under the appropriate supervision of a licensed doctor of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, or dentistry.

C. Nothing in this section shall be construed to restrict, limit, change, or expand the scope of practice in effect on January 1, 2012, of any profession licensed by any of the health regulatory boards within the Department of Health Professions.

2012, cc. 15, 124; 2022, cc. 16, 17; 2023, c. 183.

A. As used in this section:

"Contact lens" means any lens that is placed directly on the surface of the eye, whether or not the lens is intended to correct a visual defect, including any cosmetic, therapeutic, or corrective contact lens.

"Ophthalmic prescription" means a handwritten or electronic order of a provider that includes (i) in the case of contact lenses, all information required by the Fairness to Contact Lens Consumers Act, 15 U.S.C. §§ 7601 et seq., (ii) in the case of prescription eyeglasses, all information required by the Ophthalmic Practice Rule, also known as the Eyeglass Rule, 16 C.F.R. Part 456, and (iii) necessary and appropriate information for the dispensing of prescription eyeglasses or contact lenses for a patient, including the provider's name, physical address at which the provider practices, and telephone number.

"Provider" means an ophthalmologist licensed by the Board of Medicine pursuant to Chapter 29 (§ 54.1-2900 et seq.) or an optometrist licensed by the Board of Optometry pursuant to Chapter 32 (§ 54.1-3200 et seq.).

B. For the purpose of a provider prescribing spectacles, eyeglasses, lenses, or contact lenses to a patient, a provider shall establish a bona fide provider-patient relationship by an examination (i) in person, (ii) through face-to-face interactive, two-way, real-time communication, or (iii) store-and-forward technologies when all of the following conditions are met: (a) the provider obtains an updated medical history at the time of prescribing; (b) the provider makes a diagnosis at the time of prescribing; (c) the provider conforms to the standard of care expected of in-person care as appropriate to the patient's age and presenting condition, including when the standard of care requires the use of diagnostic testing and performance of a physical examination, which may be carried out through the use of peripheral devices appropriate to the patient's condition; (d) the ophthalmic prescription is not determined solely by use of an online questionnaire; (e) the provider is actively licensed in the Commonwealth and authorized to prescribe; and (f) upon request, the prescriber provides patient records in a timely manner in accordance with the provisions of § 32.1-127.1:03 and all other state and federal laws and regulations.

C. The requirements of this section shall not apply to (i) the sale of eyeglasses not designed to correct or enhance vision by addressing the visual needs of the individual wearer and that may be known as over-the-counter eyeglasses or readers or (ii) a licensed optician providing services in accordance with § 54.1-1509.

D. The provisions of this section shall not apply to ophthalmic prescriptions written prior to July 1, 2017.

2017, cc. 169, 184.

A. In order to protect the privacy and security of health professionals, the posting of addresses to the on-line licensure lookup or any successor in interest thereof shall only disclose the city or county provided to the Department and shall not include any street, rural delivery route, or post office address. However, the street address of facilities regulated by the Boards of Funeral Directors and Embalmers, Nursing, Pharmacy, and Veterinary Medicine shall be posted.

B. The Department shall collect an official address of record from each health professional licensed, registered, or certified by a health regulatory board within the Department, to be used by the Department and relevant health regulatory boards for agency purposes, including workforce planning and emergency contact pursuant to § 54.1-2506.1. Such official address of record shall otherwise remain confidential, shall not be provided to any private entity for resale to another private entity or to the public, and shall be exempt from disclosure under the Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq.).

C. In addition, the Department shall provide an opportunity for the health professional to provide a second address, for the purpose of public dissemination. Health professionals may choose to provide a work address, a post office box, or a home address as the public address. In collecting such public address information, the Department shall notify health professionals that this address may be publicly disclosed, and is subject to the Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq.). Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection B, if a health professional does not provide a second address, his official address of record shall also be used as the public address for the purpose of public dissemination.

D. The Department shall develop a procedure for health professionals to update their address information at regular intervals, and may charge a fee sufficient to cover the costs for such updates.

2003, c. 310; 2009, c. 687.

Every health regulatory board within the Department of Health Professions shall report information prescribed in subsection B of § 32.1-23.3 for persons licensed, registered, or certified or previously licensed, registered, or certified by the health regulatory board to the Department of Health for inclusion in the Eligible Health Care Provider Reserve Directory. However, a health regulatory board shall not report information for any such person who has notified the health regulatory board in writing that he does not want his information included in the Eligible Health Care Provider Reserve Directory.

2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 530.

A. As used in this section:

"Certified substance abuse counselor" means a person certified to provide substance abuse counseling in a state-approved public or private substance abuse program or facility.

"Client" or "patient" means any person who is voluntarily or involuntarily receiving mental health services or substance abuse services from any mental health service provider.

"Clinical psychologist" means a person who practices clinical psychology as defined in § 54.1-3600.

"Clinical social worker" means a person who practices social work as defined in § 54.1-3700.

"Licensed practical nurse" means a person licensed to practice practical nursing as defined in § 54.1-3000.

"Licensed substance abuse treatment practitioner" means any person licensed to engage in the practice of substance abuse treatment as defined in § 54.1-3500.

"Marriage and family therapist" means a person licensed to engage in the practice of marriage and family therapy as defined in § 54.1-3500.

"Mental health professional" means a person who by education and experience is professionally qualified and licensed in Virginia to provide counseling interventions designed to facilitate an individual's achievement of human development goals and remediate mental, emotional, or behavioral disorders and associated distresses which interfere with mental health and development.

"Mental health service provider" or "provider" refers to any of the following: (i) a person who provides professional services as a certified substance abuse counselor, clinical psychologist, clinical social worker, licensed substance abuse treatment practitioner, licensed practical nurse, marriage and family therapist, mental health professional, physician, physician assistant, professional counselor, psychologist, qualified mental health professional, registered nurse, registered peer recovery specialist, school psychologist, or social worker; (ii) a professional corporation, all of whose shareholders or members are so licensed; or (iii) a partnership, all of whose partners are so licensed.

"Professional counselor" means a person who practices counseling as defined in § 54.1-3500.

"Psychologist" means a person who practices psychology as defined in § 54.1-3600.

"Qualified mental health professional" has the same meaning as provided in § 54.1-3500.

"Registered nurse" means a person licensed to practice professional nursing as defined in § 54.1-3000.

"Registered peer recovery specialist" means a person who by education and experience is professionally qualified and registered by the Board of Counseling to provide collaborative services to assist individuals in achieving sustained recovery from the effects of addiction or mental illness, or both. A registered peer recovery specialist shall provide such services as an employee or independent contractor of the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, a provider licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, a practitioner licensed by or holding a permit issued from the Department of Health Professions, or a facility licensed by the Department of Health.

"School psychologist" means a person who practices school psychology as defined in § 54.1-3600.

"Social worker" means a person who practices social work as defined in § 54.1-3700.

B. A mental health service provider has a duty to take precautions to protect third parties from violent behavior or other serious harm only when the client has orally, in writing, or via sign language, communicated to the provider a specific and immediate threat to cause serious bodily injury or death to an identified or readily identifiable person or persons, if the provider reasonably believes, or should believe according to the standards of his profession, that the client has the intent and ability to carry out that threat immediately or imminently. If the third party is a child, in addition to taking precautions to protect the child from the behaviors in the above types of threats, the provider also has a duty to take precautions to protect the child if the client threatens to engage in behaviors that would constitute physical abuse or sexual abuse as defined in § 18.2-67.10. The duty to protect does not attach unless the threat has been communicated to the provider by the threatening client while the provider is engaged in his professional duties.

C. The duty set forth in subsection B is discharged by a mental health service provider who takes one or more of the following actions:

1. Seeks involuntary admission of the client under Article 16 (§ 16.1-335 et seq.) of Chapter 11 of Title 16.1 or Chapter 8 (§ 37.2-800 et seq.) of Title 37.2.

2. Makes reasonable attempts to warn the potential victims or the parent or guardian of the potential victim if the potential victim is under the age of 18.

3. Makes reasonable efforts to notify a law-enforcement official having jurisdiction in the client's or potential victim's place of residence or place of work, or place of work of the parent or guardian if the potential victim is under age 18, or both.

4. Takes steps reasonably available to the provider to prevent the client from using physical violence or other means of harm to others until the appropriate law-enforcement agency can be summoned and takes custody of the client.

5. Provides therapy or counseling to the client or patient in the session in which the threat has been communicated until the mental health service provider reasonably believes that the client no longer has the intent or the ability to carry out the threat.

6. In the case of a registered peer recovery specialist, or a qualified mental health professional who is not otherwise licensed by a health regulatory board at the Department of Health Professions, reports immediately to a licensed mental health service provider to take one or more of the actions set forth in this subsection.

D. A mental health service provider shall not be held civilly liable to any person for:

1. Breaching confidentiality with the limited purpose of protecting third parties by communicating the threats described in subsection B made by his clients to potential third party victims or law-enforcement agencies or by taking any of the actions specified in subsection C.

2. Failing to predict, in the absence of a threat described in subsection B, that the client would cause the third party serious physical harm.

3. Failing to take precautions other than those enumerated in subsection C to protect a potential third party victim from the client's violent behavior.

1994, c. 958; 1997, c. 901; 2005, c. 716; 2010, cc. 778, 825; 2017, cc. 61, 417, 418, 426; 2018, cc. 171, 803; 2019, cc. 101, 217.

A. Any reports, information or records received and maintained by the Department of Health Professions or any health regulatory board in connection with possible disciplinary proceedings, including any material received or developed by a board during an investigation or proceeding, shall be strictly confidential. The Department of Health Professions or a board may only disclose such confidential information:

1. In a disciplinary proceeding before a board or in any subsequent trial or appeal of an action or order, or to the respondent in entering into a confidential consent agreement under § 54.1-2400;

2. To regulatory authorities concerned with granting, limiting or denying licenses, certificates or registrations to practice a health profession, including the coordinated licensure information system as defined in § 54.1-3040.2 and the data system as set forth in § 54.1-3492;

3. To the Virginia Department of Education or the State Council of Higher Education for Virginia, if such information relates to nursing or nurse aide education programs regulated by the Board of Nursing;

4. To hospital committees concerned with granting, limiting or denying hospital privileges if a final determination regarding a violation has been made;

5. Pursuant to an order of a court of competent jurisdiction for good cause arising from extraordinary circumstances being shown;

6. To qualified personnel for bona fide research or educational purposes, if personally identifiable information relating to any person is first deleted. Such release shall be made pursuant to a written agreement to ensure compliance with this section; or

7. To the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program within the Department of Health Professions in connection with health practitioners who apply to or participate in the Program.

B. In no event shall confidential information received, maintained or developed by the Department of Health Professions or any board, or disclosed by the Department of Health Professions or a board to others, pursuant to this section, be available for discovery or court subpoena or introduced into evidence in any civil action. This section shall not, however, be construed to inhibit an investigation or prosecution under Article 1 (§ 18.2-247 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2.

C. Any claim of a physician-patient or practitioner-patient privilege shall not prevail in any investigation or proceeding by any health regulatory board acting within the scope of its authority. The disclosure, however, of any information pursuant to this provision shall not be deemed a waiver of such privilege in any other proceeding.

D. This section shall not prohibit the Director of the Department of Health Professions, after consultation with the relevant health regulatory board president or his designee, from disclosing to the Attorney General, or the appropriate attorney for the Commonwealth, investigatory information which indicates a possible violation of any provision of criminal law, including the laws relating to the manufacture, distribution, dispensing, prescribing or administration of drugs, other than drugs classified as Schedule VI drugs and devices, by any individual regulated by any health regulatory board.

E. This section shall not prohibit the Director of the Department of Health Professions from disclosing matters listed in subdivision A 1, 2, or 3 of § 54.1-2909; from making the reports of aggregate information and summaries required by § 54.1-2400.3; or from disclosing the information required to be made available to the public pursuant to § 54.1-2910.1.

F. This section shall not prohibit the Director of the Department of Health Professions, following consultation with the relevant health regulatory board president or his designee, from disclosing information about a suspected violation of state or federal law or regulation to other agencies within the Health and Human Resources Secretariat or to state or federal law-enforcement agencies having jurisdiction over the suspected violation or requesting an inspection or investigation of a licensee by such state or federal agency when the Director has reason to believe that a possible violation of state or federal law has occurred. Such disclosure shall not exceed the minimum information necessary to permit the state or federal agency having jurisdiction over the suspected violation of state or federal law to conduct an inspection or investigation. Disclosures by the Director pursuant to this subsection shall not be limited to requests for inspections or investigations of licensees. Nothing in this subsection shall require the Director to make any disclosure. Nothing in this section shall permit any agency to which the Director makes a disclosure pursuant to this section to re-disclose any information, reports, records, or materials received from the Department.

G. Whenever a complaint or report has been filed about a person licensed, certified, or registered by a health regulatory board, the source and the subject of a complaint or report shall be provided information about the investigative and disciplinary procedures at the Department of Health Professions. Prior to interviewing a licensee who is the subject of a complaint or report, or at the time that the licensee is first notified in writing of the complaint or report, whichever shall occur first, the licensee shall be provided with a copy of the complaint or report and any records or supporting documentation, unless such provision would materially obstruct a criminal or regulatory investigation. If the relevant board concludes that a disciplinary proceeding will not be instituted, the board may send an advisory letter to the person who was the subject of the complaint or report. The relevant board may also inform the source of the complaint or report (i) that an investigation has been conducted, (ii) that the matter was concluded without a disciplinary proceeding, (iii) of the process the board followed in making its determination, and (iv), if appropriate, that an advisory letter from the board has been communicated to the person who was the subject of the complaint or report. In providing such information, the board shall inform the source of the complaint or report that he is subject to the requirements of this section relating to confidentiality and discovery.

H. Orders and notices of the health regulatory boards relating to disciplinary actions, other than confidential exhibits described in subsection K, shall be disclosed. Information on the date and location of any disciplinary proceeding, allegations against the respondent, and the list of statutes and regulations the respondent is alleged to have violated shall be provided to the source of the complaint or report by the relevant board prior to the proceeding. The source shall be notified of the disposition of a disciplinary case.

I. This section shall not prohibit investigative staff authorized under § 54.1-2506 or investigative staff of any other agency to which disclosure of information about a suspected violation of state or federal law or regulation is authorized by subsection F from interviewing fact witnesses, disclosing to fact witnesses the identity of the subject of the complaint or report, or reviewing with fact witnesses any portion of records or other supporting documentation necessary to refresh the fact witnesses' recollection.

J. Any person found guilty of the unlawful disclosure of confidential information possessed by a health regulatory board shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

K. In disciplinary actions in which a practitioner is or may be unable to practice with reasonable skill and safety to patients and the public because of a mental or physical disability, a health regulatory board shall consider whether to disclose and may decide not to disclose in its notice or order the practitioner's health records, as defined in § 32.1-127.1:03, or his health services, as defined in § 32.1-127.1:03. Such information may be considered by the relevant board in a closed hearing in accordance with subdivision A 16 of § 2.2-3711 and included in a confidential exhibit to a notice or order. The public notice or order shall identify, if known, the practitioner's mental or physical disability that is the basis for its determination. In the event that the relevant board, in its discretion, determines that this subsection should apply, information contained in the confidential exhibit shall remain part of the confidential record before the relevant board and is subject to court review under the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) and to release in accordance with this section.

1997, c. 698; 1998, c. 744; 1999, c. 888; 2003, cc. 753, 762; 2004, c. 49; 2006, cc. 155, 184; 2007, c. 395; 2009, cc. 342, 472; 2015, c. 114; 2016, c. 222; 2017, c. 616; 2019, cc. 300, 418, 663.

In addition to the information required by § 54.1-114, the Director shall include in the Department's biennial report for each of the health regulatory boards the number of reports or complaints of misconduct received and the investigations, charges, findings, and sanctions resulting therefrom. The report shall reflect the categories of allegations, kinds of complaints and the rates of disciplinary activity for the various regulated professions and the health regulatory boards having jurisdiction; summaries explaining the reported data shall be included with the report. Further, the report shall specify the number of cases for each profession regulated by a health regulatory board by category of violation, including, but not limited to, standard of care violations, in which (i) a sanction was imposed; (ii) a confidential consent agreement was accepted; and (iii) more than two confidential consent agreements involving a standard of care violation were accepted by the relevant board for the same practitioner in a 10-year period. The information shall be reported only in the aggregate without reference to any individual's name or identifying particulars. In those portions of this report relating to the Board of Medicine, the Director shall include a summary of the data required by § 54.1-2910.1.

The Director shall also include in the Department's biennial report for each health regulatory board (i) case processing time standards for resolving disciplinary cases, (ii) an analysis of the percentage of cases resolved during the last two fiscal years that did not meet such standards, (iii) a six-year trend analysis of the time required to process, investigate, and adjudicate cases, and (iv) a detailed reporting of staffing levels for the six-year period for each job classification that supports the disciplinary process. However, the initial biennial report shall require a four-year trend analysis of the time required to process, investigate, and adjudicate cases and a detailed reporting of staffing levels for the four-year period for each job classification that supports the disciplinary process.

1997, c. 698; 1998, c. 744; 2003, cc. 753, 762.

A. Any mental health service provider, as defined in § 54.1-2400.1, shall, upon learning of evidence that indicates a reasonable probability that another mental health provider is or may be guilty of a violation of standards of conduct as defined in statute or regulation, advise his patient of his right to report such misconduct to the Department of Health Professions, hereinafter referred to as the "Department."

B. The mental health service provider shall provide relevant information to the patient, including, but not limited to, the Department's toll-free complaint hotline number for consumer complaints and written information, published by the Department of Health Professions, explaining how to file a report. The mental health service provider shall document in the patient's record the alleged misconduct, the category of licensure or certification, and approximate dates of treatment, if known, of the mental health service provider who will be the subject of the report, and the action taken by the mental health service provider to inform the patient of his right to file a complaint with the Department of Health Professions.

C. Any mental health service provider informing a patient of his right to file a complaint against a regulated person and providing the information required by this section shall be immune from any civil liability or criminal prosecution resulting therefrom unless such person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

D. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, any person required to inform a patient of his right to file a complaint against a regulated person pursuant to this section who fails to do so shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed $100.

2000, c. 578.

Repealed by Acts 2018, cc. 170 and 381, cl. 2.

A. The chief executive officer and the chief of staff of every hospital or other health care institution in the Commonwealth, the director of every licensed home health or hospice organization, the director of every accredited home health organization exempt from licensure, the administrator of every licensed assisted living facility, and the administrator of every provider licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services in the Commonwealth shall report within 30 days, except as provided in subdivisions 1 and 2, to the Director of the Department of Health Professions, or in the case of a director of a home health or hospice organization, to the Office of Licensure and Certification at the Department of Health (the Office), the following information regarding any person (i) licensed, certified, or registered by a health regulatory board or (ii) holding a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing or an applicant for licensure, certification or registration unless exempted under subsection E:

1. Any information of which he may become aware in his official capacity indicating a reasonable belief that such a health professional has been involuntarily admitted as a patient, either in his own institution or any other health care institution, for treatment of substance abuse or a psychiatric illness. The report required by this subdivision shall be made within five days of the date on which the chief executive officer, chief of staff, director, or administrator learns of the health care professional's involuntary admission.

2. Any information of which he may become aware in his official capacity indicating a reasonable belief that such a health professional has been voluntarily admitted as a patient, either at his institution or any other health care institution, for treatment of a substance abuse or psychiatric illness and such substance abuse or psychiatric illness may continue for more than 30 days after admission. A report required by this subdivision shall be made within five days after the 30-day period concludes unless the physician, physician assistant, or nurse practitioner treating the health professional for substance abuse or psychiatric illness provides written confirmation to the entity required to make such report that the health professional no longer is believed to be a danger to himself, the public, or his patients.

3. Any information of which he may become aware in his official capacity indicating a reasonable belief, after review and, if necessary, an investigation or consultation with the appropriate internal boards or committees authorized to impose disciplinary action on a health professional, that a health professional may have engaged in unethical, fraudulent or unprofessional conduct as defined by the pertinent licensing statutes and regulations. The report required under this subdivision shall be submitted within 30 days of the date that the chief executive officer, chief of staff, director, or administrator determines that such reasonable belief exists.

4. Any disciplinary proceeding begun by the institution, organization, facility, or provider as a result of conduct involving (i) intentional or negligent conduct that causes or is likely to cause injury to a patient or patients, (ii) professional ethics, (iii) professional incompetence, (iv) moral turpitude, or (v) substance abuse. The report required under this subdivision shall be submitted within 30 days of the date of written communication to the health professional notifying him of the initiation of a disciplinary proceeding.

5. Any disciplinary action taken during or at the conclusion of disciplinary proceedings or while under investigation, including but not limited to denial or termination of employment, denial or termination of privileges or restriction of privileges that results from conduct involving (i) intentional or negligent conduct that causes or is likely to cause injury to a patient or patients, (ii) professional ethics, (iii) professional incompetence, (iv) moral turpitude, or (v) substance abuse. The report required under this subdivision shall be submitted within 30 days of the date of written communication to the health professional notifying him of any disciplinary action.

6. The voluntary resignation from the staff of the health care institution, home health or hospice organization, assisted living facility, or provider, or voluntary restriction or expiration of privileges at the institution, organization, facility, or provider, of any health professional while such health professional is under investigation or is the subject of disciplinary proceedings taken or begun by the institution, organization, facility, or provider or a committee thereof for any reason related to possible intentional or negligent conduct that causes or is likely to cause injury to a patient or patients, medical incompetence, unprofessional conduct, moral turpitude, mental or physical impairment, or substance abuse.

Any report required by this section shall be in writing directed to the Director of the Department of Health Professions or to the Director of the Office of Licensure and Certification at the Department of Health, shall give the name, address, and date of birth of the person who is the subject of the report and shall fully describe the circumstances surrounding the facts required to be reported. The report shall include the names and contact information of individuals with knowledge about the facts required to be reported and the names and contact information of individuals from whom the hospital or health care institution, organization, facility, or provider sought information to substantiate the facts required to be reported. All relevant medical records shall be attached to the report if patient care or the health professional's health status is at issue. The reporting hospital, health care institution, home health or hospice organization, assisted living facility, or provider shall also provide notice to the Department or the Office that it has submitted a report to the National Practitioner Data Bank under the Health Care Quality Improvement Act (42 U.S.C. § 11101 et seq.). The reporting hospital, health care institution, home health or hospice organization, assisted living facility, or provider shall give the health professional who is the subject of the report an opportunity to review the report. The health professional may submit a separate report if he disagrees with the substance of the report.

This section shall not be construed to require the hospital, health care institution, home health or hospice organization, assisted living facility, or provider to submit any proceedings, minutes, records, or reports that are privileged under § 8.01-581.17, except that the provisions of § 8.01-581.17 shall not bar (i) any report required by this section or (ii) any requested medical records that are necessary to investigate unprofessional conduct reported pursuant to this subtitle or unprofessional conduct that should have been reported pursuant to this subtitle. Under no circumstances shall compliance with this section be construed to waive or limit the privilege provided in § 8.01-581.17. No person or entity shall be obligated to report any matter to the Department or the Office if the person or entity has actual notice that the same matter has already been reported to the Department or the Office. No person or entity shall be obligated to report a health care provider who is participating in a professional program as described in subsection B of § 8.01-581.16 unless there is a reasonable belief that the participant is not competent to continue to practice or is a danger to himself or to the health and welfare of his patients or the public.

B. The State Health Commissioner, Commissioner of Social Services, and Commissioner of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services shall report to the Department any information of which their agencies may become aware in the course of their duties that a health professional may be guilty of fraudulent, unethical, or unprofessional conduct as defined by the pertinent licensing statutes and regulations. However, the State Health Commissioner shall not be required to report information reported to the Director of the Office of Licensure and Certification pursuant to this section to the Department of Health Professions.

C. Any person making a report by this section, providing information pursuant to an investigation or testifying in a judicial or administrative proceeding as a result of such report shall be immune from any civil liability alleged to have resulted therefrom unless such person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

D. Medical records or information learned or maintained in connection with an alcohol or drug prevention function that is conducted, regulated, or directly or indirectly assisted by any department or agency of the United States shall be exempt from the reporting requirements of this section to the extent that such reporting is in violation of 42 U.S.C. § 290dd-2 or regulations adopted thereunder.

E. Any person who fails to make a report to the Department as required by this section shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed $25,000 assessed by the Director. The Director shall report the assessment of such civil penalty to the Commissioner of Health, Commissioner of Social Services, or Commissioner of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, as appropriate. Any person assessed a civil penalty pursuant to this section shall not receive a license or certification or renewal of such unless such penalty has been paid pursuant to § 32.1-125.01. The Medical College of Virginia Hospitals and the University of Virginia Hospitals shall not receive certification pursuant to § 32.1-137 or Article 1.1 (§ 32.1-102.1 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 32.1 unless such penalty has been paid.

Code 1950, § 32-137.1; 1977, c. 639; 1978, c. 541, § 54-325.1; 1979, cc. 720, 727; 1986, cc. 303, 434; 1988, c. 765, § 54.1-2906; 1994, c. 234; 2000, c. 77; 2003, cc. 456, 753, 762; 2004, cc. 49, 64; 2011, c. 463; 2015, c. 119; 2017, cc. 418, 426; 2020, cc. 45, 230; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 5, 243; 2024, cc. 96, 126.

A. Every practitioner in the Commonwealth who is registered, certified, or licensed by a health regulatory board or who holds a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing who treats professionally any person registered, certified, or licensed by a health regulatory board or who holds a multistate licensure privilege shall report, unless exempted by subsection C hereof, to the Director of the Department of Health Professions whenever any such health professional is treated for mental disorders, chemical dependency or alcoholism, unless the attending practitioner has determined that there is a reasonable probability that the person being treated is competent to continue in practice or would not constitute danger to himself or to the health and welfare of his patients or the public.

B. Any person making a report required by this section or testifying in a judicial or administrative proceeding as a result of such report shall be immune from any civil liability alleged to have resulted therefrom unless such person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

C. Medical records or information learned or maintained in connection with an alcohol or drug abuse prevention function that is conducted, regulated, or directly or indirectly assisted by any department or agency of the United States shall be exempt from the reporting requirements of this section to the extent that such reporting is in violation of 42 U.S.C. § 290dd-2 or regulations adopted thereunder.

Code 1950, § 54-317.2; 1966, c. 166; 1973, c. 529, § 54-317.3; 1974, c. 555; 1977, c. 639; 1978, c. 541; 1986, c. 434; 1988, c. 765, § 54.1-2907; 1996, cc. 937, 980; 2004, cc. 49, 64.

In addition to the immunity for reporting as provided by §§ 54.1-2400.6 and 54.1-2400.7, any person (i) making a report regarding the conduct or competency of a health care practitioner as required by law or regulation, (ii) making a voluntary report to the appropriate regulatory board or to the Department of Health Professions regarding the unprofessional conduct or competency of any practitioner licensed, certified, or registered by a health regulatory board, or (iii) providing information pursuant to an investigation or testifying in a judicial or administrative proceeding as a result of such reports shall be immune from any civil liability resulting therefrom unless such person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

2004, c. 64; 2005, c. 932.

Any (i) doctor of medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic, or podiatry; (ii) advanced practice registered nurse; (iii) physician assistant; (iv) optometrist; (v) physical therapist; or (vi) clinical psychologist who reports to the Department of Motor Vehicles the existence, or probable existence, of a mental or physical disability or infirmity of any person licensed to operate a motor vehicle which the reporting practitioner believes affects such person's ability to operate a motor vehicle safely shall not be subject to civil liability under § 32.1-127.1:03 resulting from such report or deemed to have violated the practitioner-patient privilege unless he has acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

2017, cc. 712, 720; 2023, c. 183.

Any person licensed, registered, permitted, or certified or issued a multistate licensure privilege by any health regulatory board who violates any provision of statute or regulation pertaining to that board and who is not criminally prosecuted may be subject to the monetary penalty provided in this section. If the board or any special conference committee determines that a respondent has violated any provision of statute or regulation pertaining to the board, it shall determine the amount of any monetary penalty to be imposed for the violation, which shall not exceed $5,000 for each violation. The penalty may be sued for and recovered in the name of the Commonwealth. All such monetary penalties shall be deposited in the Literary Fund.

1980, c. 678, § 54-961; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 659; 1997, c. 564; 2003, cc. 753, 762; 2004, c. 49; 2017, c. 423.

Citizen members appointed to boards within the Department of Health Professions after July 1, 1986, shall participate in all matters. Of the citizen members first appointed to boards with two citizen members, one shall be appointed for a term of two years and one for the maximum term established for members of the respective board. On boards with one citizen member, the citizen member initially appointed shall be appointed for the maximum term established for members of that board. The provisions of this section relating to terms of citizen members on such boards shall not apply to the Board of Medicine or to the Board of Funeral Directors and Embalmers. For the purposes of this section, "citizen member" shall have the meaning provided in § 54.1-107.

1986, c. 464, § 54-950.3; 1988, cc. 66, 765.

Except as otherwise expressly provided, members shall be appointed by the Governor and may be removed by him as provided in subsection A of § 2.2-108. Any vacancy occurring other than by expiration of term shall be filled for the unexpired term. Members shall hold office after expiration of their terms until their successors are duly appointed and have qualified.

All members of regulatory boards appointed by the Governor for terms commencing on or after July 1, 1988, shall be appointed for terms of four years. No members shall serve more than two successive full terms on any regulatory board.

1988, c. 42, § 54-950.4.

No person licensed, certified, registered, or permitted by one of the boards within the Department shall use any form of advertising that contains any false, fraudulent, misleading, or deceptive statement or claim.

1987, c. 199, § 54-959.1; 1988, c. 765; 2017, c. 423.

A. As a routine component of prenatal care, every practitioner licensed pursuant to this subtitle who renders prenatal care, including any holder of a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing, regardless of the site of such practice, shall inform every pregnant woman who is his patient that human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) screening is recommended for all pregnant patients and that she will receive an HIV test as part of the routine panel of prenatal tests unless she declines (opt-out screening). The practitioner shall offer the pregnant woman oral or written information that includes an explanation of HIV infection, a description of interventions that can reduce HIV transmission from mother to infant, and the meaning of positive and negative test results. The confidentiality provisions of § 32.1-36.1, test result disclosure conditions, and appropriate counseling requirements of § 32.1-37.2 shall apply to any HIV testing conducted pursuant to this section. Practitioners shall counsel all pregnant women with HIV-positive test results about the dangers to the fetus and the advisability of receiving treatment in accordance with the then current Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommendations for HIV-positive pregnant women. Any pregnant woman shall have the right to refuse testing for HIV infection and any recommended treatment. Documentation of such refusal shall be maintained in the patient's medical record.

B. As a routine component of prenatal care, every practitioner licensed pursuant to this subtitle who renders prenatal care, including any holder of a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing, regardless of the site of such practice, upon receipt of a positive test result from a prenatal test for Down syndrome or other prenatally diagnosed conditions performed on a patient, the health care provider involved may provide the patient with information about the Virginia Department of Health genetics program website and shall provide the patient with up-to-date, scientific written information concerning the life expectancy, clinical course, and intellectual and functional development and treatment options for an unborn child diagnosed with or child born with Down syndrome or other prenatally diagnosed conditions. He may also provide a referral to support services providers, including information hotlines specific to Down syndrome or other prenatally diagnosed conditions, resource centers or clearinghouses, and other education and support programs. For the purposes of this section, "prenatally diagnosed condition" means any fetal health condition identified by prenatal genetic testing or prenatal screening procedures.

1995, c. 309; 2004, c. 49; 2007, cc. 780, 822; 2008, c. 641.

Every practitioner licensed pursuant to this subtitle who renders prenatal care, including any holder of a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing, regardless of the site of such practice, shall, prior to the beginning of his patient's third trimester of pregnancy or, if later, at the first visit of such pregnant woman to the provider, make available to the patient information developed pursuant to § 32.1-69.4 relating to the women's options with respect to umbilical cord blood banking.

2010, c. 69.

A. As a routine component of every pregnant woman's prenatal care, every practitioner licensed pursuant to this subtitle who renders prenatal care, including any holder of a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing, regardless of the site of such practice, shall establish and implement a medical history protocol for screening pregnant women for substance abuse to determine the need for a specific substance abuse evaluation. The medical history protocol shall include, but need not be limited to, a description of the screening device and shall address abuse of both legal and illegal substances. The medical history screening may be followed, as necessary and appropriate, with a thorough substance abuse evaluation.

B. The results of such medical history screening and of any specific substance abuse evaluation which may be conducted shall be confidential and, if the woman is enrolled in a treatment program operated by any facility receiving federal funds, shall only be released as provided in federal law and regulations. However, if the woman is not enrolled in a treatment program or is not enrolled in a program operated by a facility receiving federal funds, the results may only be released to the following persons:

1. The subject of the medical history screening or her legally authorized representative.

2. Any person designated in a written release signed by the subject of the medical history screening or her legally authorized representative.

3. Health care providers for the purposes of consultation or providing care and treatment to the person who was the subject of the medical history screening.

C. The results of the medical history screening required by this section or any specific substance abuse evaluation which may be conducted as part of the prenatal care shall not be admissible in any criminal proceeding.

D. Practitioners shall advise their patients of the results of the medical history screening and specific substance abuse evaluation, and shall provide such information to third-party payers as may be required for reimbursement of the costs of medical care. However, such information shall not be admissible in any criminal proceedings. Practitioners shall advise all pregnant women whose medical history screenings and specific substance abuse evaluations are positive for substance abuse of appropriate treatment and shall inform such women of the potential for poor birth outcomes from substance abuse.

1992, c. 428; 2004, c. 49.

A. Health records, as defined in § 32.1-127.1:03, may be stored by computerized or other electronic process or microfilm, or other photographic, mechanical, or chemical process; however, the stored record shall identify the location of any documents or information that could not be so technologically stored. If the technological storage process creates an unalterable record, a health care provider licensed, certified, registered or issued a multistate licensure privilege by a health regulatory board within the Department shall not be required to maintain paper copies of health records that have been stored by computerized or other electronic process, microfilm, or other photographic, mechanical, or chemical process. Upon completing such technological storage, paper copies of health records may be destroyed in a manner that preserves the patient's confidentiality. However, any documents or information that could not be so technologically stored shall be preserved.

B. Notwithstanding the authority given in this section to store health records in the form of microfilm, prescription dispensing records maintained in or on behalf of any pharmacy registered or permitted in Virginia shall only be stored in compliance with §§ 54.1-3410, 54.1-3411, and 54.1-3412.

1994, c. 390; 1998, c. 470; 2004, c. 49; 2012, c. 336.

Medical records maintained by any health care provider as defined in § 32.1-127.1:03 shall be the property of such health care provider or, in the case of a health care provider employed by another health care provider, the property of the employer. Such health care provider shall release copies of any such medical records in compliance with § 32.1-127.1:03 or § 8.01-413, if the request is made for purposes of litigation, or as otherwise provided by state or federal law.

1995, c. 754; 1997, c. 682; 1998, c. 470.

Upon the request of any of his patients, any health care provider licensed or certified by any of the boards within the Department, except in the case of health care services as defined in Chapter 43 (§ 38.2-4300 et seq.) of Title 38.2, shall provide to such patient an itemized statement of the charges for the services rendered to the requesting patient regardless of whether a bill for the services which are the subject of the request has been or will be submitted to any third party payor including medical assistance services or the state/local hospitalization program.

1990, c. 590.

Any health care provider who makes health records, as defined in § 32.1-127.1:03, of patients who are minors available to such patients through a secure website shall make all such health records available to such patient's parent or guardian through such secure website, unless the health care provider cannot make such health record available in a manner that prevents disclosure of information, the disclosure of which has been denied pursuant to subsection F of § 32.1-127.1:03 or for which consent required in accordance with subsection E of § 54.1-2969 has not been provided.

2022, c. 218.

A. Subject to any limitations set forth in an authorization for the disclosure of health records executed pursuant to § 32.1-127.1:03 and the provisions of subsection F of § 32.1-127.1:03, every health care provider shall make health records, as defined in § 32.1-127.1:03, of a patient available to any person designated by a patient in an authorization to disclose health records pursuant to § 32.1-127.1:03 to the same extent that such health records are required to be made available to the patient had the patient requested such health records.

B. Every health care provider shall allow a spouse, parent, adult child, adult sibling, or other person identified by a patient to make an appointment for medical services on behalf of such patient, regardless of whether such patient has executed an authorization to disclose health records to such person pursuant to § 32.1-127.1:03; however, such health care provider shall not disclose protected health information to the person making the appointment for medical services on behalf of the patient unless the patient has executed an authorization to disclose health records pursuant to § 32.1-127.1:03 or unless otherwise permitted or required to do so by federal or state law or regulations. Nothing in this subsection shall prevent a health care provider from sharing relevant protected health information related to the patient's health care or payment with a spouse, parent, adult child, adult sibling, or other person involved in the patient's health care or payment in accordance with 45 C.F.R. § 164.510.

2022, c. 784.

A. No person licensed, registered, or certified by one of the health regulatory boards under the Department shall transfer records pertaining to a current patient in conjunction with the closure, sale or relocation of a professional practice until such person has first attempted to notify the patient of the pending transfer, either electronically or by mail, at the patient's last known address, and by publishing prior notice in a newspaper of general circulation within the provider's practice area, as specified in § 8.01-324.

The notice shall specify that, at the written request of the patient or an authorized representative, the records or copies will be sent, within a reasonable time, to any other like-regulated provider of the patient's choice or provided to the patient pursuant to § 32.1-127.1:03. The notice shall also disclose whether any charges will be billed by the provider for supplying the patient or the provider chosen by the patient with the originals or copies of the patient's records. Such charges shall not exceed the actual costs of copying and mailing or delivering the records.

B. For the purposes of this section:

"Current patient" means a patient who has had a patient encounter with the provider or his professional practice during the two-year period immediately preceding the date of the record transfer.

"Relocation of a professional practice" means the moving of a practice located in Virginia from the location at which the records are stored at the time of the notice to another practice site that is located more than 30 miles away or to another practice site that is located in another state or the District of Columbia.

1992, c. 759; 2003, cc. 912, 917; 2004, c. 53; 2022, c. 73.

No records of the identity, diagnosis, prognosis, or treatment of any practitioner of any profession regulated by any of the regulatory boards within the Department of Health Professions obtained by the Department or any health regulatory board from a health care provider or facility that is treating or has treated such practitioner for drug addiction or chronic alcoholism shall be disclosed except:

1. In a disciplinary hearing before a health regulatory board or in any subsequent trial or appeal of a board action or order;

2. To licensing or disciplinary authorities of other jurisdictions or to hospital committees located within or outside this Commonwealth which are concerned with granting, limiting, or denying a physician hospital privileges if a final determination regarding disciplinary action has been made; or

3. Pursuant to an order of a court of competent jurisdiction.

1992, c. 808.

Any person licensed, registered, or certified by any health regulatory board who engages in the conduct of human research, as defined in § 32.1-162.16, shall comply with the provisions of Chapter 5.1 (§ 32.1-162.16 et seq.) of Title 32.1. Failure to so comply shall constitute unprofessional conduct.

1992, c. 603.

A board within the Department of Health Professions shall refuse to admit a candidate to any examination and shall refuse to issue a license, certificate or registration to any applicant if the candidate or applicant has had his license, certificate or registration to practice the profession or occupation revoked or suspended for any reason other than nonrenewal by another jurisdiction, and has not had his license, certificate or registration to so practice reinstated by the jurisdiction which revoked or suspended his license, certificate or registration, except as may be necessary to license a nurse eligible for reinstatement in another party state as consistent with the Nurse Licensure Compact.

1993, c. 991; 2010, c. 414; 2014, c. 76.

The provisions of § 54.1-204 shall apply to all persons who are licensed, certified, registered, or permitted by any of the boards within the Department of Health Professions.

2025, c. 505.

A. Any health regulatory board may suspend the license, certificate, registration, permit, or multistate licensure privilege of any person holding a license, certificate, registration, permit, or licensure privilege issued by it without a hearing simultaneously with the institution of proceedings for a hearing, if the relevant board finds that there is a substantial danger to the public health or safety which warrants this action. A board may meet by telephone conference call when summarily suspending a license, certificate, registration, permit, or licensure privilege if a good faith effort to assemble a quorum of the board has failed and, in the judgment of a majority of the members of the board, the continued practice by the individual constitutes a substantial danger to the public health or safety. Institution of proceedings for a hearing shall be provided simultaneously with the summary suspension. The hearing shall be scheduled within a reasonable time of the date of the summary suspension.

B. Any health regulatory board may restrict the license, certificate, registration, permit, or multistate licensure privilege of any person holding a license, certificate, registration, permit, or licensure privilege issued by it without proceeding simultaneously with notification of an informal conference pursuant to §§ 2.2-4019 and 54.1-2400, if the relevant board finds that there is a substantial danger to the public health or safety that warrants this action. A board may meet by telephone conference call when summarily restricting a license, certificate, registration, permit, or licensure privilege if a good faith effort to assemble a quorum of the board has failed and, in the judgment of a majority of the members of the board, the continued practice by the individual constitutes a substantial danger to the public health or safety. The informal conference shall be scheduled within a reasonable time of the date of the summary restriction. Evidence establishing that the registration issued by the U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration to a person holding a license, certificate, registration, permit, or multistate licensure privilege has been suspended or voluntarily surrendered in lieu of disciplinary action is sufficient for a finding that there is a substantial danger to the public health or safety.

C. Allegations of violations of this title shall be made in writing to the relevant health regulatory board.

1997, c. 556; 2004, c. 49; 2007, c. 22; 2013, c. 765; 2019, c. 94.

When the certificate, registration, permit, or license of any person certified, registered, permitted, or licensed by one of the health regulatory boards has been revoked, the board may, after three years and upon the payment of a fee prescribed by the board, consider an application for reinstatement of a certificate, registration, permit, or license in the same manner as the original certificates, registrations, permits, or licenses are granted; however, if a license has been revoked pursuant to subdivision A 19 of § 54.1-2915, the board shall not consider an application for reinstatement until five years have passed since revocation. A board shall conduct an investigation and review an application for reinstatement after revocation to determine whether there are causes for denial of the application. The burden of proof shall be on the applicant to show by clear and convincing evidence that he is safe and competent to practice. The reinstatement of a certificate, registration, permit, or license shall require the affirmative vote of three-fourths of the members at the hearing. In the discretion of the board, such reinstatement may be granted without further examination.

2003, cc. 753, 762; 2013, c. 365; 2014, cc. 11, 96; 2017, c. 423.

Any practitioner or entity whose license, certificate, registration, or permit is suspended or revoked by a health regulatory board of the Department of Health Professions shall not engage in practice in the Commonwealth pending appeal of the board's order.

2013, c. 115.

A. A health care practitioner licensed, certified, or registered in another state or the District of Columbia may temporarily practice for one 90-day period, provided that the following conditions are met:

1. The practitioner is contracted by or has received an offer of employment in the Commonwealth from a licensed hospital, a nursing home, an assisted living facility, a dialysis facility, the Department of Health, or a local health department;

2. The employer or contractor verifies that the out-of-state health care provider possesses an active and unencumbered license, certification, or registration for the profession in which he will be employed or contracted in another state or the District of Columbia;

3. The employer or contractor obtains a report from the National Practitioner Data Bank if the applicant is subject to reporting; and

4. Prior to the out-of-state health care practitioner's practicing, the employer or contractor notifies the appropriate health regulatory board that the out-of-state health care practitioner is employed or under contract and will practice under the temporary authorization. This notice shall include the out-of-state health care practitioner's out-of-state license, certification, or registration number and a statement that such practitioner meets all of the requirements set forth in this section.

B. If the health care practitioner practicing with a temporary authorization has submitted an application for licensure, certification, or registration, the applicable health regulatory board shall expedite such applications for out-of-state health care practitioners practicing pursuant to this section. If licensure, certification, or registration remains pending after the initial 90-day temporary authorization, the authorization may be extended for an additional 60 days, provided that the employer or contractor submits notice to the applicable health regulatory board.

C. Out-of-state health care practitioners practicing pursuant to this section shall be subject to the laws and regulations of the Commonwealth and shall be subject to disciplinary action by the applicable health regulatory board.

D. The Department of Health Professions shall, beginning July 1, 2023, annually report to the Chairmen of the Senate Committee on Education and Health and the House Committee on Health and Human Services the number of out-of-state health care practitioners who have utilized the temporary authorization to practice pending licensure and have not subsequently been issued full licensure.

2022, cc. 463, 464; 2024, c. 390.

Repealed by Acts 2025, c. 341, cl. 2, effective July 1, 2025.

Each health regulatory board shall make a recommendation that any individual who is registered, certified, licensed, or issued a multistate licensure privilege by such licensing board and whose duties may involve direct contact with children complete continuing education on communicating with children with autism spectrum disorder. Such recommendation shall include (i) an overview of the characteristics and behavioral recognition of autism spectrum disorder, (ii) strategies for communicating and interacting with children with autism spectrum disorder, and (iii) best practices for responding to and de-escalating certain behavioral challenges and situations. The licensing board may include specific continuing education programs on communicating with children with autism spectrum disorder.

2025, c. 516.

A. Upon receipt of documentation by any court or government agency that a person licensed, certified, or registered by a board within the Department of Health Professions has (i) had his license, certificate, or registration to practice the same profession or occupation revoked or suspended for reasons other than nonrenewal or accepted for surrender in lieu of disciplinary action in another jurisdiction and has not had his license, certificate, or registration to so practice reinstated within that jurisdiction, unless such revocation, suspension, or surrender was based solely on the disciplinary action of a board within the Department or mandatory suspension by the Director of the Department or (ii) been convicted of a felony or has been adjudged incapacitated, the Director shall immediately suspend, without a hearing, the license, certificate, or registration of any person so disciplined, convicted, or adjudged. The Director shall notify such person or his legal guardian, conservator, trustee, committee, or other representative of the suspension in writing to his address on record with the Department. Such notice shall include a copy of the documentation from such court or agency, certified by the Director as the documentation received from such court or agency. Such person shall not have the right to practice within the Commonwealth until his license, certificate, or registration has been reinstated by the relevant board within the Department of Health Professions.

B. The clerk of any court in which a conviction of a felony or an adjudication of incapacity is made, who has knowledge that a person licensed, certified, or registered by a board within the Department has been convicted or found incapacitated, shall have a duty to report these findings promptly to the Director.

C. When a conviction has not become final, the Director may decline to suspend the license, certificate, or registration until the conviction becomes final if there is a likelihood of injury or damage to the public if the person's services are not available.

D. Any person whose license, certificate, or registration has been suspended as provided in this section may apply to the board for reinstatement of his license, certificate, or registration. Such person shall be entitled to a hearing not later than the next regular meeting of the board after the expiration of 60 days from the receipt of such application, and shall have the right to be represented by counsel and to summon witnesses to testify in his behalf. The board may consider other information concerning possible violations of Virginia law at such hearing, if reasonable notice is given to such person of the information.

The reinstatement of the applicant's license, certificate, or registration shall require the affirmative vote of three-fourths of the members of the board at the hearing. The board may order such reinstatement without further examination of the applicant, or reinstate the license, certificate, or registration upon such terms and conditions as it deems appropriate.

E. Pursuant to the authority of the Board of Nursing provided in Chapter 30 (§ 54.1-3000 et seq.), the provisions of this section shall apply, mutatis mutandis, to persons holding a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing.

1993, c. 991; 1997, c. 801; 2002, c. 455; 2004, c. 49; 2006, c. 367; 2010, c. 414; 2014, c. 76; 2019, c. 138; 2025, c. 341.

Any person who, without holding a current valid license, certificate, registration, permit, or multistate licensure privilege issued by a regulatory board pursuant to this title (i) performs an invasive procedure for which a license or multistate licensure privilege is required; (ii) administers, prescribes, sells, distributes, or dispenses a controlled drug; or (iii) practices a profession or occupation after having his license, certificate, registration, permit, or multistate licensure privilege to do so suspended or revoked shall be guilty of a Class 6 felony.

1994, c. 722; 2004, c. 49; 2017, c. 423.

If an interjurisdictional compact requires criminal history record checks as a condition of participation, the applicable health regulatory board shall require each applicant to submit to fingerprinting and provide personal descriptive information to be forwarded along with his fingerprints through the Central Criminal Records Exchange to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the purpose of obtaining criminal history record information. The cost of fingerprinting and the criminal history record search shall be paid by the applicant.

The Central Criminal Records Exchange shall forward the results of the state and federal criminal history record search to the applicable health regulatory board. If an applicant is denied licensure because of information appearing on his criminal history record and the applicant disputes the information upon which the denial was based, the Central Criminal Records Exchange shall, upon written request, furnish to the applicant the procedures for obtaining a copy of the criminal history record from the Federal Bureau of Investigation and the Central Criminal Records Exchange. Information obtained pursuant to this section shall not be disseminated except as provided in this section.

2023, cc. 118, 119.

Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, whenever a disciplinary proceeding involves a respondent who holds a license or certificate authorizing the practice of a profession represented by a statutorily created advisory board whose members are appointed by the Governor, a member of such advisory board shall sit as a full voting member on any special conference committee, informal fact-finding panel, or formal hearing panel pursuant to Article 3 (§ 2.2-4018 et seq.) of Chapter 40 of Title 2.2 and § 54.1-2400 or 54.1-2408.2.

2002, c. 698; 2013, c. 144.

A. Any health care practitioner licensed under this title who, within the scope of his practice, orders a laboratory test or other examination of the physical condition of any person shall, if so requested by the patient or his legal guardian, provide a copy of the report of the results to the patient or his legal guardian, unless, in the professional opinion of the health care practitioner, there is a medical reason not to do so.

B. The health care practitioner, at his sole discretion, may authorize the laboratory to provide a copy of the report of the results directly to the patient or his legal guardian. The patient or his legal guardian shall then be considered authorized to receive the report or result for the purposes of the federal Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments.

C. With the prior authorization of the patient, a laboratory may, contemporaneously with, or subsequent to, furnishing the report to the ordering health care practitioner, provide a copy of the report of the results directly to the insurance carrier, health maintenance organization, or self-insured plan that provides health insurance or similar coverage to the patient. The insurance carrier, health maintenance organization, or self-insured plan shall then be considered authorized to receive the report or result for the purposes of the federal Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments.

2007, cc. 887, 930; 2011, cc. 807, 849.

A. As used in this section, "conversion therapy" means any practice or treatment that seeks to change an individual's sexual orientation or gender identity, including efforts to change behaviors or gender expressions or to eliminate or reduce sexual or romantic attractions or feelings toward individuals of the same gender. "Conversion therapy" does not include counseling that provides acceptance, support, and understanding of a person or facilitates a person's coping, social support, and identity exploration and development, including sexual-orientation-neutral interventions to prevent or address unlawful conduct or unsafe sexual practices, as long as such counseling does not seek to change an individual's sexual orientation or gender identity.

B. No person licensed pursuant to this subtitle or who performs counseling as part of his training for any profession licensed pursuant to this subtitle shall engage in conversion therapy with a person under 18 years of age. Any conversion therapy efforts with a person under 18 years of age engaged in by a provider licensed in accordance with the provisions of this subtitle or who performs counseling as part of his training for any profession licensed pursuant to this subtitle shall constitute unprofessional conduct and shall be grounds for disciplinary action by the appropriate health regulatory board within the Department of Health Professions.

2020, cc. 41, 721.

Chapter 24.1. Practitioner Self-referral Act.

As used in this chapter or when referring to the Department of Health Professions regulatory authority therefor, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Community" means a city or a county.

"Demonstrated need" means (i) there is no facility in the community providing similar services and (ii) alternative financing is not available for the facility or (iii) such other conditions as may be established by Department regulation.

"Department" means the Department of Health Professions.

"Entity" means any person, partnership, firm, corporation, or other business, including assisted living facilities as defined in § 63.2-100, that delivers health services.

"Group practice" means two or more health care practitioners who are members of the same legally organized partnership, professional corporation, not-for-profit corporation, faculty practice or similar association in which (i) each member provides substantially the full range of services within his licensed or certified scope of practice at the same location as the other members through the use of the organization's office space, facilities, equipment, or personnel; (ii) payments for services received from a member are treated as receipts of the organization; and (iii) the overhead expenses and income from the practice are distributed according to methods previously determined by the members.

"Health services" means any procedures or services related to prevention, diagnosis, treatment, and care rendered by a health care worker, regardless of whether the worker is regulated by the Commonwealth.

"Immediate family member" means the individual's spouse, child, child's spouse, stepchild, stepchild's spouse, grandchild, grandchild's spouse, parent, stepparent, parent-in-law, or sibling.

"Investment interest" means the ownership or holding of an equity or debt security, including, but not limited to, shares of stock in a corporation, interests or units of a partnership, bonds, debentures, notes, or other equity or debt instruments, except investment interests in a hospital licensed pursuant to Article 1 (§ 32.1-123 et seq.) of Chapter 5 of Title 32.1.

"Investor" means an individual or entity directly or indirectly possessing a legal or beneficial ownership interest, including an investment interest.

"Office practice" means the facility or facilities at which a practitioner, on an ongoing basis, provides or supervises the provision of health services to consumers.

"Practitioner" means any individual certified or licensed by any of the health regulatory boards within the Department of Health Professions, except individuals regulated by the Board of Funeral Directors and Embalmers or the Board of Veterinary Medicine.

"Referral" means to send or direct a patient for health services to another health care practitioner or entity outside the referring practitioner's group practice or office practice or to establish a plan of care which requires the provision of any health services outside the referring practitioner's group practice or office practice.

1993, c. 869; 2000, c. 201; 2025, c. 341.

A. Unless the practitioner directly provides health services within the entity and will be personally involved with the provision of care to the referred patient, or has been granted an exception by the Department or satisfies the provisions of subsections D or E of this section or of subsections D or E of § 54.1-2413, a practitioner shall not refer a patient for health services to an entity outside the practitioner's office or group practice if the practitioner or any of the practitioner's immediate family members is an investor in such entity.

B. The Department may grant an exception to the prohibitions in this chapter, and may permit a practitioner to invest in and refer to an entity, regardless of whether the practitioner provides direct services within such entity, if there is a demonstrated need in the community for the entity and all of the following conditions are met:

1. Individuals other than practitioners are afforded a bona fide opportunity to invest in the entity on the same and equal terms as those offered to any referring practitioner;

2. No investor-practitioner is required or encouraged to refer patients to the entity or otherwise generate business as a condition of becoming or remaining an investor;

3. The services of the entity are marketed and furnished to practitioner-investors and other investors on the same and equal terms;

4. The entity does not issue loans or guarantee any loans for practitioners who are in a position to refer patients to such entity;

5. The income on the practitioner's investment is based on the practitioner's equity interest in the entity and is not tied to referral volumes; and

6. The investment contract between the entity and the practitioner does not include any covenant or clause limiting or preventing the practitioner's investment in other entities.

Unless the Department, the practitioner, or the entity requests a hearing, the Department shall determine whether to grant or deny an exception within 90 days of the receipt of a written request from the practitioner or entity, stating the facts of the particular circumstances and certifying compliance with the conditions required by this subsection. The Department's decision shall be a final administrative decision and shall be subject to judicial review pursuant to the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.).

C. When an exception is granted pursuant to subsection B:

1. The practitioner shall disclose his investment interest in the entity to the patient at the time of referral. If alternative entities are reasonably available, the practitioner shall provide the patient with a list of such alternative entities and shall inform the patient of the option to use an alternative entity. The practitioner shall also inform the patient that choosing another entity will not affect his treatment or care;

2. Information on the practitioner's investment shall be provided if requested by any third party payor;

3. The entity shall establish and utilize an internal utilization review program to ensure that practitioner-investors are engaging in appropriate and necessary utilization; and

4. In the event of a conflict of interests between the practitioner's ownership interests and the best interests of any patient, the practitioner shall not make a referral to such entity, but shall make alternative arrangements for the referral.

D. Further, a practitioner may refer patients for health services to a publicly traded entity in which such practitioner has an investment interest without applying for or receiving an exception from the Department if all of the following conditions are met:

1. The entity's stock is listed for trading on the New York Stock Exchange or the American Stock Exchange or is a national market system security traded under an automated interdealer quotation system operated by the National Association of Securities Dealers;

2. The entity had, at the end of the corporation's most recent fiscal year, total net assets of at least $50 million related to the furnishing of health services;

3. The entity markets and furnishes its services to practitioner-investors and other practitioners on the same and equal terms;

4. All stock of the entity, including the stock of any predecessor privately held company, is one class without preferential treatment as to status or remuneration;

5. The entity does not issue loans or guarantee any loans for practitioners who are in a position to refer patients to such entity;

6. The income on the practitioner's investment is not tied to referral volumes and is based on the practitioner's equity interest in the entity; and

7. The practitioner's investment interest does not exceed one-half of one percent of the entity's total equity.

E. In addition, a practitioner may refer a patient to such practitioner's immediate family member or such immediate family member's office or group practice for health services if all of the following conditions are met:

1. The health services to be received by the patient referred by the practitioner are within the scope of practice of the practitioner's immediate family member or the treating practitioner within such immediate family member's office or group practice;

2. The practitioner's immediate family member or the treating practitioner within such immediate family member's office or group practice is qualified and duly licensed to provide the health services to be received by the patient referred to the practitioner;

3. The primary purpose of any such referral is to obtain the appropriate professional health services for the patient being referred, which are to be rendered by the referring practitioner's immediate family member or by the treating practitioner within such immediate family member's office or group practice who is qualified and licensed to provide such professional health services; and

4. The primary purpose of the referral shall not be for the provision of designated health services as defined in 42 U.S.C. § 1395nn and the regulations promulgated thereunder.

1993, c. 869; 2005, c. 402; 2025, c. 341.

A. In addition to its other powers and duties, the Department of Health Professions shall administer the provisions of this chapter.

B. The Department shall promulgate, pursuant to the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.), regulations to:

1. Establish standards, procedures, and criteria which are reasonable and necessary for the effective administration of this chapter;

2. Establish standards, procedures, and criteria for determining compliance with, exceptions to, and violations of the provisions of § 54.1-2411;

3. Establish standards, procedures, and criteria for advising practitioners and entities of the applicability of this chapter to activities and investments;

4. Levy and collect fees for processing requests for exceptions from the prohibitions set forth in this chapter and for authorization to make referrals pursuant to subsection B of § 54.1-2411;

5. Establish standards, procedures, and criteria for review and referral to the appropriate health regulatory board of all reports of investigations of alleged violations of this chapter by practitioners and for investigations and determinations of violations of this chapter by entities;

6. Establish standards, procedures, and criteria for granting exceptions from the prohibitions set forth in this chapter; and

7. Establish such other regulations as may reasonably be needed to administer this chapter.

C. Upon a determination of a violation by the Department, pursuant to the Administrative Process Act, any entity, other than a practitioner, that presents or causes to be presented a bill or claim for services that the entity knows or has reason to know is prohibited by § 54.1-2411 shall be subject to a monetary penalty of no more than $20,000 per referral, bill, or claim. The monetary penalty may be sued for and recovered in the name of the Commonwealth. All such monetary penalties shall be deposited in the Literary Fund.

D. Any violation of this chapter by a practitioner shall constitute grounds for disciplinary action as unprofessional conduct by the appropriate health regulatory board within the Department of Health Professions. Sanctions for violation of this chapter may include, but are not limited to, the monetary penalty authorized in § 54.1-2401.

1993, c. 869; 2025, c. 341.

A. No hospital licensed in the Commonwealth shall discriminate against or otherwise penalize any practitioner for compliance with the provisions of this chapter.

B. No practitioner, other health care worker, or entity shall enter into any agreement, arrangement, or scheme intended to evade the provisions of this chapter by inducing patient referrals in a manner which would be prohibited by this chapter if the practitioner made the referrals directly.

C. No group practice shall be formed for the purpose of facilitating referrals that would otherwise be prohibited by this chapter.

D. Notwithstanding the provisions of this chapter, a practitioner may refer a patient who is a member of a health maintenance organization to an entity in which the practitioner is an investor if the referral is made pursuant to a contract with the health maintenance organization.

E. Notwithstanding the provisions of this chapter, a referral to an entity in which the referring practitioner or his immediate family member is an investor shall not be in violation of this chapter if (i) the health service to be provided is a designated health service as defined in 42 U.S.C. § 1395nn (h)(6), as amended, and an exception authorized by 42 U.S.C. § 1395nn, as amended, or any regulations adopted pursuant thereto, applies, or (ii) the health service to be provided is not a designated health service as defined in 42 U.S.C. § 1395nn (h)(6), as amended, but would qualify for an exception authorized by 42 U.S.C. § 1395nn, as amended, or any regulations adopted pursuant thereto, if the health service were a designated health service.

1993, c. 869; 2005, c. 402; 2010, c. 743.

This chapter shall apply, in the case of any investment interest acquired after February 1, 1993, to referrals for health services made by a practitioner on or after July 1, 1993. However, in the case of any investment interest acquired prior to February 1, 1993, compliance with the provisions of this chapter is required by July 1, 1996.

1993, c. 869.

Chapter 25. Department of Health Professions.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Department" means the Department of Health Professions.

"Director" means the Director of the Department of Health Professions.

"Health regulatory board" or "regulatory board" means any board included within the Department of Health Professions as provided in § 54.1-2503.

1977, c. 579, § 54-950; 1980, c. 678; 1983, c. 115; 1985, c. 448; 1986, c. 564; 1987, c. 686; 1988, c. 765; 2025, c. 341.

The Department of Health Professions established within the executive branch, shall be under the supervision and management of the Director of the Department.

1977, c. 579, § 54-950.1; 1984, c. 720; 1986, c. 564; 1988, c. 765.

The Department of Health Professions shall establish a roster of consultants in health care specialties for each health regulatory board, as required. The Department shall contract with each consultant to assist in the investigation and evaluation of violations of statute or regulations of the health regulatory boards and to provide expert testimony as necessary in any subsequent administrative hearing. The cost of the consultants shall be paid by the board for which the services are provided.

Any consultant under contract to the Department shall have immunity from civil liability resulting from any communication, finding, opinion or conclusion made in the course of his duties unless such person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

1986, c. 564, § 54-960.1; 1988, c. 765.

The following boards are included within the Department: Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology, Board of Counseling, Board of Dentistry, Board of Funeral Directors and Embalmers, Board of Long-Term Care Administrators, Board of Medicine, Board of Nursing, Board of Optometry, Board of Pharmacy, Board of Physical Therapy, Board of Psychology, Board of Social Work, and Board of Veterinary Medicine.

1977, c. 579, § 54-950.2; 1980, c. 678; 1983, c. 115; 1987, c. 686; 1988, c. 765; 1992, cc. 706, 841; 1993, c. 869; 2000, cc. 473, 688; 2005, cc. 610, 924; 2025, c. 341.

The Director of the Department of Health Professions shall be appointed by the Governor, subject to confirmation by the General Assembly, to serve at the pleasure of the Governor.

1986, c. 564, § 54-954.1; 1988, c. 765.

The Director of the Department shall have the following powers and duties:

1. To supervise and manage the Department;

2. To perform or consolidate such administrative services or functions as may assist the operation of the boards;

3. To prepare, approve, and submit to the Governor, after consultation with the boards, all requests for appropriations and be responsible for all expenditures pursuant to appropriations;

4. To provide such office facilities as will allow the boards to carry out their duties;

5. To employ personnel as required for the proper performance of the responsibilities of the Department subject to the Virginia Personnel Act (§ 2.2-2900 et seq.) within the limits of appropriations made by law;

6. To receive all complaints made against regulated health care professionals;

7. To develop administrative policies and procedures governing the receipt and recording of complaints;

8. To monitor the status of actions taken under the auspices of the boards regarding complaints until the closure of each case;

9. To provide investigative and such other services as needed by the boards to enforce their respective statutes and regulations;

10. To collect and account for all fees to be paid into each board and account for and deposit the moneys so collected into a special fund from which the expenses of the health regulatory boards, the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program, and the Department shall be paid. Such fees shall be held exclusively to cover the expenses of the health regulatory boards, the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program, and the Department and shall not be transferred to any agency other than the Department, except as provided in §§ 54.1-3011.1 and 54.1-3011.2;

11. To make and enter into all contracts and agreements necessary or incidental to the performance of his duties and the execution of his powers, including, but not limited to, contracts with the United States, other states, and agencies and governmental subdivisions of the Commonwealth;

12. To accept grants from the United States government, its agencies and instrumentalities, and any other source. The Director shall have the power to comply with conditions and execute agreements as may be necessary, convenient, or desirable;

13. To promulgate and revise regulations necessary for the administration of the Department and such regulations as are necessary for the implementation of the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program pursuant to Chapter 25.1 (§ 54.1-2515 et seq.) and subdivision 18;

14. To report promptly, after consultation with the presiding officer of the appropriate health regulatory board or his designee, to the Attorney General or the appropriate attorney for the Commonwealth any information the Department obtains which, upon appropriate investigation, indicates, in the judgment of the Director, that a person licensed by any of the health regulatory boards has violated any provision of criminal law, including the laws relating to manufacturing, distributing, dispensing, prescribing, or administering drugs other than drugs classified as Schedule VI drugs. When necessary, the Attorney General or the attorney for the Commonwealth shall request that the Department of Health Professions or the Department of State Police conduct any subsequent investigation of such report. Upon request and affidavit from an attorney for the Commonwealth, the Director shall provide documents material to a criminal investigation of a person licensed by a health regulatory board; however, peer review documents shall not be released and shall remain privileged pursuant to § 8.01-581.17. For the purpose of this section, the terms manufacturing, distributing, dispensing, prescribing, or administering drugs shall not include minor administrative or clerical errors that do not affect the inventory of drugs required by the Drug Control Act (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) and do not indicate a pattern of criminal behavior;

15. To keep records of the names and qualifications of registered, certified, or licensed persons;

16. To exercise other powers and perform other duties required of the Director by the Governor;

17. To issue subpoenas in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.) for any informal fact finding or formal proceeding within the jurisdiction of the Department or any regulatory board;

18. To establish, and revise as necessary, a health practitioners' monitoring program pursuant to Chapter 25.1 (§ 54.1-2515 et seq.);

19. To establish, and revise as necessary, with such federal funds, grants, or general funds as may be appropriated or made available for this program, the Prescription Monitoring Program pursuant to Chapter 25.2 (§ 54.1-2519 et seq.);

20. To assess a civil penalty against any person who is not licensed by a health regulatory board for failing to report a violation pursuant to § 54.1-2400.6 or 54.1-2909;

21. To evaluate, at the request of the General Assembly, health care professions and occupations in the Commonwealth and to consider whether each such profession or occupation should be regulated and the degree of regulation to be imposed;

22. To receive, review, and forward to the appropriate health regulatory board any departmental investigative reports relating to complaints of violations by practitioners of the Practitioner Self-Referral Act (§ 54.1-2410 et seq.);

23. To determine compliance with, violations of, and grant exceptions to the prohibitions set forth in the Practitioner Self-Referral Act (§ 54.1-2410 et seq.); and

24. To take appropriate actions against entities, other than practitioners, for violations of the Practitioner Self-Referral Act (§ 54.1-2410 et seq.).

1977, c. 579, § 54-955; 1980, c. 678; 1983, c. 528; 1986, c. 564; 1988, cc. 266, 765; 1997, c. 439; 2002, c. 481; 2003, cc. 753, 762; 2004, c. 64; 2006, c. 631; 2009, c. 472; 2025, c. 341.

A. The Director and investigative personnel appointed by him shall be sworn to enforce the statutes and regulations pertaining to the Department and the health regulatory boards and shall have the authority to investigate any violations of those statutes and regulations and to the extent otherwise authorized by law inspect any office or facility operated, owned or employing individuals regulated by any health regulatory board. The Director or his designee shall have the power to subpoena witnesses and to request and obtain patient records, business records, papers, and physical or other evidence in the course of any investigation or to issue subpoenas requiring the production of such evidence. A subpoena issued pursuant to this section may be served by (i) any person authorized to serve process under § 8.01-293, (ii) investigative personnel appointed by the Director, (iii) registered or certified mail or by equivalent commercial parcel delivery service, or (iv) email or facsimile if requested to do so by the recipient. Upon failure of any person to comply with a subpoena duly served, the Director may, pursuant to § 54.1-111, request that the Attorney General or the attorney for the Commonwealth for the jurisdiction in which the recipient of the subpoena resides, is found, or transacts business seek enforcement of the subpoena in such jurisdiction.

B. All investigative personnel shall be vested with the authority to (i) administer oaths or affirmations for the purpose of receiving complaints of violations of this subtitle, (ii) serve and execute any warrant, paper or process issued by any court or magistrate, the Director or in his absence a designated subordinate, or by any regulatory board under the authority of the Director, (iii) request and receive criminal history information under the provisions of § 19.2-389, and (iv) request and receive social security numbers from practitioners or federal employee identification numbers from facilities.

C. The Director shall have the authority to issue summonses for violations of statutes and regulations governing the unlicensed practice of professions regulated by the Department. The Director may delegate such authority to investigators appointed by him. In the event a person issued such a summons fails or refuses to discontinue the unlawful acts or refuses to give a written promise to appear at the time and place specified in the summons, the investigator may appear before a magistrate or other issuing authority having jurisdiction to obtain a criminal warrant pursuant to § 19.2-72.

1980, c. 678, § 54-960; 1986, c. 564; 1988, c. 765; 1993, c. 869; 2003, cc. 753, 762; 2008, c. 37; 2011, c. 50; 2018, c. 466; 2025, c. 341.

The Department shall investigate all complaints that are within the jurisdiction of the relevant health regulatory board received from (i) the general public and (ii) all reports received pursuant to §§ 54.1-2400.6, 54.1-2400.7, 54.1-2709.3, 54.1-2709.4, 54.1-2908, or § 54.1-2909.

2003, cc. 753, 762; 2004, c. 64.

A. The Department is authorized to require individuals applying for initial licensure, certification, or registration, and individuals who are licensed, certified, or registered by a health regulatory board to provide information in addition to that which is required to determine the individual's qualifications. Such additional information shall include identification of the individual's self-designated specialties and subspecialties; credentials and certifications issued by professional associations, institutions and boards; and locations of each practice site, number of hours spent practicing at each practice site location, and demographic information. The Department, in consultation with the health regulatory boards, may establish criteria to identify additional data elements deemed necessary for workforce and health planning purposes. Such information shall be collected and maintained by the Department for workforce and health planning purposes in cooperation with agencies and institutions of the Commonwealth and shall be released by the Department only in the aggregate without reference to any person's name or other individual identifiers; however, the Department may release any information that identifies specific individuals for the purpose of determining shortage designations and to qualified personnel if pertinent to an investigation, research, or study, provided a written agreement between such qualified personnel and the Department, which ensures that any person to whom such identities are divulged shall preserve the confidentiality of those identities, is executed. Prior to collecting any information described in this section from individuals, the Department shall first attempt to obtain from other sources information sufficient for workforce planning purposes.

B. For the purpose of expediting the dissemination of public health information, including notice about a public health emergency, the Department is authorized to require certain licensed, certified or registered persons to report any email address, telephone number and facsimile number that may be used to contact such person in the event of a public health emergency or to provide information related to serving during a public health emergency. In the event of an animal health emergency, the Department shall provide to the State Veterinarian the email addresses, telephone numbers and facsimile numbers that may be used to contact licensed veterinarians.

Such email addresses, telephone numbers and facsimile numbers shall not be published, released or made available for any other purpose by the Department, the Department of Health, or the State Veterinarian.

The Director, in consultation with the Department of Health and the Department of Emergency Management, shall adopt regulations that identify those licensed, certified or registered persons to which the requirement to report shall apply and the procedures for reporting.

1994, c. 853; 1997, c. 806; 2003, c. 602; 2005, c. 55; 2009, c. 382.

Whenever funds are held in escrow, in trust, or in some other fiduciary capacity by a person licensed by any of the health regulatory boards and the Director or investigative personnel appointed by him have reason to believe that such person is not able or is unwilling to adequately protect such funds or the interest of any person therein, the Director may file a petition with any court of record having equity jurisdiction over such person or any of the funds held by such person stating the facts upon which he relies. The court may temporarily enjoin further activity by such person and take such further action as shall be necessary to conserve, protect and disburse the funds involved, including the appointment of a receiver. If a receiver is appointed his expenses and a reasonable fee as determined by the court shall be paid by such person.

1995, c. 738.

Chapter 25.1. Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Committee" means the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program Committee as described in § 54.1-2517.

"Contract" means a written agreement between a practitioner and the Committee providing the terms and conditions of program participation or a written agreement entered into by the Director for the implementation of monitoring services.

"Disciplinary action" means any proceeding that may lead to a monetary penalty or probation or to a reprimand, restriction, revocation, suspension, denial, or other order relating to the license, certificate, registration, or multistate privilege of a health care practitioner issued by a health regulatory board.

"Impairment" means a physical or mental disability, including but not limited to substance abuse, that substantially alters the ability of a practitioner to practice his profession with safety to his patients and the public.

"Practitioner" means any individual regulated by any health regulatory board listed in § 54.1-2503.

"Program" means the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program established pursuant to § 54.1-2516.

1997, c. 439; 2009, c. 472; 2016, c. 105.

A. The Director of the Department of Health Professions shall maintain a health practitioners' monitoring program that provides an alternative to disciplinary action for impaired health practitioners. The Director shall promulgate such regulations as are necessary for the implementation of this program after consulting with the various health regulatory boards.

The Director may, in consultation and coordination with the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program Committee, enter into contracts as may be necessary for the implementation of monitoring services. Such services may include education, assessment, referral for intervention and treatment, and monitoring of impaired practitioners. If the Director enters into an agreement with another agency of the Commonwealth pursuant to this section, that agency shall be immune from liability resulting from the good faith exercise of its obligations under the agreement.

When evaluating such contracts, the Director shall consider the utilization of programs, as appropriate, that have been established by professional organizations for peer assistance of impaired practitioners.

The Program's operating costs, including any contractual obligations for services, shall be funded by special dedicated revenues consistent with the provisions of §§ 54.1-113, 54.1-2400, and 54.1-2505. However, this section shall not prohibit the Committee from charging participants a reasonable portion of a fee related to the costs of participation in the Program. No participant shall be denied entry into the Program due to the inability to pay a portion of the costs related to participation.

Any monitoring program for individuals licensed or certified by the Board of Medicine, and any contract for the implementation of monitoring services with respect to any such individuals, shall be subject to the prior approval of that Board.

B. Any health practitioner who has an impairment as defined in this chapter, may, on a voluntary basis, participate in the Program regardless of whether the impairment constitutes grounds for disciplinary action.

C. Disciplinary action shall be stayed upon entry of the practitioner in the Program under the following conditions:

1. No report of a possible violation of law or regulation has been made against the practitioner other than impairment or the diversion of controlled substances for personal use and such use does not constitute a danger to patients or clients.

2. The practitioner has entered the Program by written contract with the Committee.

3. Disciplinary action against the practitioner has not previously been stayed in accordance with this section.

4. The practitioner remains in compliance with the terms of his contract with the Committee.

5. The Committee has consulted with the designated representative of the relevant health regulatory board.

1997, c. 439; 2009, c. 472.

A. The Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program Committee shall consist of nine persons appointed by the Director to advise and assist in the operation of the Program, of whom eight shall be licensed, certified, or registered practitioners and one shall be a citizen member. Of the members who are licensed, certified, or registered practitioners, at least one shall be licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy in Virginia and engaged in active clinical practice, at least one shall be a registered nurse engaged in active practice, and all shall be knowledgeable about impairment and rehabilitation, particularly as related to the monitoring of health care practitioners. The Committee shall have the following powers and duties:

1. To determine, in accordance with the regulations, eligibility to enter into the Program;

2. To determine, in accordance with the regulations, those Program participants who are eligible for stayed disciplinary action;

3. To enter into written contracts with practitioners which may include, among other terms and conditions, withdrawal from practice or limitations on the scope of the practice for a period of time;

4. To report to the Director and the health regulatory boards as necessary on the status of applicants for and participants in the Program;

5. To report to the Director, at least annually, on the performance of the Program; and

6. To assist the Director in carrying out the provisions of this chapter.

B. Records of the Program, to the extent such records identify individual practitioners in the Program, shall be privileged and confidential, and shall not be disclosed consistent with the Virginia Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq.). Such records shall be used only in the exercise of the proper functions as set forth in this chapter and shall not be public records nor shall such records be subject to court order, except as provided in subdivision C 4, or be subject to discovery or introduction as evidence in any civil, criminal, or administrative proceedings except those conducted by a health regulatory board.

C. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection B and of subdivision 2 of § 2.2-3705.5, the Committee may disclose such records relative to an impaired practitioner only:

1. When disclosure of the information is essential to the monitoring needs of the impaired practitioner;

2. When release of the information has been authorized in writing by the impaired practitioner;

3. To a health regulatory board within the Department of Health Professions; or

4. When an order by a court of competent jurisdiction has been granted, upon a showing of good cause therefor, including the need to avert a substantial risk of death or serious bodily harm. In assessing good cause, the court shall weigh the public interest and the need for disclosure against the injury to the patient, to the physician-patient relationship, and to the treatment services. Upon the granting of such order, the court, in determining the extent to which any disclosure of all or any part of any record is necessary, shall impose appropriate protections against unauthorized disclosures.

D. Pursuant to subdivision A 24 of § 2.2-3711, the proceedings of the Committee which in any way pertain or refer to a specific practitioner who may be, or who is actually, impaired and who may be or is, by reason of such impairment, subject to disciplinary action by the relevant board shall be excluded from the requirements of the Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq.) and may be closed. Such proceedings shall be privileged and confidential.

E. The members of the Committee shall be immune from liability resulting from the exercise of the powers and duties of the Committee as provided in § 8.01-581.13.

1997, c. 439; 1999, cc. 703, 726; 2004, c. 690; 2009, c. 472; 2016, c. 105; 2017, c. 778.

This chapter shall not be construed to inhibit an investigation into the conduct of a practitioner by the Department of Health Professions or any other authorized agency, including, but not limited to, law-enforcement or health regulatory agencies, or to prohibit the prosecution of any practitioner for any violation of law.

1997, c. 439.

Chapter 25.2. Prescription Monitoring Program.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Administer" means the direct application of a controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion or any other means, to the body of a patient or research subject by (i) a practitioner or, under the practitioner's direction, his authorized agent or (ii) the patient or research subject at the direction and in the presence of the practitioner.

"Bureau" means the Virginia Department of State Police, Bureau of Criminal Investigation, Drug Diversion Unit.

"Controlled substance" means a drug, substance or immediate precursor in Schedules I through VI of the Drug Control Act, Chapter 34 (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) of this title.

"Covered substance" means all controlled substances included in Schedules II, III, and IV; controlled substances included in Schedule V for which a prescription is required; naloxone; and all drugs of concern that are required to be reported to the Prescription Monitoring Program, pursuant to this chapter. "Covered substance" also includes cannabis products dispensed by a pharmaceutical processor in Virginia.

"Department" means the Virginia Department of Health Professions.

"Director" means the Director of the Virginia Department of Health Professions.

"Dispense" means to deliver a controlled substance to an ultimate user, research subject, or owner of an animal patient by or pursuant to the lawful order of a practitioner, including the prescribing and administering, packaging, labeling or compounding necessary to prepare the substance for that delivery.

"Dispenser" means a person or entity that (i) is authorized by law to dispense a covered substance or to maintain a stock of covered substances for the purpose of dispensing, and (ii) dispenses the covered substance to a citizen of the Commonwealth regardless of the location of the dispenser, or who dispenses such covered substance from a location in Virginia regardless of the location of the recipient.

"Drug of concern" means any drug or substance, including any controlled substance or other drug or substance, where there has been or there is the potential for abuse and that has been identified by the Board of Pharmacy pursuant to § 54.1-3456.1.

"Prescriber" means a practitioner licensed in the Commonwealth who is authorized pursuant to §§ 54.1-3303 and 54.1-3408 to issue a prescription for a covered substance or a practitioner licensed in another state to so issue a prescription for a covered substance.

"Recipient" means a person who receives a covered substance from a dispenser and includes the owner of an animal patient.

"Relevant health regulatory board" means any such board that licenses persons or entities with the authority to prescribe or dispense covered substances, including the Board of Dentistry, the Board of Medicine, the Board of Veterinary Medicine, and the Board of Pharmacy.

2002, c. 481; 2005, cc. 637, 678; 2014, c. 664; 2018, cc. 185, 379, 567, 772; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 227, 228.

A. The Director shall establish, maintain, and administer an electronic system to monitor the dispensing of covered substances to be known as the Prescription Monitoring Program.

B. The Director, after consultation with relevant health regulatory boards, shall promulgate, in accordance with the provisions of the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.), such regulations as are necessary to implement the prescription monitoring program as provided in this chapter, including, but not limited to, the establishment of criteria for granting waivers of the reporting requirements set forth in § 54.1-2521.

C. The Director may enter into contracts as may be necessary for the implementation and maintenance of the Prescription Monitoring Program.

D. The Director shall provide dispensers with a basic file layout to enable electronic transmission of the information required in this chapter. For those dispensers unable to transmit the required information electronically, the Director shall provide an alternative means of data transmission.

E. The Director shall also establish an advisory committee within the Department to assist in the implementation and evaluation of the Prescription Monitoring Program. Such advisory committee shall provide guidance to the Director regarding information disclosed pursuant to subdivision C 9 of § 54.1-2523.

2002, c. 481; 2005, cc. 637, 678; 2014, c. 664; 2016, cc. 410, 568; 2018, cc. 185, 379.

This section has more than one version with varying effective dates. To view a complete list of the versions of this section see Table of Contents.

A. The failure by any person subject to the reporting requirements set forth in this section and the Department's regulations to report the dispensing of covered substances shall constitute grounds for disciplinary action by the relevant health regulatory board.

B. Upon dispensing a covered substance, a dispenser of such covered substance shall report the following information:

1. The recipient's name and address.

2. The recipient's date of birth.

3. The covered substance that was dispensed to the recipient, which, in the case of a cannabis product, shall be listed as the primary cannabinoid of such cannabis product.

4. The quantity of the covered substance that was dispensed.

5. The date of the dispensing.

6. The prescriber's identifier number and, in cases in which the covered substance is a cannabis product, the product's national drug code and the expiration date of the written certification.

7. The dispenser's identifier number.

8. The method of payment for the prescription.

9. Any other non-clinical information that is designated by the Director as necessary for the implementation of this chapter in accordance with the Department's regulations.

10. Any other information specified in regulations promulgated by the Director as required in order for the Prescription Monitoring Program to be eligible to receive federal funds.

C. Except as provided in subdivision 7 of § 54.1-2522, in cases where the ultimate user of a covered substance is an animal, the dispenser shall report the relevant information required by subsection B for the owner of the animal.

D. The reports required herein shall be made to the Department or its agent within 24 hours or the dispenser's next business day, whichever comes later, and shall be made and transmitted in such manner and format and according to the standards and schedule established in the Department's regulations.

2002, c. 481; 2006, c. 167; 2012, cc. 21, 71; 2016, c. 309; 2018, cc. 567, 772; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 227, 228; 2023, c. 799.

A. The failure by any person subject to the reporting requirements set forth in this section and the Department's regulations to report the dispensing of covered substances shall constitute grounds for disciplinary action by the relevant health regulatory board.

B. Upon dispensing a covered substance, a dispenser of such covered substance shall report the following information:

1. The recipient's name and address.

2. The recipient's date of birth.

3. The covered substance that was dispensed to the recipient, which, in the case of a cannabis product, shall be listed as the primary cannabinoid of such cannabis product.

4. The quantity of the covered substance that was dispensed.

5. The date of the dispensing.

6. The prescriber's identifier number and, in cases in which the covered substance is a cannabis product, the product's national drug code and the expiration date of the written certification.

7. The dispenser's identifier number.

8. The method of payment for the prescription.

9. Any other non-clinical information that is designated by the Director as necessary for the implementation of this chapter in accordance with the Department's regulations.

10. Any other information specified in regulations promulgated by the Director as required in order for the Prescription Monitoring Program to be eligible to receive federal funds.

C. Except as provided in subdivision 6 of § 54.1-2522, in cases where the ultimate user of a covered substance is an animal, the dispenser shall report the relevant information required by subsection B for the owner of the animal.

D. The reports required herein shall be made to the Department or its agent within 24 hours or the dispenser's next business day, whichever comes later, and shall be made and transmitted in such manner and format and according to the standards and schedule established in the Department's regulations.

2002, c. 481; 2006, c. 167; 2012, cc. 21, 71; 2016, c. 309; 2018, cc. 567, 772; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 227, 228; 2023, c. 799; 2025, c. 298.

This section has more than one version with varying effective dates. To view a complete list of the versions of this section see Table of Contents.

The dispensing of covered substances under the following circumstances shall be exempt from the reporting requirements set forth in § 54.1-2521:

1. Dispensing of manufacturers' samples of such covered substances or of covered substances dispensed pursuant to an indigent patient program offered by a pharmaceutical manufacturer.

2. Dispensing of covered substances by a practitioner of the healing arts to his patient in a bona fide medical emergency or when pharmaceutical services are not available.

3. Administering of covered substances.

4. Dispensing of covered substances within an appropriately licensed narcotic maintenance treatment program.

5. Dispensing of covered substances to inpatients in hospitals or nursing facilities licensed by the Board of Health or facilities that are otherwise authorized by law to operate as hospitals or nursing homes in the Commonwealth.

6. Dispensing of covered substances to inpatients in hospices licensed by the Board of Health.

7. Dispensing of covered substances by veterinarians to animals within the usual course of their professional practice for a course of treatment to last seven days or less or if such covered substance is feline buprenorphine or canine butorphanol.

8. Dispensing of covered substances as otherwise provided in the Department's regulations.

2002, c. 481; 2018, c. 772; 2019, c. 686.

This section has more than one version with varying effective dates. To view a complete list of the versions of this section see Table of Contents.

The dispensing of covered substances under the following circumstances shall be exempt from the reporting requirements set forth in § 54.1-2521:

1. Dispensing of manufacturers' samples of such covered substances or of covered substances dispensed pursuant to an indigent patient program offered by a pharmaceutical manufacturer.

2. Dispensing of covered substances by a practitioner of the healing arts to his patient in a bona fide medical emergency or when pharmaceutical services are not available.

3. Administering of covered substances.

Dispensing of covered substances to inpatients in hospitals or nursing facilities licensed by the Board of Health or facilities that are otherwise authorized by law to operate as hospitals or nursing homes in the Commonwealth.

5. Dispensing of covered substances to inpatients in hospices licensed by the Board of Health.

6. Dispensing of covered substances by veterinarians to animals within the usual course of their professional practice for a course of treatment to last seven days or less or if such covered substance is feline buprenorphine or canine butorphanol.

7. Dispensing of covered substances as otherwise provided in the Department's regulations.

2002, c. 481; 2018, c. 772; 2019, c. 686; 2025, c. 298.

This section has more than one version with varying effective dates. To view a complete list of the versions of this section see Table of Contents.

A. Any prescriber who is licensed in the Commonwealth to treat human patients and is authorized pursuant to §§ 54.1-3303 and 54.1-3408 to issue a prescription for a covered substance shall be registered with the Prescription Monitoring Program by the Department of Health Professions.

B. A prescriber registered with the Prescription Monitoring Program or a person to whom he has delegated authority to access information in the possession of the Prescription Monitoring Program pursuant to § 54.1-2523.2 shall, at the time of initiating a new course of treatment to a human patient that includes the prescribing of opioids anticipated at the onset of treatment to last more than seven consecutive days, request information from the Director for the purpose of determining (i) what, if any, other covered substances are currently prescribed to the patient and (ii) whether and under what circumstances the patient has experienced an opioid overdose. In addition, any prescriber of controlled substances approved for use in opioid addiction therapy shall, prior to or as a part of execution of a treatment agreement with the patient, request information from the Director for the purpose of determining (a) what, if any, other covered substances the patient is currently being prescribed and (b) whether and under what circumstances the patient has experienced an opioid overdose. Nothing in this section shall prohibit prescribers from making additional periodic requests for information from the Director as may be required by routine prescribing practices.

C. A prescriber shall not be required to meet the provisions of subsection B if:

1. The opioid is prescribed to a patient currently receiving hospice or palliative care;

2. The opioid is prescribed to a patient during an inpatient hospital admission or at discharge;

3. The opioid is prescribed to a patient in a nursing home or a patient in an assisted living facility that uses a sole source pharmacy;

4. The opioid is prescribed to a patient for pain management related to sickle cell anemia;

5. The Prescription Monitoring Program is not operational or available due to temporary technological or electrical failure or natural disaster; or

6. The prescriber is unable to access the Prescription Monitoring Program due to emergency or disaster and documents such circumstances in the patient's medical record.

D. Prior to issuing a written certification for the use of cannabis oil in accordance with § 4.1-1601, a practitioner shall request information from the Director for the purpose of determining what, if any, other covered substances have been dispensed to the patient.

2014, cc. 93, 178; 2015, c. 517; 2016, cc. 113, 406; 2017, cc. 249, 252; 2018, cc. 102, 106, 567; 2023, cc. 740, 773; 2024, c. 635; 2025, cc. 168, 487.

A. Any prescriber who is licensed in the Commonwealth to treat human patients and is authorized pursuant to §§ 54.1-3303 and 54.1-3408 to issue a prescription for a covered substance shall be registered with the Prescription Monitoring Program by the Department of Health Professions.

B. Prescribers registered with the Prescription Monitoring Program shall, at the time of initiating a new course of treatment to a human patient that includes the prescribing of benzodiazepine or an opiate anticipated at the onset of treatment to last more than 90 consecutive days, request information from the Director for the purpose of determining (i) what, if any, other covered substances are currently prescribed to the patient and (ii) whether and under what circumstances the patient has experienced an opioid overdose. In addition, any prescriber of controlled substances approved for use in opioid addiction therapy shall, prior to or as a part of execution of a treatment agreement with the patient, request information from the Director for the purpose of determining (a) what, if any, other covered substances the patient is currently being prescribed and (b) whether and under what circumstances the patient has experienced an opioid overdose. Nothing in this section shall prohibit prescribers from making additional periodic requests for information from the Director as may be required by routine prescribing practices.

C. The Secretary of Health and Human Resources may identify and publish a list of benzodiazepines or opiates that have a low potential for abuse by human patients. Prescribers who prescribe such identified benzodiazepines or opiates shall not be required to meet the provisions of subsection B. In addition, a prescriber shall not be required to meet the provisions of subsection B if the course of treatment arises from pain management relating to dialysis, cancer treatments, or sickle cell anemia.

D. Prior to issuing a written certification for the use of cannabis oil in accordance with § 4.1-1601, a practitioner shall request information from the Director for the purpose of determining what, if any, other covered substances have been dispensed to the patient.

2014, cc. 93, 178; 2015, c. 517; 2016, cc. 113, 406; 2017, cc. 249, 252; 2018, cc. 102, 106, 567; 2023, cc. 740, 773; 2024, c. 635; 2025, cc. 168, 487.

The Department shall register every dispenser licensed by the Board of Pharmacy pursuant to Article 3 (§ 54.1-3310 et seq.) of Chapter 33 with the Prescription Monitoring Program.

2015, c. 517.

A. All data, records, and reports relating to the prescribing and dispensing of covered substances to recipients and any abstracts from such data, records, and reports that are in the possession of the Prescription Monitoring Program pursuant to this chapter and any material relating to the operation or security of the program shall be confidential and shall be exempt from the Virginia Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq.) pursuant to subdivision 2 of § 2.2-3705.5. Records in possession of the Prescription Monitoring Program shall not be available for civil subpoena, nor shall such records be disclosed, discoverable, or compelled to be produced in any civil proceeding, nor shall such records be deemed admissible as evidence in any civil proceeding for any reason. Further, the Director shall only have discretion to disclose any such information as provided in subsections B and C.

B. Upon receiving a request for information in accordance with the Department's regulations and in compliance with applicable federal law and regulations, the Director shall disclose the following:

1. Information relevant to a specific investigation of a specific recipient or of a specific dispenser or prescriber to an agent who has completed the Virginia State Police Drug Diversion School designated by the superintendent of the Department of State Police or designated by the chief law-enforcement officer of any county, city, or town or campus police department to conduct drug diversion investigations pursuant to § 54.1-3405.

2. Information relevant to an investigation or inspection of or allegation of misconduct by a specific person licensed, certified, or registered by or an applicant for licensure, certification, or registration by a health regulatory board; information relevant to a disciplinary proceeding before a health regulatory board or in any subsequent trial or appeal of an action or board order to designated employees of the Department of Health Professions; or to designated persons operating the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program pursuant to Chapter 25.1 (§ 54.1-2515 et seq.).

3. Information relevant to the proceedings of any investigatory grand jury or special grand jury that has been properly impaneled in accordance with the provisions of Chapter 13 (§ 19.2-191 et seq.) of Title 19.2.

4. Information relevant to a specific investigation of a specific recipient, dispenser, or prescriber to an agent of a federal law-enforcement agency with authority to conduct drug diversion investigations.

5. Information relevant to a specific investigation, supervision, or monitoring of a specific recipient for purposes of the administration of criminal justice pursuant to Chapter 1 (§ 9.1-100 et seq.) of Title 9.1 to a probation or parole officer as described in Article 2 (§ 53.1-141 et seq.) of Chapter 4 of Title 53.1, a local community-based probation officer as described in § 9.1-176.1, a drug court administrator as described in § 18.2-254.1, or a behavioral health docket administrator as described in § 18.2-254.3 who has completed the Virginia State Police Drug Diversion School designated by the Director of the Department of Corrections or his designee.

6. Information relevant to a specific investigation of a specific individual into a possible delivery of a controlled substance in violation of § 18.2-474.1 to an investigator for the Department of Corrections who has completed the Virginia State Police Drug Diversion School and who has been designated by the Director of the Department of Corrections or his designee.

7. Information about a specific recipient to the Smartchart Network Program in accordance with subdivision B 7 of § 32.1-372.

C. In accordance with the Department's regulations and applicable federal law and regulations, the Director may, in his discretion, disclose:

1. Information in the possession of the Prescription Monitoring Program concerning a recipient who is over the age of 18 to that recipient. The information shall be mailed to the street or mailing address indicated on the recipient request form.

2. Information on a specific recipient to a prescriber, as defined in this chapter, for the purpose of establishing the treatment history of the specific recipient when such recipient is either under care and treatment by the prescriber or the prescriber is consulting on or initiating treatment of such recipient. In a manner specified by the Director in regulation, notice shall be given to patients that information may be requested by the prescriber from the Prescription Monitoring Program.

3. Information on a specific recipient to a dispenser for the purpose of establishing a prescription history to assist the dispenser in (i) determining the validity of a prescription in accordance with § 54.1-3303 or (ii) providing clinical consultation on the care and treatment of the recipient. In a manner specified by the Director in regulation, notice shall be given to patients that information may be requested by the dispenser from the Prescription Monitoring Program.

4. Information relevant to an investigation or regulatory proceeding of a specific dispenser or prescriber to other regulatory authorities concerned with granting, limiting or denying licenses, certificates or registrations to practice a health profession when such regulatory authority licenses such dispenser or prescriber or such dispenser or prescriber is seeking licensure by such other regulatory authority.

5. Information relevant to an investigation relating to a specific dispenser or prescriber who is a participating provider in the Virginia Medicaid program or information relevant to an investigation relating to a specific recipient who is currently eligible for and receiving or who has been eligible for and has received medical assistance services to the Medicaid Fraud Control Unit of the Office of the Attorney General or to designated employees of the Department of Medical Assistance Services, as appropriate.

6. Information relevant to determination of the cause of death of a specific recipient to the designated employees of the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner.

7. Information for the purpose of bona fide research or education to qualified personnel; however, data elements that would reasonably identify a specific recipient, prescriber, or dispenser shall be deleted or redacted from such information prior to disclosure. Further, release of the information shall only be made pursuant to a written agreement between such qualified personnel and the Director in order to ensure compliance with this subdivision.

8. Information relating to prescriptions for covered substances issued by a specific prescriber, which have been dispensed and reported to the Prescription Monitoring Program, to that prescriber.

9. Information about a specific recipient who is a member of a Virginia Medicaid managed care program to a physician or pharmacist licensed in the Commonwealth and employed by the Virginia Medicaid managed care program or to his clinical designee who holds a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing or a license issued by a health regulatory board within the Department of Health Professions and is employed by the Virginia Medicaid managed care program. Such information shall only be used to determine eligibility for and to manage the care of the specific recipient in a Patient Utilization Management Safety or similar program. Notice shall be given to recipients that information may be requested by a licensed physician or pharmacist employed by the Virginia Medicaid managed care program from the Prescription Monitoring Program.

10. [Expired.]

11. Information about a specific recipient who is currently eligible for and receiving medical assistance from the Department of Medical Assistance Services to a physician or pharmacist licensed in the Commonwealth or to his clinical designee who holds a multistate licensure privilege to practice nursing or a license issued by a health regulatory board within the Department of Health Professions and is employed by the Department of Medical Assistance Services.

Such information shall be used only to determine eligibility for and to manage the care of the specific recipient in a Patient Utilization Management Safety or similar program. Notice shall be given to recipients that information may be requested by a licensed physician or pharmacist employed by the Department of Medical Assistance Services from the Prescription Monitoring Program.

D. The Director may enter into agreements for mutual exchange of information among prescription monitoring programs in other jurisdictions, which shall only use the information for purposes allowed by this chapter.

E. This section shall not be construed to supersede the provisions of § 54.1-3406 concerning the divulging of confidential records relating to investigative information.

F. Confidential information that has been received, maintained or developed by any board or disclosed by the board pursuant to subsection A shall not, under any circumstances, be available for discovery or court subpoena or introduced into evidence in any medical malpractice suit or other action for damages arising out of the provision of or failure to provide services. However, this subsection shall not be construed to inhibit any investigation or prosecution conducted pursuant to Article 1 (§ 18.2-247 et seq.) of Chapter 7 of Title 18.2.

2002, c. 481; 2004, c. 690; 2005, cc. 637, 678; 2009, cc. 158, 162, 472; 2012, cc. 21, 71; 2013, c. 739; 2014, cc. 12, 97; 2015, cc. 118, 507; 2016, cc. 309, 410, 447, 568; 2017, cc. 186, 778; 2018, c. 108; 2019, c. 679; 2020, cc. 1066, 1067; 2023, cc. 628, 629; 2024, c. 33.

Any prescriber or dispenser authorized to access the information in the possession of the Prescription Monitoring Program pursuant to this chapter may, pursuant to regulations promulgated by the Director to implement the provisions of this section, delegate such authority to individuals who are employed or engaged at the same facility and under the direct supervision of the prescriber or dispenser and (i) are licensed, registered, or certified by a health regulatory board under the Department of Health Professions or in another jurisdiction or (ii) have routine access to confidential patient data and have signed a patient data confidentiality agreement.

2009, cc. 158, 162; 2012, cc. 21, 71; 2014, c. 72; 2016, cc. 113, 406; 2022, c. 747.

A. The Director shall develop, in consultation with an advisory panel which shall include representatives of the Boards of Medicine and Pharmacy, the Department of Health, the Department of Medical Assistance Services, and the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, criteria for indicators of unusual patterns of prescribing or dispensing of covered substances by prescribers or dispensers and misuse of covered substances by recipients and a method for analysis of data collected by the Prescription Monitoring Program using the criteria for indicators of misuse to identify unusual patterns of prescribing or dispensing of covered substances by individual prescribers or dispensers or potential misuse of a covered substance by a recipient. The Director, in consultation with the panel, shall annually review controlled substance prescribing and dispensing patterns and shall (i) make any necessary changes to the criteria for unusual patterns of prescribing and dispensing required by this subsection and (ii) report any findings and recommendations for best practices to the Joint Commission on Health Care by November 1 of each year.

B. In cases in which analysis of data collected by the Prescription Monitoring Program using the criteria for indicators of misuse indicates an unusual pattern of prescribing or dispensing of a covered substance by an individual prescriber or dispenser or potential misuse of a covered substance by a recipient, the Director may, in addition to the discretionary disclosure of information pursuant to § 54.1-2523:

1. Disclose information about the unusual prescribing or dispensing of a covered substance by an individual prescriber or dispenser to the Enforcement Division of the Department of Health Professions; or

2. Disclose information about the specific recipient to (i) the prescriber or prescribers who have prescribed a covered substance to the recipient for the purpose of intervention to prevent misuse of such covered substance or (ii) an agent who has completed the Virginia State Police Drug Diversion School designated by the Superintendent of State Police or designated by the chief law-enforcement officer of any county, city, or town or campus police department for the purpose of an investigation into possible drug diversion.

2005, cc. 637, 678; 2012, cc. 21, 71; 2013, c. 739; 2016, c. 98; 2018, cc. 190, 239.

This section has more than one version with varying effective dates. To view a complete list of the versions of this section see Table of Contents.

Any prescriber or dispenser authorized to access the information in the possession of the Prescription Monitoring Program pursuant to this chapter may, pursuant to regulations promulgated by the Director to implement the provisions of this section, delegate such authority to health care professionals who are (i) licensed, registered, or certified by a health regulatory board under the Department of Health Professions or in another jurisdiction and (ii) employed at the same facility and under the direct supervision of the prescriber or dispenser.

2009, cc. 158, 162; 2012, cc. 21, 71; 2014, c. 72.

A. The Director and the employees of the Department of Health Professions shall not be liable for any civil damages resulting from the accuracy or inaccuracy of any information reported to and compiled and maintained by the Department pursuant to this chapter.

Further, the Director and the employees of the Department of Health Professions shall not be liable for any civil damages resulting from the disclosure of or failure to disclose any information in compliance with subsections B and C of § 54.1-2523 and the Department's regulations.

B. In the absence of gross negligence or willful misconduct, prescribers or dispensers complying in good faith with the reporting requirements of this chapter shall not be liable for any civil damages for any act or omission resulting from the submission of such required reports.

2002, c. 481.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person having access to the confidential information in the possession of the program or any data or reports produced by the program to disclose such confidential information except as provided in this chapter. Any person having access to the confidential information in the possession of the program or any data or reports produced by the program who discloses such confidential information in violation of this chapter shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor upon conviction.

B. It shall be unlawful for any person who lawfully receives confidential information from the Prescription Monitoring Program to redisclose or use such confidential information in any way other than the authorized purpose for which the request was made. Any person who lawfully receives information from the Prescription Monitoring Program and discloses such confidential information in violation of this chapter shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor upon conviction.

C. Nothing in this section shall prohibit (i) a person who prescribes or dispenses a covered substance to a recipient required to be reported to the program from redisclosing information obtained from the Prescription Monitoring Program to another prescriber or dispenser who has responsibility for treating the recipient or (ii) a person who prescribes a covered substance from placing information obtained from the Prescription Monitoring Program in the recipient's medical record.

D. Information obtained from the Prescription Monitoring Program pursuant to subdivision B 7 of § 32.1-372 shall become part of the patient's medical record.

E. Unauthorized use or disclosure of confidential information received from the Prescription Monitoring Program shall also be grounds for disciplinary action by the relevant health regulatory board.

2002, c. 481; 2011, cc. 812, 844; 2016, c. 309; 2020, cc. 1066, 1067; 2023, cc. 628, 629.

The provisions of Chapter 20.1 (§ 2.2-2005 et seq.) of Title 2.2 shall not apply to the Prescription Monitoring Program pursuant to this chapter operated by the Department of Health Professions until July 1, 2012, unless an alternate date is mutually agreed upon.

2009, cc. 158, 162.

Chapter 26. Audiology and Speech-language Pathology.

Article 1. General Provisions.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Audiologist" means any person who engages in the practice of audiology.

"Board" means the Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology.

"Practice of audiology" means the practice of conducting measurement, testing and evaluation relating to hearing and vestibular systems, including audiologic and electrophysiological measures, and conducting programs of identification, hearing conservation, habilitation, and rehabilitation for the purpose of identifying disorders of the hearing and vestibular systems and modifying communicative disorders related to hearing loss, including but not limited to vestibular evaluation, limited cerumen management, electrophysiological audiometry and cochlear implants. Any person offering services to the public under any descriptive name or title which would indicate that audiology services are being offered shall be deemed to be practicing audiology.

"Practice of speech-language pathology" means the practice of facilitating development and maintenance of human communication through programs of screening, identifying, assessing and interpreting, diagnosing, habilitating and rehabilitating speech-language disorders, including but not limited to:

1. Providing alternative communication systems and instruction and training in the use thereof;

2. Providing aural habilitation, rehabilitation and counseling services to individuals who are deaf or hard of hearing and their families;

3. Enhancing speech-language proficiency and communication effectiveness; and

4. Providing audiologic screening.

Any person offering services to the public under any descriptive name or title which would indicate that professional speech-language pathology services are being offered shall be deemed to be practicing speech-language pathology.

"Speech-language disorders" means disorders in fluency, speech articulation, voice, receptive and expressive language (syntax, morphology, semantics, pragmatics), swallowing disorders, and cognitive communication functioning.

"Speech-language pathologist" means any person who engages in the practice of speech-language pathology.

1972, c. 181, § 54-83.1:5; 1974, c. 534; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 706; 2014, c. 327; 2019, c. 288.

This chapter shall not:

1. Prevent any person from engaging, individually or through his employees, in activities for which he is licensed or from using appropriate descriptive words, phrases or titles to refer to his services;

2. Prevent any person employed by a federal, state, county or municipal agency, or an educational institution as a speech or hearing specialist or therapist from performing the regular duties of his office or position;

3. Prevent any student, intern or trainee in audiology or speech-language pathology, pursuing a course of study at an accredited institution of higher education, or working in a recognized training center, under the direct supervision of a licensed or certified audiologist or speech-language pathologist, from performing services constituting a part of his supervised course of study;

4. Prevent a licensed audiologist or speech-language pathologist from employing or using the services of unlicensed persons as necessary to assist him in his practice;

5. Authorize any person, unless otherwise licensed to do so, to prepare, order, dispense, alter or repair hearing aids or parts of or attachments to hearing aids for consideration. However, audiologists licensed under this chapter may make earmold impressions and prepare and alter earmolds for clinical use and research;

6. Prevent an audiologist from volunteering to provide free health care to an underserved area of the Commonwealth under the auspices of a publicly supported nonprofit organization that sponsors the provision of health care to populations of underserved people if they do so for a period not exceeding three consecutive days and if the nonprofit organization verifies that the practitioner has a valid, unrestricted license in another state.

1972, c. 181, § 54-83.1:7; 1978, c. 34; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 706; 2022, c. 173.

The Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology shall consist of seven members as follows: two licensed audiologists, two licensed speech-language pathologists, one otolaryngologist, and two citizen members. The terms of Board members shall be four years. All professional members of the Board shall have actively practiced their professions for at least two years prior to their appointments.

The Board shall elect annually a chairman and a vice-chairman.

The Board shall be authorized to promulgate canons of ethics under which the professional activities of persons regulated shall be conducted.

1972, c. 181, §§ 54-83.1:8, 54-83.1:10; 1978, c. 34; 1979, c. 296; 1981, c. 447; 1987, c. 686, § 54-83.1:8.1; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 706; 2013, c. 436.

A. In order to practice audiology or speech pathology, it shall be necessary to hold a valid license.

B. Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision 2 of § 54.1-2601, the Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology may license as school speech-language pathologists any person who holds a master's degree in speech-language pathology. The Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology shall issue licenses to such persons without examination, upon review of credentials and payment of an application fee in accordance with regulations of the Board for school speech-language pathologists.

Persons holding such licenses as school speech-language pathologists, without examination, shall practice solely in public school divisions; holding a license as a school speech-language pathologist pursuant to this section shall not authorize such persons to practice outside the school setting or in any setting other than the public schools of the Commonwealth, unless such individuals are licensed by the Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology to offer to the public the services defined in § 54.1-2600.

The Board shall issue any person licensed as a school speech-language pathologist a license that notes the limitations on practice set forth in this subsection.

Persons who hold licenses issued by the Board of Audiology and Speech-Language Pathology without these limitations shall be exempt from the requirements of this subsection.

1979, c. 408, § 54-83.1:011; 1988, c. 765; 1999, cc. 967, 1005; 2014, c. 781.

The Board may issue a provisional license to an applicant for licensure in audiology or speech-language pathology who has met the educational and examination requirements for licensure, to allow for the applicant to obtain clinical experience as specified in the Board's regulations. However, a person practicing with a provisional license in audiology shall practice only under the supervision of a licensed audiologist and a person practicing with a provisional license in speech-language pathology shall practice only under the supervision of a licensed speech-language pathologist in accordance with regulations established by the Board.

2006, c. 97; 2013, c. 436.

A person who has met the qualifications prescribed by the Board may practice as an assistant speech-language pathologist in accordance with regulations of the Board and may perform limited duties that are otherwise restricted to the practice of a speech-language pathologist under the supervision and direction of a licensed speech-language pathologist.

2014, c. 661; 2016, c. 77; 2025, c. 649.

Article 3. Licensure of Speech-language Pathology Assistants.

A. No person shall practice as a speech-language pathology assistant unless he possesses a current, active, and valid license from the Board. The licensee shall have the right to practice as a speech-language pathology assistant in the Commonwealth for the period of his license as set by the Board, under the supervision and direction of a licensed speech-language pathologist.

B. An application for such license shall be made to the Board in writing and shall be accompanied by satisfactory proof that the applicant (i) has completed a Board-approved eligibility pathway option, described in subsection C, and (ii) has completed a minimum of 100 hours of supervised clinical experience under the direct supervision of a licensed speech-language pathologist.

C. In order to practice as a speech-language pathology assistant, an applicant for licensure shall complete a Board-approved eligibility pathway that includes:

1. (i) Obtaining a two-year speech-language pathology assistant program degree from an accredited institution, (ii) completing the prerequisite courses required by subsection D, and (iii) completing the clinical field work required by subsection E;

2. (i) Obtaining a bachelor's degree in communication sciences and disorders from an accredited institution; (ii) completing (a) the online education modules offered by the American Speech-Language-Hearing Association or (b) a program equivalent to the online education modules offered by the American Speech-Language-Hearing Association; (iii) completing the prerequisite courses required by subsection D; and (iv) completing the clinical field work required by subsection E; or

3. (i) Obtaining a bachelor's or associate's degree from an accredited institution; (ii) completing a speech-language pathology assistant program with equivalent course work, or completing academic course work from an accredited institution of higher education in the following areas: (a) introductory or overview course in communication disorders, (b) phonetics, (c) speech sound disorders, (d) language development, (e) language disorders, and (f) anatomy and physiology of speech and hearing mechanisms; (iii) completing the prerequisite courses required by subsection D; and (iv) completing the clinical field work required by subsection E.

D. In order to practice as a speech-language pathology assistant, an applicant for licensure shall complete three one-hour prerequisite courses from an approved professional development provider, academic clinical practicum program, or via employee training, on each of the following topics: (i) ethics, (ii) universal safety precautions, and (iii) patient confidentiality.

E. In order to practice as a speech-language pathology assistant, an applicant for licensure shall complete a minimum of 100 hours of clinical field work, including (i) 80 hours of direct patient/client/student services under the supervision of a licensed speech-language pathologist and (ii) 20 hours of indirect patient/client/student services under the supervision of a licensed speech-language pathologist. Such hours may be completed via an academic practicum or on the job under the supervision of a licensed speech-language pathologist. Hours completed via an academic practicum or on the job shall be no more than five years old at the time of application for licensure. Observation, simulation, and graduate practicum hours shall not count toward such requirement.

F. The Board may grant a license to practice as a speech-language pathology assistant to an applicant licensed to practice in another jurisdiction if he (i) meets the requirements of subsection B; (ii) holds a current, unrestricted license to practice as a speech-language pathology assistant in another jurisdiction in the United States; (iii) has not committed any act that would constitute grounds for denial as set forth in § 54.1-2706; and (iv) meets other qualifications as determined in regulations promulgated by the Board.

G. The Board shall promulgate regulations (i) establishing the number of speech-language pathology assistants that may practice under the supervision of one licensed speech-language pathologist, not to exceed three speech-language pathology assistants under the supervision of one licensed speech-language pathologist, and (ii) defining (a) "direct supervision" as the in-view observation and guidance by a licensed speech-language pathologist of a speech-language pathology assistant while such speech language pathology assistant performs an assigned activity and (b) "indirect supervision" as the monitoring or reviewing of the activities performed by a speech-language pathology assistant by a licensed speech-language pathologist, excluding observation and guidance provided during the provision of direct services to a student, patient, or client.

2025, c. 649.

A. A licensed speech-language pathology assistant shall only engage in those duties that adhere to the code of ethics of the Board and are planned, designed, and supervised by a licensed speech-language pathologist, including:

1. Assisting with speech, language, and hearing screenings without clinical interpretation of results;

2. Administering and scoring screenings for clinical interpretation by the supervising speech-language pathologist;

3. Assisting with, but not administering or interpreting the results of, client assessments, including setting up the testing environment, gathering and preparing materials, and taking notes;

4. Administering and scoring assessments and progress monitoring tools without clinical interpretation of results, if the licensed speech-language pathology assistant meets the examiner requirements for such tools and the supervising speech-language pathologist has verified that such examiner requirements have been met;

5. Performing routine activities for therapy sessions in accordance with a plan developed and directed by the speech-language pathologist who retains the professional responsibility for such client, including (i) implementing documented care plans or protocols, (ii) providing direct therapy services to address treatment goals, (iii) adjusting and documenting the amount and type of support or scaffolding provided to the client in treatment to facilitate progress, and (iv) developing and implementing activities and materials for teaching and practice of skills to address the goals of the client;

6. Providing treatment through a variety of service delivery models as directed by the supervising speech-language pathologist;

7. Utilizing telecommunications technology to provide services remotely to clients as directed by the supervising speech-language pathologist;

8. Documenting client performance and reporting such performance information to the supervising speech-language pathologist;

9. Providing caregiver coaching, including modeling and teaching communication strategies and providing feedback regarding caregiver-client interactions for facilitation and carryover of skills;

10. Sharing objective information regarding client performance without interpretation or recommendations as directed by the supervising speech-language pathologist;

11. Assisting with programming augmentative and alternative communication devices and assisting and training clients with using such devices;

12. Demonstrating strategies and assisting clients with skills included in the feeding and swallowing plan developed by the supervising speech-language pathologist;

13. Signing or initialing informal treatment notes and, upon request, co-signing formal documents with the supervising speech-language pathologist;

14. Assisting with clerical duties and site operations, including preparing materials, scheduling appointments and activities, preparing charts, records, or graphs, and performing checks and maintenance of equipment;

15. Assisting clients with transitioning to and from therapy sessions; and

16. Performing duties not otherwise restricted to the practice of speech-language pathology.

B. A speech-language pathologist assistant shall not engage in the practice of speech-language pathology, including the following:

1. Representing himself as a speech-language pathologist;

2. Performing diagnostic tests or evaluations;

3. Performing procedures that require a professional level of clinical judgment and technical skill;

4. Interpreting results and observations of feeding and swallowing evaluations or screenings performed by a speech-language pathologist;

5. Participating in formal conferences or meetings without the presence of the supervising speech-language pathologist;

6. Providing interpretative information to a client, the family of a client, or any other individual;

7. Writing, developing, or modifying a client's treatment plan;

8. Assisting in or providing services described in subsection A unless directed by the supervising speech-language pathologist;

9. Signing any formal documents in place of the supervising speech-language pathologist;

10. Selecting a client for service or discharging a client from service;

11. Making a decision regarding the need for additional services or making a referral for service;

12. Disclosing clinical or confidential information either orally or in writing to anyone other than the supervising speech-language pathologist, unless mandated by law or authorized by the supervising speech-language pathologist; or

13. Developing or determining the swallowing or feeding strategies or precautions for a client or providing feeding or swallowing treatment.

C. A licensed speech-language pathology assistant shall be supervised by a speech-language pathologist, who shall retain full legal and ethical responsibility for the client.

2025, c. 649.

The Board shall promulgate regulations requiring continuing education for any speech-language pathology assistant license renewal or reinstatement. The Board may grant exceptions or exemptions from these continuing education requirements.

2025, c. 649.

The Board may refuse to issue a license to any applicant; suspend, for a stated period or indefinitely, or revoke any license; or censure or reprimand any licensee or place such person on probation for such time as it may designate for any of the following causes:

1. Obtaining a license through fraud, deceit, or misrepresentation;

2. Being convicted of any felony or being convicted of any crime involving moral turpitude;

3. Using alcohol or drugs to the extent that such use renders the person unsafe to practice as a speech-language pathologist assistant;

4. Any unprofessional conduct likely to defraud or to deceive the public or patients;

5. Practicing in an intentional or negligent manner that causes or is likely to cause injury to a patient or patients;

6. Assisting persons whom he knew or had reason to believe were unlicensed to practice as a speech-language pathologist or speech-language pathologist assistant;

7. Violating, assisting, or inducing others to violate any provision of this article or any Board regulation;

8. Conducting his practice in a manner contrary to the standards of ethics of a speech-language pathologist assistant;

9. Practicing or causing others to practice in a manner that is dangerous to the health and welfare of his patients or to the public;

10. Practicing outside the scope of the speech-language pathologist assistant's education, training, and experience; or

11. Receiving a revocation, suspension, or restriction of a license to practice as a speech-language pathologist assistant in another state, possession, or territory of the United States or foreign country.

2025, c. 649.

The Board may revoke or suspend the license of any speech-language pathologist assistant for any of the causes set forth in § 54.1-2623, insofar as the action is applicable to practicing as a speech-language pathologist assistant.

2025, c. 649.

Chapter 27. Dentistry.

Article 1. Board of Dentistry.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Appliance" means a permanent or removable device used in a plan of dental care, including crowns, fillings, bridges, braces, dentures, orthodontic aligners, and sleep apnea devices.

"Board" means the Board of Dentistry.

"Dental hygiene" means duties related to patient assessment and the rendering of educational, preventive, and therapeutic dental services specified in regulations of the Board and not otherwise restricted to the practice of dentistry.

"Dental hygienist" means a person who is licensed by the Board to practice dental hygiene.

"Dentist" means a person who has been awarded a degree in and is licensed by the Board to practice dentistry.

"Dentistry" means the evaluation, diagnosis, prevention, and treatment, through surgical, nonsurgical, or related procedures, of diseases, disorders, and conditions of the oral cavity and the maxillofacial, adjacent, and associated structures and their impact on the human body.

"Digital scan" means digital technology that creates a computer-generated replica of the hard and soft tissues of the oral cavity using enhanced digital photography.

"Digital scan technician" means a person who has completed a training program approved by the Board to take digital scans of intraoral and extraoral hard and soft tissues for use in teledentistry.

"Digital work order" means the digital equivalent of a written dental laboratory work order used in the construction or repair of an appliance.

"License" means the document issued to an applicant upon completion of requirements for admission to practice dentistry or dental hygiene in the Commonwealth or upon registration for renewal of license to continue the practice of dentistry or dental hygiene in the Commonwealth.

"License to practice dentistry" means any license to practice dentistry issued by the Board.

"Maxillofacial" means pertaining to the jaws and face, particularly with reference to specialized surgery of this region.

"Oral and maxillofacial surgeon" means a person who has successfully completed an oral and maxillofacial residency program, approved by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association, and who holds a valid license from the Board.

"Store-and-forward technologies" means the technologies that allow for the electronic transmission of dental and health information, including images, photographs, documents, and health histories, through a secure communication system.

"Teledentistry" means the delivery of dentistry between a patient and a dentist who holds a license to practice dentistry issued by the Board through the use of telehealth systems and electronic technologies or media, including interactive, two-way audio or video.

1950, p. 983, § 54-200.1; 1970, c. 639; 1972, c. 805; 1988, c. 765; 2001, c. 662; 2013, c. 240; 2020, cc. 37, 220.

This chapter shall not:

1. Apply to a licensed physician or surgeon unless he practices dentistry as a specialty;

2. Apply to an advanced practice registered nurse certified by the Board of Nursing and the Board of Medicine except that intraoral procedures shall be performed only under the direct supervision of a licensed dentist;

3. Apply to a dentist or a dental hygienist of the United States Army, Navy, Coast Guard, Air Force, Space Force, Marine Corps, Public Health Service, or Department of Veterans Affairs;

4. Apply to any dentist of the United States Army, Navy, Coast Guard, or Air Force rendering services voluntarily and without compensation while deemed to be licensed pursuant to § 54.1-106;

5. Apply to any dentist or dental hygienist who (i) does not regularly practice dentistry in Virginia, (ii) holds a current valid license or certificate to practice as a dentist or dental hygienist in another state, territory, district or possession of the United States, (iii) volunteers to provide free health care to an underserved area of the Commonwealth under the auspices of a publicly supported nonprofit organization that sponsors the provision of health care to populations of underserved people, (iv) files a copy of the license or certificate issued in such other jurisdiction with the Board, (v) notifies the Board at least five days prior to the voluntary provision of services of the dates and location of such service, and (vi) acknowledges, in writing, that such licensure exemption shall only be valid, in compliance with the Board's regulations, during the limited period that such free health care is made available through the nonprofit organization on the dates and at the location filed with the Board. Clauses (iv), (v), and (vi) shall not apply to dentists and dental hygienists volunteering to provide free health care to an underserved area of the Commonwealth under the auspices of a publicly supported nonprofit organization that sponsors the provision of health care to populations of underserved people if they do so for a period not exceeding three consecutive days and if the nonprofit organization verifies that the practitioner has a valid, unrestricted license in another state. The Board may deny the right to practice in Virginia to any dentist or dental hygienist whose license has been previously suspended or revoked, who has been convicted of a felony, or who is otherwise found to be in violation of applicable laws or regulations; or

6. Prevent an office assistant from performing usual secretarial duties or other assistance as set forth in regulations promulgated by the Board.

Code 1950, §§ 54-149 through 54-151, 54-172; 1970, c. 639; 1972, c. 805, § 54-200.23; 1975, c. 479; 1988, c. 765; 1995, c. 509; 2002, c. 740; 2003, c. 495; 2019, c. 290; 2023, c. 183; 2024, c. 817.

The Board of Dentistry shall consist of ten members as follows: seven dentists, one citizen member and two dental hygienists.

The professional members of the Board shall be licensed practitioners of dentistry or dental hygiene, of acknowledged ability in the profession, and must have practiced dentistry or dental hygiene in this Commonwealth for at least three years.

The terms of office of the members shall be four years.

The Board shall annually choose a president and a secretary-treasurer and shall meet at least annually at such times and places as it may deem proper. A majority of the members of the Board shall constitute a quorum.

Code 1950, §§ 54-153 through 54-155, 54-157, 54-161, 54-162; 1972, c. 805; 1977, c. 669; 1985, c. 49; 1986, c. 464; 1988, cc. 42, 66, 765; 1992, c. 411.

Employees of the Department of Health Professions, when properly identified, shall be authorized, during ordinary business hours, to enter and inspect any dental office or dental laboratory for the purpose of enforcing the provisions of this chapter.

Code 1950, § 54-167; 1962, c. 45; 1972, c. 805; 1988, c. 765; 2005, cc. 505, 587.

Nominations may be made for each professional vacancy from a list of three names submitted to the Governor by the Virginia Dental Association, the Old Dominion State Dental Society, the Virginia Dental Hygienists' Association, and the Commonwealth Dental Hygienists' Society. Further, any licensee of this chapter may submit nominations to the Governor. The Governor shall not be bound to make any appointment from among the nominees.

Code 1950, § 54-156; 1972, c. 805; 1977, c. 669; 1986, c. 464; 1988, c. 765; 2005, cc. 505, 587.

The Board shall investigate the qualifications and truthfulness on registration of any applicant for a license to practice dentistry or dental hygiene, and for such purposes shall have power to send for witnesses, papers and documents, and administer oaths. The cost of such inquiry shall be borne by the applicant.

Code 1950, § 54-176; 1972, c. 805; 1975, c. 479; 1988, c. 765.

The Board may refuse to admit a candidate to any examination, refuse to issue a license to any applicant, suspend for a stated period or indefinitely, or revoke any license or censure or reprimand any licensee or place him on probation for such time as it may designate for any of the following causes:

1. Fraud, deceit or misrepresentation in obtaining a license;

2. The conviction of any felony or the conviction of any crime involving moral turpitude;

3. Use of alcohol or drugs to the extent that such use renders him unsafe to practice dentistry or dental hygiene;

4. Any unprofessional conduct likely to defraud or to deceive the public or patients;

5. Intentional or negligent conduct in the practice of dentistry or dental hygiene which causes or is likely to cause injury to a patient or patients;

6. Employing or assisting persons whom he knew or had reason to believe were unlicensed to practice dentistry or dental hygiene;

7. Publishing or causing to be published in any manner an advertisement relating to his professional practice which (i) is false, deceptive or misleading, (ii) contains a claim of superiority, or (iii) violates regulations promulgated by the Board governing advertising;

8. Mental or physical incompetence to practice his profession with safety to his patients and the public;

9. Violating, assisting, or inducing others to violate any provision of this chapter or any Board regulation;

10. Conducting his practice in a manner contrary to the standards of ethics of dentistry or dental hygiene;

11. Practicing or causing others to practice in a manner as to be a danger to the health and welfare of his patients or to the public;

12. Practicing outside the scope of the dentist's or dental hygienist's education, training, and experience;

13. Performing a procedure subject to certification without such valid certification required by the Board pursuant to § 54.1-2709.1 and Board regulations; however, procedures performed pursuant to the provisions of subsection A of § 54.1-2711.1 as part of an American Dental Association accredited residency program shall not require such certification;

14. The revocation, suspension or restriction of a license to practice dentistry or dental hygiene in another state, possession or territory of the United States or foreign country; or

15. The violation of any provision of a state or federal law or regulation relating to manufacturing, distributing, dispensing or administering drugs.

Code 1950, § 54-187; 1962, c. 45; 1972, c. 805; 1973, c. 391; 1975, c. 479; 1978, cc. 247, 248; 1984, c. 28; 1988, c. 765; 2001, c. 662; 2004, c. 64; 2005, cc. 505, 587.

Reserved.

Except in the case of a monetary penalty, the Board may take disciplinary action notwithstanding any action pending before or consummated before any court or any criminal penalty which has been or may be imposed.

1972, c. 805, § 54-189.1; 1975, c. 479; 1978, c. 248; 1988, cc. 64; 765; 1997, c. 556.

Repealed by Acts 1997, c. 698.

The Board may recover from any licensee against whom disciplinary action has been imposed reasonable administrative costs associated with investigating and monitoring such licensee and confirming compliance with any terms and conditions imposed upon the licensee as set forth in the order imposing disciplinary action. Such recovery shall not exceed a total of $5,000. All administrative costs recovered pursuant to this section shall be paid by the licensee to the Board. Such administrative costs shall be deposited into the account of the Board and shall not constitute a fine or penalty.

2009, c. 89.

No person shall operate a mobile dental clinic or other portable dental operation without first registering such mobile dental clinic or other portable dental operation with the Board, except that the following shall be exempt from such registration requirement: (i) mobile dental clinics or other portable dental operations operated by federal, state, or local government agencies or other entities identified by the Board in regulations; (ii) mobile dental clinics operated by federally qualified health centers with a dental component that provides dental services via mobile model to adults and children within 30 miles of the federally qualified health center; (iii) mobile dental clinics operated by free health clinics or health safety net clinics that have been granted tax-exempt status pursuant to § 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code that provide dental services via mobile model to adults and children within 30 miles of the free health clinic or health safety net clinic; and (iv) mobile dental clinics that provide dental services via mobile model to individuals who are not ambulatory and who reside in long-term care facilities, assisted living facilities, adult care homes, or private homes.

The Board shall promulgate regulations for mobile dental clinics and other portable dental operations to ensure that patient safety is protected, appropriate dental services are rendered, and needed follow-up care is provided. Such regulations shall include, but not be limited to, requirements for the registration of mobile dental clinics, locations where services may be provided, requirements for reporting by providers, and other requirements necessary to provide accountability for services rendered.

2010, c. 405; 2016, c. 78.

The Board shall adopt regulations for the prescribing of opioids, which shall include guidelines for:

1. The treatment of acute pain, which shall include (i) requirements for an appropriate patient history and evaluation, (ii) limitations on dosages or day supply of drugs prescribed, (iii) requirements for appropriate documentation in the patient's health record, and (iv) a requirement that the prescriber request and review information contained in the Prescription Monitoring Program in accordance with § 54.1-2522.1;

2. The treatment of chronic pain, which shall include, in addition to the requirements for treatment of acute pain set forth in subdivision 1, requirements for (i) development of a treatment plan for the patient, (ii) an agreement for treatment signed by the provider and the patient that includes permission to obtain urine drug screens, and (iii) periodic review of the treatment provided at specific intervals to determine the continued appropriateness of such treatment; and

3. Referral of patients to whom opioids are prescribed for substance abuse counseling or treatment, as appropriate.

2017, cc. 291, 682.

Article 2. Licensure of Dentists.

A. No person other than a dentist, dental hygienist, dental assistant I, dental assistant II, digital scan technician, or other person under the direction of a dentist shall obtain dental scans for use in the practice of dentistry.

B. A digital scan technician who obtains dental scans for use in the practice of teledentistry shall work under the direction of a dentist who is (i) licensed by the Board to practice dentistry in the Commonwealth, (ii) accessible and available for communication and consultation with the digital scan technician at all times during the patient interaction, and (iii) responsible for ensuring that the digital scan technician has a program of training approved by the Board for such purpose. All protocols and procedures for the performance of digital scans by digital scan technicians and evidence that a digital scan technician has complied with the training requirements of the Board shall be made available to the Board upon request.

2020, cc. 37, 220.

A. No person shall practice dentistry unless he possesses a current valid license from the Board of Dentistry.

B. An application for such license shall be made to the Board in writing and shall be accompanied by satisfactory proof that the applicant (i) is of good moral character; (ii) is a graduate of an accredited dental school or college, or dental department of an institution of higher education; (iii) has passed all parts of the examination given by the Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations; (iv) has successfully completed a clinical examination acceptable to the Board; and (v) has met other qualifications as determined in regulations promulgated by the Board.

C. The Board may grant a license to practice dentistry to an applicant licensed to practice in another jurisdiction if he (i) meets the requirements of subsection B; (ii) holds a current, unrestricted license to practice dentistry in another jurisdiction in the United States and is certified to be in good standing by each jurisdiction in which he currently holds or has held a license; (iii) has not committed any act that would constitute grounds for denial as set forth in § 54.1-2706; and (iv) has been in continuous clinical practice for five out of the six years immediately preceding application for licensure pursuant to this section. Active patient care in the dental corps of the United States Armed Forces, volunteer practice in a public health clinic, or practice in an intern or residency program may be accepted by the Board to satisfy this requirement.

D. The Board shall provide for an inactive license for those dentists who hold a current, unrestricted dental license in the Commonwealth at the time of application for an inactive license and who do not wish to practice in Virginia. The Board shall promulgate such regulations as may be necessary to carry out the provisions of this section, including requirements for remedial education to activate a license.

E. The Board shall promulgate regulations requiring continuing education for any dental license renewal or reinstatement. The Board may grant extensions or exemptions from these continuing education requirements.

Code 1950, §§ 54-168 through 54-171, 54-175; 1968, c. 604; 1972, cc. 805, 824; 1973, c. 391; 1974, c. 411; 1976, c. 327; 1977, c. 518; 1981, c. 216; 1988, c. 765; 1997, c. 855; 2005, cc. 505, 587; 2007, c. 20; 2012, cc. 20, 116.

A. The Board of Dentistry shall promulgate regulations establishing criteria for certification of board certified or board eligible oral or maxillofacial surgeons to perform certain procedures within the definition of dentistry that are unrelated to the oral cavity or contiguous structures, provided such services (i) are not for the prevention and treatment of disorders, diseases, lesions and malpositions of the human teeth, alveolar process, maxilla, mandible, or adjacent tissues, or any necessary related procedures, and are services the training for which is included in the curricula of dental schools or advanced postgraduate education programs accredited by the Commission of Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association or continuing educational programs recognized by the Board of Dentistry, or (ii) are not provided incident to a head or facial trauma sustained by the patient. The regulations shall include, but need not be limited to, provisions for: (1) promotion of patient safety; (2) identification and categorization of procedures for the purpose of issuing certificates; (3) establishment of an application process for certification to perform such procedures; (4) establishment of minimum education, training, and experience requirements for certification to perform such procedures, including consideration of whether a licensee has been granted practice privileges to perform such procedures from an accredited hospital located in the Commonwealth and consideration of the presentation of a letter attesting to the training of the applicant to perform such procedures from the chairman of an accredited postgraduate residency program; (5) development of protocols for proctoring and criteria for requiring such proctoring; and (6) implementation of a quality assurance review process for such procedures performed by certificate holders.

B. In promulgating the minimum education, training, and experience requirements for oral and maxillofacial surgeons to perform such procedures and the regulations related thereto, the Board of Dentistry shall consult with an advisory committee comprised of three members selected by the Medical Society of Virginia and three members selected by the Virginia Society of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeons. All members of the advisory committee shall be licensed by the Board of Dentistry or the Board of Medicine and shall engage in active clinical practice. The committee shall have a duty to act collaboratively and in good faith to recommend the education, training, and experience necessary to promote patient safety in the performance of such procedures. The advisory committee shall prepare a written report of its recommendations and shall submit this report to the Board of Dentistry and shall also submit its recommendations to the Board of Medicine for such comments as may be deemed appropriate, prior to the promulgation of draft regulations. The advisory committee may meet periodically to advise the Board of Dentistry on the regulation of such procedures.

C. In promulgating the regulations required by this section, the Board shall take due consideration of the education, training, and experience requirements adopted by the American Dental Association Council on Dental Education or the Commission on Dental Accreditation. Further, the Board's regulations shall require that complaints arising out of performance of such procedures be enforced solely by the Board of Dentistry and reviewed jointly by a physician licensed by the Board of Medicine who actively practices in a related specialty and by an oral and maxillofacial surgeon licensed by the Board of Dentistry. However, upon receipt of reports of such complaints the Board of Dentistry shall promptly notify the Board of Medicine which shall maintain the confidentiality of such complaint consistent with § 54.1-2400.2.

2001, c. 662.

The Board of Dentistry shall require all oral and maxillofacial surgeons to annually register with the Board and to report and make available the following information:

1. The names of medical schools or schools of dentistry attended and dates of graduation;

2. Any graduate medical or graduate dental education at any institution approved by the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education, the Commission on Dental Accreditation, American Dental Association;

3. Any specialty board certification or eligibility for certification as approved by the Commission on Dental Accreditation, American Dental Association;

4. The number of years in active, clinical practice as specified by regulations of the Board;

5. Any insurance plans accepted, managed care plans in which the oral and maxillofacial surgeon participates, and hospital affiliations, including specification of any privileges granted by the hospital;

6. Any appointments, within the most recent 10-year period, of the oral and maxillofacial surgeon to a dental school faculty and any publications in peer-reviewed literature within the most recent five-year period and as specified by regulations of the Board;

7. The location of any primary and secondary practice settings and the approximate percentage of the oral and maxillofacial surgeon's time spent practicing in each setting;

8. The access to any translating service provided to the primary practice setting of the oral and maxillofacial surgeon;

9. The status of the oral and maxillofacial surgeon's participation in the Virginia Medicaid Program;

10. Any final disciplinary or other action required to be reported to the Board by health care institutions, other practitioners, insurance companies, health maintenance organizations, and professional organizations pursuant to §§ 54.1-2400.6, 54.1-2709.3, and 54.1-2709.4 that results in a suspension or revocation of privileges or the termination of employment or a final order of the Board relating to disciplinary action; and

11. Other information related to the competency of oral and maxillofacial surgeons as specified in the regulations of the Board.

The Board shall promulgate regulations to implement the provisions of this section, including, but not limited to, the release, upon request by a consumer, of such information relating to an oral and maxillofacial surgeon. The regulations promulgated by the Board shall provide for reports to include all paid claims in categories indicating the level of significance of each award or settlement.

2001, c. 662; 2004, c. 64.

A. The presidents of the Virginia Dental Association and the Virginia Society of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeons shall report to the Board of Dentistry any disciplinary actions taken by his organization against any oral and maxillofacial surgeon licensed under this chapter if such disciplinary action is a result of conduct involving professional ethics, professional incompetence, moral turpitude, drug or alcohol abuse.

B. The president of any association, society, academy or organization shall report to the Board of Dentistry any disciplinary action taken against any oral and maxillofacial surgeon licensed under this chapter if such disciplinary action is a result of conduct involving professional ethics, professional incompetence, moral turpitude, drug addictions or alcohol abuse.

C. Any report required by this section shall be in writing directed to the Board of Dentistry, shall give the name and address of the person who is the subject of the report and shall describe fully the circumstances surrounding the conduct to be reported.

D. Any person making a report required by this section or testifying in a judicial or administrative proceeding as a result of such report shall be immune from any civil liability resulting therefrom unless such person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

E. In the event that any organization enumerated in subsection A or any component thereof receives a complaint against an oral and maxillofacial surgeon, such organization may, in lieu of considering disciplinary action against such oral and maxillofacial surgeon, request that the Board investigate the matter pursuant to this chapter, in which event any person participating in the decision to make such a request or testifying in a judicial or administrative proceeding as a result of such request shall be immune from any civil liability alleged to have resulted therefrom unless such person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

2001, c. 662.

A. The following matters shall be reported to the Board:

1. Any disciplinary action taken against an oral and maxillofacial surgeon licensed under this chapter by another state or by a federal health institution or voluntary surrender of a license in another state while under investigation;

2. Any malpractice judgment against an oral and maxillofacial surgeon licensed under this chapter;

3. Any incident of two settlements of malpractice claims against an individual oral and maxillofacial surgeon licensed under this chapter within a three-year period; and

4. Any evidence that indicates to a reasonable probability that an oral and maxillofacial surgeon licensed under this chapter is or may be professionally incompetent, guilty of unprofessional conduct or mentally or physically unable to engage safely in the practice of his profession.

B. The following persons and entities are subject to the reporting requirements set forth in this section:

1. Any oral and maxillofacial surgeon licensed under this chapter who is the subject of a disciplinary action, settlement judgment or evidence for which reporting is required pursuant to this section;

2. Any other person licensed under this chapter, except as provided in the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program;

3. The presidents of all professional societies in the Commonwealth, and their component societies whose members are regulated by the Board, except as provided for in the protocol agreement entered into by the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program;

4. All health care institutions licensed by the Commonwealth;

5. The malpractice insurance carrier of any oral and maxillofacial surgeon who is the subject of a judgment or of two settlements within a three-year period. The carrier shall not be required to report any settlements except those in which it has participated that have resulted in a least two settlements on behalf of an individual oral and maxillofacial surgeon during a three-year period; and

6. Any health maintenance organization licensed by the Commonwealth.

C. No person or entity shall be obligated to report any matter to the Board if the person or entity has actual notice that the matter has already been reported to the Board.

D. Any report required by this section shall be in writing directed to the Board, shall give the name and address of the person who is the subject of the report and shall describe the circumstances surrounding the conduct required to be reported.

E. Any person making a report required by this section shall be immune from any civil liability or criminal prosecution resulting therefrom unless such person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

F. The clerk of any circuit court or any district court in the Commonwealth shall report to the Board the conviction of any oral and maxillofacial surgeon known by such clerk to be licensed under this chapter of any (i) misdemeanor involving a controlled substance, marijuana or substance abuse or involving an act of moral turpitude or (ii) felony.

2001, c. 662; 2009, c. 472.

A. Except as provided in subsection C, the Board shall require any dentist who provides or administers sedation or anesthesia in a dental office to obtain either a conscious/moderate sedation permit or a deep sedation/general anesthesia permit issued by the Board. The Board shall establish by regulation reasonable education, training, and equipment standards for safe administration and monitoring of sedation and anesthesia to patients in a dental office.

B. A permit for conscious/moderate sedation shall not be required if a permit has been issued for the administration of deep sedation/general anesthesia.

C. This section shall not apply to:

1. An oral and maxillofacial surgeon who maintains membership in the American Association of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeons (AAOMS) and who provides the Board with reports which result from the periodic office examinations required by AAOMS; or

2. Any dentist who administers or prescribes medication or administers nitrous oxide/oxygen or a combination of a medication and nitrous oxide/oxygen for the purpose of inducing anxiolysis or minimal sedation consistent with the Board's regulations.

2011, c. 526.

Repealed by Acts 2005, cc. 505 and 587, cl. 2.

A. Any person shall be deemed to be practicing dentistry who (i) uses the words dentist, or dental surgeon, the letters D.D.S., D.M.D., or any letters or title in connection with his name, which in any way represents him as engaged in the practice of dentistry; (ii) holds himself out, advertises, or permits to be advertised that he can or will perform dental operations of any kind; (iii) diagnoses, treats, or professes to diagnose or treat any of the diseases or lesions of the oral cavity, its contents, or contiguous structures; or (iv) extracts teeth, corrects malpositions of the teeth or jaws, takes or causes to be taken digital scans or impressions for the fabrication of appliances or dental prosthesis, supplies or repairs artificial teeth as substitutes for natural teeth, or places in the mouth and adjusts such substitutes. Taking impressions for mouth guards that may be self-fabricated or obtained over-the-counter does not constitute the practice of dentistry.

B. No person shall practice dentistry unless a bona fide dentist-patient relationship is established in person or through teledentistry. A bona fide dentist-patient relationship shall exist if the dentist has (i) obtained or caused to be obtained a health and dental history of the patient; (ii) performed or caused to be performed an appropriate examination of the patient, either physically, through use of instrumentation and diagnostic equipment through which digital scans, photographs, images, and dental records are able to be transmitted electronically, or through use of face-to-face interactive two-way real-time communications services or store-and-forward technologies; (iii) provided information to the patient about the services to be performed; and (iv) initiated additional diagnostic tests or referrals as needed. In cases in which a dentist is providing teledentistry, the examination required by clause (ii) shall not be required if the patient has been examined in person by a dentist licensed by the Board within the six months prior to the initiation of teledentistry and the patient's dental records of such examination have been reviewed by the dentist providing teledentistry.

C. No person shall deliver dental services through teledentistry unless he holds a license to practice dentistry in the Commonwealth issued by the Board and has established written or electronic protocols for the practice of teledentistry that include (i) methods to ensure that patients are fully informed about services provided through the use of teledentistry, including obtaining informed consent; (ii) safeguards to ensure compliance with all state and federal laws and regulations related to the privacy of health information; (iii) documentation of all dental services provided to a patient through teledentistry, including the full name, address, telephone number, and Virginia license number of the dentist providing such dental services; (iv) procedures for providing in-person services or for the referral of patients requiring dental services that cannot be provided by teledentistry to another dentist licensed to practice dentistry in the Commonwealth who actually practices dentistry in an area of the Commonwealth the patient can readily access; (v) provisions for the use of appropriate encryption when transmitting patient health information via teledentistry; and (vi) any other provisions required by the Board. A dentist who delivers dental services using teledentistry shall, upon request of the patient, provide health records to the patient or a dentist of record in a timely manner in accordance with § 32.1-127.1:03 and any other applicable federal or state laws or regulations. All patients receiving dental services through teledentistry shall have the right to speak or communicate with the dentist providing such services upon request.

D. Dental services delivered through use of teledentistry shall (i) be consistent with the standard of care as set forth in § 8.01-581.20, including when the standard of care requires the use of diagnostic testing or performance of a physical examination, and (ii) comply with the requirements of this chapter and the regulations of the Board.

E. In cases in which teledentistry is provided to a patient who has a dentist of record but has not had a dental wellness examination in the six months prior to the initiation of teledentistry, the dentist providing teledentistry shall recommend that the patient schedule a dental wellness examination. If a patient to whom teledentistry is provided does not have a dentist of record, the dentist shall provide or cause to be provided to the patient options for referrals for obtaining a dental wellness examination.

F. No dentist shall be supervised within the scope of the practice of dentistry by any person who is not a licensed dentist.

Code 1950, § 54-146; 1972, c. 805; 1988, c. 765; 2020, cc. 37, 220.

A. Upon recommendation by the dean of the school of dentistry or the dental program director, the Board may issue a temporary annual license to practice dentistry to persons enrolled in advanced dental education programs and persons serving as dental interns, residents or post-doctoral certificate or degree candidates in hospitals or schools of dentistry that maintain dental intern, residency or post-doctoral programs accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association. Such license shall expire upon the holder's graduation, withdrawal or termination from the relevant program.

B. Temporary licenses issued pursuant to this section shall authorize the licensee to perform patient care activities associated with the program in which he is enrolled that take place only within educational facilities owned or operated by, or affiliated with, the dental school or program. Temporary licenses issued pursuant to this section shall not authorize a licensee to practice dentistry in nonaffiliated clinics or private practice settings.

C. The Board may prescribe such regulations not in conflict with existing law and require such reports from any hospital or the school of dentistry operating an accredited advanced dental education program in the Commonwealth as may be necessary to carry out the provisions of this section.

2004, c. 754; 2012, cc. 20, 116.

In addition to the possession and administration of botulinum toxin injections for dental purposes, a dentist may possess and administer botulinum toxin injections for cosmetic purposes, provided that the dentist has completed training and continuing education in the administration of botulinum toxin injections for cosmetic purposes, as deemed appropriate by the Board.

2023, c. 413.

The following activities shall be permissible:

1. Dental assistants or dental hygienists aiding or assisting licensed dentists, or dental assistants aiding or assisting dental hygienists under the general supervision of a dentist in accordance with regulations promulgated pursuant to § 54.1-2729.01;

2. The performance of mechanical work on inanimate objects only, for licensed dentists, by any person employed in or operating a dental laboratory;

3. Dental students who are enrolled in accredited D.D.S. or D.M.D. degree programs performing dental operations, under the direction of competent instructors (i) within a dental school or college, dental department of an institution of higher education, or other dental facility within an institution of higher education that is accredited by an accrediting agency recognized by the U.S. Department of Education; (ii) in a dental clinic operated by a nonprofit organization providing indigent care; (iii) in governmental or indigent care clinics in which the student is assigned to practice during his final academic year rotations; (iv) in a private dental office for a limited time during the student's final academic year when under the direct tutorial supervision of a licensed dentist holding appointment on the dental faculty of the school in which the student is enrolled; or (v) practicing dental hygiene in a private dental office under the direct supervision of a licensed dentist holding appointment on the dental faculty of the school in which the student is enrolled;

4. A licensed dentist from another state or country appearing as a clinician for demonstrating technical procedures before a dental society or organization, convention, or dental college, or performing his duties in connection with a specific case on which he may have been called to the Commonwealth;

5. Dental hygiene students enrolled in an accredited dental hygiene program performing dental hygiene practices as a requisite of the program, under the direction of competent instructors, as defined by regulations of the Board of Dentistry, (i) within a dental hygiene program in a dental school or college, or department thereof, or other dental facility within an institution of higher education that is accredited by an accrediting agency recognized by the U.S. Department of Education; (ii) in a dental clinic operated by a nonprofit organization providing indigent care; (iii) in a governmental or indigent care clinic in which the student is assigned to practice during his final academic year rotations; or (iv) in a private dental office for a limited time during the student's final academic year when under the direct supervision of a licensed dentist or licensed dental hygienist holding appointment on the dental faculty of the school in which the student is enrolled; and

6. A graduate of an accredited dental program or a graduate of an accredited dental hygiene program engaging in clinical practice under the supervision of a licensed faculty member, but only while participating in a continuing education course offered by a dental program or dental hygiene program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association.

Code 1950, § 54-147; 1970, c. 639; 1972, c. 805; 1975, c. 479; 1985, c. 373; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 131; 1994, c. 749; 2004, c. 754; 2005, cc. 505, 587; 2008, cc. 84, 264; 2012, cc. 20, 116.

A. The Board may issue a restricted volunteer license to a dentist who:

1. Held an unrestricted license in Virginia or another state as a licensee in good standing at the time the license expired or became inactive;

2. Is volunteering for a public health or community free clinic that provides dental services to populations of underserved people;

3. Has fulfilled the Board's requirement related to knowledge of the laws and regulations governing the practice of dentistry in Virginia;

4. Has not failed a clinical examination within the past five years; and

5. Has had at least five years of clinical practice.

B. A person holding a restricted volunteer license under this section shall:

1. Only practice in public health or community free clinics that provide dental services to underserved populations;

2. Only treat patients who have been screened by the approved clinic and are eligible for treatment;

3. Attest on a form provided by the Board that he will not receive remuneration directly or indirectly for providing dental services; and

4. Not be required to complete continuing education in order to renew such a license.

C. If a dentist with a restricted volunteer license issued under this section has not held an active, unrestricted license and been engaged in active practice within the past five years, he shall only practice dentistry and perform dental procedures if a dentist with an unrestricted Virginia license, volunteering at the clinic, reviews the quality of care rendered by the dentist with the restricted volunteer license at least every 30 days.

D. A restricted voluntary license granted pursuant to this section shall expire on the June 30 of the second year after its issuance, or shall terminate when the supervising dentist withdraws his sponsorship. Such license may be renewed annually in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Board.

E. A dentist holding a restricted volunteer license issued pursuant to this section is subject to the provisions of this chapter, the regulations promulgated under this chapter, and the disciplinary regulations which apply to all dentists practicing in Virginia.

1997, c. 719; 1998, c. 326; 2005, cc. 505, 587.

A. Upon payment of the prescribed fee and provided that no grounds exist to deny licensure pursuant to § 54.1-2706, the Board may grant, without examination, a faculty license to teach dentistry in a dental program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association to any applicant who meets one of the following qualifications:

1. Is a graduate of a dental school or college or the dental department of an institution of higher education, has a current unrestricted license to practice dentistry in at least one other United States jurisdiction, and has never been licensed to practice dentistry in the Commonwealth;

2. Is a graduate of a dental school or college or the dental department of an institution of higher education, has completed an advanced dental education program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association, and has never been licensed to practice dentistry in the Commonwealth; or

3. Is a graduate of a dental school or college or the dental department of an institution of higher education in a foreign country and has been granted a certification letter from the dean or program director of an accredited dental program confirming that the applicant has clinical competency and clinical experience that meet the credentialing standards of the dental school with which the applicant is to be affiliated.

B. The dean or program director of the accredited dental program shall provide to the Board verification that the applicant is being hired by the program and shall include an assessment of the applicant's clinical competency and clinical experience that qualifies the applicant for a faculty license.

C. The holder of a license issued pursuant to this section shall be entitled to perform all activities that a person licensed to practice dentistry would be entitled to perform and that are part of his faculty duties, including all patient care activities associated with teaching, research, and the delivery of patient care, which take place only within educational facilities owned or operated by or affiliated with the dental school or program. A licensee who is qualified based on educational requirements for a specialty board certification shall only practice in the specialty for which he is qualified. A license issued pursuant to this section shall not authorize the holder to practice dentistry in nonaffiliated clinics or in private practice settings.

D. Any license issued under this section shall expire on June 30 of the second year after its issuance or shall terminate when the licensee leaves employment at the accredited dental program. Such license may be renewed annually thereafter as long as the accredited program certifies to the licensee's continuing employment.

1975, c. 479, § 54-175.1; 1976, c. 327; 1988, c. 765; 2005, cc. 505, 587; 2012, cc. 20, 116; 2022, c. 145; 2025, cc. 47, 70.

A. The Board may grant, without examination, a restricted license for a temporary appointment to teach dentistry at a dental school in this Commonwealth to any person who:

1. Is a resident of a foreign country;

2. Is licensed to practice dentistry in a foreign country;

3. Holds a faculty appointment in a dental school in a foreign country;

4. Is a graduate of a foreign dental school or college or the dental department of a foreign institution of higher education;

5. Is not licensed to practice dentistry in Virginia;

6. Has not failed an examination for a license to practice dentistry in this Commonwealth;

7. Has received a temporary appointment to the faculty of a dental school in this Commonwealth to teach dentistry;

8. Is, in the opinion of the Board, qualified to teach dentistry; and

9. Submits a completed application, the supporting documents the Board deems necessary to determine his qualifications, and the prescribed fee.

B. A restricted license shall entitle the licensee to perform all operations which a person licensed to practice dentistry may perform but only for the purpose of teaching. No person granted a restricted license shall practice dentistry intramurally or privately or receive fees for his services.

C. A restricted license granted pursuant to this section shall expire 24 months from the date of issuance and may not be renewed or reissued.

1977, c. 349, § 54-175.2; 1988, c. 765; 2012, cc. 20, 116.

Repealed by Acts 2012, cc. 20 and 116, cl. 2.

A. The Board may issue a temporary permit to a graduate of a dental school or college or the dental department of an institution of higher education, who (i) has a D.D.S. or D.M.D. degree and is otherwise qualified, (ii) is not licensed to practice dentistry in Virginia, and (iii) has not failed an examination for a license to practice dentistry in the Commonwealth. Such temporary permits may be issued only to those eligible graduates who serve as clinicians in dental clinics operated by (a) the Virginia Department of Corrections, (b) the Virginia Department of Health, (c) the Virginia Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, or (d) a Virginia charitable corporation granted tax-exempt status under § 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and operating as a clinic for the indigent and uninsured that is organized for the delivery of primary health care services: (i) as a federal qualified health center designated by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services or (ii) at a reduced or sliding fee scale or without charge.

B. Applicants for temporary permits shall be certified to the executive director of the Board by the Director of the Department of Corrections, the Commissioner of Health, the Commissioner of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services, or the chief executive officer of a Virginia charitable corporation identified in subsection A. The holder of such a temporary permit shall not be entitled to receive any fee or other compensation other than salary. Such permits shall be valid for no more than two years and shall expire on the June 30 of the second year after their issuance, or shall terminate when the holder ceases to serve as a clinician with the certifying agency or charitable corporation. Such permits may be reissued annually or may be revoked at any time for cause. Reissuance or revocation of a temporary permit is in the discretion of the Board.

C. Dentists licensed pursuant to this chapter may practice as employees of the dental clinics operated as specified in subsection A.

Code 1950, § 54-152; 1968, c. 604; 1970, c. 639; 1972, c. 805; 1975, c. 479; 1976, c. 327; 1985, c. 373; 1988, c. 765; 2002, c. 549; 2004, c. 48; 2005, cc. 505, 587; 2006, c. 176; 2009, cc. 813, 840.

It shall be unlawful for any dentist to practice his profession in a commercial or mercantile establishment, or to advertise, either in person or through any commercial or mercantile establishment, that he is a licensed practitioner and is practicing or will practice dentistry in such commercial or mercantile establishment. This section shall not prohibit the rendering of professional services to the officers and employees of any person, firm or corporation by a dentist, whether or not the compensation for such service is paid by the officers and employees, or by the employer, or jointly by all or any of them. Any dentist who violates any of the provisions of this section shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

For the purposes of this section, the term "commercial or mercantile establishment" means a business enterprise engaged in the selling of commodities or services unrelated to the practice of dentistry or the other healing arts.

Code 1950, § 54-147.1; 1988, c. 765.

A. No corporation shall be formed or foreign corporation domesticated in the Commonwealth for the purpose of practicing dentistry other than a professional corporation as permitted by Chapter 7 (§ 13.1-542.1 et seq.) of Title 13.1.

B. No limited liability company shall be organized or foreign limited liability company domesticated in the Commonwealth for the purpose of practicing dentistry other than a professional limited liability company as permitted by Chapter 13 (§ 13.1-1100 et seq.) of Title 13.1.

C. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsections A and B, dentists licensed pursuant to this chapter may practice as employees of the dental clinics operated as specified in subsection A of § 54.1-2715.

Code 1950, § 54-183; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 574; 2004, c. 48; 2022, c. 234.

A. No person shall practice, offer to practice, or hold himself out as practicing dentistry, under a name other than his own. This section shall not prohibit the practice of dentistry by a partnership under a firm name, or a licensed dentist from practicing dentistry as the employee of a licensed dentist, practicing under his own name or under a firm name, or as the employee of a professional corporation, or as a member, manager, employee, or agent of a professional limited liability company or as the employee of a dental clinic operated as specified in subsection A of § 54.1-2715.

B. A dentist, partnership, professional corporation, or professional limited liability company that owns a dental practice may adopt a trade name for that practice so long as the trade name meets the following requirements:

1. The trade name incorporates one or more of the following: (i) a geographic location, e.g., to include, but not be limited to, a street name, shopping center, neighborhood, city, or county location; (ii) type of practice; or (iii) a derivative of the dentist's name.

2. Derivatives of American Dental Association approved specialty board certifications may be used to describe the type of practice if one or more dentists in the practice are certified in the specialty or if the specialty name is accompanied by the conspicuous disclosure that services are provided by a general dentist in every advertising medium in which the trade name is used.

3. The trade name is used in conjunction with either (i) the name of the dentist or (ii) the name of the partnership, professional corporation, or professional limited liability company that owns the practice. The owner's name shall be conspicuously displayed along with the trade name used for the practice in all advertisements in any medium.

4. Marquee signage, web page addresses, and email addresses are not considered to be advertisements and may be limited to the trade name adopted for the practice.

Code 1950, § 54-184; 1970, c. 639; 1975, c. 479; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 574; 2004, c. 48; 2005, cc. 505, 587.

A. Licensed dentists may employ or engage the services of any person, firm, or corporation to construct or repair an appliance, extraorally, in accordance with a written or digital work order. Any appliance constructed or repaired by a person, firm, or corporation pursuant to this section shall be evaluated and reviewed by the licensed dentist who submitted the written or digital work order, or a licensed dentist in the same dental practice. A person, firm, or corporation so employed or engaged shall not be considered to be practicing dentistry. No such person, firm, or corporation shall perform any direct dental service for a patient, but they may assist a dentist in the selection of shades for the matching of prosthetic devices when the dentist sends the patient to them with a written or digital work order.

B. Any licensed dentist who employs the services of any person, firm, or corporation not working in a dental office under the dentist's direct supervision to construct or repair an appliance extraorally shall furnish such person, firm, or corporation with a written or digital work order on forms prescribed by the Board, which shall, at minimum, contain (i) the name and address of the person, firm, or corporation; (ii) the patient's name or initials or an identification number; (iii) the date the work order was written; (iv) a description of the work to be done, including diagrams, if necessary; (v) specification of the type and quality of materials to be used; and (vi) the signature and address of the dentist.

The person, firm, or corporation shall retain the original written work order or an electronic copy of a digital work order, and the dentist shall retain a duplicate of the written work order or an electronic copy of a digital work order, for three years.

C. If the person, firm, or corporation receives a written or digital work order from a licensed dentist, a written disclosure and subwork order shall be furnished to the dentist on forms prescribed by the Board, which shall, at minimum, contain (i) the name and address of the person, firm, or corporation and subcontractor; (ii) a number identifying the subwork order with the original work order; (iii) the date any subwork order was written; (iv) a description of the work to be done and the work to be done by the subcontractor, including diagrams or digital files, if necessary; (v) a specification of the type and quality of materials to be used; and (vi) the signature of the person issuing the disclosure and subwork order.

The subcontractor shall retain the subwork order, and the issuer shall retain a duplicate of the subwork order, which shall be attached to the work order received from the licensed dentist, for three years.

D. No person, firm, or corporation engaged in the construction or repair of appliances shall refuse to allow the Board or its agents to inspect the files of work orders or subwork orders during ordinary business hours.

1962, c. 45, § 54-147.2; 1972, c. 805; 1988, c. 765; 2020, cc. 37, 220.

Every person practicing dentistry under a firm name, and every person practicing dentistry as an employee of another licensed dentist shall conspicuously display his name at the entrance of the office. Any licensed dentist who fails to display his name shall be subject to disciplinary action by the Board.

Code 1950, § 54-186; 1972, c. 805; 1988, c. 765; 2005, cc. 505, 587.

Every person practicing dentistry in this Commonwealth shall display his license in his office in plain view of patients. Any person practicing dentistry without having his license on display shall be subject to disciplinary action by the Board.

The provisions of this section shall not apply to any dentist while he is serving as a volunteer providing dental services in an underserved area of the Commonwealth under the auspices of a Virginia charitable corporation granted tax-exempt status under § 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and operating as a clinic for the indigent and uninsured that is organized for the delivery of primary health care services.

Code 1950, § 54-197; 1972, c. 805; 1988, c. 765; 2006, c. 823.

Article 3. Licensure of Dental Hygienists.

A. No person shall practice dental hygiene unless he possesses a current, active, and valid license from the Board of Dentistry. The licensee shall have the right to practice dental hygiene in the Commonwealth for the period of his license as set by the Board, under the direction of any licensed dentist.

B. An application for such license shall be made to the Board in writing and shall be accompanied by satisfactory proof that the applicant (i) is of good moral character, (ii) is a graduate of a dental hygiene program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation and offered by an accredited institution of higher education, (iii) has passed the dental hygiene examination given by the Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations, and (iv) has successfully completed a clinical examination acceptable to the Board.

C. The Board may grant a license to practice dental hygiene to an applicant licensed to practice in another jurisdiction if he (i) meets the requirements of subsection B; (ii) holds a current, unrestricted license to practice dental hygiene in another jurisdiction in the United States; (iii) has not committed any act that would constitute grounds for denial as set forth in § 54.1-2706; and (iv) meets other qualifications as determined in regulations promulgated by the Board.

D. A licensed dental hygienist may, under the direction or general supervision of a licensed dentist and subject to the regulations of the Board, perform services that are educational, diagnostic, therapeutic, or preventive. These services shall not include the establishment of a final diagnosis or treatment plan for a dental patient. Pursuant to subsection W of § 54.1-3408, a licensed dental hygienist may administer topical oral fluorides under an oral or written order or a standing protocol issued by a dentist or a doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine.

A dentist may also authorize a dental hygienist under his direction to administer Schedule VI nitrous oxide and oxygen inhalation analgesia and, to persons 18 years of age or older, Schedule VI local anesthesia. In its regulations, the Board of Dentistry shall establish the education and training requirements for dental hygienists to administer such controlled substances under a dentist's direction.

For the purposes of this section, "general supervision" means that a dentist has evaluated the patient and prescribed authorized services to be provided by a dental hygienist; however, the dentist need not be present in the facility while the authorized services are being provided.

The Board shall provide for an inactive license for those dental hygienists who hold a current, unrestricted license to practice in the Commonwealth at the time of application for an inactive license and who do not wish to practice in Virginia. The Board shall promulgate such regulations as may be necessary to carry out the provisions of this section, including requirements for remedial education to activate a license.

E. For the purposes of this subsection, "remote supervision" means that a public health dentist has regular, periodic communications with a public health dental hygienist regarding patient treatment, but such dentist may not have conducted an initial examination of the patients who are to be seen and treated by the dental hygienist and may not be present with the dental hygienist when dental hygiene services are being provided.

Notwithstanding any provision of law, a dental hygienist employed by the Virginia Department of Health or the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services who holds a license issued by the Board of Dentistry may provide educational and preventative dental care in the Commonwealth under the remote supervision of a dentist employed by the Department of Health or the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services. A dental hygienist providing such services shall practice pursuant to protocols developed jointly by the Department of Health and the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services for each agency, in consultation with the Virginia Dental Association and the Virginia Dental Hygienists' Association. Such protocols shall be adopted by the Board as regulations.

A report of services provided by dental hygienists employed by the Virginia Department of Health pursuant to such protocol, including their impact upon the oral health of the citizens of the Commonwealth, shall be prepared and submitted annually to the Secretary of Health and Human Resources by the Department of Health, and a report of services provided by dental hygienists employed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services shall be prepared and submitted annually to the Secretary of Health and Human Resources by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services. Nothing in this section shall be construed to authorize or establish the independent practice of dental hygiene.

F. For the purposes of this subsection, "remote supervision" means that a supervising dentist is accessible and available for communication and consultation with a dental hygienist during the delivery of dental hygiene services, but such dentist may not have conducted an initial examination of the patients who are to be seen and treated by the dental hygienist and may not be present with the dental hygienist when dental hygiene services are being provided.

Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a dental hygienist may practice dental hygiene under the remote supervision of a dentist who holds an active license by the Board and who has a dental practice physically located in the Commonwealth. No dental hygienist shall practice under remote supervision unless he has (i) completed a continuing education course designed to develop the competencies needed to provide care under remote supervision offered by an accredited dental education program or from a continuing education provider approved by the Board and (ii) at least two years of clinical experience, consisting of at least 2,500 hours of clinical experience. A dental hygienist practicing under remote supervision shall have professional liability insurance with policy limits acceptable to the supervising dentist. A dental hygienist shall only practice under remote supervision at a federally qualified health center; charitable safety net facility; free clinic; long-term care facility; elementary or secondary school; Head Start program; mobile dentistry program for adults with developmental disabilities operated by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services' Office of Integrated Health; or women, infants, and children (WIC) program.

A dental hygienist practicing under remote supervision may (a) obtain a patient's treatment history and consent, (b) perform an oral assessment, (c) perform scaling and polishing, (d) perform all educational and preventative services, (e) take X-rays as ordered by the supervising dentist or consistent with a standing order, (f) maintain appropriate documentation in the patient's chart, (g) administer topical oral fluorides, topical oral anesthetics, topical and directly applied antimicrobial agents for treatment of periodontal pocket lesions, and any other Schedule VI topical drug approved by the Board of Dentistry under an oral or written order or a standing protocol issued by a dentist or a doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine pursuant to subsection W of § 54.1-3408, and (h) perform any other service ordered by the supervising dentist or required by statute or Board regulation. No dental hygienist practicing under remote supervision shall administer local anesthetic or nitrous oxide.

Prior to providing a patient dental hygiene services, a dental hygienist practicing under remote supervision shall obtain (1) the patient's or the patient's legal representative's signature on a statement disclosing that the delivery of dental hygiene services under remote supervision is not a substitute for the need for regular dental examinations by a dentist and (2) verbal confirmation from the patient that he does not have a dentist of record whom he is seeing regularly.

After conducting an initial oral assessment of a patient, a dental hygienist practicing under remote supervision may provide further dental hygiene services following a written practice protocol developed and provided by the supervising dentist. Such written practice protocol shall consider, at a minimum, the medical complexity of the patient and the presenting signs and symptoms of oral disease.

A dental hygienist practicing under remote supervision shall inform the supervising dentist of all findings for a patient. A dental hygienist practicing under remote supervision may continue to treat a patient for 180 days. After such 180-day period, the supervising dentist, absent emergent circumstances, shall either conduct an examination of the patient or refer the patient to another dentist to conduct an examination. The supervising dentist shall develop a diagnosis and treatment plan for the patient, and either the supervising dentist or the dental hygienist shall provide the treatment plan to the patient. The supervising dentist shall review a patient's records at least once every 10 months.

Nothing in this subsection shall prevent a dental hygienist from practicing dental hygiene under general supervision whether as an employee or as a volunteer.

1950, pp. 983-985, §§ 54-200.2, 54-200.4, 54-200.7 through 54-200.9, 54-200.11; 1968, c. 604; 1970, c. 639; 1972, cc. 805, 824; 1973, c. 391; 1975, c. 479; 1976, c. 327; 1986, c. 178; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 441; 1997, c. 855; 2002, c. 170; 2005, cc. 505, 587; 2006, c. 858; 2007, c. 702; 2009, cc. 99, 506, 561; 2011, c. 289; 2012, c. 102; 2013, c. 240; 2016, c. 497; 2017, c. 410; 2019, cc. 86, 431; 2024, c. 295; 2025, c. 277.

Repealed by Acts 2005, cc. 505 and 587, cl. 2.

The Board shall determine by regulation the total number of dental hygienists, including dental hygienists under general supervision and dental hygienists under remote supervision, who may work at one time for a dentist. No dentist shall employ more than two dental hygienists who practice under remote supervision at one time. The State Board of Health may employ the necessary number of hygienists in public school dental clinics, subject to regulations of the Board.

1950, p. 984, § 54-200.6; 1972, c. 805; 1978, c. 247; 1988, c. 765; 2016, c. 497.

A. Upon payment of the prescribed fee, the Board shall grant, without examination, a license to teach dental hygiene to any applicant who (i) is a graduate of a dental hygiene school or college or the dental hygiene department of an institution of higher education accredited by the Commission of Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association; (ii) has a B.S., B.A., A.B., or M.S. degree and is otherwise qualified; (iii) is not licensed to practice dental hygiene; and (iv) has a license to practice dental hygiene in at least one other United States jurisdiction.

B. The dean or program director of the accredited dental hygiene program shall provide to the Board verification that the applicant is being hired by the program and shall include an assessment of the applicant's clinical competency and clinical experience that qualifies the applicant for a faculty license.

C. The holder of a license issued pursuant to this section shall be entitled to perform all activities that a person licensed to practice dental hygiene would be entitled to perform that are part of his faculty duties, including all patient care activities associated with teaching, research, and the delivery of patient care that take place only within educational facilities owned or operated by or affiliated with the dental school or program. A license issued pursuant to this section does not entitle the holder to practice dental hygiene in nonaffiliated clinics or other private practice settings.

D. Any license issued under this section shall expire on June 30 of the second year after its issuance or shall terminate when the licensee leaves employment at the accredited dental program. Such license may be renewed annually thereafter as long as the accredited program certifies to the licensee's continuing employment.

1975, c. 479, § 54-175.1; 1976, c. 327; 1988, c. 765; 2012, cc. 20, 116.

A. The Board may issue a temporary permit to a graduate of an accredited dental hygiene program who is otherwise qualified, has not held a license to practice dental hygiene in Virginia, and has not failed an examination for a license to practice dental hygiene in the Commonwealth. Such temporary permits shall be issued only to those eligible graduates who serve in the Department of Health or the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services in a dental clinic operated by the Commonwealth or in a Virginia charitable corporation granted tax-exempt status under § 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and operated as a clinic for the indigent and uninsured that is organized for the delivery of primary health care services: (i) as a federally qualified health center designated by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) or (ii) at a reduced or sliding fee scale or without charge.

B. Applicants for temporary permits shall be certified to the executive director of the Board by the Commissioner of Health or the Commissioner of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services or the chief executive officer of a Virginia charitable corporation pursuant to subsection A. The holder of such permit shall not be entitled to receive any fee or compensation other than salary. Such permits shall be valid for no more than two years and shall expire on the June 30 of the second year after their issuance, or shall terminate when the holder ceases to be employed by the certifying agency. Such permits may be reissued annually or may be revoked at any time for cause. Reissuance or revocation of a temporary permit is in the discretion of the Board.

The holder of a temporary permit shall function under the direction of a dentist.

Code 1950, § 54-152; 1968, c. 604; 1970, c. 639; 1972, c. 805; 1975, c. 479; 1976, c. 327; 1985, c. 373; 1988, c. 765; 2005, cc. 505, 587; 2009, cc. 813, 840.

A. The Board may issue a restricted volunteer license to a dental hygienist who:

1. Held an unrestricted license in Virginia or another state as a licensee in good standing at the time the license expired or became inactive;

2. Is sponsored and supervised by a dentist who holds an unrestricted license in the Commonwealth;

3. Is volunteering for a public health or community free clinic that provides dental services to populations of underserved people;

4. Has fulfilled the Board's requirement related to knowledge of the laws and regulations governing the practice of dentistry in Virginia;

5. Has not failed a clinical examination within the past five years; and

6. Has had at least five years of clinical practice.

B. A person holding a restricted volunteer license under this section shall:

1. Only practice in public health or community free clinics that provide dental hygiene services to underserved populations;

2. Only treat patients who have been screened by the approved clinic and are eligible for treatment;

3. Attest on a form provided by the Board that he will not receive remuneration directly or indirectly for providing dental hygiene services; and

4. Not be required to complete continuing education in order to renew such a license.

C. A dental hygienist with a restricted volunteer license issued under this section shall only practice dental hygiene under the direction of a dentist with an unrestricted license in Virginia.

D. A restricted voluntary license granted pursuant to this section shall expire on the June 30 of the second year after its issuance, or shall terminate when the supervising dentist withdraws his sponsorship. Such license may be renewed annually thereafter as long as the supervising dentist continues to sponsor the licensee.

E. A dental hygienist holding a restricted volunteer license issued pursuant to this section is subject to the provisions of this chapter, the regulations promulgated under this chapter, and the disciplinary regulations which apply to all dental hygienists practicing in Virginia.

1997, c. 719; 1998, c. 326; 2005, cc. 505, 587.

Every person practicing dental hygiene shall at all times display his license in a conspicuous place in his office in plain view of patients.

The provisions of this section shall not apply to any dental hygienist while he is serving as a volunteer providing dental hygiene services in an underserved area of the Commonwealth under the auspices of a Virginia charitable corporation granted tax-exempt status under § 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and operating as a clinic for the indigent and uninsured that is organized for the delivery of primary health care services.

1950, p. 985, § 54-200.14; 1972, c. 805; 1988, c. 765; 2006, c. 823.

The Board may revoke or suspend the license of any dental hygienist for any of the causes set forth in § 54.1-2706, insofar as applicable to the practice of dental hygiene.

1950, p. 986, § 54-200.18; 1972, c. 805; 1988, c. 765; 2005, cc. 505, 587.

The Board shall promulgate regulations requiring continuing education for any dental hygienist license renewal or reinstatement. The Board may grant exceptions or exemptions from these continuing education requirements.

1993, c. 555; 1997, c. 3; 2004, c. 137; 2005, cc. 505, 587.

Chapter 27.01. Dialysis Patient Care Technicians.

"Dialysis patient care technician" or "dialysis care technician" means a person who has obtained certification from an organization approved by the Department of Health Professions to provide, under the supervision of a licensed practitioner of medicine or a registered nurse, direct care to patients undergoing renal dialysis treatments in a Medicare-certified renal dialysis facility. Such direct care may include, but need not be limited to, the administration of heparin, topical needle site anesthetics, dialysis solutions, sterile normal saline solution, and blood volumizers in accordance with the order of a licensed physician, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant. However, a person who has completed a training program in dialysis patient care may engage in provisional practice to obtain practical experience in providing direct patient care under direct and immediate supervision in accordance with § 54.1-3408, until he has taken and received the results of any examination required by a certifying organization approved by the Board or for 24 months from the date of initial practice, whichever occurs sooner.

2003, c. 995; 2006, c. 75; 2023, c. 183; 2025, c. 341.

A. No person shall hold himself out to be or advertise or permit to be advertised that he is a dialysis patient care technician or dialysis care technician as defined in this chapter unless such person has obtained certification from an organization approved by the Department of Health Professions as examining candidates for appropriate competency or technical proficiency to perform as dialysis patient care technicians or dialysis care technicians.

B. The title restrictions provided by this section shall apply to the use of the terms "dialysis patient care technician" and "dialysis care technician" or any other term or combination of terms used alone or in combination with the terms "licensed," "certified," or "registered," as such terms also imply a minimum level of education, training, and competence. A person who is authorized for provisional practice to provide direct patient care while obtaining practical experience shall be identified as a "trainee" while working in a renal dialysis facility.

C. The Department of Health Professions may require such continuing competency training as it may deem necessary for dialysis patient care technicians or dialysis care technicians.

D. Any person who willfully violates the provisions of this chapter is guilty of a Class 3 misdemeanor.

2003, c. 995; 2006, c. 75; 2025, c. 341.

Chapter 27. Dentistry.

Article 4. Practice of Dental Assistants.

A. A person who is employed to assist a licensed dentist or dental hygienist by performing duties not otherwise restricted to the practice of a dentist, dental hygienist, or dental assistant II, as prescribed in regulations promulgated by the Board may practice as a dental assistant I.

B. A person who (i) has met the educational and training requirements prescribed by the Board; (ii) holds a certification from a credentialing organization recognized by the American Dental Association; and (iii) has met any other qualifications for registration as prescribed in regulations promulgated by the Board may practice as a dental assistant II. A dental assistant II may perform duties not otherwise restricted to the practice of a dentist or dental hygienist under the direction of a licensed dentist that are reversible, intraoral procedures specified in regulations promulgated by the Board.

2008, cc. 84, 264.

Chapter 27.01. Dialysis Patient Care Technicians.

This chapter shall not preclude or affect the ability of unregulated persons to perform services relating to the technical elements of dialysis, such as equipment maintenance and preparation of dialyzers for reuse by the same patient.

2003, c. 995.

Chapter 27.1. Dietitians and Nutritionists.

Nothing in this chapter shall preclude or affect in any fashion the ability of any person to provide any assessment, evaluation, advice, counseling, information or services of any nature that are otherwise allowed by law, whether or not such services are provided in connection with the marketing and sale of products.

1995, c. 391.

A. As used in this section, "nutritional genomics" means the consideration of biochemical or genetic information to evaluate how genetics affect gene function and how genetic variation alters nutrient response, including the study of how dietary and other lifestyle choices influence the function of humans at the molecular, cellular, organismal, and populational levels.

B. No person shall hold himself out to be or advertise or permit to be advertised that such person is a dietitian or nutritionist unless such person:

1. Has (i) received a baccalaureate or higher degree in nutritional sciences, community nutrition, public health nutrition, food and nutrition, dietetics, or human nutrition from a regionally accredited institution of higher education and (ii) satisfactorily completed a program of supervised clinical experience approved by the Commission on Dietetic Registration of the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics;

2. Has active registration through the Commission on Dietetic Registration of the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics;

3. Has an active certificate of the Board for Certification of Nutrition Specialists as a Certified Nutrition Specialist;

4. Has an active certification as a Diplomate of the American Clinical Board of Nutrition;

5. Has a current license or certificate as a dietitian or nutritionist issued by another state; or

6. Has the minimum requisite education, training and experience determined by the Department of Health Professions appropriate for such person to hold himself out to be, or advertise or allow himself to be advertised as, a dietitian or nutritionist.

The restrictions of this section apply to the use of the terms "dietitian" and "nutritionist" as used alone or in any combination with the terms "licensed," "certified," or "registered," as those terms also imply a minimum level of education, training and competence.

C. Any person who meets the requirements set forth in subsection B who receives nutritional genomics testing information shall maintain such information in accordance with applicable federal and state law.

D. A person who does not meet the requirements of subsection B but who (i) has a baccalaureate degree with a major in food and nutrition or dietetics or has equivalent hours of food and nutrition coursework and (ii) has two years of work experience in nutrition or dietetics concurrent with or subsequent to completion of such degree may hold himself out as a dietitian or nutritionist, provided he is employed by or under contract to a government agency and practices solely within the scope of such employment.

E. Any person who willfully violates the provisions of this section is guilty of a Class 3 misdemeanor.

1995, c. 391; 2016, c. 91; 2025, c. 341.

Chapter 28. Funeral Services.

Article 1. Board of Funeral Directors and Embalmers.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Advertisement" means any information disseminated or placed before the public.

"At-need" means at the time of death or while death is imminent.

"Board" means the Board of Funeral Directors and Embalmers.

"Cremate" means to reduce a dead human body to ashes and bone fragments by the action of fire.

"Cremator" means a person or establishment that owns or operates a crematory or crematorium or cremates dead human bodies.

"Crematory" or "crematorium" means a facility containing a furnace for cremation of dead human bodies.

"Declinable preneed funeral guarantee fee" means an optional and declinable fee agreed to by a preneed funeral contract purchaser, if offered by a seller, for which the cost of the preneed supplies and services as described in the preneed funeral contract shall be guaranteed. A declinable preneed funeral guarantee fee, when offered by a seller (i) shall not exceed 25 percent of the guaranteed preneed supplies and services included in the funeral contract price, (ii) shall be refundable if the purchaser terminates the contract within 30 days of execution, (iii) shall not be considered a finance fee, and (iv) shall be listed on the general price list in accordance with § 54.1-2812.

"Embalmer" means any person engaged in the practice of embalming.

"Embalming" means the process of chemically treating the dead human body by arterial injection and cavity treatment or, when necessary, hypodermic tissue injection to reduce the presence and growth of microorganisms to temporarily retard organic decomposition.

"Funeral directing" means the for-profit profession of directing or supervising funerals, preparing human dead for burial by means other than embalming, or making arrangements for funeral services or the financing of funeral services.

"Funeral director" means any person engaged in the practice of funeral directing.

"Funeral service establishment" means any main establishment, branch, or chapel that is permanently affixed to the real estate and for which a certificate of occupancy has been issued by the local building official where any part of the profession of funeral directing, the practice of funeral services, or the act of embalming is performed.

"Funeral service intern" means a person who is preparing to be licensed for the practice of funeral services under the direct supervision of a practitioner licensed by the Board.

"Funeral service licensee" means a person who is licensed in the practice of funeral services.

"In-person communication" means face-to-face communication and telephonic communication.

"Next of kin" means any of the following persons, regardless of the relationship to the decedent: any person designated to make arrangements for the disposition of the decedent's remains upon his death pursuant to § 54.1-2825, the legal spouse, child aged 18 years or older, parent of a decedent aged 18 years or older, custodial parent or noncustodial parent of a decedent younger than 18 years of age, siblings over 18 years of age, guardian of minor child, guardian of minor siblings, maternal grandparents, paternal grandparents, maternal siblings over 18 years of age and paternal siblings over 18 years of age, or any other relative in the descending order of blood relationship.

"Practice of funeral services" means engaging in the care and disposition of the human dead, the preparation of the human dead for the funeral service, burial or cremation, the making of arrangements for the funeral service or for the financing of the funeral service and the selling or making of financial arrangements for the sale of funeral supplies to the public.

"Preneed" means at any time other than at-need.

"Preneed funeral contract" means any agreement where payment is made by the consumer prior to the receipt of services or supplies contracted for, which evidences arrangements prior to death for (i) the providing of funeral services or (ii) the sale of funeral supplies. "Preneed funeral contract" does not include transportation protection agreements.

"Preneed funeral planning" means the making of arrangements prior to death for (i) the providing of funeral services or (ii) the sale of funeral supplies.

"Solicitation" means initiating contact with consumers with the intent of influencing their selection of a funeral plan or funeral service provider.

"Transportation protection agreement" means an agreement that provides for the coordination and arranging of all professional services related to transportation of human remains or cremated remains beyond the distance stated in the preneed funeral contract.

Code 1950, § 54-260.1; 1956, c. 220; 1972, c. 797, § 54-260.67; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 684; 1991, c. 539; 1997, c. 116; 1998, cc. 718, 867; 2003, c. 505; 2006, c. 56; 2015, cc. 534, 670; 2024, cc. 247, 598; 2025, c. 511.

A. The provisions of this chapter shall not apply to any officer of local or state institutions or to the burial of the bodies of inmates of state institutions when buried at the expense of the Commonwealth or any of its political subdivisions.

B. Any person holding a license as a funeral director or embalmer or an equivalent in another state, having substantially similar requirements as the Board, may apply to the Board for courtesy card privileges to remove bodies from and to arrange funerals or embalm bodies in this Commonwealth. However, these privileges shall not include the right to establish or engage generally in the business of funeral directing and embalming in Virginia.

Code 1950, §§ 54-260.1, 54-260.22 through 54-260.30, 54-260.32; 1956, c. 220; 1966, c. 284, § 54-260.70; 1972, c. 797, § 54-260.67; 1973, c. 296; 1974, c. 686; 1978, c. 849; 1986, c. 43; 1988, c. 765.

The Board of Funeral Directors and Embalmers shall consist of nine members as follows: seven funeral service licensees of the Board with at least five consecutive years of funeral service practice in the Commonwealth immediately prior to appointment and two nonlegislative citizen members. The terms of office shall be for four years from July 1. Appointments shall be made annually on or before June 30 as the terms of the members respectively expire. Appointments to the Board should generally represent the geographical areas of the Commonwealth. The Board shall annually elect a president, a vice-president, and a secretary-treasurer.

The Board shall hold at least two meetings each year. In addition, the Board may meet as often as its duties require. Five members shall constitute a quorum.

1988, cc. 42, 765; 2000, c. 773; 2015, c. 534.

In addition to the general powers and duties conferred in this subtitle, the Board shall have the following specific powers and duties to:

1. Establish standards of service and practice for the funeral service profession in the Commonwealth.

2. Regulate and inspect funeral service establishments, their operation and licenses.

3. Require licensees and funeral service interns to submit all information relevant to their practice or business.

4. Enforce the relevant regulations of the Board of Health.

5. Enforce local ordinances relating to funeral service establishments.

6. Advise the Department of Health Professions of any training appropriate for inspectors serving as the Board's agents.

7. Establish, supervise, regulate and control, in accordance with the law, programs for funeral service interns.

8. Establish standards for and approve schools of mortuary science or funeral service.

9. Regulate preneed funeral contracts and preneed funeral trust accounts as prescribed by this chapter, including, but not limited to, the authority to prescribe preneed contract forms, disclosure requirements and disclosure forms and to require reasonable bonds to insure performance of preneed contracts.

10. Inspect crematories and their operations.

Code 1950, §§ 54-260.3, 54-260.4, 54-260.6, 54-260.7, 54-260.11 through 54-260.14, 54-260.16 through 54-260.18, 54-260.20, 54-260.21, 54-260.45 through 54-260.49; 1956, c. 220; 1960, c. 61, § 54-260.69; 1966, c. 283, § 54-260.65; 1970, c. 385; 1972, c. 797, §§ 54-260.64, 54-260.68; 1978, c. 849; 1979, c. 650; 1980, c. 728; 1984, cc. 627, 704; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 684; 2000, c. 773; 2003, c. 505; 2006, c. 56.

The Board is authorized to determine the qualifications to enable any person to engage in the practice of funeral service, preneed funeral planning, funeral directing, embalming and the operation of a funeral service establishment. The Board shall promulgate regulations that establish the requirements of licensure for funeral directors and embalmers.

Code 1950, § 54-260.70; Code 1950, §§ 54-260.22 through 54-260.30, 54-260.32; 1956, c. 220; 1966, c. 284, § 54-260.70; 1972, c. 797; 1973, c. 296; 1974, c. 686; 1978, c. 849; 1986, c. 43; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 684; 2020, c. 943.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person to engage in or hold himself out as engaging in the practice of funeral services or the business of preneed funeral planning, to operate a funeral service establishment, or to act as a funeral director or embalmer or hold himself out as such unless he is licensed by the Board. Engaging in the practice of funeral services, preneed funeral planning, operating a funeral service establishment, or acting as a funeral director or embalmer shall be recognized as that of a health profession.

B. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection A, a person who is duly enrolled in a mortuary education program in the Commonwealth may assist in embalming while under the immediate supervision of a funeral service licensee or embalmer with an active, unrestricted license issued by the Board, provided that such embalming occurs in a funeral service establishment licensed by the Board and in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Board.

1974, c. 257, § 54-260.73:1; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 684; 2000, c. 773; 2018, c. 186.

A. As used in this section, "license" shall include any license, registration, or courtesy card issued by the Board.

B. The Board may refuse to admit a candidate to any examination, refuse to issue a license to any applicant and may suspend a license for a stated period or indefinitely, or revoke any license or censure or reprimand any licensee or place him on probation for such time as it may designate for any of the following causes:

1. Conviction of any felony or any crime involving moral turpitude;

2. Unprofessional conduct that is likely to defraud or to deceive the public or clients;

3. Misrepresentation or fraud in the conduct of the funeral service profession, or in obtaining or renewing a license;

4. False or misleading advertising or solicitation;

5. Solicitation at-need or any preneed solicitation using in-person communication by the licensee, his agents, assistants or employees; however, general advertising and preneed solicitation, other than in-person communication, shall be allowed;

6. Employment by the licensee of persons known as "cappers" or "steerers," or "solicitors," or other such persons to obtain the services of a holder of a license for the practice of funeral service;

7. Employment directly or indirectly of any agent, employee or other person, on part or full time, or on a commission, for the purpose of calling upon individuals or institutions by whose influence dead human bodies may be turned over to a particular funeral establishment;

8. Direct or indirect payment or offer of payment of a commission to others by the licensee, his agents, or employees for the purpose of securing business;

9. Use of alcohol or drugs to the extent that such use renders him unsafe to practice his licensed activity;

10. Aiding or abetting an unlicensed person to practice within the funeral service profession;

11. Using profane, indecent, or obscene language within the immediate hearing of the family or relatives of a deceased, whose body has not yet been interred or otherwise disposed of;

12. Solicitation or acceptance by a licensee of any commission or bonus or rebate in consideration of recommending or causing a dead human body to be disposed of in any crematory, mausoleum, or cemetery;

13. Violation of any statute, ordinance, or regulation affecting the handling, custody, care, or transportation of dead human bodies;

14. Refusing to surrender promptly the custody of a dead human body upon the express order of the person lawfully entitled to custody;

15. Knowingly making any false statement on a certificate of death;

16. Violation of any provisions of Chapter 7 (§ 32.1-249 et seq.) of Title 32.1;

17. Failure to comply with § 54.1-2812, and to keep on file an itemized statement of funeral expenses in accordance with Board regulations;

18. Knowingly disposing of parts of human remains, including viscera, that are received with the body by the funeral establishment, in a manner different from that used for final disposition of the body, unless the persons authorizing the method of final disposition give written permission that the body parts may be disposed of in a manner different from that used to dispose of the body;

19. Violating or failing to comply with Federal Trade Commission rules regulating funeral industry practices;

20. Violating or cooperating with others to violate any provision of Chapter 1 (§ 54.1-100 et seq.), Chapter 24 (§ 54.1-2400 et seq.), this chapter, or the regulations of the Board of Funeral Directors and Embalmers or the Board of Health;

21. Failure to comply with the reporting requirements as set forth in § 54.1-2817 for registered funeral service interns;

22. Failure to provide proper and adequate supervision and training instruction to registered funeral service interns as required by regulations of the Board;

23. Violating any statute or regulation of the Board regarding the confidentiality of information pertaining to the deceased or the family of the deceased or permitting access to the body in a manner that is contrary to the lawful instructions of the next-of-kin of the deceased;

24. Failure to include, as part of the general price list for funeral services, a disclosure statement notifying the next of kin that certain funeral services may be provided off-premises by other funeral service providers;

25. Disciplinary action against a license, certificate, or registration issued by another state, the District of Columbia, or territory or possession of the United States;

26. Failure to ensure that a dead human body is maintained in refrigeration at no more than approximately 40 degrees Fahrenheit or embalmed if it is to be stored for more than 48 hours prior to disposition. A dead human body shall be maintained in refrigeration and shall not be embalmed in the absence of express permission by a next of kin of the deceased or a court order; and

27. Mental or physical incapacity to practice his profession with safety to the public.

Code 1950, §§ 54-260.50, 54-260.59; 1956, c. 220; 1972, c. 797, § 54-260.74; 1979, c. 720; 1981, c. 258; 1986, c. 91; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 684; 1990, c. 363; 1996, c. 142; 2003, c. 505; 2006, c. 56; 2010, c. 324; 2015, c. 534; 2020, c. 885.

A. In the absence of a designation under § 54.1-2825, when there is a disagreement among a decedent's next of kin concerning the arrangements for his funeral or the disposition of his remains, any of the next of kin may petition the circuit court where the decedent resided at the time of his death to determine which of the next of kin shall have the authority to make arrangements for the decedent's funeral or the disposition of his remains. The court may require notice to and the convening of such of the next of kin as it deems proper.

B. In determining the matter before it, the court shall consider the expressed wishes, if any, of the decedent, the legal and factual relationship between or among the disputing next of kin and between each of the disputing next of kin and the decedent, and any other factor the court considers relevant to determine who should be authorized to make the arrangements for the decedent's funeral or the disposition of his remains.

C. When there is a disagreement among a decedent's next of kin concerning the arrangements for his funeral or the disposition of his remains, at least one of the next of kin shall, within 48 hours of the funeral service establishment receiving the decedent's remains, notify such funeral service establishment of the dispute, at which time the funeral service establishment shall immediately stop making arrangements for the decedent's funeral or for the disposition of the decedent's remains until such time as an agreement is reached by the disputing next of kin or a court of appropriate jurisdiction has ruled on any petition filed by such disputing next of kin. If, after 30 days of learning of a dispute, the funeral service establishment has not received written notice of agreement among the next of kin or a court order resolving the dispute, the funeral service establishment may proceed with the funeral and disposition arrangements upon authorization from any next of kin or in accordance with § 54.1-2807.02. The funeral service establishment shall not be liable for complying with the provisions of this subsection.

D. If there is a dispute regarding the identity of any persons who have the right to make arrangements and otherwise be responsible for the decedent's funeral and the disposition of such decedent's remains, a funeral service establishment shall not be liable for refusing to dispose of the decedent's remains or complete the arrangements for the final disposition of such remains until the funeral service establishment receives a court order or written agreement signed by the disputing next of kin that establishes the final disposition of the decedent's remains. If the funeral service establishment retains the decedent's remains for final disposition while any such dispute is pending, the funeral service establishment may embalm or refrigerate and shelter the decedent's body for preservation purposes pursuant to § 54.1-2811.1 until the dispute is resolved. Any person or persons adjudged or agreed to have the right to make arrangements and otherwise be responsible for the decedent's funeral and the disposition of the decedent's remains shall be responsible for any costs incurred by the funeral service establishment pursuant to this subsection.

2010, c. 383; 2024, c. 200; 2025, c. 253.

A. A person licensed for the practice of funeral service shall not (i) remove or embalm a body when he has information indicating the death was such that an investigation by the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner is required pursuant to § 32.1-283 or 32.1-285.1 or (ii) cremate or bury at sea a body until he has obtained permission of the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner as required by § 32.1-309.3.

B. Except as provided in § 32.1-301 and Chapter 8.1 (§ 32.1-309.1 et seq.) of Title 32.1, funeral service establishments shall not accept a dead human body from any public officer, except the Chief Medical Examiner, an Assistant Chief Medical Examiner, or a medical examiner appointed pursuant to § 32.1-282, or from any public or private facility or person having a professional relationship with the decedent without having first inquired about the desires of the next of kin and the persons liable for the funeral expenses of the decedent. The authority and directions of any next of kin shall govern the disposal of the body, subject to the provisions of § 54.1-2807.01 or 54.1-2825.

Any funeral service establishment violating this subsection shall not charge for any service delivered without the directions of the next of kin. However, in cases of accidental or violent death, the funeral service establishment may charge and be reimbursed for the removal of bodies and rendering necessary professional services until the next of kin or the persons liable for the funeral expenses have been notified.

C. No company, corporation, or association engaged in the business of paying or providing for the payment of the expenses for the care of the remains of deceased certificate holders or members or engaged in providing life insurance when the contract might or could give rise to an obligation to care for the remains of the insured shall contract to pay or pay any benefits to any licensee of the Board or other individual in a manner which could restrict the freedom of choice of the representative or next of kin of a decedent in procuring necessary and proper services and supplies for the care of the remains of the decedent.

D. No person licensed for the practice of funeral service or preneed funeral planning or any of his agents shall interfere with the freedom of choice of the general public in the choice of persons or establishments for the care of human remains or of preneed funeral planning or preneed funeral contracts.

E. This section shall not be construed to apply to the authority of any administrator, executor, trustee, or other person having a fiduciary relationship with the decedent.

Code 1950, §§ 54-260.50, 54-260.59; 1956, c. 220; 1972, c. 797, § 54-260.74; 1979, c. 720; 1981, c. 258; 1986, c. 91; 1988, c. 765; 1989, c. 684; 1993, c. 965; 2005, c. 905; 2010, c. 383; 2014, cc. 228, 583.

In the absence of a next of kin, a person designated to make arrangements for the decedent's burial or the disposition of his remains pursuant to § 54.1-2825, an agent named in an advance directive pursuant to § 54.1-2984, or any guardian appointed pursuant to Chapter 20 (§ 64.2-2000 et seq.) of Title 64.2 who may exercise the powers conferred in the order of appointment or by § 64.2-2019, or upon the failure or refusal of such next of kin, designated person, agent, or guardian to accept responsibility for the disposition of the decedent, then any other person 18 years of age or older who is able to provide positive identification of the deceased and is willing to pay for the costs associated with the disposition of the decedent's remains shall be authorized to make arrangements for such disposition of the decedent's remains. If a funeral service establishment or funeral service licensee makes arrangements with a person other than a next of kin, designated person, agent, or guardian in accordance with this section, then the funeral service licensee or funeral service establishment shall be immune from civil liability unless such act, decision, or omission resulted from bad faith or malicious intent.

2014, c. 355.

A. A funeral service licensee may require that a person claiming next of kin status, in accordance with the definition of next of kin in § 54.1-2800, execute a document affirming that such person is the next of kin. Upon execution of this form, the funeral service licensee is exempt from any liability for allowing such person to proceed with funeral planning for the decedent.

B. A funeral service licensee may, as a part of affirming that such person is next of kin under this section, rely on the decedent's will that names such person as the individual the decedent wishes to serve as next of kin for making funeral and burial arrangements, regardless of whether the will has been probated.

2024, c. 200.

All information received by any person practicing funeral services or his agent regarding the fact that any dead body which they have received harbors an infectious disease shall be confidential, and disclosure of such information shall be grounds for disciplinary action against the funeral service licensee pursuant to § 54.1-2806.

Notification that a dead body harbors an infectious disease will not constitute grounds for any funeral director's refusal to accept the body.

1988, c. 836, § 54-260.74:2.

Repealed by Acts 1998, c. 867.

Except as otherwise provided in § 54.1-2808.2, a funeral director may dispose of the cremains of an individual by interment, entombment, inurnment, or by scattering of the cremains, if after 120 days from the date of cremation, the contracting agent has not claimed the cremains or instructed the funeral director as to final disposition. The funeral director shall keep a permanent record of all cremains which identifies the method and site of final disposition. The costs and all reasonable expenses incurred in disposing of the cremains shall be borne by the contracting agent. Upon the disposition of the cremains, the funeral director shall not be liable for the cremains or for the method of final disposition. Except as otherwise provided in § 54.1-2808.2, any funeral director in possession of unclaimed cremains prior to July 1, 1993, may dispose of such cremains in accordance with the provisions of this section. However, no funeral director shall, without written permission of the contracting agent, dispose of cremains in a manner or a location in which the cremains of the deceased are commingled, except in the scattering of cremains at sea, by air, or in an area used exclusively for such purpose, or place, temporarily, the cremains of persons in the same container or urn.

For the purposes of this section and § 54.1-2808.2, "contracting agent" means any person, organization, association, institution, or group of persons who contracts with a funeral director or funeral establishment for funeral services.

1993, c. 531; 2012, cc. 24, 120; 2015, c. 138.

A. For the purposes of this section:

"Eligible dependent" means a veteran's spouse, a veteran's unmarried child younger than 21 years of age, or veteran's unmarried adult child who before the age of 21 became permanently incapable of self-support because of physical or mental disability.

"Veterans service organization" means an association or other entity organized for the benefit of veterans that has been recognized by the U.S. Department of Veterans Affairs or chartered by Congress and any employee or representative of such association or entity.

B. If the contracting agent has not claimed the cremains or instructed the funeral director as to final disposition within 90 days from the date of cremation, the funeral director shall provide names and any other identifying information of the unclaimed cremains to the Department of Veterans Services or a veterans service organization in order for the Department or organization to determine if the unclaimed cremains are those of a veteran or eligible dependent. The names and any personal identifying information submitted by a funeral director to the Department of Veterans Services or veterans service organization in compliance with this section shall be exempt from disclosure under the Virginia Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq.).

C. The Department of Veterans Services or veterans service organization shall notify the funeral director within 45 days of receipt of the information required by subsection B if the cremains are those of a veteran or eligible dependent and, if so, whether such veteran or eligible dependent is eligible for burial in a veterans cemetery in order to permit the transfer of the unclaimed cremains to a veterans cemetery. If the cremains are those of an eligible veteran or eligible dependent, a funeral director may transfer the cremains to the Department of Veterans Services or a veterans service organization for the purpose of disposition of such cremains.

D. No disposal of the unclaimed cremains of an eligible veteran or eligible dependent shall be made until the funeral director has notified the Department of Veterans Services or a veterans service organization and has received a determination as to whether the cremains are those of an eligible veteran or eligible dependent. Absent bad faith or malicious intent, no funeral director who transfers the cremains of a veteran or eligible dependent to the Department of Veterans Services or a veterans service organization for purposes of disposition or a veterans service organization that receives cremains for the purposes of disposition as provided in this section shall be liable for civil negligence.

2012, cc. 24, 120; 2015, c. 138.

A. When arrangements for funeral services have been made with a licensed funeral service establishment, funeral service licensees shall accept caskets provided by third parties in accordance with 16 C.F.R. Part 453, Funeral Industry Practices, Federal Trade Commission.

B. No funeral service establishment or funeral service licensee shall be required to store a casket provided by a third party when preneed arrangements for funeral services have been made.

C. Any person selling or providing preneed caskets shall be subject to the same preneed requirements as set forth in 16 C.F.R. Part 453, Funeral Industry Practices, Federal Trade Commission, and § 54.1-2820.

2018, c. 378; 2019, cc. 93, 603; 2020, c. 97.

Any person, partnership, corporation, association, or its agents or employees who violate any of the provisions of this chapter shall be guilty of a Class 1 misdemeanor.

Code 1950, § 54-260.61; 1956, c. 220; 1972, c. 797, § 54-260.75; 1988, c. 765.

Article 2. Licensure of Funeral Establishments.

No person shall conduct, maintain, manage or operate a funeral establishment unless a license for each such establishment has been issued by the Board. No license to operate a funeral establishment shall be issued by the Board unless each such funeral establishment has in charge, full time, a person licensed for the practice of funeral service or a licensed funeral director. Applications for funeral establishment licenses shall be made on forms furnished by the Board and filed by the owner or the registered agent of the corporation with the Board.

Each funeral establishment license shall expire annually at a time prescribed by Board regulation. A license may be renewed within 30 days of its expiration. Upon expiration of the license, the Board shall notify each licensee of the provisions of this section. Renewal of a license after the expiration of the 30-day period shall be in the discretion of the Board.

Violations of any provisions of this chapter or any Board regulations by any person, or an officer, agent or employee with the knowledge or consent of any person operating a funeral establishment shall be considered sufficient cause for suspension or revocation of the funeral establishment license.

An operator of a funeral establishment shall not allow any person licensed for the practice of funeral service to operate out of his funeral establishment unless the licensee is the operator or an employee of the operator of a licensed funeral establishment.

If the manager of the funeral service establishment is unable, for any reason, to exercise adequate supervision, direction, management, and control of the funeral establishment, the owner shall designate any funeral service licensee to serve as a temporary manager and notify the Board in writing within 14 days. If such inability of the manager exceeds 90 days or is expected to exceed 90 days, a new manager shall be designated and registered with the Board. At the conclusion of the 90-day period for designation of a new manager, a funeral service establishment which has failed to designate a new manager shall not operate as a funeral service establishment.

When licensing funeral establishments, the Board may grant a hardship waiver from the requirement for a full-time manager licensed for the practice of funeral service or licensed as a funeral director, allowing the operation of two funeral establishments having in charge one full-time person licensed for the practice of funeral service or one licensed funeral director who divides his time between the two funeral establishments. Prior to granting a hardship waiver, the Board shall find that (i) the two establishments have been in operation for at least three years; (ii) the combined average number of funeral calls at the two establishments over the previous three years is no more than 135 per year; and (iii) the distance between the two establishments is 50 miles or less.

Prior to granting a renewal of a license granted under a hardship waiver, the Board shall determine whether the requirements for license renewal under such waiver continue to exist.

Code 1950, §§ 54-260.39, 54-260.40; 1956, c. 220; 1972, c. 797, § 54-260.73; 1974, 164; 1978, c. 849; 1988, c. 765; 1996, c. 757; 2000, c. 773; 2013, c. 108; 2019, c. 66; 2025, c. 115.

A funeral service establishment shall contain a preparation room equipped with a tile, cement or other waterproof floor, proper drainage and ventilation, the necessary instruments and supplies for the preparation and embalming of dead human bodies for burial, transportation or other disposition, and separate restroom facilities.

A funeral service establishment having more than one location at which it performs funeral services shall not be required to maintain more than one preparation room.

The Board may adopt regulations and classifications to prescribe proper drainage and ventilation and necessary instruments and supplies in preparation rooms and separate restroom facilities.

Code 1950, §§ 54-260.39, 54-260.40; 1956, c. 220; 1972, c. 797, § 54-260.73; 1974, 164; 1978, c. 849; 1988, c. 765.

A. Upon taking custody of a dead human body, a funeral service establishment shall maintain such body in a manner that provides complete coverage of the body and that is resistant to leakage or spillage, except during embalming or preparation of an unembalmed body for final disposition; restoration and dressing of a body in preparation for final disposition; and viewing during any visitation and funeral service.

B. If a dead human body is to be stored for more than 48 hours prior to disposition, a funeral services establishment having custody of such body shall ensure that the dead human body is maintained in refrigeration at no more than approximately 40 degrees Fahrenheit or embalmed. A dead human body shall be maintained in refrigeration and shall not be embalmed in the absence of express permission by a next of kin of the deceased or a court order.

C. If a dead human body is to be stored for more than 10 days prior to disposition at a location other than a funeral service establishment, the funeral service establishment shall disclose to the contract buyer the location where the body is to be stored and the method of storage.

D. Funeral services establishments, crematories, or transportation services shall not transport animal remains together with dead human bodies. Further, animal remains shall not be refrigerated in a unit where dead human bodies are being stored.

2010, c. 823.

Every person licensed pursuant to the provisions of this chapter shall furnish a written general price list and a written itemized statement of charges in connection with the care and disposition of the body of a deceased person.

Individuals inquiring in person about funeral arrangements or the prices of funeral goods shall be given the general price list. Upon beginning discussion of funeral arrangements or the selection of any funeral goods or services, the general price list must be offered by the funeral licensee.

The itemized statement shall include, but not be limited to, the following charges: casket, other funeral merchandise, vault or other burial receptacle, facilities used, transportation costs, embalming, preparation of the body, other professional services used and disclosure statements required by the Federal Trade Commission, which shall be set forth in a clear and conspicuous manner.

Further, there shall be included a statement of all anticipated cash advances and expenditures requested by the person contracting for the funeral arrangements and such other items as required by regulation of the Board of Funeral Directors and Embalmers. The statement shall be furnished to the person contracting for funeral arrangements at the time such arrangements are made if the person is present and, if not present, no later than the time of the final disposition of the body.

The general price list and itemized statement of funeral expenses shall comply with forms prescribed by regulation of the Board. All regulations promulgated herewith shall promote the purposes of this section.

1979, c. 8, § 54-260.71:1; 1986, c. 42; 1988, c. 765.

Article 3. Licensure of the Practice of Funeral Service, Funeral Directors and Embalmers.

To be licensed for the practice of funeral service, a person shall (i) be at least 18 years of age; (ii) hold a high school diploma or its equivalent; (iii) have completed a funeral service internship prescribed by the Board in regulation; (iv) have graduated from a school of mortuary science or funeral service approved by the Board; and (v) have passed the examination for licensure.

The Board, in its discretion, may license an individual convicted of a felony if he has successfully fulfilled all conditions of sentencing, been pardoned, or has had his civil rights restored.

The Board, in its discretion, may refuse to license an individual who has a criminal or disciplinary proceeding pending against him in any jurisdiction in the United States.

Code 1950, § 54-260.70; Code 1950, §§ 54-260.22 through 54-260.30, 54-260.32; 1956, c. 220; 1966, c. 284, § 54-260.70; 1972, c. 797; 1973, c. 296; 1974, c. 686; 1978, c. 849; 1986, c. 43; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 363; 2005, c. 477; 2006, c. 56.

Each applicant for license for the practice of funeral service shall be examined in writing on:

1. Basic and health sciences including anatomy, chemistry, bacteriology, pathology, hygiene and public health;

2. Funeral service arts and sciences including embalming and restorative art;

3. Funeral service administration including accounting, funeral law, psychology, and funeral principles, directing and management.

The Board may recognize other examinations that it considers equivalent to its examination.

Code 1950, § 54-260.70; Code 1950, §§ 54-260.22 through 54-260.30, 54-260.32; 1956, c. 220; 1966, c. 284, § 54-260.70; 1972, c. 797; 1973, c. 296; 1974, c. 686; 1978, c. 849; 1986, c. 43; 1988, c. 765; 2000, c. 773.

A. No crematorium, cemeterian, memorial society, or other establishment, organization, or person shall cremate a dead human body without having registered with the Board as a cremator.

B. The Board shall prescribe the procedures for registration under this section. Such procedures shall include a requirement that any crematory registered with the Board that engages in the practice of funeral services operate in compliance with the provisions § 54.1-2810. However, nothing in this subsection shall require a crematory registered with the Board to obtain a license as a funeral service establishment as long as the crematory provides cremation services directly to or for a licensed funeral service establishment only and not to the general public.

C. The Board may suspend or revoke any crematory registration or deny any application for such registration, or refuse to issue or renew any such registration, if the Board finds that the applicant or registrant has violated any provision of this chapter, the Board's regulations, or if the Board finds the crematory has operated or is operating in a manner that endangers the health, safety or welfare of the public.

2000, c. 773; 2003, c. 505.

All applications for examination for a license for the practice of funeral service shall be upon forms furnished by the Board.

All licenses shall be issued or renewed for a period prescribed by the Board, not exceeding two years.

1978, c. 849, § 54-260.70:1; 1988, c. 765; 2015, c. 534.

A. The Board shall promulgate regulations governing continuing education requirements for funeral services licensees, funeral directors, and embalmers licensed by the Board.

B. The Board shall approve criteria for continuing education courses, requiring no more than five hours per year, that are directly related to the respective license and scope of practice of funeral service licensees, funeral directors, and embalmers. Approved continuing education courses shall include one hour per year covering compliance with federal or state laws and regulations governing the profession or one hour per year covering preneed funeral arrangements, provided that at least one hour of continuing education in preneed is completed every three years. Course providers may be required to register continuing education courses with the Board pursuant to Board regulations. The Board shall not allow continuing education credit for courses where the principal purpose of the course is to promote, sell, or offer goods, products, or services to funeral homes.

C. All course providers shall furnish written certification to licensees of the Board attending and completing respective courses, indicating the satisfactory completion of an approved continuing education course. Each course provider shall retain records of all persons attending and those persons satisfactorily completing such continuing education courses for a period of two years following each course. Applicants for renewal or reinstatement of licenses issued pursuant to this article shall retain for a period of two years the written certification issued by any Board-approved provider of continuing education courses. The Board may require course providers or licensees to submit copies of such records or certification, as it deems necessary, to ensure compliance with continuing education requirements.

D. The Board shall have the authority to grant exemptions or waivers in cases of certified illness or undue hardship.

E. The Board may provide for an inactive status for those licensees who do not practice in Virginia. The Board may adopt regulations reducing or waiving continuing education requirements for any licensee granted such inactive status. However, no licensees granted inactive status may have their license changed to active status without first obtaining additional continuing education hours as may be determined by the Board. No person or registrant shall practice in Virginia as an embalmer, funeral director, or funeral service licensee unless he holds a current, active license.

2002, c. 270; 2008, c. 396; 2012, c. 497; 2022, c. 170.

Prior to the expiration of a license, the Board shall provide to each person licensed to practice funeral service, embalming, or funeral directing a renewal notice to be submitted to the Board together with the prescribed fee. The Board shall provide renewal notices by mail or electronically to any licensee. The license of any person who does not submit the completed form prior to the date of expiration shall automatically expire. The Board shall immediately notify the person of the expiration and the reinstatement requirements. The Board shall reinstate an expired license upon receipt, within 30 days of the notice of expiration, of the completed form and the prescribed fee. Reinstatement after the 30-day period shall be at the discretion of the Board.

1978, c. 849, § 54-260.70:2; 1988, c. 765; 2005, c. 477; 2018, c. 101.

A person desiring to become a funeral service intern shall apply on a form provided by the Board. The applicant shall attest that he holds a high school diploma or its equivalent. The Board, in its discretion, may approve an application to be a funeral service intern for an individual convicted of a felony, if he has successfully fulfilled all conditions of sentencing, been pardoned, or has had his civil rights restored. The Board shall not, however, approve an application to be a funeral service intern for any person convicted of embezzlement or of violating subsection B of § 18.2-126.

The Board, in its discretion, may refuse to approve an application to be a funeral service intern for an individual who has a criminal or disciplinary proceeding pending against him in any jurisdiction in the United States.

When the Board is satisfied as to the qualifications of an applicant, it shall issue a certificate of internship. When a funeral service intern wishes to receive in-service training from a person licensed for the practice of funeral service, a request shall be submitted to the Board. If such permission is granted and the funeral service intern later leaves the proctorship of the licensee whose service has been entered, the licensee shall give the funeral service intern an affidavit showing the length of time served with him. The affidavit shall be filed with the Board and made a matter of record in that office. Any funeral service intern seeking permission to continue in-service training shall submit a request to the Board.

A certificate of internship shall be renewable as prescribed by the Board. The Board shall mail or send electronically at such time as it may prescribe by regulation, to each registered funeral service intern at his last known address, a notice that the renewal fee is due and that, if not paid by the prescribed time, a penalty fee shall be due in addition to the renewal fee.

The registration of any funeral service intern who is in the active military service of the United States may, at the discretion of the Board, be held in abeyance for the duration of his service. The Board may also waive the renewal fees for such military personnel.

All registered funeral service interns shall report to the Board on a schedule prescribed by the Board upon forms provided by the Board, showing the work which has been completed during the preceding period of internship. The data contained in the report shall be certified as correct by the person licensed for the practice of funeral service under whom he has served during this period and by the person licensed for the practice of funeral service owning or managing the funeral service establishment.

Before such funeral service intern becomes eligible to be examined for the practice of funeral service, evidence shall be presented along with an affidavit from any licensee under whom the intern worked showing that the intern has assisted in embalming at least 25 bodies and that the intern has assisted in conducting at least 25 funerals. In all applications of funeral service interns for licenses for the practice of funeral service, the eligibility of the applicant shall be determined by the records filed with the Board. The successful completion by any person of the internship shall not entitle him to any privilege except to be examined for such license.

Credit shall not be allowed for any period of internship that has been completed more than three years prior to application for license or more than five years prior to examination for license. If all requirements for licensure are not completed within five years of initial application, the Board may deny an additional internship. A funeral service intern may continue to practice for up to 90 days from the completion of his internship or until he has taken and received the results of all examinations required by the Board. However, the Board may waive such limitation for any person in the armed service of the United States when application for the waiver is made in writing within six months of leaving service or if the Board determines that enforcement of the limitation will create an unreasonable hardship.

The Board shall have power to suspend or revoke a certificate of internship for violation of any provision of this chapter.

No more than two funeral service interns shall be concurrently registered under any one person licensed for the practice of funeral service, funeral directing or embalming. Each sponsor for a registered funeral service intern must be actively employed by or under contract with a funeral establishment.

Code 1950, §§ 54-260.34 through 54-260.38; 1956, c. 220; 1970, c. 513, § 54-260.72; 1972, c. 797; 1973, c. 296; 1974, c. 157; 1978, c. 849; 1981, c. 258; 1986, c. 43; 1988, c. 765; 2005, c. 477; 2006, c. 56; 2018, c. 101.

A copy of all licenses shall be displayed in a conspicuous place in each establishment in which the licensee practices.

Code 1950, § 54-260.31; 1956, c. 220; 1972, c. 797, § 54-260.71; 1988, c. 765.

No dead human body shall be cremated without permission of the Office of the Chief Medical Examiner as required by § 32.1-309.3 and visual identification of the deceased by the next-of-kin or his representative, who may be any person designated to make arrangements for the disposition of the decedent's remains pursuant to § 54.1-2825, an agent named in an advance directive pursuant to § 54.1-2984, or any guardian appointed pursuant to Chapter 20 (§ 64.2-2000 et seq.) of Title 64.2 who may exercise the powers conferred in the order of appointment or by § 64.2-2019, or, in cases in which the next of kin or his representative fails or refuses to provide visual identification of the deceased, by any other person 18 years of age or older who is able to provide positive identification of the deceased. If no such next of kin or his representative or other person 18 years of age or older is available or willing to make visual identification of the deceased, such identification shall be made by a member of the primary law-enforcement agency of the city or county in which the person or institution having initial custody of the body is located, pursuant to court order. When visual identification is not feasible, other positive identification of the deceased may be used as a prerequisite for cremation. Unless such act, decision, or omission resulted from bad faith or malicious intent, the funeral service establishment, funeral service licensee, crematory, cemetery, primary law-enforcement officer, sheriff, county, or city shall be immune from civil liability for any act, decision, or omission resulting from cremation. Nothing in this section shall prevent a law-enforcement agency other than the primary law-enforcement agency from performing the duties established by this section if so requested by the primary law-enforcement agency and agreed to by the other law-enforcement agency.

1998, c. 867; 2010, c. 377; 2011, c. 88; 2014, cc. 228, 355, 583; 2015, c. 670.

Nothing in this article shall be applicable to any officer of any institution operated by the Commonwealth or by any county, city or town in the performance of his duties as such.

1998, c. 867.

Any crematory shall apply for and receive a registration from the Board as a registered crematory. However, this section shall not supersede or restrict the provisions of § 54.1-2814.1.

1998, c. 867; 2003, c. 505.

Unless such act, decision, or omission resulted from bad faith or malicious intent, any funeral service establishment, funeral service licensee, crematory, or registered crematory that receives a body following donation of organs, tissues, or eyes shall be immune from civil liability for any failure to restore such decedent's form or features in a manner acceptable for viewing prior to the final disposition of the remains.

2009, c. 811.

A. In any case in which a funeral service provider licensed pursuant to this chapter believes that a decedent for whom funeral services are being provided is insured under an individual or group life insurance policy, the funeral service provider may request information regarding the deceased person's life insurance policy from the life insurer believed to have issued the policy. Such request for information shall include (i) a copy of the deceased person's death certificate filed in accordance with § 32.1-263; (ii) written authorization for the funeral service provider's submission of the request that is executed by a person designated to make arrangements for the decedent's burial or disposition of his remains pursuant to § 54.1-2825, an agent named in an advance directive pursuant to § 54.1-2984, a guardian appointed pursuant to Chapter 20 (§ 64.2-2000 et seq.) of Title 64.2 who may exercise the powers conferred in the order of appointment or by § 64.2-2019, or the next of kin as defined in § 54.1-2800; and (iii) if the deceased person was covered or is believed to have been covered under a group life insurance policy, the affiliation of the deceased person entitling the deceased to coverage under the group life insurance policy.

B. Upon receipt of the information requested pursuant to subsection A, if the beneficiary of record under the life insurance contract or group life insurance policy is not the estate of the deceased person, the requesting funeral service provider shall make all reasonable efforts to contact all the beneficiaries of record within four calendar days of receiving such information and provide to the beneficiaries all information provided to the funeral service provider by the life insurer. The funeral service provider shall, prior to providing any information to the beneficiaries in accordance with this subsection, inform the beneficiaries that the beneficiary of a life insurance policy has no legal duty or obligation to pay any amounts associated with the provision of funeral services or the debts or obligations of the deceased person.

2017, c. 482.

Article 4. Registration of Surface Transportation and Removal Services.

Any person or private business, except a common carrier engaged in interstate commerce, the Commonwealth and its agencies, or an emergency medical services agency holding a permit issued by the Commissioner of Health pursuant to § 32.1-111.6, shall apply for and receive a registration as a transportation and removal service in order to be authorized to engage in the business of surface transportation or removal of dead human bodies in the Commonwealth.

Surface transportation and removal services shall not arrange or conduct funerals, provide for the care or preparation, including embalming, of dead human bodies, or sell or provide funeral-related goods and services without the issuance of a funeral service establishment license.

The Board shall promulgate regulations for such registration including proper procedures in the handling of all dead human bodies being transported, the application process for registration, and the establishment of registration fees. These regulations shall not require the use of a casket for transportation. No licensed funeral service establishment shall be required to receive such registration in addition to its funeral service establishment license. However, such establishment shall be subject to the regulations pertaining to transportation and removal services.

Every applicant for registration as a surface transportation and removal service shall include the name of a manager of record on any application for registration and shall notify the Board within 30 days of any change in the manager of record. Such notice shall include the name of the new manager of record of the surface transportation and removal service.

All registrations as a surface transportation and removal service shall be renewed annually and no person or private business shall engage in the business as a surface transportation and removal service without holding a valid registration.

Any surface transportation or removal service that is not registered or persons who knowingly engage in transportation or removal services without registration shall be subject to the disciplinary actions provided in this chapter.

This section shall not be construed to prohibit private individuals from transporting or removing the remains of deceased family members and relatives either by preference or in observation of religious beliefs and customs.

1984, c. 761, § 54-260.74:1; 1986, c. 198; 1988, c. 765; 2006, c. 555; 2015, cc. 110, 534.

Article 5. Preneed Funeral Contracts.

A. It shall be unlawful for any person residing or doing business within this Commonwealth, to make, either directly or indirectly by any means, a preneed funeral contract unless the contract:

1. Is made on forms prescribed by the Board and is written in clear, understandable language and printed in easy-to-read type, size and style;

2. Identifies the seller, seller's license number and contract buyer and the person for whom the contract is purchased if other than the contract buyer;

3. Contains a complete description of the supplies or services purchased;

4. Clearly discloses whether the price of the supplies and services purchased is guaranteed and whether the guaranteed supplies and services have been secured by a declinable preneed funeral guarantee fee as defined in § 54.1-2800;

5. States if funds are required to be trusted pursuant to § 54.1-2822, the amount to be trusted, the name of the trustee, the disposition of the interest, the fees, expenses and taxes which may be deducted from the interest and a statement of the buyer's responsibility for taxes owed on the interest;

6. Contains the name, address and telephone number of the Board and lists the Board as the regulatory agency which handles consumer complaints;

7. Provides that any person who makes payment under the contract may terminate the agreement at any time prior to the furnishing of the services or supplies contracted for except as provided pursuant to subsection B; if the purchaser terminates the contract within 30 days of execution, the purchaser shall be refunded all consideration paid or delivered, together with any interest or income accrued thereon; if the purchaser terminates the contract after 30 days, the purchaser shall be refunded any amounts required to be deposited under § 54.1-2822, together with any interest or income accrued thereon;

8. Provides that if the particular supplies and services specified in the contract are unavailable at the time of delivery, the seller shall be required to furnish supplies and services similar in style and at least equal in quality of material and workmanship and the representative of the deceased shall have the right to choose the supplies or services to be substituted;

9. Discloses any penalties or restrictions, including but not limited to geographic restrictions or the inability of the provider to perform, on the delivery of merchandise, services or prearrangement guarantee; and

10. Complies with all disclosure requirements imposed by the Board.

If the contract seller will not be furnishing the supplies and services to the purchaser, the contract seller must attach to the preneed funeral contract a copy of the seller's agreement with the provider.

B. Subject to the requirements of § 54.1-2822, a preneed funeral contract may provide for an irrevocable trust or an amount in an irrevocable trust that is specifically identified as available exclusively for funeral or burial expenses, where:

1. A person irrevocably contracts for funeral goods and services, such person funds the contract by prepaying for the goods and services, and the funeral provider residing or doing business within the Commonwealth subsequently places the funds in a trust; or

2. A person establishes an irrevocable trust naming the funeral provider as the beneficiary; however, such person shall have the right to change the beneficiary to another funeral provider pursuant to § 54.1-2822.

C. If a life insurance or annuity contract is used to fund the preneed funeral contract, the face amount of any life insurance policy issued to fund a preneed funeral contract shall not be decreased over the life of the life insurance policy except for life insurance policies that have lapsed due to the nonpayment of premiums or have gone to a nonforfeiture option that lowers the face amount as allowed for in the provisions of the policy. The following must also be disclosed as prescribed by the Board:

1. The fact that a life insurance policy or annuity contract is involved or being used to fund the preneed contract;

2. The nature of the relationship among the soliciting agent, the provider of the supplies or services, the prearranger and the insurer;

3. The relationship of the life insurance policy or annuity contract to the funding of the preneed contract and the nature and existence of any guarantees relating to the preneed contract; and

4. The impact on the preneed contract of (i) any changes in the life insurance policy or annuity contract including but not limited to changes in the assignment, beneficiary designation or use of the proceeds, (ii) any penalties to be incurred by the policyholder as a result of failure to make premium payments, (iii) any penalties to be incurred or moneys to be received as a result of cancellation or surrender of the life insurance policy or annuity contract, and (iv) all relevant information concerning what occurs and whether any entitlements or obligations arise if there is a difference between the proceeds of the life insurance policy or annuity contract and the amount actually needed to fund the preneed contract.

D. When the consideration consists in whole or in part of any real estate, the contract shall be recorded as an attachment to the deed whereby such real estate is conveyed, and the deed shall be recorded in the clerk's office of the circuit court of the city or county in which the real estate being conveyed is located.

E. If any funeral supplies are sold and delivered prior to the death of the subject for whom they are provided, and the seller or any legal entity in which he or a member of his family has an interest thereafter stores these supplies, the risk of loss or damage shall be upon the seller during such period of storage.

1989, c. 684; 1991, c. 721; 1992, c. 635; 1998, c. 738; 1999, c. 819; 2003, cc. 663, 673; 2007, c. 621; 2022, cc. 18, 641; 2024, c. 247.

This article shall not apply to the preneed sale of cemetery services or supplies regulated under Chapter 23.1 (§ 54.1-2310 et seq.) of this title.

1989, c. 684.

A. Within 30 days following the receipt of any money paid pursuant to any preneed funeral contract or interest or income accrued thereon, unless such amounts are paid to fund either an annuity or an insurance policy which will be used to purchase the funeral supplies or services contracted for, the person receiving such amounts shall deposit all consideration paid pursuant to the terms of a preneed funeral contract in which the price of the supplies and services is not guaranteed, or ninety percent of all consideration paid pursuant to the terms of a preneed funeral contract in which the price of the supplies and services is guaranteed, in a special account in a bank or savings institution doing business in this Commonwealth.

B. The funds shall be deposited in separate, identifiable trust accounts setting forth the names of the depositor, the trustee for the person who is the subject of the contract, the name of the person who will render the funeral services and the name of the person who is the subject of the contract. The purchaser shall have the right to change the beneficiary and trustee of the trust at any time prior to the furnishing of the services or supplies contracted for under the preneed funeral contract. Trust account records shall be subject to examination by the Board.

C. No funeral director, embalmer, funeral service licensee, owner of a funeral establishment, or any person employed by or having an interest in a funeral establishment shall serve as trustee of a trust account for which any such person, or any funeral establishment owned by or employing such person or in which such person has an interest, has been named the beneficiary or designated the provider of services, unless two or more such persons are named and serve as trustees and are required to act jointly in such fiduciary capacity. Subject to the terms of this subsection, and notwithstanding any other provision of law, the trustee for any such trust account may be an incorporated association that is authorized to sell burial association group life insurance certificates in the Commonwealth, as described in the definition of limited burial insurance authority in § 38.2-1800, whose principal purpose is to assist its members in (i) financial planning for their funerals and burials and (ii) obtaining insurance for the payment, in whole or in part, for funeral, burial, and related expenses.

1989, c. 684; 1992, c. 337; 2007, c. 621.

Every person selling preneed funeral contracts within this Commonwealth shall keep and maintain such records of preneed transactions, including copies of preneed contracts, as may be prescribed by the Board. All such records shall be maintained on the premises of the funeral establishment providing the preneed services and supplies, except that preneed records of funeral establishments under common ownership, control, or management may be maintained at a single location within this Commonwealth.

1995, c. 26.

Any money, personal property or real property paid, delivered or conveyed subject to § 54.1-2822 shall be exempt from levy, garnishment or distress.

1989, c. 684.

Within thirty days following the receipt of any personal property other than money delivered pursuant to any preneed funeral contract, the person receiving it, if title thereto is transferred, or the person making such delivery, if title thereto is not transferred, shall execute in writing a declaration of trust setting forth all the terms, conditions and considerations upon which the personal property is delivered, which shall be acknowledged in the same manner as the contract and recorded in the clerk's office of the circuit court of the city or county in which the person delivering the personal property resides; provided, that if such terms, conditions and considerations are contained in the preneed funeral contract, the contract shall be recorded.

1989, c. 684.

A. Any person may designate in a signed and notarized writing, which has been accepted in writing by the person so designated, an individual who shall make arrangements and be otherwise responsible for his funeral and the disposition of his remains, including cremation, interment, entombment, or memorialization, or some combination thereof, upon his death. Such designee shall have priority over all persons otherwise entitled to make such arrangements, provided that a copy of the signed and notarized writing is provided to the funeral service establishment and to the cemetery, if any, no later than 48 hours after the funeral service establishment has received the remains. Nothing in this section shall preclude any next of kin from paying any costs associated with any funeral or disposition of any remains, provided that such payment is made with the concurrence of any person designated to make arrangements.

B. In cases in which a person has designated in a U.S. Department of Defense Record of Emergency Data (DD Form 93) or any successor form an individual to make arrangements for his funeral and disposition of his remains, and such person dies while serving in any branch of the United States Armed Forces as defined in 10 U.S.C. § 1481, such designee shall be responsible for making such arrangements.

1989, c. 684; 1998, c. 718; 2010, cc. 324, 380.

Chapter 29. Medicine and Other Healing Arts.

Article 1. General Provisions.

As used in this chapter, unless the context requires a different meaning:

"Acupuncturist" means an individual approved by the Board to practice acupuncture. This is limited to "licensed acupuncturist" which means an individual other than a doctor of medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic or podiatry who has successfully completed the requirements for licensure established by the Board (approved titles are limited to: Licensed Acupuncturist, Lic.Ac., and L.Ac.).

"Advanced practice registered nurse" means a certified nurse midwife, certified registered nurse anesthetist, clinical nurse specialist, or nurse practitioner who is jointly licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing pursuant to § 54.1-2957, has completed an advanced graduate-level education program in a specialty category of nursing, and has passed a national certifying examination for that specialty.

"Auricular acupuncture" means the subcutaneous insertion of sterile, disposable acupuncture needles in predetermined, bilateral locations in the outer ear.

"Birth control" means contraceptive methods that are approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration. "Birth control" shall not be considered abortion for the purposes of Title 18.2.

"Board" means the Board of Medicine.

"Certified nurse midwife" means an advanced practice registered nurse who is certified in the specialty of nurse midwifery and who is jointly licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing as an advanced practice registered nurse pursuant to § 54.1-2957.

"Certified registered nurse anesthetist" means an advanced practice registered nurse who is certified in the specialty of nurse anesthesia, who is jointly licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing as an advanced practice registered nurse pursuant to § 54.1-2957, and who practices under the supervision of a doctor of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, or dentistry but is not subject to the practice agreement requirement described in § 54.1-2957.

"Clinical nurse specialist" means an advanced practice registered nurse who is certified in the specialty of clinical nurse specialist and who is jointly licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing as an advanced practice registered nurse pursuant to § 54.1-2957.

"Collaboration" means the communication and decision-making process among health care providers who are members of a patient care team related to the treatment of a patient that includes the degree of cooperation necessary to provide treatment and care of the patient and includes (i) communication of data and information about the treatment and care of a patient, including the exchange of clinical observations and assessments, and (ii) development of an appropriate plan of care, including decisions regarding the health care provided, accessing and assessment of appropriate additional resources or expertise, and arrangement of appropriate referrals, testing, or studies.

"Consultation" means communicating data and information, exchanging clinical observations and assessments, accessing and assessing additional resources and expertise, problem-solving, and arranging for referrals, testing, or studies.

"Genetic counselor" means a person licensed by the Board to engage in the practice of genetic counseling.

"Healing arts" means the arts and sciences dealing with the prevention, diagnosis, treatment and cure or alleviation of human physical or mental ailments, conditions, diseases, pain or infirmities.

"Licensed certified midwife" means a person who is licensed as a certified midwife by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing.

"Medical malpractice judgment" means any final order of any court entering judgment against a licensee of the Board that arises out of any tort action or breach of contract action for personal injuries or wrongful death, based on health care or professional services rendered, or that should have been rendered, by a health care provider, to a patient.

"Medical malpractice settlement" means any written agreement and release entered into by or on behalf of a licensee of the Board in response to a written claim for money damages that arises out of any personal injuries or wrongful death, based on health care or professional services rendered, or that should have been rendered, by a health care provider, to a patient.

"Nurse practitioner" means an advanced practice registered nurse, other than an advanced practice registered nurse licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing in the category of certified nurse midwife, certified registered nurse anesthetist, or clinical nurse specialist, who is jointly licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing pursuant to § 54.1-2957.

"Occupational therapy assistant" means an individual who has met the requirements of the Board for licensure and who works under the supervision of a licensed occupational therapist to assist in the practice of occupational therapy.

"Patient care team" means a multidisciplinary team of health care providers actively functioning as a unit with the management and leadership of one or more patient care team physicians for the purpose of providing and delivering health care to a patient or group of patients.

"Patient care team physician" means a physician who is actively licensed to practice medicine in the Commonwealth, who regularly practices medicine in the Commonwealth, and who provides management and leadership in the care of patients as part of a patient care team.

"Patient care team podiatrist" means a podiatrist who is actively licensed to practice podiatry in the Commonwealth, who regularly practices podiatry in the Commonwealth, and who provides management and leadership in the care of patients as part of a patient care team.

"Physician assistant" means a health care professional who has met the requirements of the Board for licensure as a physician assistant.

"Practice of acupuncture" means the stimulation of certain points on or near the surface of the body by the insertion of needles to prevent or modify the perception of pain or to normalize physiological functions, including pain control, for the treatment of certain ailments or conditions of the body and includes the techniques of electroacupuncture, cupping, and moxibustion. The practice of acupuncture does not include the use of physical therapy, chiropractic, or osteopathic manipulative techniques; the use or prescribing of any drugs, medications, serums or vaccines; or the procedure of the five needle auricular acupuncture protocol (5NP) as exempted in § 54.1-2901.

"Practice of athletic training" means the prevention, recognition, evaluation, and treatment of injuries or conditions related to athletic or recreational activity that requires physical skill and utilizes strength, power, endurance, speed, flexibility, range of motion or agility or a substantially similar injury or condition resulting from occupational activity immediately upon the onset of such injury or condition; and subsequent treatment and rehabilitation of such injuries or conditions, including in an inpatient or outpatient setting, under the direction of the patient's physician or under the direction of any doctor of medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic, podiatry, or dentistry, while using heat, light, sound, cold, electricity, exercise or mechanical or other devices.

"Practice of behavior analysis" means the design, implementation, and evaluation of environmental modifications, using behavioral stimuli and consequences, to produce socially significant improvement in human behavior, including the use of direct observation, measurement, and functional analysis of the relationship between environment and behavior.

"Practice of chiropractic" means the adjustment of the 24 movable vertebrae of the spinal column, and assisting nature for the purpose of normalizing the transmission of nerve energy, but does not include the use of surgery, obstetrics, osteopathy, or the administration or prescribing of any drugs, medicines, serums, or vaccines. "Practice of chiropractic" includes (i) requesting, receiving, and reviewing a patient's medical and physical history, including information related to past surgical and nonsurgical treatment of the patient and controlled substances prescribed to the patient, and (ii) documenting in a patient's record information related to the condition and symptoms of the patient, the examination and evaluation of the patient made by the doctor of chiropractic, and treatment provided to the patient by the doctor of chiropractic. "Practice of chiropractic" further includes recommending or directing patients on the use of vitamins, minerals, or food supplements. "Practice of chiropractic" also includes performing the physical examination of an applicant for a commercial driver's license or commercial learner's permit pursuant to § 46.2-341.12 if the practitioner has (a) applied for and received certification as a medical examiner pursuant to 49 C.F.R. Part 390, Subpart D and (b) registered with the National Registry of Certified Medical Examiners.

"Practice of genetic counseling" means (i) obtaining and evaluating individual and family medical histories to assess the risk of genetic medical conditions and diseases in a patient, his offspring, and other family members; (ii) discussing the features, history, diagnosis, environmental factors, and risk management of genetic medical conditions and diseases; (iii) ordering genetic laboratory tests and other diagnostic studies necessary for genetic assessment; (iv) integrating the results with personal and family medical history to assess and communicate risk factors for genetic medical conditions and diseases; (v) evaluating the patient's and family's responses to the medical condition or risk of recurrence and providing client-centered counseling and anticipatory guidance; (vi) identifying and utilizing community resources that provide medical, educational, financial, and psychosocial support and advocacy; and (vii) providing written documentation of medical, genetic, and counseling information for families and health care professionals.

"Practice of licensed certified midwifery" means the provision of primary health care for preadolescents, adolescents, and adults within the scope of practice of a certified midwife established in accordance with the Standards for the Practice of Midwifery set by the American College of Nurse-Midwives, including (i) providing sexual and reproductive care and care during pregnancy and childbirth, postpartum care, and care for the newborn for up to 28 days following the birth of the child; (ii) prescribing of pharmacological and non-pharmacological therapies within the scope of the practice of midwifery; (iii) consulting or collaborating with or referring patients to such other health care providers as may be appropriate for the care of the patients; and (iv) serving as an educator in the theory and practice of midwifery.

"Practice of medicine or osteopathic medicine" means the prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of human physical or mental ailments, conditions, diseases, pain, or infirmities by any means or method.

"Practice of occupational therapy" means the therapeutic use of occupations for habilitation and rehabilitation to enhance physical health, mental health, and cognitive functioning and includes the evaluation, analysis, assessment, and delivery of education and training in basic and instrumental activities of daily living; the design, fabrication, and application of orthoses (splints); the design, selection, and use of adaptive equipment and assistive technologies; therapeutic activities to enhance functional performance; vocational evaluation and training; and consultation concerning the adaptation of physical, sensory, and social environments.

"Practice of podiatry" means the prevention, diagnosis, treatment, and cure or alleviation of physical conditions, diseases, pain, or infirmities of the human foot and ankle, including the medical, mechanical and surgical treatment of the ailments of the human foot and ankle, but does not include amputation of the foot proximal to the transmetatarsal level through the metatarsal shafts. Amputations proximal to the metatarsal-phalangeal joints may only be performed in a hospital or ambulatory surgery facility accredited by an organization listed in § 54.1-2939. The practice includes the diagnosis and treatment of lower extremity ulcers; however, the treatment of severe lower extremity ulcers proximal to the foot and ankle may only be performed by appropriately trained, credentialed podiatrists in an approved hospital or ambulatory surgery center at which the podiatrist has privileges, as described in § 54.1-2939. The Board of Medicine shall determine whether a specific type of treatment of the foot and ankle is within the scope of practice of podiatry.

"Practice of radiologic technology" means the application of ionizing radiation to human beings for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes.

"Practice of respiratory care" means the (i) administration of pharmacological, diagnostic, and therapeutic agents related to respiratory care procedures necessary to implement a treatment, disease prevention, pulmonary rehabilitative, or diagnostic regimen prescribed by a practitioner of medicine or osteopathic medicine; (ii) transcription and implementation of the written or verbal orders of a practitioner of medicine or osteopathic medicine pertaining to the practice of respiratory care; (iii) observation and monitoring of signs and symptoms, general behavior, general physical response to respiratory care treatment and diagnostic testing, including determination of whether such signs, symptoms, reactions, behavior or general physical response exhibit abnormal characteristics; and (iv) implementation of respiratory care procedures, based on observed abnormalities, or appropriate reporting, referral, respiratory care protocols or changes in treatment pursuant to the written or verbal orders by a licensed practitioner of medicine or osteopathic medicine or the initiation of emergency procedures, pursuant to the Board's regulations or as otherwise authorized by law. The practice of respiratory care may be performed in any clinic, hospital, skilled nursing facility, private dwelling or other place deemed appropriate by the Board in accordance with the written or verbal order of a practitioner of medicine or osteopathic medicine, and shall be performed under qualified medical direction.

"Practice of surgical assisting" means the performance of significant surgical tasks, including manipulation of organs, suturing of tissue, placement of hemostatic agents, injection of local anesthetic, harvesting of veins, implementation of devices, and other duties as directed by a licensed doctor of medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry under the direct supervision of a licensed doctor of medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry.

"Qualified medical direction" means, in the context of the practice of respiratory care, having readily accessible to the respiratory therapist a licensed practitioner of medicine or osteopathic medicine who has specialty training or experience in the management of acute and chronic respiratory disorders and who is responsible for the quality, safety, and appropriateness of the respiratory services provided by the respiratory therapist.

"Radiologic technologist" means an individual, other than a licensed doctor of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, or chiropractic or a dentist licensed pursuant to Chapter 27 (§ 54.1-2700 et seq.), who (i) performs, may be called upon to perform, or is licensed to perform a comprehensive scope of diagnostic or therapeutic radiologic procedures employing ionizing radiation and (ii) is delegated or exercises responsibility for the operation of radiation-generating equipment, the shielding of patient and staff from unnecessary radiation, the appropriate exposure of radiographs, the administration of radioactive chemical compounds under the direction of an authorized user as specified by regulations of the Department of Health, or other procedures that contribute to any significant extent to the site or dosage of ionizing radiation to which a patient is exposed.

"Radiologic technologist, limited" means an individual, other than a licensed radiologic technologist, dental hygienist, or person who is otherwise authorized by the Board of Dentistry under Chapter 27 (§ 54.1-2700 et seq.) and the regulations pursuant thereto, who performs diagnostic radiographic procedures employing equipment that emits ionizing radiation that is limited to specific areas of the human body.

"Radiologist assistant" means an individual who has met the requirements of the Board for licensure as an advanced-level radiologic technologist and who, under the direct supervision of a licensed doctor of medicine or osteopathy specializing in the field of radiology, is authorized to (i) assess and evaluate the physiological and psychological responsiveness of patients undergoing radiologic procedures; (ii) evaluate image quality, make initial observations, and communicate observations to the supervising radiologist; (iii) administer contrast media or other medications prescribed by the supervising radiologist; and (iv) perform, or assist the supervising radiologist to perform, any other procedure consistent with the guidelines adopted by the American College of Radiology, the American Society of Radiologic Technologists, and the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists.

"Respiratory care" means the practice of the allied health profession responsible for the direct and indirect services, including inhalation therapy and respiratory therapy, in the treatment, management, diagnostic testing, control, and care of patients with deficiencies and abnormalities associated with the cardiopulmonary system under qualified medical direction.

"Surgical assistant" means an individual who has met the requirements of the Board for licensure as a surgical assistant and who works under the direct supervision of a licensed doctor of medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry.

Code 1950, § 54-273; 1950, p. 110; 1958, c. 161; 1960, c. 268; 1966, c. 657; 1970, c. 69; 1973, c. 529; 1975, cc. 508, 512; 1977, c. 127; 1980, c. 157; 1986, c. 439; 1987, cc. 522, 543; 1988, cc. 737, 765; 1991, c. 643; 1994, c. 803; 1995, c. 777; 1996, cc. 152, 158, 470, 937, 980; 1998, cc. 319, 557, 593; 1999, cc. 639, 682, 747, 779; 2000, cc. 688, 814; 2001, c. 533; 2004, c. 731; 2007, c. 861; 2008, cc. 64, 89; 2009, cc. 83, 507; 2010, cc. 715, 725; 2011, cc. 121, 187; 2012, cc. 3, 110, 168, 213, 399; 2014, cc. 10, 266; 2015, c. 302; 2016, c. 93; 2017, c. 171; 2019, cc. 92, 137; 2020, cc. 357, 420, 1222; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 157, 200, 201; 2022, c. 151; 2023, c. 183; 2024, cc. 222, 548; 2025, cc. 184, 197.

A. The provisions of this chapter shall not prevent or prohibit:

1. Any person entitled to practice his profession under any prior law on June 24, 1944, from continuing such practice within the scope of the definition of his particular school of practice;

2. Any person licensed to practice naturopathy prior to June 30, 1980, from continuing such practice in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Board;

3. Any licensed advanced practice registered nurse from rendering care in accordance with the provisions of §§ 54.1-2957 and 54.1-2957.01, any advanced practice registered nurse licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing in the category of certified nurse midwife practicing pursuant to subsection H of § 54.1-2957, or any advanced practice registered nurse licensed by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing in the category of clinical nurse specialist practicing pursuant to subsection J of § 54.1-2957 when such services are authorized by regulations promulgated jointly by the Boards of Medicine and Nursing;

4. Any registered professional nurse, licensed advanced practice registered nurse, graduate laboratory technician, or other technical personnel who have been properly trained from rendering care or services within the scope of their usual professional activities which shall include the taking of blood, the giving of intravenous infusions and intravenous injections, and the insertion of tubes when performed under the orders of a person licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy, an advanced practice registered nurse, or a physician assistant;

5. Any dentist, pharmacist, or optometrist from rendering care or services within the scope of his usual professional activities;

6. Any practitioner licensed or certified by the Board from delegating to personnel supervised by him, such activities or functions as are nondiscretionary and do not require the exercise of professional judgment for their performance and which are usually or customarily delegated to such persons by practitioners of the healing arts, if such activities or functions are authorized by and performed for such practitioners of the healing arts and responsibility for such activities or functions is assumed by such practitioners of the healing arts;

7. The rendering of medical advice or information through telecommunications from a physician licensed to practice medicine in Virginia or an adjoining state, or from a licensed advanced practice registered nurse, to emergency medical personnel acting in an emergency situation;

8. The domestic administration of family remedies;

9. The giving or use of massages, steam baths, dry heat rooms, infrared heat, or ultraviolet lamps in public or private health clubs and spas;

10. The manufacture or sale of proprietary medicines in this Commonwealth by licensed pharmacists or druggists;

11. The advertising or sale of commercial appliances or remedies;

12. The fitting by nonitinerant persons or manufacturers of artificial eyes, limbs or other apparatus or appliances or the fitting of plaster cast counterparts of deformed portions of the body by a nonitinerant bracemaker or prosthetist for the purpose of having a three-dimensional record of the deformity, when such bracemaker or prosthetist has received a prescription from a licensed physician, licensed advanced practice registered nurse, or licensed physician assistant directing the fitting of such casts and such activities are conducted in conformity with the laws of Virginia;

13. Any person from the rendering of first aid or medical assistance in an emergency in the absence of a person licensed to practice medicine or osteopathy under the provisions of this chapter;

14. The practice of the religious tenets of any church in the ministration to the sick and suffering by mental or spiritual means without the use of any drug or material remedy, whether gratuitously or for compensation;

15. Any legally qualified out-of-state or foreign practitioner from meeting in consultation with legally licensed practitioners in this Commonwealth;

16. Any practitioner of the healing arts licensed or certified and in good standing with the applicable regulatory agency in another state or Canada when that practitioner of the healing arts is in Virginia temporarily and such practitioner has been issued a temporary authorization by the Board from practicing medicine or the duties of the profession for which he is licensed or certified (i) in a summer camp or in conjunction with patients who are participating in recreational activities, (ii) while participating in continuing educational programs prescribed by the Board, or (iii) by rendering at any site any health care services within the limits of his license, voluntarily and without compensation, to any patient of any clinic which is organized in whole or in part for the delivery of health care services without charge as provided in § 54.1-106;

17. The performance of the duties of any active duty health care provider in active service in the army, navy, coast guard, marine corps, air force, space force, or public health service of the United States at any public or private health care facility while such individual is so commissioned or serving and in accordance with his official military duties;

18. Any masseur, who publicly represents himself as such, from performing services within the scope of his usual professional activities and in conformance with state law;

19. Any person from performing services in the lawful conduct of his particular profession or business under state law;

20. Any person from rendering emergency care pursuant to the provisions of § 8.01-225;

21. Qualified emergency medical services personnel, when acting within the scope of their certification, and licensed health care practitioners, when acting within their scope of practice, from following Durable Do Not Resuscitate Orders issued in accordance with § 54.1-2987.1 and Board of Health regulations, or licensed health care practitioners from following any other written order of a physician not to resuscitate a patient in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest;

22. Any commissioned or contract medical officer of the army, navy, coast guard or air force rendering services voluntarily and without compensation while deemed to be licensed pursuant to § 54.1-106;

23. Any person from engaging in the five needle auricular acupuncture protocol (5NP), a standardized five needle protocol wherein up to five needles are inserted into the external human ear to provide relief from the effects of behavioral health conditions, provided such person (i) has appropriate training in the 5NP, including training established by the National Acupuncture Detoxification Association or equivalent certifying body; (ii) does not use any letters, words, or insignia indicating or implying that the person is an acupuncturist; and (iii) makes no statements implying that his practice of the 5NP is licensed, certified, or otherwise overseen by the Commonwealth. Treatment utilizing the 5NP pursuant to this subdivision shall be strictly limited to the insertion of disposable, sterile acupuncture needles into the ear and only in compliance with the 5NP. The application or insertion of needles anywhere else on the body of another person by a person acting under the provisions of this subdivision shall be considered engaging in the practice of acupuncture without a license;

24. Any employee of any assisted living facility who is certified in cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) acting in compliance with the patient's individualized service plan and with the written order of the attending physician not to resuscitate a patient in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest;

25. Any person working as a health assistant under the direction of a licensed medical or osteopathic doctor within the Department of Corrections, the Department of Juvenile Justice or local correctional facilities;

26. Any employee of a school board, authorized by a prescriber and trained in the administration of insulin and glucagon, when, upon the authorization of a prescriber and the written request of the parents as defined in § 22.1-1, assisting with the administration of insulin or administrating glucagon to a student diagnosed as having diabetes and who requires insulin injections during the school day or for whom glucagon has been prescribed for the emergency treatment of hypoglycemia;

27. Any practitioner of the healing arts or other profession regulated by the Board from rendering free health care to an underserved population of Virginia who (i) does not regularly practice his profession in Virginia, (ii) holds a current valid license or certificate to practice his profession in another state, territory, district or possession of the United States, (iii) volunteers to provide free health care to an underserved area of the Commonwealth under the auspices of a publicly supported all volunteer, nonprofit organization that sponsors the provision of health care to populations of underserved people, (iv) files a copy of the license or certification issued in such other jurisdiction with the Board, (v) notifies the Board at least five business days prior to the voluntary provision of services of the dates and location of such service, and (vi) acknowledges, in writing, that such licensure exemption shall only be valid, in compliance with the Board's regulations, during the limited period that such free health care is made available through the volunteer, nonprofit organization on the dates and at the location filed with the Board. The Board may deny the right to practice in Virginia to any practitioner of the healing arts whose license or certificate has been previously suspended or revoked, who has been convicted of a felony or who is otherwise found to be in violation of applicable laws or regulations. However, the Board shall allow a practitioner of the healing arts who meets the above criteria to provide volunteer services without prior notice for a period of up to three days, provided the nonprofit organization verifies that the practitioner has a valid, unrestricted license in another state;

28. Any registered nurse, acting as an agent of the Department of Health, from obtaining specimens of sputum or other bodily fluid from persons in whom the diagnosis of active tuberculosis disease, as defined in § 32.1-49.1, is suspected and submitting orders for testing of such specimens to the Division of Consolidated Laboratories or other public health laboratories, designated by the State Health Commissioner, for the purpose of determining the presence or absence of tubercle bacilli as defined in § 32.1-49.1;

29. Any physician of medicine or osteopathy or advanced practice registered nurse from delegating to a registered nurse under his supervision the screening and testing of children for elevated blood-lead levels when such testing is conducted (i) in accordance with a written protocol between the physician or advanced practice registered nurse and the registered nurse and (ii) in compliance with the Board of Health's regulations promulgated pursuant to §§ 32.1-46.1 and 32.1-46.2. Any follow-up testing or treatment shall be conducted at the direction of a physician or an advanced practice registered nurse;

30. Any practitioner of one of the professions regulated by the Board of Medicine who is in good standing with the applicable regulatory agency in another state or Canada from engaging in the practice of that profession when the practitioner is in Virginia temporarily with an out-of-state athletic team or athlete for the duration of the athletic tournament, game, or event in which the team or athlete is competing;

31. Any person from performing state or federally funded health care tasks directed by the consumer, which are typically self-performed, for an individual who lives in a private residence and who, by reason of disability, is unable to perform such tasks but who is capable of directing the appropriate performance of such tasks;

32. Any practitioner of one of the professions regulated by the Board of Medicine who is in good standing with the applicable regulatory agency in another state from engaging in the practice of that profession in Virginia with a patient who is being transported to or from a Virginia hospital for care;

33. Any doctor of medicine or osteopathy, physician assistant, or advanced practice registered nurse who would otherwise be subject to licensure by the Board who holds an active, unrestricted license in another state, the District of Columbia, or a United States territory or possession and who is in good standing with the applicable regulatory agency in that state, the District of Columbia, or that United States territory or possession who provides behavioral health services, as defined in § 37.2-100, from engaging in the practice of his profession and providing behavioral health services to a patient located in the Commonwealth in accordance with the standard of care when (i) such practice is for the purpose of providing continuity of care through the use of telemedicine services as defined in § 38.2-3418.16 and (ii) the practitioner has previously established a practitioner-patient relationship with the patient and has performed an in-person evaluation of the patient within the previous year. A practitioner who provides behavioral health services to a patient located in the Commonwealth through use of telemedicine services pursuant to this subdivision may provide such services for a period of no more than one year from the date on which the practitioner began providing such services to such patient;

34. Any employee of a program licensed by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services who is certified in cardiopulmonary resuscitation from acting in compliance with a program participant's valid written order not to resuscitate issued in accordance with § 54.1-2987.1 if such valid written order not to resuscitate is included in the program participant's individualized service plan; or

35. Any doctor of medicine or osteopathy, physician assistant, respiratory therapist, occupational therapist, or advanced practice registered nurse who would otherwise be subject to licensure by the Board who holds an active, unrestricted license in another state or the District of Columbia and who is in good standing with the applicable regulatory agency in that state or the District of Columbia from engaging in the practice of that profession in the Commonwealth with a patient located in the Commonwealth when (i) such practice is for the purpose of providing continuity of care through the use of telemedicine services as defined in § 38.2-3418.16 and (ii) the patient is a current patient of the practitioner with whom the practitioner has previously established a practitioner-patient relationship and the practitioner has performed an in-person examination of the patient within the previous 12 months.

For purposes of this subdivision, if such practitioner with whom the patient has previously established a practitioner-patient relationship is unavailable at the time in which the patient seeks continuity of care, another practitioner of the same subspecialty at the same practice group with access to the patient's treatment history may provide continuity of care using telemedicine services until the practitioner with whom the patient has a previously established practitioner-patient relationship becomes available. For the purposes of this subdivision, "practitioner of the same subspecialty" means a practitioner who utilizes the same subspecialty taxonomy code designation for claims processing.

For the purposes of this subdivision, if a patient is (a) an enrollee of a health maintenance organization that contracts with a multispecialty group of practitioners, each of whom is licensed by the Board of Medicine, and (b) a current patient of at least one practitioner who is a member of the multispecialty group with whom such practitioner has previously established a practitioner-patient relationship and of whom such practitioner has performed an in-person examination within the previous 12 months, the patient shall be deemed to be a current patient of each practitioner in the multispecialty group with whom each such practitioner has established a practitioner-patient relationship.

B. Notwithstanding any provision of law or regulation to the contrary, military medical personnel, as defined in § 2.2-2001.4, while participating in a program established by the Department of Veterans Services pursuant to § 2.2-2001.4, may practice under the supervision of a licensed physician or podiatrist or the chief medical officer of an organization participating in such program, or his designee who is a licensee of the Board and supervising within his scope of practice.

Code 1950, §§ 54-273, 54-274, 54-276 through 54-276.6; 1950, pp. 98, 110; 1954, c. 556; 1958, c. 161; 1960, c. 268; 1962, cc. 127, 394; 164, c. 317; 1966, c. 657; 1970, c. 69; 1973, cc. 105, 514, 529; 1975, cc. 508, 512; 1976, c. 15; 1977, c. 127; 1980, c. 157; 1981, c. 300; 1982, c. 220; 1985, cc. 303, 347, 372; 1986, cc. 377, 439; 1987, cc. 522, 543; 1988, c. 765; 1992, cc. 412, 414; 1994, c. 787; 1995, cc. 509, 777; 1996, cc. 775, 779, 937, 980; 1998, cc. 630, 803, 854; 1999, cc. 570, 814; 2000, cc. 688, 814; 2001, cc. 235, 237, 533; 2002, c. 740; 2003, cc. 514, 519, 641; 2005, cc. 113, 926; 2006, c. 750; 2008, c. 674; 2010, c. 245; 2011, cc. 632, 811; 2012, c. 213; 2014, c. 8; 2016, cc. 74, 212, 418, 494, 495; 2018, cc. 69, 338, 776; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 157; 2022, cc. 275, 709, 720, 753; 2023, cc. 150, 151, 183; 2024, cc. 548, 817.

It is unlawful for any person to practice medicine, osteopathic medicine, chiropractic, or podiatry or as a physician assistant in the Commonwealth without a valid unrevoked license issued by the Board.

Code 1950, § 54-274; 1950, p. 98; 1958, c. 161; 1962, c. 127; 1966, c. 657; 1970, c. 69; 1973, cc. 105, 514, 529; 1975, c. 508; 1976, c. 15; 1980, c. 157; 1982, c. 220; 1985, cc. 303, 347; 1986, c. 377; 1988, c. 765; 1996, cc. 937, 980; 2000, c. 688; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 210.

A. Any person shall be regarded as practicing the healing arts who actually engages in such practice as defined in this chapter, or who opens an office for such purpose, or who advertises or announces to the public in any manner a readiness to practice or who uses in connection with his name the words or letters "Doctor," "Dr.," "M.D.," "D.O.," "D.P.M.," "D.C.," "Healer," "N.P.," or any other title, word, letter or designation intending to designate or imply that he is a practitioner of the healing arts or that he is able to heal, cure or relieve those suffering from any injury, deformity or disease.

Signing a birth or death certificate, or signing any statement certifying that the person so signing has rendered professional service to the sick or injured, or signing or issuing a prescription for drugs or other remedial agents, shall be prima facie evidence that the person signing or issuing such writing is practicing the healing arts within the meaning of this chapter except where persons other than physicians are required to sign birth certificates.

B. No person regulated under this chapter shall use the title "Doctor" or the abbreviation "Dr." in writing or in advertising in connection with his practice unless he simultaneously uses words, initials, an abbreviation or designation, or other language that identifies the type of practice for which he is licensed. No person regulated under this chapter shall include in any advertisement a reference to marijuana, as defined in § 18.2-247, unless such advertisement is for the treatment of addiction or substance abuse. However, nothing in this subsection shall prevent a person from including in any advertisement that such person is registered with the Board of Directors of the Virginia Cannabis Control Authority to issue written certifications for the use of cannabis products, as defined in § 4.1-1600.

Code 1950, § 54-275; 1958, c. 161; 1966, c. 657; 1973, c. 529; 1975, c. 508; 1988, c. 765; 1991, c. 102; 1996, cc. 937, 980; 2000, c. 688; 2018, c. 776; 2019, c. 656; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 227, 228; 2023, cc. 740, 773.

A. Every license granted under the provisions of this chapter shall be renewed biennially as prescribed by the Board. The Board shall send by mail or electronically notice for renewal of a license to every licensee. Failure to receive such notice shall not excuse any licensee from the requirements of renewal. The person receiving such notice shall furnish the information requested and submit the prescribed renewal fee to the Board. Copies of licenses may be obtained as provided in the Board's regulations.

B. Any licensee who allows his license to lapse by failing to renew the license or failing to meet professional activity requirements stipulated in the regulations may be reinstated by the Board upon submission of evidence satisfactory to the Board that he is prepared to resume practice in a competent manner and upon payment of the prescribed fee.

C. Any person practicing during the time his license has lapsed shall be considered an illegal practitioner and shall be subject to the penalties for violation of this chapter.

D. When the Board of Health has issued an emergency order pursuant to § 32.1-13, the Board may waive (i) the requirement for submission of a fee for renewal or reinstatement of a license to practice medicine or osteopathic medicine or as a physician assistant or an advanced practice registered nurse and (ii) the requirement for submission of evidence satisfactory to the Board that a practitioner whose license was allowed to lapse for failure to meet professional activity requirements has satisfied such requirements and is prepared to resume practice in a competent manner for any person who held a valid, unrestricted, active license to practice such profession within the four-year period immediately prior to the application for renewal or reinstatement of such license.

Code 1950, § 54-315.1; 1958, c. 161; 1962, c. 128; 1966, c. 657; 1968, c. 674; 1970, c. 69; 1975, c. 508; 1980, c. 157; 1982, c. 606; 1985, c. 303; 1988, c. 765; 1996, cc. 937, 980; 2000, c. 688; 2013, c. 144; 2018, c. 101; 2022, cc. 720, 753; 2023, c. 183.

Repealed by Acts 2013, c. 144, cl. 2.

Repealed by Acts 2004, c. 64.

A. The president of the Medical Society of Virginia, the Osteopathic Medical Association, the Virginia Chiropractors Association, Inc., and the Virginia Podiatric Medical Association shall report within 30 days to the Board of Medicine any disciplinary action taken by his organization against any member of his organization licensed under this chapter if such disciplinary action is a result of conduct involving intentional or negligent conduct that causes or is likely to cause injury to a patient or patients, professional ethics, professional incompetence, moral turpitude, drug addiction or alcohol abuse.

B. The president of any association, society, academy or organization shall report within 30 days to the Board of Medicine any disciplinary action taken against any of its members licensed under this chapter if such disciplinary action is a result of conduct involving intentional or negligent conduct that causes or is likely to cause injury to a patient or patients, professional ethics, professional incompetence, moral turpitude, drug addiction or alcohol abuse.

C. Any report required by this section shall be in writing directed to the Board of Medicine, shall give the name and address of the person who is the subject of the report and shall fully describe the circumstances surrounding the facts required to be reported. The report shall include the names and contact information of individuals with knowledge about the facts required to be reported and the names and contact information of all individuals from whom the association, society, academy, or organization sought information to substantiate the facts required to be reported. All relevant medical records maintained by the reporting entity shall be attached to the report if patient care or the health professional's health status is at issue. The reporting association, society, academy or organization shall also provide notice to the Board that it has submitted any required report to the National Practitioner Data Bank under the Health Care Quality Improvement Act, 42 U.S.C. § 11101 et seq.

The reporting association, society, academy or organization shall give the health professional who is the subject of the report an opportunity to review the report. The health professional may submit a separate report if he disagrees with the substance of the report.

D. No person or entity shall be obligated to report any matter to the Board if the person or entity has actual notice that the matter has already been reported to the Board.

E. Any person making a report required by this section, providing information pursuant to an investigation or testifying in a judicial or administrative proceeding as a result of such report shall be immune from any civil liability resulting therefrom unless such person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

F. In the event that any organization enumerated in subsection A or any component thereof receives a complaint against one of its members, such organization may, in lieu of considering disciplinary action against such member, request that the Board investigate the matter pursuant to this chapter, in which event any person participating in the decision to make such a request or testifying in a judicial or administrative proceeding as a result of such request shall be immune from any civil liability alleged to have resulted therefrom unless such person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

G. Any person who fails to make a report to the Board as required by this section shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed $5,000. Any person assessed a civil penalty pursuant to this section shall not receive a license, registration or certification or renewal of such from any health regulatory board unless such penalty has been paid.

1977, c. 639, § 54-317.4; 1978, c. 541; 1983, c. 40; 1986, c. 434; 1988, c. 765; 1996, cc. 937, 980; 2000, c. 688; 2003, cc. 753, 762.

A. The following matters shall be reported within 30 days of their occurrence to the Board:

1. Any disciplinary action taken against a person licensed under this chapter in another state or in a federal health institution or voluntary surrender of a license in another state while under investigation;

2. Any malpractice judgment against a person licensed under this chapter;

3. Any settlement of a malpractice claim against a person licensed under this chapter; and

4. Any evidence that indicates a reasonable belief that a person licensed under this chapter is or may be professionally incompetent; has or may have engaged in intentional or negligent conduct that causes or is likely to cause injury to a patient or patients; has or may have engaged in unprofessional conduct; or may be mentally or physically unable to engage safely in the practice of his profession.

B. The following persons and entities are subject to the reporting requirements set forth in this section:

1. Any person licensed under this chapter who is the subject of a disciplinary action, a settlement, a judgment, or evidence for which reporting is required pursuant to this section;

2. Any other person licensed under this chapter, except as provided by a contract agreement with the Health Practitioners' Monitoring Program;

3. All health care institutions licensed by the Commonwealth;

4. The malpractice insurance carrier of any person who is the subject of a judgment or settlement; and

5. Any health maintenance organization licensed by the Commonwealth.

C. No person or entity shall be obligated to report any matter to the Board if the person or entity has actual notice that the matter has already been reported to the Board. The reporting requirements set forth in this section shall be met if these matters are reported to the National Practitioner Data Bank under the Health Care Quality Improvement Act, 42 U.S.C. § 11101 et seq., and notice that such report has been submitted is provided to the Board.

D. No person or entity shall be obligated to report information regarding a health care provider licensed or registered by the Board who is a participant in a professional program, pursuant to subsection B of § 8.01-581.16, to address issues related to career fatigue and wellness that is organized or contracted for by a statewide association exempt under 26 U.S.C. § 501(c)(6) of the Internal Revenue Code and that primarily represents health care professionals licensed to practice medicine or osteopathic medicine in multiple specialties to the Board unless the person or entity has determined that there is reasonable probability that the participant is not competent to continue in practice or is a danger to himself or to the health and welfare of his patients or the public.

E. Any report required by this section shall be in writing directed to the Board, shall give the name and address of the person who is the subject of the report, and shall describe the circumstances surrounding the matter required to be reported. Under no circumstances shall compliance with this section be construed to waive or limit the privilege provided in § 8.01-581.17.

F. Any person making a report required by this section, providing information pursuant to an investigation, or testifying in a judicial or administrative proceeding as a result of such report shall be immune from any civil liability or criminal prosecution resulting therefrom unless such person acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

G. The clerk of any circuit court or any district court in the Commonwealth shall report to the Board the conviction of any person known by such clerk to be licensed under this chapter of any (i) misdemeanor involving a controlled substance, marijuana, or substance abuse or involving an act of moral turpitude or (ii) felony.

H. Any person who fails to make a report to the Board as required by this section shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed $5,000. The Director shall report the assessment of such civil penalty to the Commissioner of the Department of Health or the Commissioner of Insurance at the State Corporation Commission. Any person assessed a civil penalty pursuant to this section shall not receive a license, registration, or certification or renewal of such unless such penalty has been paid.

I. Disciplinary action against any person licensed, registered, or certified under this chapter shall be based upon the underlying conduct of the person and not upon the report of a settlement or judgment submitted under this section.

1986, c. 434, § 54-317.4:1; 1988, c. 765; 1998, c. 744; 2003, cc. 753, 762; 2020, cc. 45, 198, 230, 1093; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, cc. 5, 243.

Any health care practitioner licensed by the Board to practice medicine or osteopathy or as a physician assistant, or jointly licensed by the Board and the Board of Nursing as an advanced practice registered nurse, who wishes to provide sexual assault patient treatment services or sexual assault patient transfer and stabilization services, as defined in § 32.1-162.15:2, to pediatric sexual assault patients, as defined in § 32.1-162.15:2, shall comply with the provisions of Article 8 (§ 32.1-162.15:2 et seq.) of Chapter 5 of Title 32.1 applicable to pediatric medical care facilities.

2020, c. 725; 2023, c. 183; 2025, cc. 480, 491.

Repealed by Acts 1997, c. 698.

Upon request by a patient, doctors of medicine, osteopathy, and podiatry shall inform the patient about the following:

1. Procedures to access information on the doctor compiled by the Board of Medicine pursuant to § 54.1-2910.1;

2. If the patient is not covered by a health insurance plan that the doctor accepts or a managed care health insurance plan in which the doctor participates, the patient may be subject to the doctor's full charge which may be greater than the health plan's allowable charge; and

3. For purposes of § 38.2-3463, licensees of the Board of Medicine or their designee shall provide a description of the elective procedure or test, or the applicable standard procedural terminology or medical codes used by the American Medical Association, sufficient to allow a patient to compare care options if the patient is being referred for an elective procedure or test.

2005, c. 468; 2019, cc. 666, 684.

A. The Board of Medicine shall require all doctors of medicine, osteopathy and podiatry to report and shall make available the following information:

1. The names of the schools of medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry and the years of graduation;

2. Any graduate medical, osteopathic, or podiatric education at any institution approved by the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education, the American Osteopathic Association or the Council on Podiatric Medical Education;

3. Any specialty board certification as approved by the American Board of Medical Specialties, the Bureau of Osteopathic Specialists of the American Osteopathic Association, the American Board of Multiple Specialties in Podiatry, or the Council on Podiatric Medical Education of the American Podiatric Medical Association;

4. The number of years in active, clinical practice as specified by regulations of the Board;

5. Any hospital affiliations;

6. Any appointments, within the most recent 10-year period, of the doctor to the faculty of a school of medicine, osteopathy or podiatry and any publications in peer-reviewed literature within the most recent five-year period and as specified by regulations of the Board;

7. The location and telephone number of any primary and secondary practice settings and the approximate percentage of the doctor's time spent practicing in each setting. For the sole purpose of expedited dissemination of information about a public health emergency, the doctor shall also provide to the Board any e-mail address or facsimile number; however, such e-mail address or facsimile number shall not be published on the profile database and shall not be released or made available for any other purpose;

8. The access to any translating service provided to the primary and secondary practice settings of the doctor;

9. The status of the doctor's participation in the Virginia Medicaid Program;

10. Any final disciplinary or other action required to be reported to the Board by health care institutions, other practitioners, insurance companies, health maintenance organizations, and professional organizations pursuant to §§ 54.1-2400.6, 54.1-2908, and 54.1-2909 that results in a suspension or revocation of privileges or the termination of employment or a final order of the Board relating to disciplinary action;

11. Conviction of any felony; and

12. Other information related to the competency of doctors of medicine, osteopathy, and podiatry, as specified in the regulations of the Board.

B. In addition, the Board shall provide for voluntary reporting of insurance plans accepted and managed care plans in which the doctor participates.

C. The Board shall promulgate regulations to implement the provisions of this section, including, but not limited to, the release, upon request from a consumer, of such information relating to a specific doctor. The Board's regulations shall provide for reports to include all medical malpractice judgments and medical malpractice settlements of more than $10,000 within the most recent 10-year period in categories indicating the level of significance of each award or settlement; however, the specific numeric values of reported paid claims shall not be released in any individually identifiable manner under any circumstances. Notwithstanding this subsection, a licensee shall report a medical malpractice judgment or medical malpractice settlement of less than $10,000 if any other medical malpractice judgment or medical malpractice settlement has been paid by or for the licensee within the preceding 12 months.

D. This section shall not apply to any person licensed pursuant to §§ 54.1-2928.1, 54.1-2933.1, 54.1-2936, and 54.1-2937 or to any person holding an inactive license to practice medicine, osteopathy, or podiatry.

1998, c. 744; 1999, c. 573; 2000, c. 199; 2001, c. 199; 2001, Sp. Sess. I, c. 5; 2002, c. 38; 2004, cc. 64, 703; 2007, c. 861; 2008, c. 479.

The Board shall post on any department website available to the public all final orders, together with any associated notices, which imposed disciplinary action against licensees of the Board. The Board shall not post notices that have not been adjudicated. Notices and orders entered prior to July 1, 2007, that did not result in disciplinary action by the Board may be removed upon written request of the licensee. Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit the inspection and copying of records of disciplinary actions to the extent permitted under the Virginia Freedom of Information Act (§ 2.2-3700 et seq.) and § 54.1-2400.2.

2007, c. 861.

No provider licensed pursuant to this chapter shall be required to participate in any public or private third-party reimbursement program as a condition of licensure.

2011, c. 490.

A. No provider licensed pursuant to this chapter, regardless of whether the provider participates in the state plan for medical assistance, shall request or require a patient who is a recipient of medical assistance services pursuant to the state plan for medical assistance and who is a recipient of health care services involving (i) the prescription of an opioid for the management of pain or (ii) the prescription of buprenorphine-containing products, methadone, or other opioid replacements approved for the treatment of opioid addiction by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for medication-assisted treatment of opioid addiction to pay costs associated with the provision of such service out-of-pocket. The prohibition on payment of costs shall not apply to a recipient's cost-sharing amounts required by the state plan for medical assistance.

B. Every provider who does not accept payment from the Department of Medical Assistance Services for health care services who intends to provide health care services described in subsection A to a patient who is a recipient of medical assistance services pursuant to the state plan for medical assistance shall, prior to providing such health care services, provide written notice to such patient that (i) the Commonwealth's program of medical assistance services covers the health care services described in subsection A and the Department of Medical Assistance Services will pay for such health care services if such health care services are determined to meet the Department of Medical Assistance Service's medical necessity criteria and (ii) the provider does not participate in the Commonwealth's program of medical assistance and will not accept payment from the Department of Medical Assistance Services for such health care services. Such notice and the patient's acknowledgment of such notice shall be documented in the patient's medical record and does not exempt the provider from the requirements of subsection A.

2019, cc. 223, 444; 2022, c. 214.

Practitioners licensed under this chapter shall maintain health records, as defined in § 32.1-127.1:03, for a minimum of six years following the last patient encounter. However, such practitioners are not required to maintain health records for longer than 12 years from the date of creation except for (i) health records of a minor child, including immunizations, which shall be maintained until the child reaches the age of 18 or becomes emancipated, with a minimum time for record retention of six years from the last patient encounter regardless of the age of the child or (ii) health records that are required by contractual obligation or federal law to be maintained for a longer period of time. Health records that have previously been transferred to another practitioner or health care provider or provided to the patient or his personal representative are not required to be maintained beyond such transfer or provision.

2018, c. 718.

Article 2. Board of Medicine.

The Board of Medicine shall consist of one medical physician from each congressional district, one osteopathic physician, one podiatrist, one chiropractor, and four citizen members. No two citizen members shall reside in the same congressional district. Citizen members shall have all voting and participation rights of other members. The term of office of the members of the Board shall be four years. If any medical physician member of the Board ceases to reside in the district from which he was appointed, except by reason of redistricting, his office shall be deemed vacant.

The officers of the Board shall be a president, vice-president and a secretary, who shall also act as treasurer, who shall be members of and selected by the Board.

Regular meetings of the Board shall be held at such times and places as prescribed by the Board. Special meetings may be held upon the call of the president and any 11 members. Twelve members of the Board shall constitute a quorum.

The Board may establish an executive committee composed of the president, vice-president, the secretary and five other members of the Board appointed by the president. The executive committee shall include at least two citizen members. In the absence of the Board, the executive committee shall have full powers to take any action and conduct any business authorized by this chapter. Five members of the executive committee shall constitute a quorum. Any actions or business conducted by the executive committee shall be acted upon by the full Board as soon as practicable.

There shall be an executive director for the Board of Medicine who shall be licensed or eligible for licensure in the Commonwealth as a physician or as an attorney.

Code 1950, §§ 54-282, 54-283, 54-287, 54-289, 54-290; 1950, p. 111; 1966, cc. 166, 657; 1970, c. 69; 1973, c. 401; 1973, c. 529, § 54-290.1; 1975, c. 508; 1986, c. 434, § 54-290.2; 1986, c. 464; 1988, cc. 42, 765; 2001, cc. 186, 198; 2003, cc. 753, 762; 2024, c. 463.

Nominations may be made for the medical physicians from a list of three names submitted to the Governor by the Medical Society of Virginia and the osteopathic physician, podiatrist and chiropractor members, respectively, from a list of at least three names submitted by June 1 of each year by their respective state societies. In no case shall the Governor be bound to make any appointment from among the nominees of the respective societies. The Governor may notify the society, which may make nominations, of any professional vacancy other than by expiration among the members of the Board representing the particular profession and like nominations may be made for the filling of the vacancy.

Code 1950, § 54-284; 1950, p. 111; 1966, c. 657; 1970, c. 69; 1975, c. 508; 1986, c. 434; 1988, c. 765; 2005, c. 163.

A. The Board shall prescribe by regulation such requirements as may be necessary to ensure continued practitioner competence, which may include continuing education, testing, or any other requirement.

B. In promulgating such regulations, the Board shall consider (i) the need to promote ethical practice, (ii) an appropriate standard of care, (iii) patient safety, (iv) application of new medical technology, (v) appropriate communication with patients, and (vi) knowledge of the changing health care system.

C. The Board may approve persons who provide or accredit such programs in order to accomplish the purposes of this section.

D. Pursuant to § 54.1-2400 and its authority to establish the qualifications for registration, certification, or licensure that are necessary to ensure competence and integrity to engage in the regulated practice, the Board shall promulgate regulations governing the practice of medicine related to the administration of anesthesia in physicians' offices.

1997, c. 227; 2002, c. 324; 2016, c. 447.

In the furtherance of its responsibility to ensure continued practitioner competency, the Board of Medicine may endorse the Medical Society of Virginia's Guidelines for the Use of Opioids in the Management of Chronic, Non-Cancer Pain, developed and adopted in 1997.

For the purpose of this section, "endorse" means to publicize and distribute such guidelines as providing an appropriate standard of care; however, the Board's endorsement shall not be construed to mean that the guidelines must be followed or are regulations or are in any way intended to be enforceable law.

1998, c. 496.

The Board shall require an assessment of the competency of any person holding an active license under this chapter on whose behalf three separate medical malpractice judgments or medical malpractice settlements of more than $75,000 each are paid within the most recent 10-year period. The assessment shall be accomplished in 18 months or less by a program acceptable to the Board. The licensee shall bear all costs of the assessment. The results of the assessment shall be reviewed by the Board and the Board shall determine a plan of corrective action or appropriate resolution pursuant to the assessment. The assessment, related documents and the processes shall be governed by the confidentiality provisions of § 54.1-2400.2 and shall not be admissible into evidence in any medical malpractice action involving the licensee. The Board shall annually post the number of competency assessments undertaken on its website.

2005, cc. 649, 692; 2007, c. 861; 2011, c. 808.

The Board of Medicine shall post information about autism spectrum disorder developed by the Board together with the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services and other stakeholders, including information about diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder in adults and children, the role of health care providers in identifying and diagnosing autism spectrum disorder in adults and children, services available to adults and children with autism spectrum disorder in the Commonwealth, processes and procedures for linking adults and children with autism spectrum disorder with state and local services for individuals with autism, and other sources of information on topics related to the identification, diagnosis, and treatment of autism spectrum disorder in adults and children on a website maintained by the Board, and shall notify licensees regarding the availability of such information.

2015, c. 363.

The Board shall annually issue a communication to every practitioner licensed by the Board who provides primary, maternity, obstetrical, or gynecological health care services reiterating the standard of care pertaining to prenatal or postnatal depression or other depression. Such communication shall encourage practitioners to screen every patient who is pregnant or who has been pregnant within the previous five years for prenatal or postnatal depression or other depression, as clinically appropriate and shall provide information to practitioners regarding the factors that may increase susceptibility of certain patients to prenatal or postnatal depression or other depression, including racial and economic disparities, and encourage providers to remain cognizant of the increased risk of depression for such patients.

2020, c. 709.

Repealed by Acts 2013, c. 144, cl. 2.

The Board shall promulgate regulations governing examinations for each branch of the healing arts. In lieu of any or all parts of the examinations prescribed by the Board for a license to practice medicine, osteopathy, podiatry or chiropractic, the Board may:

1. Accept a certificate issued by either the National Board for the appropriate branch of the healing arts or a state board prior to 1970 attesting the satisfactory completion of an examination given by that board if, in the opinion of the Board, the substituted examination material is substantially equivalent to the material for which it is substituted, and the passing grades are in each instance the equivalent of the grades required to be made on the corresponding examinations administered by the Board.

2. Accept a certificate issued by a state board during or after 1970 attesting to the applicant's satisfactory completion of all requirements to practice medicine, osteopathy, podiatry or chiropractic in that state, if the applicant has a current and unrestricted license to practice in another state and a current specialty certificate acceptable to the Board.

1989, c. 45; 2013, c. 144.

A. A practitioner of the healing arts shall not engage in selling controlled substances unless he is licensed to do so by the Board of Pharmacy. However, this prohibition shall not apply to a doctor of medicine, osteopathy or podiatry who administers controlled substances to his patients or provides controlled substances to his patient in a bona fide medical emergency or when pharmaceutical services are not available. Practitioners who sell or dispense controlled substances shall be subject to inspection by the Department of Health Professions to ensure compliance with Chapters 33 (§ 54.1-3300 et seq.) and 34 (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) of this title and the Board of Pharmacy's regulations. This subsection shall not apply to physicians acting on behalf of the Virginia Department of Health or local health departments.

B. A practitioner of the healing arts who may lawfully sell medical appliances or devices shall not sell such appliances or devices to persons who are not his own patients and shall not sell such articles to his own patients either for his own convenience or for the purpose of supplementing his income. This subsection shall not apply to physicians acting on behalf of the Virginia Department of Health or local health departments.

C. A practitioner of the healing arts may, from within the practitioner's office, engage in selling or promoting the sale of eyeglasses and may dispense contact lenses. Only those practitioners of the healing arts who engage in the examination of eyes and prescribing of eyeglasses may engage in the sale or promotion of eyeglasses. Practitioners shall not employ any unlicensed person to fill prescriptions for eyeglasses within the practitioner's office except as provided in subdivision A 6 of § 54.1-2901. A practitioner may also own, in whole or in part, an optical dispensary located adjacent to or at a distance from his office.

D. Any practitioner of the healing arts engaging in the examination of eyes and prescribing of eyeglasses shall give the patient a copy of any prescription for eyeglasses and inform the patient of his right to have the prescription filled at the establishment of his choice. No practitioner who owns, in whole or in part, an establishment dispensing eyeglasses shall make any statement or take any action, directly or indirectly, that infringes on the patient's right to have a prescription filled at an establishment other than the one in which the practitioner has an ownership interest.

Disclosure of ownership interest by a practitioner as required by § 54.1-2964 or participation by the practitioner in contractual arrangements with third-party payors or purchasers of vision care services shall not constitute a violation of this subsection.

Code 1950, § 54-317; 1954, c. 627; 1958, c. 161; 1966, cc. 166, 657; 1968, c. 582; 1970, c. 69; 1973, c. 529; 1975, c. 508; 1978, c. 622; 1979, c. 727; 1980, c. 157; 1985, c. 96; 1986, c. 86; 1988, cc. 765, 904; 1989, c. 510; 1994, c. 70; 1998, c. 580; 2001, cc. 268, 858; 2005, c. 163; 2016, c. 495.

A. The Board may refuse to issue a certificate or license to any applicant; reprimand any person; place any person on probation for such time as it may designate; impose a monetary penalty or terms as it may designate on any person; suspend any license for a stated period of time or indefinitely; or revoke any license for any of the following acts of unprofessional conduct:

1. False statements or representations or fraud or deceit in obtaining admission to the practice, or fraud or deceit in the practice of any branch of the healing arts;

2. Substance abuse rendering him unfit for the performance of his professional obligations and duties;

3. Intentional or negligent conduct in the practice of any branch of the healing arts that causes or is likely to cause injury to a patient or patients;

4. Mental or physical incapacity or incompetence to practice his profession with safety to his patients and the public;

5. Restriction of a license to practice a branch of the healing arts in another state, the District of Columbia, a United States possession or territory, or a foreign jurisdiction, or for an entity of the federal government;

6. Undertaking in any manner or by any means whatsoever to procure or perform or aid or abet in procuring or performing a criminal abortion;

7. Engaging in the practice of any of the healing arts under a false or assumed name, or impersonating another practitioner of a like, similar, or different name;

8. Prescribing or dispensing any controlled substance with intent or knowledge that it will be used otherwise than medicinally, or for accepted therapeutic purposes, or with intent to evade any law with respect to the sale, use, or disposition of such drug;

9. Violating provisions of this chapter on division of fees or practicing any branch of the healing arts in violation of the provisions of this chapter;

10. Knowingly and willfully committing an act that is a felony under the laws of the Commonwealth or the United States, or any act that is a misdemeanor under such laws and involves moral turpitude;

11. Aiding or abetting, having professional connection with, or lending his name to any person known to him to be practicing illegally any of the healing arts;

12. Conducting his practice in a manner contrary to the standards of ethics of his branch of the healing arts;

13. Conducting his practice in such a manner as to be a danger to the health and welfare of his patients or to the public;

14. Inability to practice with reasonable skill or safety because of illness or substance abuse;

15. Publishing in any manner an advertisement relating to his professional practice that contains a claim of superiority or violates Board regulations governing advertising;

16. Performing any act likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public;

17. Violating any provision of statute or regulation, state or federal, relating to the manufacture, distribution, dispensing, or administration of drugs;

18. Violating or cooperating with others in violating any of the provisions of Chapters 1 (§ 54.1-100 et seq.), 24 (§ 54.1-2400 et seq.) and this chapter or regulations of the Board;

19. Engaging in sexual contact with a patient concurrent with and by virtue of the practitioner and patient relationship or otherwise engaging at any time during the course of the practitioner and patient relationship in conduct of a sexual nature that a reasonable patient would consider lewd and offensive;

20. Conviction in any state, territory, or country of any felony or of any crime involving moral turpitude;

21. Adjudication of legal incompetence or incapacity in any state if such adjudication is in effect and the person has not been declared restored to competence or capacity;

22. Performing the services of a medical examiner as defined in 49 C.F.R. § 390.5 if, at the time such services are performed, the person performing such services is not listed on the National Registry of Certified Medical Examiners as provided in 49 C.F.R. § 390.109 or fails to meet the requirements for continuing to be listed on the National Registry of Certified Medical Examiners as provided in 49 C.F.R. § 390.111;

23. Failing or refusing to complete and file electronically using the Electronic Death Registration System any medical certification in accordance with the requirements of subsection C of § 32.1-263. However, failure to complete and file a medical certification electronically using the Electronic Death Registration System in accordance with the requirements of subsection C of § 32.1-263 shall not constitute unprofessional conduct if such failure was the result of a temporary technological or electrical failure or other temporary extenuating circumstance that prevented the electronic completion and filing of the medical certification using the Electronic Death Registration System; or

24. Engaging in a pattern of violations of § 38.2-3445.01.

B. The commission or conviction of an offense in another state, territory, or country, which if committed in Virginia would be a felony, shall be treated as a felony conviction or commission under this section regardless of its designation in the other state, territory, or country.

C. The Board shall refuse to issue a certificate or license to any applicant if the candidate or applicant has had his certificate or license to practice a branch of the healing arts revoked or suspended, and has not had his certificate or license to so practice reinstated, in another state, the District of Columbia, a United States possession or territory, or a foreign jurisdiction.

Code 1950, §§ 54-316, 54-317; 1954, c. 627; 1958, cc. 161, 461; 1966, cc. 166, 657; 1968, c. 582; 1970, c. 69; 1973, c. 529; 1975, c. 508; 1978, c. 622; 1979, c. 727; 1980, c. 157; 1985, c. 96; 1986, cc. 86, 434; 1988, c. 765; 1993, c. 991; 1997, c. 801; 2003, cc. 753, 762; 2004, c. 64; 2005, c. 163; 2013, c. 144; 2017, c. 171; 2019, cc. 213, 224; 2020, cc. 1080, 1081.

Repealed by Acts 2005, c. 163, cl. 2.

Repealed by Acts 2013, c. 144, cl. 2.

Whenever the Board of Health has suspended or revoked any license granted under the provisions of Article 1 (§ 32.1-123 et seq.) of Chapter 5 of Title 32.1 and such suspension or revocation resulted from a violation of any provision of this chapter, or because of illegal practice, or conduct or practices detrimental to the welfare of any patient or resident in such hospital, a report of such action shall be made by the Board of Health to the Board of Medicine.

If it appears from the report, or from other evidence produced before the Board of Medicine, that the legally responsible head of such hospital is a practitioner of any branch of the healing arts, the Board may suspend or revoke the certificate or license of such person, or prosecute such person if unlicensed. The Board may suspend or revoke the certificate or license of or prosecute for unlicensed practice any person subject to this chapter who is practicing in or employed by such hospital if such practitioner or employee is guilty of, responsible for, or implicated in illegal practices for which the hospital license has been suspended or revoked.

Code 1950, § 54-321.1; 1975, c. 508; 1979, c. 720; 1988, c. 765.

Repealed by Acts 2004, c. 64.

Except as provided in § 54.1-2408.1, the Board shall take no action to revoke or suspend the license of any of its licensees except after reasonable notice and an opportunity to be heard in accordance with the Administrative Process Act (§ 2.2-4000 et seq.). Such action may be in addition to any penalty imposed by law for the violation. For the purposes of this section, reasonable notice means written notice mailed at least thirty days prior to the scheduled hearing.

Any practitioner whose license is suspended or revoked by the Board shall not engage in the practice of any of the healing arts in the Commonwealth pending his appeal.

Whenever any license suspension or revocation becomes final, the practitioner shall forthwith give notice of that action, by certified mail, to all patients to whom he is currently providing services. Such practitioner shall cooperate with other practitioners to ensure continuation of treatment in conformity with the wishes of the patient. Such practitioner shall also notify any hospitals or other facilities where he is currently granted privileges, and any health insurance companies, health insurance administrators or health maintenance organizations currently reimbursing him for any of the healing arts.

1973, c. 529, § 54-318.3; 1984, c. 81; 1985, c. 403; 1986, c. 434; 1988, c. 765; 1996, c. 530; 1997, c. 556.

Repealed by Acts 2003, cc. 753 and 762.

Repealed by Acts 2004, cc. 40 and 68.

Repealed by Acts 2020, cc. 198 and 1093, cl. 2, effective March 8, 2020.

Repealed by Acts 2013, c. 144, cl. 2.

Expired.

In any disciplinary proceeding conducted pursuant to this chapter, the executive director may contract with an expert or a panel of experts in the various specialties to provide assistance in investigating and evaluating practitioners who may be subject to punitive action. The executive director may select experts for this purpose from lists of specialists to be provided and regularly updated by the appropriate professional societies. Any contract between the executive director and any consulting expert shall provide that the consulting expert shall: (i) be available to work with an investigator from the beginning of the investigation; (ii) receive appropriate compensation for his services; (iii) review and evaluate a completed investigation report in accordance with guidelines established by the Board and the Office of the Attorney General and return it to the Board for action within a specified period of time; and (iv) be available to testify for the Board in any administrative or court proceeding arising from the investigations in which he has participated.

Any expert assisting in any investigation voluntarily or under the contract arrangements described in this section shall be immune from any civil liability or criminal prosecution resulting therefrom unless he acted in bad faith or with malicious intent.

1986, c. 434, § 54-318.4; 1988, c. 765; 1996, c. 519.

The Board of Medicine shall have, with respect to practitioners of medicine, homeopathy, osteopathy, or podiatry, the same powers conferred upon the Board of Pharmacy with respect to pharmacists, to revoke or suspend the license to dispense drugs issued under § 54.1-3304 or § 54.1-3304.1 or to prescribe the medicines to be possessed or dispensed by such practitioner. The Board of Medicine shall promptly report any such action taken to the Board of Pharmacy, and the revoked license shall not be reissued nor shall the person be licensed anew, except upon recommendation of the Board of Medicine.

1972, c. 798, § 54-318.2; 1978, c. 465; 1988, c. 765; 1996, cc. 468, 496.

A. The Board, in its discretion, may issue certificates or licenses to applicants upon endorsement by boards or other appropriate authorities of other states or territories or the District of Columbia with which reciprocal relations have not been established if the credentials of such applicants are satisfactory and the examinations and passing grades required by such other boards are fully equal to those required by the Virginia Board.

The Board may issue certificates or licenses to applicants holding certificates from the national boards of their respective branches of the healing arts if their credentials, schools of graduation and national board examinations and results are acceptable to the Board. The Board shall promulgate regulations in order to carry out the provisions of this section.

The Board of Medicine shall prioritize applicants for licensure as a doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine, a physician assistant, or an advanced practice registered nurse from such states that are contiguous with the Commonwealth in processing their applications for licensure by endorsement through a streamlined process, with a final determination regarding qualification to be made within 20 days of the receipt of a completed application.

B. The Board may issue authorization to practice valid for a period not to exceed three months to a practitioner of the healing arts licensed or certified and in good standing with the applicable regulatory agency in the state, District of Columbia, or Canada where the practitioner resides when the practitioner is in Virginia temporarily to practice the healing arts (i) in a summer camp or in conjunction with patients who are participating in recreational activities, (ii) in continuing education programs, or (iii) by rendering at any site any health care services within the limits of his license or certificate, voluntarily and without compensation, to any patient of any clinic that is organized in whole or in part for the delivery of health care services without charge as provided in § 54.1-106. A fee not to exceed $25 may be charged by the Board for the issuance of authorization to practice pursuant to the provisions of this subsection.

Code 1950, §§ 54-276.5, 54-310; 1954, c. 626; 1958, c. 161; 1960, cc. 333, 334; 1970, c. 69; 1972, c. 15; 1973, c. 529; 1975, c. 508; 1981, c. 300; 1985, c. 303; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 414; 1993, c. 784; 2016, c. 494; 2020, cc. 236, 368; 2023, c. 183.

Repealed by Acts 2013, c. 144, cl. 2.

A. The Board may issue a restricted volunteer license to a practitioner of the healing arts who:

1. Held an unrestricted license issued by the Virginia Board of Medicine or by a board in another state as a licensee in good standing at the time the license expired or became inactive;

2. Is practicing within the limits of his license in accordance with provisions of § 54.1-106; and

3. Attests to knowledge of the laws and regulations governing his branch of the healing arts in Virginia.

B. A person holding a restricted volunteer license under this section shall not be required to complete continuing education for the first renewal of such a license. Subsequent renewals will require continuing education as specified by Board regulation.

C. If a practitioner with a restricted volunteer license issued under this section has not held an active, unrestricted license and been engaged in active practice within the past four years, he shall only practice his profession if a doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine with an active, unrestricted Virginia license reviews the quality of care rendered by the practitioner with the restricted volunteer license at least every 90 days.

D. Such license may be renewed every two years in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Board.

E. A practitioner holding a restricted volunteer license issued pursuant to this section is subject to the provisions of this chapter, the regulations promulgated under this chapter, and the disciplinary regulations which apply to all such practitioners in Virginia.

F. The application fee and the biennial renewal fee for restricted volunteer license under this section shall be no more than one-half the renewal fee for an inactive license in the same branch of the healing arts.

2006, c. 881.

The Board shall adopt regulations for the prescribing of opioids and products containing buprenorphine. Such regulations shall include guidelines for:

1. The treatment of acute pain, which shall include (i) requirements for an appropriate patient history and evaluation, (ii) limitations on dosages or day supply of drugs prescribed, (iii) requirements for appropriate documentation in the patient's health record, and (iv) a requirement that the prescriber request and review information contained in the Prescription Monitoring Program in accordance with § 54.1-2522.1;

2. The treatment of chronic pain, which shall include, in addition to the requirements for treatment of acute pain set forth in subdivision 1, requirements for (i) development of a treatment plan for the patient, (ii) an agreement for treatment signed by the provider and the patient that includes permission to obtain urine drug screens, and (iii) periodic review of the treatment provided at specific intervals to determine the continued appropriateness of such treatment; and

3. The use of buprenorphine in the treatment of addiction, including a requirement for referral to or consultation with a provider of substance abuse counseling in conjunction with treatment of opioid dependency with products containing buprenorphine.

2017, cc. 291, 682.

Of the hours of continuing education required for biennial renewal of licensure, any licensee of the Board of Medicine may be required by the Board to complete up to two hours of Type 1 continuing learning activities or courses in a specific subject area. If the Board designates a subject area for continuing learning activities or courses, it shall publish such requirement no later than January 1 of the first year of the term of the license for which the specific learning activity or course is required.

2023, cc. 418, 419.

Article 3. Licensure of Physicians of Medicine and Osteopathic Medicine, Chiropractors, and Podiatrists.

No person shall practice or hold himself out as qualified to practice medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic, or podiatry without obtaining a license from the Board of Medicine as provided in this chapter.

Code 1950, § 54-281; 1966, c. 657, § 54-281.3; 1970, c. 69; 1988, c. 765; 1996, cc. 937, 980.

The Board may issue a license to practice medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic, and podiatric medicine to any candidate who has submitted satisfactory evidence verified by affidavits that he:

1. Is 18 years of age or more;

2. Is of good moral character;

3. Has successfully completed all or such part as may be prescribed by the Board, of an educational course of study of that branch of the healing arts in which he desires a license to practice, which course of study and the educational institution providing that course of study are acceptable to the Board; and

4. Has completed at least 12 months of satisfactory postgraduate training in one program or institution approved by an accrediting agency recognized by the Board for internships or residency training. At the discretion of the Board, the postgraduate training may be waived if an applicant for licensure in podiatry has been in active practice for four continuous years while serving in the military and is a diplomate of the American Board of Podiatric Surgery. Applicants for licensure in chiropractic need not fulfill this requirement.

In determining whether such course of study and institution are acceptable to it, the Board may consider the reputation of the institution and whether it is approved or accredited by regional or national educational or professional associations, including such organizations as the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education, Liaison Committee on Medical Education, Council on Postgraduate Training of the American Osteopathic Association, Commission on Osteopathic College Accreditation, College of Family Physicians of Canada, Committee for the Accreditation of Canadian Medical Schools, Education Commission on Foreign Medical Graduates, Royal College of Physicians and Surgeons of Canada, or their appropriate subsidiary agencies; by any appropriate agency of the United States government; or by any other organization approved by the Board.

Code 1950, § 54-305; 1952, c. 211; 1954, c. 626; 1972, c. 824; 1975, c. 508; 1982, c. 605; 1985, c. 605; 1988, cc. 89, 132, 765; 2013, c. 144; 2015, c. 525; 2017, cc. 59, 117.

A. The examinations of candidates for licensure to practice medicine and osteopathy shall be those of the National Board of Medical Examiners, the Federation of State Medical Boards, the National Board of Osteopathic Medical Examiners, or such other examinations as determined by the Board. The minimum passing score shall be determined by the Board prior to administration of the examination.

B. The examination of candidates for licensure to practice chiropractic shall include the National Board of Chiropractic Examiners Examinations and such other examinations as determined by the Board. The minimum passing score shall be determined by the Board prior to administration of the examination.

C. The examination of candidates for licensure to practice podiatry shall be the National Board of Podiatric Medical Examiners examinations and such other examinations as determined by the Board. The minimum passing score shall be determined by the Board prior to administration of the examination.

Code 1950, § 54-297; 1958, c. 161; 1966, c. 657; 1970, c. 69; 1973, c. 529; 1978, c. 466; 1982, c. 605; 1985, c. 291; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 818; 2013, c. 144.

Upon completion of an application satisfactory to the Board, applicants shall be granted licenses to practice medicine, osteopathy, chiropractic, or podiatry and each license shall show plainly on its face the school or branch of the healing arts in which the holder thereof is permitted to practice. All licenses shall be attested by the signature of the president and secretary of the Board, respectively.

Code 1950, § 54-309; 1958, cc. 161, 461; 1968, c. 766; 1970, c. 69; 1980, c. 157; 1985, c. 96; 1988, c. 765; 2013, c. 144.

Repealed by Acts 2015, c. 525, cl. 2.

A. The Board may issue to a physician licensed in a foreign country a nonrenewable license valid for a period not to exceed two years to practice medicine while such physician is attending advanced training in an institute for postgraduate health science operated collaboratively by a health care system having hospitals and health care facilities with residency and training programs approved by an accrediting agency recognized by the Board and a public institution of higher education. This temporary license shall only authorize the holder to practice medicine in the hospitals and outpatient clinics of the collaborating health care system while he is receiving training in the institute for postgraduate health science.

B. The Board may issue to a physician previously licensed or otherwise authorized to practice in a foreign country a provisional license to practice medicine valid for a period not to exceed two years to an applicant if the applicant submits evidence acceptable to the Board that the applicant:

1. Has received a degree of doctor of medicine or its equivalent from a legally chartered medical school outside of the United States recognized by the World Health Organization, has been licensed or otherwise authorized to practice medicine in a country other than the United States, and has practiced medicine for at least five years;

2. Has a valid certificate issued by the Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates or other credential evaluation service approved by the Board, provided, however, that the Board may waive such certification at its discretion where the applicant is unable to obtain the required documentation from a noncooperative country;

3. Has achieved a passing score on both Step 1 and Step 2 (Clinical Knowledge) of the United States Medical Licensing Examination;

4. Has entered into an agreement with a medical care facility as defined in § 32.1-3 that provides an assessment and evaluation program designed to develop, assess, and evaluate the physician's nonclinical skills and familiarity with standards appropriate for medical practice in the Commonwealth according to criteria developed or approved by the Board;

5. Will enter a full-time employment relationship with such medical care facility after the Board issues a license pursuant to this subsection; and

6. Has satisfied any other criteria that the Board may require for issuance of a provisional license pursuant to this subsection.

C. An individual who successfully obtains a license pursuant to subsection B and practices under such license until its expiration shall be eligible to apply for a renewable two-year restricted license to practice medicine in a medically underserved area in Virginia as defined in § 32.1-122.5 or a health professional shortage area designated in accordance with the criteria established in 42 C.F.R. Part 5. The Board may issue such renewable license to an applicant if the applicant submits evidence acceptable to the Board that the applicant:

1. Has successfully completed the participating medical care facility's assessment and evaluation program required pursuant to subsection B;

2. Has achieved a passing score on Step 3 of the United States Medical Licensing Examination; and

3. Will enter a full-time employment relationship with a medical care facility.

D. After at least two years of practice under a renewable two-year restricted license issued pursuant to subsection C, an internationally trained physician shall be eligible to apply for a full, unrestricted license to practice medicine.

E. The Board may promulgate regulations for licenses issued pursuant to this section.

1995, c. 230; 2000, c. 788; 2024, c. 464.

Every candidate who is a graduate of a school of a country other than the United States and Canada must, in addition to meeting the other requirements of this article, exhibit to the Board a diploma, license or certificate conferring the full right to practice in that country, or satisfactory evidence showing that the candidate has completed the course of study and passed examinations equivalent to those required for a diploma or license conferring such full right to practice.

1954, c. 626, § 54-306.2; 1988, c. 765.

Repealed by Acts 2017, cc. 59 and 117, cl. 2.

A. After receiving a recommendation from the dean of an accredited medical school which was reached after consultation with the chairmen of the departments in the school or college and having become satisfied that the applicant is a person of professorial rank whose knowledge and special training will benefit the medical school or educational programs sponsored by the medical school in affiliated hospitals, the Board may issue a limited license to practice medicine in the hospitals and outpatient clinics of the school or college or in a hospital formally affiliated with the medical school for purposes of undergraduate or postgraduate medical education to a graduate of a foreign medical school as long as he serves as a full-time or adjunct faculty member. This limited license shall be valid for a period of not more than one year, but may be renewed annually by the Board upon recommendation of the dean of the medical school and continued service as a full-time or adjunct faculty member.

B. After receiving a recommendation from the dean of an accredited medical school which was reached after consultation with the chairmen of the departments in the school or college and having become satisfied that the applicant is a person whose attendance will benefit the medical school, the Board may issue a limited license to practice medicine as a fellow if such fellowship is ranked between the residency level and that of associate professor. This limited license shall only authorize the holder to practice medicine in the hospitals and outpatient clinics of the school while he is a full-time fellow. The license shall be valid for a period of not more than one year, but may be renewed upon recommendation of the dean of the medical school and continuation of the fellowship. A limited license to a foreign graduate engaged in a fellowship shall not be renewed more than twice.

1964, c. 285, § 54-311.1; 1970, c. 69; 1975, c. 508; 1977, c. 586, § 54-311.2; 1988, c. 765; 2003, c. 473.

Upon recommendation by the chief of an approved internship or residency program as defined in this chapter, the Board may issue a temporary annual license to practice medicine, osteopathic medicine, or podiatry to interns and residents in such programs. No such license shall be issued to an intern or resident who has not completed successfully the preliminary academic education required for admission to examinations given by the Board in his particular field of practice. Such license shall expire upon the holder's withdrawal or termination from the internship or residency program. The Board may prescribe such regulations not in conflict with existing law and require such reports from hospitals or other organizations operating an approved graduate medical education program in the Commonwealth as may be necessary to carry out the provisions of this section.

1986, c. 307, § 54-311.3; 1987, c. 44; 1988, c. 765; 2015, c. 525.

A. The Board may issue a retiree license to any doctor of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, or chiropractic who holds an unrestricted, active license to practice in the Commonwealth upon receipt of a request and submission of the fee required by the Board. A person to whom a retiree license has been issued shall not be required to meet continuing competency requirements for the first biennial renewal of such license.

B. A person to whom a retiree license has been issued shall only engage in the practice of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry, or chiropractic for the purpose of providing (i) charity care, as defined in § 32.1-102.1, and (ii) health care services to patients in their residence for whom travel is a barrier to receiving medical care.

2019, c. 379.

Repealed by Acts 1991, c. 102.

Podiatrists shall not perform surgery on patients under a general anesthetic except in a hospital or an ambulatory surgery center accredited by a national accrediting organization granted authority by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services to assure compliance with Medicare conditions of participation pursuant to § 1865 of Title XVIII of the Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. § 1395bb).

1977, c. 127, § 54-275.2; 1988, c. 765; 1999, c. 651; 2013, c. 144.

Repealed by Acts 2001, cc. 186 and 198.

This chapter shall not be construed to prohibit, forbid or prevent (i) any approved school of medicine, osteopathy, podiatry or chiropractic from contracting with any licensed practitioner to teach or participate in a preceptorship program in such college on such terms of compensation as may be mutually satisfactory, which contract may prescribe the extent, if any, to which the practitioner may engage in private practice, or (ii) any institution, hospital, treatment center, sanatorium or other similar agency under the management and control of an agency of the Commonwealth from employing or contracting with any licensed practitioner to furnish professional services in the work of the agency, or to persons entitled to receive such care from the agency.

1958, c. 275, § 54-275.1; 1984, c. 710; 1988, c. 765.

Article 4. Licensure and Certification of Other Practitioners of the Healing Arts.

Repealed by Acts 2000, c. 688, cl. 2.

It shall be unlawful for a person to practice or to hold himself out as practicing as a physician assistant or to use in connection with his name the words or letters "Physician Assistant" or "PA" unless he holds a license as such issued by the Board.

1988, c. 765; 2013, c. 144; 2016, c. 450.

The Board shall establish a testing program to determine the training and educational achievements of the physician assistant or the Board may accept other evidence, such as experience or completion of an approved training program, in lieu of testing and shall establish this as a prerequisite for approval of the licensee's application.

Pending the outcome of the next examination administered by the National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants, the Board may grant provisional licensure to graduates of physician assistants curricula that are approved by the Accreditation Review Commission on Education for the Physician Assistant. Such provisional licensure shall be granted at the discretion of the Board.

1973, c. 529, § 54-281.7; 1984, c. 46; 1988, c. 765; 1997, c. 806; 2013, c. 144; 2016, c. 450.

The Advisory Board on Physician Assistants shall consist of five members to be appointed by the Governor as follows: three members shall be licensed physician assistants who have practiced their professions in Virginia for not less than three years prior to their appointments; one shall be a physician who collaborates with at least one physician assistant; and one shall be a citizen member appointed from the Commonwealth at large. Appointments shall be for four-year terms. Vacancies occurring other than by expiration of term shall be filled for the unexpired term. No person shall be eligible to serve on the Advisory Board for more than two successive terms.

1998, c. 319; 2002, c. 698; 2011, cc. 691, 714; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 210.

Repealed by Acts 1998, c. 319.

A. The Board shall promulgate regulations establishing requirements for licensure as a physician assistant that shall include the following:

1. Successful completion of a physician assistant program or surgical physician assistant program accredited by the Accreditation Review Commission on Education for the Physician Assistant;

2. Passage of the certifying examination administered by the National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants; and

3. Documentation that the applicant for licensure has not had his license or certification as a physician assistant suspended or revoked and is not the subject of any disciplinary proceedings in another jurisdiction.

B. The Board may issue a license by endorsement to an applicant for licensure as a physician assistant if the applicant (i) is the spouse of an active duty member of the Armed Forces of the United States or the Commonwealth, (ii) holds current certification from the National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants, and (iii) holds a license as a physician assistant that is in good standing, or that is eligible for reinstatement if lapsed, under the laws of another state.

C. Except as provided in subsection E, every physician assistant shall practice as part of a patient care team and shall provide care in accordance with a written or electronic practice agreement with one or more patient care team physicians or patient care team podiatrists.

A practice agreement shall include acts pursuant to § 54.1-2952, provisions for the periodic review of patient charts or electronic health records, guidelines for collaboration and consultation among the parties to the agreement and the patient, periodic joint evaluation of the services delivered, and provisions for appropriate physician input in complex clinical cases, in patient emergencies, and for referrals.

A practice agreement may include provisions for periodic site visits by a patient care team physician or patient care team podiatrist who is part of the patient care team at a location other than where the licensee regularly practices. Such visits shall be in the manner and at the frequency as determined by the patient care team physician or patient care team podiatrist who is part of the patient care team.

D. Except as provided in subsection E, evidence of a practice agreement shall be maintained by the physician assistant and provided to the Board upon request. The practice agreement may be maintained in writing or electronically and may be a part of credentialing documents, practice protocols, or procedures.

E. Physician assistants employed by a hospital as defined in § 32.1-123 or employed in (i) a state facility as defined in § 37.2-100 operated by the Department of Behavioral Health and Developmental Services or (ii) a federally qualified health center designated by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services may practice without a separate practice agreement if the credentialing and privileging requirements of the applicable facility include a practice arrangement that incorporates the components of a practice agreement set forth in the provisions of subsection C, including requiring and designating a patient care team physician or podiatrist, and the patient care team requirements of § 54.1-2952. Such physician assistants shall continue to practice as part of a patient care team in collaboration and consultation with patient care team physicians or patient care team podiatrists.

1998, c. 319; 2011, c. 390; 2013, c. 144; 2016, c. 450; 2019, cc. 92, 137, 338; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 210; 2024, c. 116.

The Board shall issue a license to the physician assistant to practice in accordance with § 54.1-2951.1.

1998, c. 319; 2019, cc. 92, 137; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 210.

A. The Board may issue a restricted volunteer license to a physician assistant who meets the qualifications for licensure for physician assistants. The Board may refuse issuance of licensure pursuant to § 54.1-2915.

B. A person holding a restricted volunteer license under this section shall:

1. Only practice in public health or community free clinics approved by the Board;

2. Only treat patients who have no insurance or who are not eligible for financial assistance for medical care; and

3. Not receive remuneration directly or indirectly for practicing as a physician assistant.

C. A physician assistant with a restricted volunteer license issued under this section shall only practice as a physician assistant and perform certain acts which constitute the practice of medicine to the extent and in the manner authorized by the Board if:

1. A patient care team physician or patient care team podiatrist is available at all times to collaborate and consult with the physician assistant; or

2. A patient care team physician or patient care team podiatrist periodically reviews the relevant patient records.

D. A restricted volunteer license granted pursuant to this section shall be issued to the physician assistant without charge, shall expire twelve months from the date of issuance, and may be renewed annually in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Board.

E. A physician assistant holding a restricted volunteer license issued pursuant to this section is subject to the provisions of this chapter and the regulations promulgated under this chapter unless otherwise provided for in this section.

1998, c. 319; 2005, c. 163; 2019, cc. 92, 137.

The provisions of § 54.1-2902 shall not be construed as prohibiting a physician assistant student who is enrolled in a physician assistant education program accredited by the Accreditation Review Commission on Education for the Physician Assistant or its successor agency from engaging in acts that constitute practice as a physician assistant.

2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 210.

A. A patient care team physician or patient care team podiatrist licensed under this chapter may serve on a patient care team with physician assistants and shall provide collaboration and consultation to such physician assistants. No patient care team physician or patient care team podiatrist shall be allowed to collaborate or consult with more than six physician assistants on a patient care team at any one time.

Service as part of a patient care team by a patient care team physician or patient care team podiatrist shall not, by the existence of such service alone, establish or create vicarious liability for the actions or inactions of other team members.

B. Physician assistants may practice medicine to the extent and in the manner authorized by the Board. A patient care team physician or patient care team podiatrist shall be available at all times to collaborate and consult with physician assistants. Each patient care team shall identify the relevant physician assistant's scope of practice and an evaluation process for the physician assistant's performance.

C. Physician assistants appointed as medical examiners pursuant to § 32.1-282 may practice without a written or electronic practice agreement.

D. Any professional corporation or partnership of any licensee, any hospital and any commercial enterprise having medical facilities for its employees that are supervised by one or more physicians or podiatrists may employ one or more physician assistants in accordance with the provisions of this section.

Activities shall be performed in a manner consistent with sound medical practice and the protection of the health and safety of the patient. Such activities shall be set forth in a practice agreement or by the credentialing and privileging practice arrangement requirements of a facility described in subsection E of § 54.1-2951.1 and may include health care services that are educational, diagnostic, therapeutic, or preventive, including establishing a diagnosis, providing treatment, and performing procedures. Prescribing or dispensing of drugs may be permitted as provided in § 54.1-2952.1. In addition, a physician assistant may perform initial and ongoing evaluation and treatment of any patient in a hospital, including its emergency department, in accordance with the practice agreement or the credentialing and privileging practice arrangement requirements of a facility described in subsection E of § 54.1-2951.1, including tasks performed, relating to the provision of medical care in an emergency department.

A patient care team physician or the on-duty emergency department physician shall be available at all times for collaboration and consultation with both the physician assistant and the emergency department physician. No person shall have responsibility for any physician assistant who is not employed by the person or the person's business entity.

E. No physician assistant shall perform any acts beyond those set forth in the practice agreement or authorized as part of the patient care team. No physician assistant practicing in a hospital shall render care to a patient unless the physician responsible for that patient is available for collaboration or consultation, pursuant to regulations of the Board.

F. Notwithstanding the provisions of § 54.1-2956.8:1, a licensed physician assistant who (i) is working in the field of radiology or orthopedics as part of a patient care team, (ii) has been trained in the proper use of equipment for the purpose of performing radiologic technology procedures consistent with Board regulations, and (iii) has successfully completed the exam administered by the American Registry of Radiologic Technologists for physician assistants for the purpose of performing radiologic technology procedures may use fluoroscopy for guidance of diagnostic and therapeutic procedures.

1973, c. 529, §§ 54-281.4, 54-281.5; 1975, cc. 508, 565; 1985, c. 316; 1988, c. 765; 1992, c. 793; 1996, c. 779; 2000, cc. 467, 497; 2002, c. 387; 2005, c. 662; 2008, c. 281; 2012, c. 81; 2014, c. 89; 2015, c. 107; 2016, c. 450; 2019, cc. 92, 137; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 210; 2022, c. 151; 2024, c. 116.

A. In accordance with the provisions of this section and pursuant to the requirements of Chapter 33 (§ 54.1-3300 et seq.), a licensed physician assistant shall have the authority to prescribe controlled substances and devices as set forth in Chapter 34 (§ 54.1-3400 et seq.) and as provided in a practice agreement or by the credentialing and privileging practice arrangement requirements of a facility described in subsection E of § 54.1-2951.1. Such practice agreements shall include a statement of the controlled substances the physician assistant is or is not authorized to prescribe and may restrict such prescriptive authority as deemed appropriate by the patient care team physician or patient care team podiatrist.

B. It is unlawful for the physician assistant to prescribe controlled substances or devices pursuant to this section unless such prescription is authorized by the practice agreement or by the credentialing and privileging practice arrangement requirements of a facility described in subsection E of § 54.1-2951.1 and the requirements in this section.

C. The Board of Medicine, in consultation with the Board of Pharmacy, shall promulgate such regulations governing the prescriptive authority of physician assistants as are deemed reasonable and necessary to ensure an appropriate standard of care for patients.

The regulations promulgated pursuant to this section shall include, at a minimum, (i) such requirements as may be necessary to ensure continued physician assistant competency, which may include continuing education, testing, and any other requirement and shall address the need to promote ethical practice, an appropriate standard of care, patient safety, the use of new pharmaceuticals, and appropriate communication with patients, and (ii) a requirement that the physician assistant disclose to his patients his name, address, and telephone number and that he is a physician assistant. If a patient or his representative requests to speak with the patient care team physician or patient care team podiatrist, the physician assistant shall arrange for communication between the parties or provide the necessary information.

D. This section shall not prohibit a licensed physician assistant from administering controlled substances in compliance with the definition of "administer" in § 54.1-3401 or from receiving and dispensing manufacturers' professional samples of controlled substances in compliance with the provisions of this section.

1992, c. 793; 1997, c. 806; 1999, c. 745; 2001, c. 465; 2003, c. 510; 2007, c. 16; 2016, c. 450; 2019, cc. 92, 137; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 210; 2024, c. 116.

Whenever any law or regulation requires a signature, certification, stamp, verification, affidavit, or endorsement by a physician, it shall be deemed to include a signature, certification, stamp, verification, affidavit, or endorsement by a physician assistant.

2011, c. 468.

The Board may revoke, suspend, or refuse to renew a license to practice as a physician assistant for any of the following:

1. Any action by a physician assistant constituting unprofessional conduct pursuant to § 54.1-2915;

2. Practice by a physician assistant other than as part of a patient care team, including practice without entering into a practice agreement with one or more patient care team physicians or patient care team podiatrists, except as provided in subsection E of § 54.1-2951.1;

3. Failure of the physician assistant to practice in accordance with the requirements of his practice agreement;

4. Negligence or incompetence on the part of the physician assistant or other member of the patient care team;

5. Violation of or cooperation in the violation of any provision of this chapter or the regulations of the Board; or

6. Failure to comply with any regulation of the Board required for licensure of a physician assistant.

1973, c. 529, §§ 54-281.8, 54-281.9; 1985, c. 316; 1988, c. 765; 2013, c. 144; 2016, c. 450; 2019, cc. 92, 137; 2021, Sp. Sess. I, c. 210; 2024, c. 116.

"Respiratory therapist" means a person who has passed the examination for the entry level practice of respiratory care administered by the National Board for Respiratory Care, Inc., or other examination approved by the Board, who has complied with the regulations pertaining to licensure prescribed by the Board, and who has been issued a license by the Board.

1985, c. 347, § 54-281.10; 1988, c. 765; 1998, c. 557; 2015, c. 302.

The Board shall take such actions as may be necessary to ensure the competence and integrity of any person who claims to be a respiratory therapist or who holds himself out to the public as a respiratory therapist or who engages in the practice of respiratory care and to that end the Board shall license persons as respiratory therapists. The Board shall consider and may accept relevant practical experience and didactic and clinical components of education and training completed by an applicant for licensure as a respiratory therapist during his service as a member of any branch of the armed forces of the United States as evidence of the satisfaction of the educational requirements for licensure as a respiratory therapist. The provisions hereof shall not prevent or prohibit other persons licensed pursuant to this chapter from continuing to practice respiratory care when such practice is in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Board.

The Board shall establish requirements for the supervised, structured education of respiratory therapists, including preclinical, didactic and laboratory, and clinical activities, and an examination to evaluate competency. All such training programs shall be approved by the Board.

1990, c. 920; 1998, c. 557; 2011, c. 390; 2015, c. 302.

A. It is unlawful for any person not holding a current and valid license from the Board to practice as a respiratory therapist or to assume the title "Respiratory Therapist" or to use, in conjunction with his name, the letters "RT."

B. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection A, a person who has graduated from an accredited respiratory therapy education program may practice with the title "Respiratory Therapist, License Applicant" or "RT-Applicant" until he has received a failing score on any examination required by the Board for licensure or six months from the date of graduation, whichever occurs sooner. Any person practicing pursuant to this subsection as shall be identified with the title "Respiratory Therapist, License Applicant" or "RT-Applicant" on any identification issued by an employer and in conjunction with any signature in the course of his practice.

1985, c. 347, § 54-281.11; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 920; 1998, c. 557; 2015, c. 302; 2022, c. 764.

A. The Advisory Board on Respiratory Care shall assist the Board in carrying out the provisions of this chapter regarding the qualifications, examination, and regulation of licensed respiratory therapists.

The Advisory Board shall consist of five members appointed by the Governor as follows: three members shall be at the time of appointment respiratory therapists who have practiced for not less than three years, one member shall be a physician licensed to practice medicine in the Commonwealth, and one member shall be appointed by the Governor from the Commonwealth at large. Beginning July 1, 2011, the Governor's appointments shall be staggered as follows: two members for a term of one year, one member for a term of two years, and two members for a term of three years. Thereafter, appointments shall be for four-year terms.

Vacancies occurring other than by expiration of term shall be filled for the unexpired term. No person shall be eligible to serve on the Advisory Board for more than two consecutive terms.

B. The Advisory Board shall, under the authority of the Board, recommend to the Board for its enactment into regulation the criteria for licensure as a respiratory therapist and the standards of professional conduct for holders of licenses.

The Advisory Board shall also assist in such other matters dealing with respiratory care as the Board may in its discretion direct.

1985, c. 347, §§ 54-281.12, 54-281.13; 1988, c. 765; 1990, c. 920; 1998, c. 557; 2011, cc. 691, 714; 2015, c. 302.